Cities Coalition for Circularity
Syllabus: GS2/Government Policy
Context
- India recently launched the Cities Coalition for Circularity C-3 a multi-national alliance fostering collaboration knowledge-sharing and public-private partnerships to advance circular economy principles in urban development.
- This initiative was introduced at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific held in Jaipur.
Key Highlights of the Event
- Pro-Planet People P3 Approach the Prime Minister reaffirmed India’s commitment to sustainability through Reduce Reuse Recycle 3R principles
- CITIIS 2.0 City Investments to Innovate Integrate and Sustain
- MoU signed for urban sustainability projects worth 1800 crore
- Benefits 18 cities across 14 states serving as model urban projects
Background Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum
- Established in 2009 to promote sustainable waste management and circular economy in the Asia-Pacific region.
- Hanoi 3R Declaration 2013-2023 Outlined 33 voluntary goals for transitioning to a resource-efficient and circular economy.
- Global Plastic Treaty Negotiations The forum actively works toward international policies on plastic waste management.
- Cities Coalition for Circularity C-3
ObjectiveC-3 supports urban centers in integrating circular economy principles into urban planning waste management and resource optimization
Key Focus Areas
- Waste Reduction Promoting segregation composting and upcycling
- Resource Efficiency Encouraging reuse and shared material use
- Sustainable Infrastructure Implementing eco-friendly construction and urban design
Significance of C-3 for Urban Sustainability
- Climate Action Reduces waste and emissions combating climate change
- Economic Growth Creates new business opportunities in recycling and waste management, Resilient Cities Reduces reliance on finite resources strengthening urban resilience
- Job Creation Expands employment in green sectors like sustainable construction and
- Renewable energy
- Improved Quality of Life Enhances public health and urban environments
Global and Indian Context
- Internationally Cities like Amsterdam Copenhagen and Tokyo have successfully adopted circular economy strategies under the C-3 framework
- In India Circularity is gaining traction through Swachh Bharat Mission promoting waste segregation and recycling
- Smart Cities Mission integrating sustainability into urban planning
Extended Producer Responsibility EPR holding companies accountable for waste management - GOBAR-Dhan Scheme covering 67.8 percent of districts supporting bio-waste management
Challenges in Implementing Circular Economy in Cities
- Low Awareness and Technical Expertise
- High Initial Investment Costs
- Resistance from Businesses and Consumers
- Weak Policy Support and Implementation
Way Forward
- Policy Enforcement Implement mandatory circular economy regulations
- Investment in R and D Develop sustainable materials and innovative recycling technologies
- Public Awareness Campaigns Educate citizens on circular living practices
Strengthen Public-Private Partnerships Scale up circular economy initiatives through collaboration - C-3 marks a major step in India’s urban sustainability journey driving resource efficiency economic resilience and environmental sustainability in Indian cities and beyond
Consider the following statements regarding the Cities Coalition for Circularity (C-3):
1.It was launched at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific.
2.The initiative focuses on urban sustainability through a linear economy approach.
3.It promotes the adoption of circular economy principles in urban planning, waste management, and resource optimization.
The initiative is led by the World Bank in collaboration with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
C-3 was launched at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific.
It focuses on a circular economy approach, not a linear one.
The initiative is driven by the Government of India, not the World Bank or UNEP
Swavalambini
Syllabus: GS2/ Governance
- The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), in collaboration with NITI Aayog, has launched Swavalambini, a structured initiative aimed at fostering women entrepreneurship across Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).
About Swavalambini
- The programme is designed to cultivate an entrepreneurial mindset among young women and equip them with the necessary resources, skills, and mentorship to build and scale their ventures.
- It follows a stage-wise approach, ensuring structured guidance from business ideation to venture expansion.
Key Features of Swavalambini
- Faculty Development Programme (FDP)
- Aimed at training faculty members from participating Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).
- Involves intensive five-day training sessions to enable faculty to mentor aspiring women entrepreneurs.
- Mentorship and Networking
- Once participants develop their business plans, they are provided with mentorship from industry experts and successful entrepreneurs.
- The programme also facilitates:
- Access to funding opportunities through government schemes and private investors.
- Networking opportunities with established business leaders and professionals to enhance entrepreneurial success.
- Women Entrepreneurship Development Programme (EDP)
- A comprehensive initiative that provides an in-depth understanding of:
- Business Planning – Strategies for market entry and scalability.
- Leadership and Decision-Making Skills – Enhancing managerial capabilities.
- Financial Literacy and Investment Strategies – Understanding capital allocation and risk management.
- Market Research and Competitive Analysis – Equipping entrepreneurs with insights for a data-driven approach to business.
With reference to the Swavalambini Programme, consider the following statements:
1.Swavalambini is a joint initiative of MSDE and NITI Aayog aimed at women entrepreneurship.
2.The programme primarily focuses on providing direct financial assistance to women entrepreneurs for their startups.
3.It includes a Faculty Development Programme (FDP) that trains educators from Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Swavalambini is a collaborative effort between MSDE and NITI Aayog, aimed at boosting women entrepreneurship.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The programme does not provide direct financial aid but facilitates access to funding through various government and private schemes.
Statement 3 is correct. The Faculty Development Programme (FDP) is a crucial component, training faculty members from HEIs to mentor women entrepreneurs.
Cabinet Nod To Revised Waqf Bill (2024)
Syllabus: GS2/Governance
Context:
- The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister of India, has approved the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 with key recommendations from the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC).
- This bill aims to strengthen the regulation, administration, and transparency of Waqf properties while addressing long-standing disputes and inefficiencies in their management.
Background: Waqf & Its Legal Framework
- The Waqf Act, 1995, governs the administration of Waqf properties, which are charitable endowments made by Muslims for religious, educational, or welfare purposes.
- The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, introduces reforms to enhance efficiency, prevent encroachment, and improve governance of these properties.
Key Amendments in the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024
- Strengthening Regulation of Waqf Properties
- Introduces a stricter legal framework to prevent encroachment and misuse of Waqf lands.
- Empowers state authorities to regulate Waqf assets with more clarity.
- Administrative Overhaul
- Assigns the functions of the Survey Commissioner to the District Collector or an officer not below the rank of Deputy Collector for conducting Waqf property surveys.
- Aims to expedite the identification and legal recognition of Waqf lands.
- Enhanced Government Oversight
- Expands central and state government roles in monitoring Waqf Boards.
- Could introduce provisions for better coordination and auditing mechanisms.
- Transparency & Digital Records
- Mandates compulsory digitization of Waqf properties.
- Aims to curb corruption and mismanagement through real-time digital tracking.
Key Changes Recommended by the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC)
- Inclusion of Women & OBC Representation
Mandates two Muslim women members in:
- State Waqf Boards (Section 14)
- Central Waqf Council (Section 9)
- Includes one OBC Muslim representative in State Waqf Boards for broader community representation.
- Separate Waqf Boards for Specific Communities
- State governments may establish separate Waqf Boards for:
- Aghakhani community
- Bohra community
- Aims to address community-specific governance issues.
- Protection of Women’s Inheritance Rights
- Ensures that in family Waqfs (Waqf Alal Aulad), women receive their rightful inheritance share.
- A waqif (donor) can dedicate property only after ensuring female heirs’ legal entitlement.
- Dispute Resolution Mechanism
- District Collectors will adjudicate disputes on whether a property is Waqf or belongs to the government.
- Designed to reduce prolonged legal battles and streamline resolution.
- Technology Integration
- All Waqf properties must be uploaded onto a central digital portal within six months.
- Enhances accountability, monitoring, and accessibility of Waqf records.
Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) – Key Aspects
- Set up by Parliament for detailed scrutiny of specific legislation.
- Composed of members from both Houses, including ruling and opposition parties.
- Dissolved upon completion of its mandate.
Potential Concerns Regarding the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024
- Autonomy of State Waqf Boards
Risk of centralization – may reduce state-level autonomy over Waqf property management.
- Legal & Constitutional Challenges
Possible judicial review if amendments contradict property laws or religious rights.
May raise questions on compensation for landowners affected by Waqf claims.
- Concerns from Minority Communities
Changes may be seen as reducing community control over Waqf assets.
Could trigger opposition from religious groups and political debates.
- Bureaucratic Control vs. Efficiency
While reforms aim to enhance governance, increased bureaucracy could slow down decision-making.
Understanding Waqf & Its Governance Structure
Definition of Waqf
- Under Islamic law, Waqf refers to property dedicated solely for religious or charitable use.
- Cannot be sold, inherited, or repurposed once designated as Waqf.
Central Waqf Council (CWC)
- Established in 1964 under the Ministry of Minority Affairs (formerly under the Waqf Act, 1954).
- Advisory & supervisory body for Waqf management.
- Chairperson: Union Minister for Waqf.
- Members: Not exceeding 20, appointed by the Government of India.
State Waqf Boards – Powers & Functions
- As per Section 40 of the Waqf Act, 1995, State Waqf Boards can:
- Determine whether a property is Waqf or not.
- Identify if a Waqf belongs to Sunni or Shia traditions.
With reference to the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, consider the following statements:
- It mandates the inclusion of two Muslim women in the State Waqf Boards and Central Waqf Council.
- The bill establishes a separate national Waqf Board for Sunni and Shia Muslims.
- The bill empowers District Collectors to adjudicate disputes regarding whether a property is Waqf or belongs to the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The JPC recommended the inclusion of two Muslim women in State Waqf Boards and the Central Waqf Council.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The bill does not establish a separate national Waqf Board for Sunnis and Shias, but allows state-specific Waqf Boards for Aghakhani and Bohra communities.
Statement 3 is correct. The bill grants District Collectors authority to decide Waqf-related disputes.
Challenges Ahead of Women Panchayat Members in India
Introduction
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj has recently identified key reasons why male relatives of elected women representatives (EWRs) often act as proxies, undermining their autonomy in governance.
Despite constitutional provisions for women’s representation, several socio-political and structural challenges persist.
Women’s Participation in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, marked a watershed moment in India’s governance by mandating one-third reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
Over time, several states extended this reservation to 50%, leading to the election of over 1.45 million women representatives at the grassroots level.
Key Challenges Faced by Women Panchayat Members
- Patriarchal Mindset and ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’
Many male family members (husbands, fathers, brothers) act as de facto decision-makers, reducing elected women to mere figureheads.
This practice, known as ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’, is particularly prevalent in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Bihar.
- Lack of Political Training and Awareness
Many EWRs lack knowledge of governance structures, policy-making, and financial planning.
This makes them dependent on male counterparts or bureaucrats for decision-making.
- Resistance from Bureaucracy and Male Counterparts
Bureaucratic bias often results in officials not taking women leaders seriously.
Delays in fund allocation and policy implementation weaken women-led governance.
- Financial Dependence and Economic Disempowerment
Economic dependence on male family members restricts women’s ability to act independently in politics.
Limited access to financial resources and micro-credit schemes further constrains their decision-making power.
- Gender-Based Violence and Intimidation
Women leaders face harassment, verbal abuse, and physical threats from opposing male politicians or dominant caste groups.
In extreme cases, women are coerced into resigning due to social pressure or violence.
- Dual Burden of Work and Household Responsibilities
Women leaders struggle to balance political responsibilities with domestic duties such as childcare and agricultural work.
Societal norms prioritize household responsibilities, limiting women’s engagement in governance.
- Social and Caste-Based Discrimination
Women from marginalized communities (Dalits, Adivasis, and OBCs) face intersectional discrimination in political spaces.
This is particularly severe in states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Haryana.
Benefits of Strengthening Women’s Leadership in PRIs
- Improved Governance and Policy Implementation
Example: In Kudumbashree (Kerala), empowered women leaders played a critical role in poverty alleviation and welfare schemes.
- Gender-Responsive Policies and Better Representation
Example: In Nagaland, women-led Panchayats focused on reducing gender-based violence and improving maternal health services.
- Economic Empowerment and Financial Independence
Example: In Bihar, EWRs successfully implemented micro-loan schemes, boosting rural women’s entrepreneurship.
- Reduction in ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’
Example: In Rajasthan, capacity-building programs helped reduce male dominance in Panchayat decision-making.
Key Government Initiatives for Women in PRIs
- National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) – SHG Linkages
Promotes financial independence and leadership among rural women through Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
- Mahila Sabhas (Women’s Gram Sabha Meetings)
Held before general Gram Sabha meetings to prioritize women’s issues related to health, education, and safety.
- Panchayat Mahila Evam Yuva Shakti Abhiyan (PMEYSA)
Focuses on capacity-building for elected women representatives, enhancing decision-making and leadership skills.
- Mission Shakti (2022)
Comprises Sambal (safety & security) and Samarthya (economic empowerment) schemes to strengthen women’s participation in governance.
- Women’s Leadership Development Programs
Government and NGOs conduct training and mentorship programs to empower women in governance.
Way Forward: Strengthening Women’s Political Participation
- Capacity-Building and Leadership Training
Expanding Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) to ensure every EWR receives governance training.
- Strict Implementation of Laws Against Proxy Representation
Enforcing legal provisions to prevent male relatives from controlling elected women.
Conducting awareness campaigns to educate women about their rights.
- Financial Empowerment and Direct Access to Resources
Women leaders should have direct control over Panchayat funds without bureaucratic hurdles.
Expanding microfinance and economic initiatives to enhance women’s independence.
- Extending Women’s Reservation Beyond PRIs
While PRIs have 33-50% reservation, similar provisions should be implemented at legislative levels.
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023, which mandates one-third reservation in Lok Sabha & State Assemblies, must be implemented effectively post-delimitation.
- Strengthening Women’s Support Networks
Expanding the National Federation of Elected Women Representatives (NFEWR) across all states.
- Ensuring Safety and Protection for Women Leaders
Strict legal measures against harassment, violence, and political intimidation.
Establishing fast-track courts for cases related to violence against women in politics.
Conclusion
Despite remarkable progress in women’s political participation, systemic barriers continue to limit their effectiveness in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Addressing these challenges requires a multi-dimensional strategy involving legal enforcement, capacity-building, financial empowerment, and social transformation.
By empowering elected women representatives and ensuring their full participation in governance, India can move toward gender equality and inclusive development.
With reference to the ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’ in India, consider the following statements:
1.It refers to the practice where male relatives exercise de facto control over elected women representatives in PRIs.
2.The phenomenon is legally prohibited under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
3.This practice is most commonly observed in urban municipal corporations rather than rural governance structures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’ is a well-documented issue where male relatives, especially husbands, exercise real power while women hold the official position.
Statement 2 is correct. While the 73rd Amendment mandates one-third (now 50% in many states) reservation for women, it does not explicitly mention this issue. However, proxy representation violates constitutional principles of effective representation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The issue is primarily seen in rural Panchayat Raj Institutions (PRIs), not urban local bodies.
Article 136 of the Constitution
Syllabus: GS 2/Governance
- Vice-president Jagdeep Dhankhar, speaking at a conference on arbitration, raised concerns about the misuse of Article 136 of the Constitution.
- Article 136 grants the Supreme Court the discretionary power to grant special leave to appeal against any judgment, decree, or order issued by any court or tribunal in India.
- This provision enables the Supreme Court to hear appeals even when no other legal provision guarantees an automatic right of appeal.
- It applies to both civil and criminal cases, but the Supreme Court is not obligated to accept every appeal filed under this article.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 136:
1.It allows the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal against decisions of any court or tribunal in India.
2.It applies exclusively to constitutional and civil cases.
3.The Supreme Court is obligated to entertain every petition filed under Article 136.
4.It serves as an extraordinary jurisdiction rather than a regular appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only
Answer:(b)
Explanation: Article 136 grants the Supreme Court discretionary power to hear appeals from any court or tribunal. However, it applies to both civil and criminal matters (not just constitutional and civil cases), and the Supreme Court is not obligated to accept all petitions under this provision. It functions as an extraordinary power rather than a routine appellate mechanism.
Punjab’s Success with AIF Scheme
Subject: Government Schemes
- Punjab has emerged as the leading state in executing the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme, having fully utilized its allocated ₹4,713 crore and subsequently securing an additional ₹2,337 crore from the central government.
- This proactive financial deployment underscores Punjab’s commitment to strengthening agricultural infrastructure and minimizing post-harvest losses.
Understanding the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)
- Launched in July 2020, the AIF is a medium to long-term financing initiative aimed at facilitating post-harvest agricultural infrastructure development. Its primary objectives include:
- Reduction of post-harvest losses by bolstering storage and processing capabilities.
- Enhancement of rural agrarian infrastructure to improve efficiency and market access.
- Financial empowerment of stakeholders through concessional credit and interest subvention.
Project Eligibility and Expansion
- Initially, the AIF prioritized primary post-harvest management
- However, it has now been expanded to support secondary-level integrated processing.
Key focus areas include:
- Upgrading facilities for grading, waxing, and packaging of agricultural produce.
- Encouraging value-added processing such as juice extraction and jam production.
- Establishing cold chains and warehouses to enhance storage capabilities.
Eligible Beneficiaries Under AIF
The AIF scheme is accessible to a diverse range of stakeholders, ensuring a broad-based impact. Eligible applicants include:
- Individual farmers and agripreneurs
- Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies (PACS)
- Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs)
- Start-ups and agribusiness enterprises
- Public-Private Partnerships (PPP) projects
This inclusive approach maximizes the reach and effectiveness of the scheme.
Punjab’s Exemplary Performance Under AIF
- As of February 2025, Punjab has sanctioned 21,740 projects, the highest among all Indian states.
- This milestone was achieved over a year ahead of the March 2026 deadline.
- Other leading states, such as Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, are also actively participating, but Punjab remains at the forefront in terms of project approvals and fund utilization.
Spectrum of Projects Funded
The AIF has financed a wide array of agricultural infrastructure projects, demonstrating its adaptability and relevance across sectors. Some notable categories include:
- Cashew processing units
- Oil extraction and refining facilities
- Flour mills and food processing plants
- Cold storage and warehouse units
- Solar-powered agricultural infrastructure
Financial Framework and Benefits
The financial structure of the AIF is designed to provide affordable credit access with the following features:
- Interest subvention of 3% on eligible loans.
- Maximum interest rate capped at 9% for loans up to ₹2 crore.
- Flexible repayment period of up to 7 years.
- Integration with other state and central subsidies, enhancing financial feasibility for stakeholders.
Socio-Economic Impact on Farmers and Rural Development
- Approximately 71% of AIF beneficiaries are individual farmers, ensuring that the scheme significantly influences grassroots agricultural communities. Moreover:
- 67% of sanctioned projects have costs below ₹25 lakh, signifying a strong focus on small-scale, farmer-led initiatives.
- The emphasis on localized agricultural infrastructure supports employment generation and economic upliftment of rural areas.
Consider the following statements regarding the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF):
1.The AIF was launched in July 2020 to provide long-term financing for agricultural infrastructure projects.
2.It focuses on both pre-harvest and post-harvest agricultural infrastructure development.
3.The fund offers an interest subvention of 3% on eligible loans.
4.The maximum interest rate under the scheme is capped at 7% for loans up to ₹2 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The AIF was launched in July 2020 to provide financial support for developing agricultural infrastructure.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The AIF only supports post-harvest infrastructure such as cold storage, warehouses, and processing units. It does not focus on pre-harvest activities like irrigation or seed development.
Statement 3 is correct: The scheme offers a 3% interest subvention to beneficiaries, reducing the financial burden on them.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The maximum interest rate under AIF is capped at 9%, not 7%, for loans up to ₹2 crore.
Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan
Subject: Government Schemes
- The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) is a flagship social security initiative launched by the Government of India in the Interim Budget of 2019.
- The scheme is strategically designed to offer a guaranteed pension to unorganised sector workers, a category that constitutes a significant portion of India’s workforce yet remains largely excluded from formal pension systems.
Significance of PM-SYM in India’s Socio-Economic Context
- The unorganised sector is the backbone of the Indian economy, engaging workers in occupations such as street vending, domestic work, construction labor, and agricultural activities.
- This sector contributes approximately 50% to India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP). By the end of 2024, around 51 crore unorganised workers had registered on the e-Shram portal, highlighting the pressing need for robust social security interventions.
Key Features of the PM-SYM Scheme
- Guaranteed Pension: Provides a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month post-retirement, after the age of 60.
- Government Contribution: The government matches the worker’s contribution on a 1:1 basis, enhancing affordability and financial sustainability.
- Voluntary Participation: Workers self-select their contribution level, making the scheme flexible and inclusive.
- Family Pension Provision: In case of the subscriber’s demise, the spouse receives 50% of the pension amount as a family pension.
- Exit Provisions: Allows premature withdrawal under specified conditions, ensuring adaptability to changing financial circumstances.
- Simplified Enrolment Process: Workers can enroll through Common Service Centres (CSCs) or the Maandhan portal, reducing administrative hurdles.
- Fund Management: The scheme is administered by the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), ensuring long-term financial viability and trustworthiness.
Eligibility and Exclusion Criteria
To ensure targeted implementation, PM-SYM applies the following eligibility conditions:
- Eligibility Conditions:
- Age Bracket: Applicants must be between 18 and 40 years old.
- Income Ceiling: Monthly earnings should not exceed ₹15,000.
- Employment Type: Only those engaged in unorganised sector jobs can apply.
Exclusion Criteria:
- Individuals covered under Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), or the National Pension System (NPS).
- Income taxpayers are ineligible.
- Workers already benefiting from other government pension schemes cannot enroll.
Administrative and Institutional Framework
The Ministry of Labour and Employment is the nodal agency responsible for administering PM-SYM. It works in collaboration with:
- LIC (for pension disbursal and fund management).
- Common Service Centres (CSCs) (for on-ground enrolment and facilitation).
- State and district-level authorities (for awareness campaigns and grievance redressal).
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) scheme, consider the following statements:
1.The scheme was introduced in 2019 to provide social security to unorganised sector workers.
2.PM-SYM offers a guaranteed pension of ₹3,000 per month post-retirement.
3.Government contributions are fixed at 50% of the total pension corpus, regardless of worker participation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: PM-SYM was launched in 2019 to provide a pension scheme for unorganised sector workers.
Statement 2 is correct: It guarantees a fixed pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The government does NOT contribute a fixed 50% of the total corpus; rather, it matches the worker’s individual contribution (1:1 ratio).
Poverty Estimation in India
Overview: A study by economists Surjit S Bhalla and Karan Bhasin highlights a significant decline in poverty and inequality in India over the past decade. The findings are based on government household expenditure data from 2022-23 and 2023-24.
Key Findings
- Poverty Reduction: The poverty rate at the $3.65 PPP threshold has dropped from 52% in 2011-12 to 15.1% in 2023-24, while extreme poverty (below $1.90 PPP) is now under 1%.
- Consumption Growth: The greatest improvements have been observed in the bottom three deciles of the population, reflecting record increases in consumption.
- Declining Inequality: The Gini coefficient, a measure of income inequality, has decreased from 37.5 in 2011-12 to 29.1 in 2023-24, indicating a more equitable distribution of resources.
- Global Comparison: Among large, fast-growing economies, India’s reduction in inequality stands out. Only Bhutan and the Dominican Republic have demonstrated better performance, albeit with smaller populations.
- Need for a New Poverty Line: Existing poverty lines are outdated. The study suggests adopting a benchmark based on the bottom 33rd percentile or relative poverty measures similar to those used in Europe.
- Official Poverty Estimates: NITI Aayog has not yet revised poverty estimates, which were last set by the Tendulkar and Rangarajan committees.
Poverty Line Estimation in India
- Tendulkar Committee (2009): Defined the poverty line based on monthly per capita expenditure—₹33 per day in urban areas and ₹27 per day in rural areas. The national poverty threshold for 2011-12 was ₹816 per capita per month for rural areas and ₹1,000 for urban areas.
- Rangarajan Committee (2014): Suggested higher thresholds—₹47 per day in urban areas and ₹30 per day in rural areas—but the government did not adopt this methodology, continuing to use the Tendulkar poverty line.
- International Benchmark: The World Bank defines extreme poverty as living on less than $2.15 per day, adjusted for inflation and price differences across countries.
Challenges in India’s Poverty Measurement
- Inadequate Thresholds: Current poverty lines—₹965 per month in urban areas and ₹781 in rural areas—are considered too low to reflect essential living standards.
- Outdated Methodology: The approach relies on calorie intake rather than modern consumption patterns and living costs.
- Limited Consideration of Essential Needs: The poverty line does not adequately account for increasing private expenditures on health, education, and housing.
- State-Level Disparities: A uniform poverty line across states does not consider variations in the cost of living, leading to inaccurate assessments.
- Lack of Periodic Updates: The official poverty line has not been revised to align with inflation and changing economic conditions, reducing its relevance.
Recommendations for Improvement
- Regular Revisions: Update the poverty line periodically to reflect inflation and evolving consumption patterns.
- Broader Criteria: Expand the definition of poverty to include essential non-food expenditures such as healthcare, education, and housing.
- Regional Adjustments: Implement state-specific poverty lines to better account for regional cost-of-living variations.
- Modernized Approach: Shift from outdated calorie-based metrics to holistic indicators that consider nutrition, well-being, and overall living standards.
A revised and comprehensive approach to poverty measurement will ensure that social welfare policies are more effective and inclusive, addressing the actual needs of India’s population.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent study on poverty and inequality in India:
- The study indicates that India’s extreme poverty (below $1.90 PPP) is currently estimated to be around 5%.
- The Gini coefficient has increased from 29.1 in 2011-12 to 37.5 in 2023-24, reflecting rising inequality.
- The study suggests a new poverty benchmark based on the bottom 33rd percentile of the population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: (c) 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The study finds that extreme poverty (below $1.90 PPP) is now under 1%, not 5%.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gini coefficient has actually decreased from 37.5 in 2011-12 to 29.1 in 2023-24, indicating a reduction in inequality.
- Statement 3 is correct: The study suggests a new poverty line based on the bottom 33rd percentile, recognizing the outdated nature of existing poverty lines.
National Waterways (Construction of Jetties / Terminals) Regulations, 2025
- The Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways (MoPSW) has introduced a new set of regulations, formulated by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), aimed at streamlining the development and operation of India’s inland waterways network.
Key Highlights of the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025
- These regulations are designed to enhance private sector participation in the development of inland waterway terminals.
- Any entity, including private players, seeking to develop or operate an inland waterway terminal must obtain a No Objection Certificate (NoC) from IWAI.
- The regulations apply to both new and existing terminals, covering both permanent and temporary
- Permanent terminals can be operated for their entire lifetime by the developer.
- Temporary terminals will be granted an initial five-year operational term, with an option for extensions.
- Developers and operators bear full responsibility for technical design, construction, and ensuring adequate access to the terminal, aligning with their business objectives.
Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI): A Brief Overview
- Established: 1986 under the Inland Waterways Authority of India Act, 1985.
- Primary Role: Development, maintenance, and regulation of National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016.
- Headquarters: Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
Significance of Inland Waterways
- Reducing Logistics Costs
- India’s logistics costs account for 14% of GDP, significantly higher than the global average of 8-10%.
- Enhancing waterway infrastructure will help bring these costs down, making trade more competitive.
- Decongestion of Transport Networks
- Shifting cargo movement to inland waterways will ease congestion on road and rail networks, reducing traffic bottlenecks.
- Eco-Friendly Mode of Transport
- Lower fuel consumption and reduced emissions make inland waterways a more sustainable transport solution.
- This aligns with India’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and climate action commitments.
- Economic Growth & Trade Expansion
- The volume of cargo transported via National Waterways has increased from 18 million tonnes to 133 million tonnes in FY 2023-24.
- Improved inland waterway infrastructure will boost trade, especially in regions near National Waterways.
Government Initiatives for Inland Waterways Development
- Jalvahak Scheme
- Provides direct incentives to cargo owners using inland waterways for distances exceeding 300 km.
- Offers reimbursement of up to 35% of total operating costs incurred during cargo transportation.
- Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP)
- Aims to develop National Waterway-1 (NW-1) with modern infrastructure and terminals.
- Sagarmala Project
- Focuses on the integration of inland waterways with coastal shipping and major ports.
- Freight Village Development
- Establishes logistics hubs near key waterways to enhance multimodal transport connectivity.
Conclusion
The National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025 represent a significant policy shift aimed at boosting private sector participation, reducing logistics costs, and promoting eco-friendly cargo transport. With the rapid digitization of waterway operations and strong government policy support, these reforms will play a crucial role in making India’s inland waterways a viable and competitive transport network.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025:
- Private players are required to obtain a license from the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) to develop inland waterway terminals.
- Permanent terminals are granted operational rights for a maximum of 20 years.
- Temporary terminals are granted an initial operational period of five years, with a possibility of extension.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Private players need to obtain a No Objection Certificate (NoC) from IWAI, not a license from MoPSW.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Permanent terminals can be operated for their entire lifetime without a fixed limit like 20 years.
Statement 3 is correct: Temporary terminals are granted an initial five-year term with an option for extension.
Impact of GeM on India’s Economy
Syllabus: GS3/ Economy
- The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has transformed public procurement in India, benefiting both government buyers and small businesses.
What is GeM?
- The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is an online platform established for public procurement in India.
- Launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, its goal is to improve transparency, efficiency, and speed in government procurement processes.
- Objective
GeM’s primary objective is to create an open and transparent procurement platform for government buyers.
Core Principles of GeM
- The platform is based on several key principles, ensuring streamlined, fair, and effective procurement.
Key Features of GeM
SWAYATT: This initiative aims to enhance ease of doing business by providing direct market linkages for startups, women entrepreneurs, Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs), Self Help Groups (SHGs), and youth to participate in public procurement.
Startup Runway 2.0: This feature offers startups a chance to showcase their innovative products and services to government buyers, facilitating their engagement in public procurement.
Dedicated Marketplace for Startups: GeM has created a specific marketplace category for startups, allowing them to list products and services, regardless of their DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) certification.
Womaniya: This initiative highlights products made by women entrepreneurs and women self-help groups (WSHGs), empowering women-led businesses in the procurement process.
Collaboration with MSMEs: GeM works closely with stakeholders from the MSME sector, with a particular focus on promoting entrepreneurs from Scheduled Caste (SC) and Scheduled Tribe (ST) communities.
SARAS Collection: The SARAS Collection showcases a curated range of handcrafted goods, including handicrafts, handloom textiles, office décor, and personal care products, all sourced from SHGs across India.
Impact of GeM
- Cost Savings: By promoting competitive pricing, GeM has contributed to significant reductions in procurement costs for the government.
- Wider Market Access: The platform has opened up opportunities for vendors from all corners of the country, including rural areas, to participate in government procurement.
- Boost to MSMEs & Startups: Around 50% of GeM orders come from MSMEs, supporting the growth of small businesses and fostering a more inclusive economy.
Conclusion
GeM’s strategic initiatives have greatly contributed to improving the ease of doing business and boosting participation in government procurement. As it continues to evolve, GeM remains dedicated to its vision of creating a sustainable, transparent, and competitive marketplace, advancing India’s progress toward inclusive and effective public procurement practices.
The Womaniya initiative on Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is primarily aimed at:
A) Enabling direct procurement of goods and services exclusively from women entrepreneurs without competitive bidding.
B) Establishing a dedicated procurement quota for women-led enterprises across all government departments.
C) Facilitating the showcasing and procurement of products crafted by women entrepreneurs and Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to enhance their market access.
D) Offering subsidized loans and financial incentives to women entrepreneurs participating in public procurement.
Answer: C
Explanation:
- The Womaniya initiative under the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is designed to promote the participation of women entrepreneurs and women-led SHGs by facilitating the listing and procurement of their products and services on the platform.
- This initiative aims to bridge the gender gap in public procurement but does not involve exclusive tenders, mandatory procurement quotas, or financial grants.
- The focus is on market linkage and visibility rather than providing direct financial support or bypassing competitive processes.
- This question tests the aspirant’s ability to grasp the nuanced objectives of government initiatives and distinguish between affirmative action policies and preferential financial assistance—a common area of confusion in public policy.
India’s Path to a High-Income Economy
Subject: Economy
A recent World Bank report titled “Becoming a High-Income Economy in a Generation” highlights that India needs an average annual growth rate of 7.8% over the next 22 years to achieve high-income country (HIC) status by 2047. The report emphasizes the need for ambitious reforms and their effective implementation to meet this goal.
Key Highlights of the Report
- India’s Economic Growth Journey
- India’s share in the global economy has doubled from 6% in 2000 to 3.4% in 2023, making it the 5th largest economy.
- Before the pandemic, India’s economy grew at an average annual rate of 6.7%, second only to China among major economies.
- Target: High-Income Status by 2047
- Current Status: India is classified as a lower-middle-income country, with a GNI per capita of USD 2,540 (2023).
- Goal: To reach HIC status, India’s GNI per capita must increase 8 times by 2047.
- In 2023, the World Bank classified high-income countries as those with a GNI per capita above USD 14,005, while upper-middle-income nations fall between USD 4,516 – 14,005.
Growth Scenarios for India
Scenario | Growth Rate (Real GDP) | Outcome |
Slow Reforms | Below 6% | India remains upper-middle income, falling short of HIC status. |
Business as Usual | 6.6% | India improves but does not reach high-income status. |
Accelerated Reforms | 7.8% | India achieves high-income status by 2047. |
- Only a few countries—Chile, Romania, Poland, Czech Republic, and Slovakia—have transitioned to high-income status within 20 years. In contrast, Brazil, Mexico, and Turkey remain stuck in the upper-middle-income category, making India’s goal ambitious yet achievable.
- Challenges to Achieving High-Income Status
Declining Investment Rate
- Investment-to-GDP ratio peaked at 8% in 2008 but has fallen to 27.5% in 2024.
- Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Challenges
- India’s FDI-to-GDP ratio is 6%, much lower than Vietnam (5%) and China (3.1%).
- Low Labor Force Participation
- India’s Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is 55% (2023), lower than China (65.8%).
- Female Labor Force Participation (FLFP) has risen to 7% in 2023-24, but remains below the global benchmark of over 50%.
Challenges in Job Creation
- 45% of India’s workforce is still in agriculture, a sector with low productivity (disguised unemployment).
- The share of manufacturing in total employment is just 11%, and modern market services account for only 7%—far lower than East Asian economies.
- 73% of India’s workforce is in informal jobs (compared to 7% in other emerging economies).
Declining Trade Openness
- Exports and imports account for 46% of GDP (2023), down from 56% in 2012.
- High tariffs and non-tariff barriers restrict trade expansion.
- Weak Integration into Global Value Chains (GVCs)
- While India has made gains in mobile phone exports, its overall manufacturing sector lags behind other economies.
- Services sector (IT & BPO) remains strong, but manufacturing needs significant improvements.
- Key Reforms Needed to Achieve HIC Status
Boosting Investment
- Increase investment rate from 33.5% to 40% of GDP by 2035.
- Strengthen financial sector regulations to improve credit flow.
- Enhance MSME access to formal credit.
- Improve bankruptcy resolution and bad debt recovery mechanisms.
Creating More and Better Jobs
- Raise labor force participation to match economies like Vietnam (73%) and the Philippines (60%).
- Encourage private sector investment in job-rich sectors like agro-processing, hospitality, transportation, and care economy.
- Expand skilled workforce and improve access to finance.
- Strengthen modern manufacturing and high-value services.
- Boosting Global Trade Competitiveness
- Invest in export-oriented sectors and integrate into GVCs.
- Formalizing the Workforce
- Simplify labor laws to reduce informal employment and promote better wage conditions.
- Strengthening Human Capital and Innovation
- Improve secondary school enrollment and vocational training to meet industry demands.
- Expand R&D investments in Artificial Intelligence (AI), Biotechnology, and Clean Energy.
- Understanding the Middle-Income Trap
- What is the Middle-Income Trap?
- A concept introduced by the World Bank (2007), referring to economies that grow rapidly but fail to reach high-income status.
- It applies to countries with a GNI per capita between USD 1,000 – USD 12,000 (2011 prices).
- Countries in this trap face challenges such as rising labor costs, weak innovation, income inequality, and overreliance on specific industries.
- Is India at Risk of Falling into the Middle-Income Trap?
- Income Inequality: The top 10% of India’s population holds 57% of national income, while the bottom 50% holds just 13%.
- Tax Structure: High GST and corporate tax cuts disproportionately benefit the wealthy, widening the income gap.
- Stagnant Wages & Inflation: Declining or stagnant wages, high household debt, and low savings make India vulnerable to this trap.
- Conclusion
- India’s goal of becoming a high-income country by 2047 is ambitious but achievable. To meet this target, the country must accelerate reforms in investment, job creation, trade competitiveness, and innovation while addressing income inequality and labor market challenges. Without significant reforms, India risks remaining in the upper-middle-income category, like Brazil, Mexico, and Turkey.
Which of the following statements regarding India’s growth trajectory, as per the World Bank report “Becoming a High-Income Economy in a Generation,” is/are correct?
- India’s Gross National Income (GNI) per capita must increase by nearly six times by 2047 to achieve high-income country (HIC) status.
- Among major economies, India had the fastest economic growth in the two decades before the pandemic.
- The “Accelerated Reforms” scenario predicts that India must sustain a GDP growth rate of at least 8% to reach HIC status by 2047.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
- a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) None of the above
Answer: c) 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: India’s GNI per capita must increase nearly 8 times (not six) from USD 2,540 (2023) to cross the USD 14,005 threshold for high-income status.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India had the second-fastest economic growth before the pandemic, not the fastest. China had the highest growth rate.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The report states that 7.8% GDP growth is required, not at least 8%.
Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA)
Syllabus: GS 3/Economy
- The Supreme Court has criticized the functioning of the Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA), remarking that it has become a “rehabilitation centre for former bureaucrats.”
- The statement reflects concerns over inefficiency, bureaucratic inertia, and lack of enforcement in ensuring transparency and protection for homebuyers.
About the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 (RERA)
- Legislative Domain: While land and colonization fall under the State List (Entry 18 of List II, Schedule VII), real estate regulation was brought under the purview of the Union Parliament to ensure consumer protection and industry transparency.
Objective: RERA is a landmark reform in India’s real estate sector, aimed at eliminating project delays, financial mismanagement, and consumer exploitation.
Regulatory Mechanism: The Act established State Real Estate Regulatory Authorities (S-RERA) for overseeing registration, compliance, and dispute resolution.
Key Provisions of RERA
- Establishment of Regulatory Bodies
State Real Estate Regulatory Authority (S-RERA):
- Mandated to register all real estate projects and maintain a public database for consumer transparency.
- Ensures developers, homebuyers, and agents adhere to statutory norms.
- Promotes sustainable and affordable housing by enforcing compliance.
Real Estate Appellate Tribunal:
- Functions as an adjudicating authority for appeals against RERA decisions.
- Ensures expeditious dispute resolution in the real estate sector.
- Financial Safeguards for Homebuyers
Escrow Account Provision:
- Developers are required to deposit 70% of buyers’ payments in an escrow account, ensuring funds are used exclusively for project construction.
Advance Payment Restriction:
- Builders cannot collect more than 10% of the total property cost as an advance payment without a legally binding written agreement.
- Protection Mechanisms for Homebuyers
Carpet Area-Based Pricing:
- Property prices are determined only on the basis of the net usable floor area (carpet area), eliminating misleading pricing based on the super built-up area.
Mandatory Timely Completion of Projects:
- Developers must adhere to project timelines, with penalties imposed for any unjustified delays.
Structural Defect Liability:
- Builders are legally accountable for five years to fix any structural defects in the property post-handover.
- Penal Provisions & Legal Compliance
Equal Penal Interest:
- Both developers and homebuyers are subject to equal penal interest for delays in payment or possession.
Stringent Penal Action:
- Developers face up to 3 years imprisonment for violations.
- Real estate agents and homebuyers may face up to 1 year imprisonment for non-compliance with tribunal rulings.
The regulation of land and colonization falls under the State List in the Indian Constitution. However, Parliament enacted the RERA Act, 2016. Under which of the following Constitutional provisions was the Act justified?
- Article 246 (Seventh Schedule): It allows Parliament to legislate on matters related to interstate trade and commerce that may affect real estate transactions.
- Article 254: Parliament can enact laws on a State subject if it believes uniformity is necessary for national economic growth and consumer protection.
- Entry 6 of the Union List: It provides Parliament with the authority to regulate “Industries declared by law to be under Union control.”
- Doctrine of Repugnancy: If a Central law conflicts with a State law, the Central law prevails under certain conditions.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer: b) 1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 246 and the Seventh Schedule allow Parliament to regulate commercial activities with inter-state implications, justifying RERA’s applicability.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 254(2) permits Parliament to legislate on a State subject for national uniformity in consumer protection.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Real estate is not an industry under Entry 6 of the Union List.
Statement 4 is correct: Doctrine of Repugnancy ensures that if a State law conflicts with a Central law, the Central law prevails.
Bose Metal
Syllabus: GS3/Science and Technology
Recent Discovery: A team of researchers from China and Japan has identified strong indications that niobium diselenide (NbSe₂) can exhibit properties characteristic of a Bose metal.
Understanding Bose Metals:
Bose metals are materials that, below a critical temperature, form Cooper pairs electron pairs bound by attractive forces without transitioning into a superconducting state.
Unlike conventional metals, which either become insulators or superconductors at absolute zero, Bose metals maintain conductivity between these two extremes.
Key Characteristics
- Formation of Cooper Pairs: Electrons in Bose metals pair up but do not form a superconducting long-range coherence.
- Intermediate Conductivity: Their electrical resistance lies between that of superconductors (zero resistance) and insulators (infinite resistance).
- Challenge to Traditional Theories: Existing models suggest disordered metals should either lose conductivity (becoming insulators) or exhibit superconductivity, but Bose metals defy this expectation.
Potential Applications
- Quantum Computing: Bose metals could aid in exploring novel quantum states and contribute to the development of qubits.
- Condensed Matter Physics: Offers insights into quantum phase transitions and disordered metallic states.
- Advanced Electronics: May lead to innovations in electronic devices with unique conductive properties.
- Superconductivity Research: Helps in understanding the transition mechanisms
Challenges and Limitations
- Lack of Practical Applications: Currently remains a theoretical concept with no direct industrial implementation.
- Experimental Difficulties: Requires precise control over temperature, material thickness, and external magnetic fields for observation.
- Unclear Classification: Ongoing debate on whether Bose metals represent a distinct quantum state or merely a transitional phase between superconductors and insulators.
- This discovery contributes to the broader understanding of quantum materials and their unconventional conductive behaviours, potentially paving the way for future ad advancements in material science and electronics.
Consider the following statements regarding Bose metals:
- They exhibit zero electrical resistance below a critical temperature.
- They form Cooper pairs but do not achieve long-range superconducting coherence.
- Bose metals challenge the traditional classification of disordered metals into either superconductors or insulators.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Unlike superconductors, Bose metals do not exhibit zero electrical resistance. Instead, they maintain conductivity but do not transition into a fully superconducting state.
- Statement 2 is correct. They form Cooper pairs, but these pairs do not achieve coherence over long distances, preventing superconductivity.
- Statement 3 is correct. Bose metals defy traditional theories that suggest a disordered metal should either become an insulator or a superconductor at absolute zero.
Giloy
- Research on Giloy (Tinospora cordifolia) has surged by 376.5% in the last decade, with a notable rise in interest post-COVID-19 due to its immune-boosting, antiviral, and adaptogenic properties.
- Giloy: The Ayurvedic Wonder Herb
- Botanical Name: Tinospora cordifolia.
- Common Name:
Traditional Significance:
- In Sanskrit, called “Amrita”, meaning “herb of immortality”.
- Used extensively in Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani medicine.
Habitat & Cultivation:
- A native tropical plant of India.
- Thrives in plains, foothills, and semi-arid regions.
- Major cultivating states: Bihar, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh.
Bioactive Compounds:
- Contains alkaloids, steroids, glycosides, and flavonoids.
- Medicinal properties exist in its stem, root, and whole plant.
Medicinal Benefits & Therapeutic Uses
- Immunomodulatory Effects: Enhances white blood cell (WBC) production, boosting immune response.
- Antiviral Properties: Studied for its potential in combating COVID-19 and viral infections.
- Anti-diabetic Action: Helps regulate blood glucose levels, beneficial for Type-2 diabetes.
- Anti-inflammatory Effects: Useful in treating arthritis, joint pain, and chronic inflammatory diseases.
- HepatoprotectiveBenefits: Supports liver health by reducing oxidative stress.
- Antioxidant & Stress-Relieving Properties: Functions as an adaptogen, reducing mental and physical stress.
- Gastroprotective Effects: Aids in treating gastritis, acidity, and digestive disorders.
Consider the following pairs related to the bioactive compounds in Giloy and their effects:
Compound | Effect |
Alkaloids | Anti-inflammatory properties |
Glycosides | Regulate blood sugar levels |
Steroids | Enhance immune function |
Flavonoids | Increase cholesterol levels |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
- Alkaloids (Correctly matched) → Exhibit anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects.
- Glycosides (Correctly matched) → Contribute to blood sugar regulation, beneficial for diabetes management.
- Steroids (Correctly matched) → Play a role in immune enhancement and anti-cancer properties.
- Flavonoids (Incorrectly matched) → Instead of increasing cholesterol, they act as antioxidants, reducing oxidative stress.
Tiangong Space Station
- China and Pakistan have signed a cooperation agreement to train Pakistani astronauts for missions aboard the Tiangong Space Station.
- This marks a significant milestone in Pakistan’s space ambitions as it strengthens bilateral space cooperation with China.
- Pakistan’s Space Collaboration with China
- Pakistan has historically maintained close strategic ties with China and has sought to enhance its space capabilities by aligning with Chinese space initiatives.
- This agreement is expected to increase Pakistan’s participation in space exploration and human spaceflight.
- Tiangong Space Station – China’s Orbital Outpost
Key Features:
- Completion Year: 2022
- Orbital Altitude: Up to 450 km (280 miles) above Earth.
- Capacity: Can house a maximum of three astronauts for extended durations.
- Designed Operational Lifespan: At least 15 years.
- Significance of Tiangong:
- China’s first long-term space station, intended to rival the International Space Station (ISS).
- Advances scientific research in microgravity, material sciences, and life sciences.
- Enhances China’s self-reliance in space exploration after exclusion from the ISS program (led by the US and its allies).
- What is a Space Station?
- Definition & Functionality:
- A space station is a large, habitable spacecraft that orbits Earth and serves as a research laboratory in microgravity conditions.
- It allows for long-duration human space missions without returning to Earth.
- Space stations are typically modular, meaning they can be expanded or upgraded over time.
Notable Space Stations:
- International Space Station (ISS):
- A joint project involving NASA, Roscosmos, ESA, JAXA, and CSA.
- Conducts biological, physical, and technological research in microgravity.
- Tiangong Space Station:
- China’s independent space station, expanding China’s role in global space research.
Consider the following statements regarding the Tiangong Space Station:
- Tiangong was completed in 2020 and has an operational lifespan of 10 years.
- It is designed to accommodate a maximum of six astronauts at a time.
- Unlike the ISS, which is multinational, Tiangong is operated solely by China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Tiangong was completed in 2022, not 2020, and has a lifespan of at least 15 years.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. It can house only three astronauts, not six.
- Statement 3 is correct. Unlike the multinational ISS, Tiangong is entirely operated by China.
Amazon Unveils ‘Ocelot’ Quantum Computing Prototype Chip
Context:
- Amazon Web Services (AWS) has introduced ‘Ocelot’, its first prototype quantum computing chip, with claims of reducing quantum error correction costs by up to 90%. This development marks a significant step toward addressing the long-standing challenge of quantum error instability.
Ocelot Chip: Key Features
- The Ocelot chip incorporates a two-layer integrated silicon architecture, optimizing coherence and computational efficiency. The major components include:
- Five Data Qubits (Cat Qubits): These qubits store quantum states essential for computation and are designed to mitigate error propagation.
- Five Buffer Circuits: Integrated stabilization mechanisms that enhance qubit coherence and prevent quantum state degradation.
- Four Additional Qubits: Dedicated to error detection and correction, ensuring computational fidelity.
Tantalum-based Oscillators:
- Utilization of superconducting Tantalum improves performance, reducing quantum decoherence.
Quantum Error Correction: Addressing Qubit Instability
- Unlike classical computing, which operates on binary bits (0s and 1s), quantum computing relies on qubits, which leverage quantum superposition to exist in multiple states simultaneously.
- However, qubits are highly prone to environmental perturbations, including:
- Thermal fluctuations
- Vibrational disturbances
- Electromagnetic interference
- To counter these issues, AWS’s Cat qubits, inspired by Schrödinger’s cat thought experiment, intrinsically stabilize quantum states. This innovation reduces computational overhead required for traditional quantum error correction.
With reference to AWS’s Ocelot chip, consider the following statements:
- The Ocelot chip employs a three-layer integrated silicon design for enhanced qubit coherence.
- Cat qubits in Ocelot function by leveraging quantum superposition and error resilience mechanisms.
- The oscillators in the Ocelot chip are made from Niobium, a common superconducting material in quantum processors.
- AWS’s approach to quantum error correction in Ocelot eliminates the need for external error detection circuits.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 2 and 4 only
- 1, 3, and 4
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
- The Ocelot chip uses a two-layer (not three-layer) silicon design for optimizing qubit stability. Cat qubits leverage quantum superposition and intrinsic error correction mechanisms to improve computational efficiency. The oscillators in Ocelot are made from Tantalum, not Niobium. The Ocelot chip still requires external qubits for error detection, although its design significantly reduces computational costs.
Link of High levels of Selenium in Wheat to Hair Loss
Syllabus: GS 2/Health
- A joint investigation by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) identified elevated selenium levels in the blood and hair of affected individuals.
- The contamination was traced to wheat supplied through Public Distribution System (PDS) outlets.
- Selenium: An Essential Yet Potentially Toxic Element
Nature & Occurrence:
- Selenium is an essential trace mineral found in various foods and dietary supplements.
- It does not occur in pure elemental form but is a byproduct of metal sulfide ore refining.
- Exists in soil and groundwater in inorganic forms, which plants absorb and convert into organic compounds like selenocysteine and selenium methionine.
Biological Role:
- Selenium is crucial for human health, being a key component of 25 selenoproteins, including:
- Thioredoxin reductases (involved in cell growth and DNA repair).
- Glutathione peroxidases (protects against oxidative damage).
- It plays a vital role in thyroid hormone metabolism, DNA synthesis, reproduction, and immune defense.
Industrial Applications of Selenium
- Glassmaking: Used to remove color from glass and create red-colored glass and enamels.
- Electronics: Previously used in photocells, light meters, and solar cells (now largely replaced by silicon-based devices).
- Pigments: Adds a red hue to ceramics, paints, and plastics.
- Rubber Industry: Enhances rubber’s durability and resistance through vulcanization.
- Selenium Toxicity (Selenosis): A Growing Concern
Causes:
- Excessive selenium intake via diet, supplements, or environmental exposure.
- Contaminated food or water sources can lead to high selenium levels in the body.
Symptoms:
- Hair loss, a key symptom of selenium toxicity, was observed in individuals from Shegaon Taluka, where foodborne exposure is suspected as the primary cause.
- The findings underscore the need for strict quality monitoring in PDS supplies to prevent toxic exposure and safeguard public health.
Consider the following statements regarding selenium:
- It is primarily found in its pure elemental form in nature.
- It is an essential trace mineral required for human biological functions.
- Selenium compounds play a role in thyroid hormone metabolism and oxidative stress regulation.
- The human body can synthesize selenium independently without dietary intake.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only
Answer:(b)
Explanation: Selenium is not found in pure elemental form in nature but as a byproduct of metal sulfide ore refining. It is essential for human health, contributing to thyroid hormone metabolism and oxidative stress regulation. However, the body cannot synthesize selenium independently and must obtain it through diet.
Gene Therapy for Maple Syrup Urine Disease
Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology
- Understanding Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) MSUD is a rare genetic metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency in the Branched-Chain Alpha-Keto Acid Dehydrogenase (BCKDH) enzyme complex.
This enzyme complex is essential for the breakdown of three branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs):
- Leucine
- Isoleucine
- Valine
- A malfunction or absence of the BCKDH complex results in the accumulation of toxic metabolites, leading to severe neurological impairment and, in extreme cases, death.
Key Features of MSUD:
- Distinctive Odor: The disorder is named after the characteristic sweet, maple syrup-like smell in the urine of affected individuals.
Current Treatment Options:
- Strict Dietary Management (low BCAA intake).
- Liver Transplantation, which provides a permanent enzymatic source for BCAA metabolism.
Breakthrough in Gene Therapy
- Scientists have developed a gene replacement therapy to target two forms of classic MSUD using an adeno-associated viral (AAV) vector. This technique delivers functional copies of the BCKDHA and BCKDHB genes to correct the enzyme deficiency.
Key Outcomes of the Therapy:
- Successfully restored metabolic function in knockout cell models.
- Offers a potential curative approach, reducing dependency on strict dietary restrictions and liver transplants.
Which of the following statements correctly describes Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)?
- It is a metabolic disorder caused by an enzyme deficiency in the breakdown of branched-chain amino acids.
- It results in a characteristic sweet odor in urine due to toxic metabolite accumulation.
- The condition can be completely cured through strict dietary management alone.
- It primarily affects the metabolism of essential fatty acids.
Which is the Correct Option?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer:(a)
Explanation: MSUD is a disorder of branched-chain amino acid metabolism, not essential fatty acids. While dietary management helps control the condition, it does not cure MSUD—severe cases may require liver transplantation or gene therapy.
Ethical Guidelines for Integrative Medicine Research in India
Subject: Chemistry
- The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has introduced an addendum to its existing ethical guidelines for biomedical research, focusing on Research in Integrative Medicine (RIM).
- This initiative seeks to harmonize traditional Ayush systems with contemporary medical science under a structured ethical framework.
- The primary goal is to ensure scientific rigor, patient safety, and credibility in integrative medical practices while advancing holistic healthcare solutions.
Understanding Integrative Medicine (IM)
- Integrative Medicine (IM) is a comprehensive medical approach that synthesizes conventional medical treatments with evidence-based traditional therapies.
- It emphasizes personalized patient care, targeting overall well-being rather than disease-specific interventions.
- With growing global interest in such multidisciplinary approaches, a well-defined ethical and regulatory structure is imperative to ensure scientific validation and acceptance.
Significance of Ethical Guidelines in RIM
The new ethical framework introduced by ICMR is intended to:
- Encourage evidence-based research in Integrative Medicine while maintaining scientific integrity.
- Uphold patient rights by ensuring ethical research practices and informed consent mechanisms.
- Standardize clinical investigations integrating Ayush and allopathic medicine to prevent pseudoscientific claims.
Key Measures Under the Addendum
The addendum incorporates several structural modifications to enhance the ethical governance of RIM:
- Ethics Committees (ECs) must now mandatorily include two Ayush experts, with at least one being external to the institution.
- Strengthened informed consent protocols ensure participants are explicitly informed about the nature and scope of Integrative Medicine interventions.
- Regulatory adherence to existing laws such as the Drugs & Cosmetics Act (1940) and the New Drugs & Clinical Trial Rules (2019) is required.
- Ayush-approved medicines will be exempt from additional safety trials, while non-codified traditional formulations must undergo rigorous regulatory scrutiny before clinical use.
Oversight by Ethics Committees
- Ethics Committees are entrusted with ensuring compliance with ethical norms in Integrative Medicine research.
- Their role extends beyond regulatory enforcement to critical evaluation of scientific merit in RIM studies.
- The inclusion of Ayush experts fortifies the multidisciplinary assessment process, ensuring a balanced scientific and traditional knowledge-based review.
Future Implications for Healthcare
- The integration of modern and traditional medicine under a structured ethical framework could transform personalized treatment methodologies.
By fostering scientifically validated interdisciplinary approaches, the initiative could:
- Improve treatment outcomes while minimizing adverse effects.
- Strengthen global credibility of India’s traditional medical systems.
- Establish a precedent for ethical governance in multi-system healthcare research.
- The ICMR’s revised ethical framework is a critical step toward institutionalizing Integrative Medicine, ensuring its scientific legitimacy while protecting patient interests.
With reference to the recent ICMR addendum on Research in Integrative Medicine (RIM), consider the following statements:
- The addendum mandates the inclusion of at least two Ayush experts in Ethics Committees overseeing Integrative Medicine research.
- Research involving Ayush-approved medicines requires additional safety trials under the New Drugs & Clinical Trial Rules (2019).
- The new ethical framework explicitly discourages any form of integration between modern and traditional medicine due to regulatory concerns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: The addendum requires Ethics Committees to include two Ayush experts, ensuring specialized oversight in RIM research. Ayush-approved medicines do not require additional safety trials, but non-codified traditional medicines do. The ethical framework supports integration rather than discouraging it.
Gut Health and Multiple Sclerosis
Subject Biology
Understanding Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
- Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a multifaceted neuroinflammatory disorder wherein aberrant immune responses target the central nervous system (CNS), leading to demyelination and neuronal degeneration.
- Epidemiological data reveal that MS affects approximately one million individuals in the United States and over 2.8 million globally.
- Clinical manifestations are heterogeneous, encompassing fatigue, motor dysfunction, and cognitive impairment.
- While the precise etiology remains elusive, a confluence of genetic predisposition and environmental triggers orchestrates disease onset and progression.
Genetic and Environmental Contributions
- Twin studies provide compelling evidence of the genetic-environmental nexus in MS pathogenesis.
- The concordance rate among monozygotic twins stands at 25%, whereas dizygotic twins exhibit a mere 2% risk.
- This disparity underscores the substantial role of environmental determinants, such as viral infections, vitamin D levels, and gut microbiota composition, in modulating disease susceptibility.
The Gut Microbiota’s Role in MS
- Emerging research underscores the pivotal role of the gut microbiome in neuroimmunological dynamics.
- Dysbiosis—perturbation of microbial homeostasis—has been implicated in immune dysregulation and neuroinflammation.
- Comparative metagenomic analyses reveal distinct microbial signatures in MS patients relative to healthy counterparts, illuminating potential mechanistic links.
Microbial Signatures and Disease Modulation
- Studies indicate an increased prevalence of Blautia species in MS patients, juxtaposed with a diminished presence of Prevotella, a genus associated with mucosal integrity and immunomodulation.
- Murine models elucidate a critical interplay between Bifidobacterium and Akkermansia; an imbalance between these bacterial populations appears to correlate with disease severity.
- Experimental paradigms employing antibiotic-treated mice further substantiate these findings.
- Mice colonized with Blautia exhibit exacerbated MS-like symptoms,
- whereas those administered Bifid bacterium demonstrate attenuated neuroinflammatory responses, reinforcing the hypothesis that gut microbiota composition critically influences disease pathophysiology.
Clinical Implications and Future Directions
- The Bifidobacterium-to-Akkermansia ratio emerges as a potential biomarker for disease severity, offering a novel avenue for diagnostic refinement.
- Moreover, therapeutic strategies targeting microbial modulation—such as probiotics, fecal microbiota transplantation (FMT), and dietary interventions—may hold promise in ameliorating disease burden.
- Understanding the nuanced mechanisms through which commensal bacteria transition from beneficial to pathogenic states remains imperative for developing precision medicine approaches in MS management
Consider the following statements regarding Multiple Sclerosis (MS):
- MS is solely a genetically inherited disorder with negligible environmental influence.
- The disease is characterized by demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system.
- MS symptoms are uniform across all affected individuals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
- MS is not solely a genetic disorder, as evidenced by twin studies indicating environmental contributions. Symptoms vary widely among individuals, disproving statement 3.
Solar Maximum
Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology
- NASA has launched the Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere (PUNCH) Mission, strategically aligning with the solar maximum phase of the Sun’s 11-year cycle.
- The mission aims to enhance our understanding of how the Sun’s outer atmosphere (corona) transitions into the solar wind—a phenomenon crucial for space weather forecasting.
What is the Solar Cycle?
- The Sun’s magnetic field behaves like a giant bar magnet with defined north and south poles.
- This magnetic field is generated by the movement of electrically charged particles within the Sun’s plasma.
- Every ~11 years, the Sun undergoes a complete magnetic pole reversal, switching its north and south poles.
- This phenomenon is termed the solar cycle and is a fundamental driver of solar activity, sunspots, and space weather phenomena.
Solar Maximum: The Peak of Solar Activity
Characteristics of Solar Maximum:
- Represents the most active phase of the solar cycle.
- Marked by increased solar radiation, enhanced energy emissions, and a surge in sunspot numbers.
- Occurs when the Sun’s magnetic field completely flips, initiating significant geomagnetic and atmospheric changes.
Duration of Solar Maximum:
- Typically lasts between 1 to 2 years.
- The time between two consecutive solar maxima can vary between 9 to 13 years.
Impacts of Solar Maximum on Earth
- Solar Flares & Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs):
- The Sun releases bursts of magnetic energy, triggering large-scale solar storms.
- CMEs can send high-energy particles and radiation towards Earth, disrupting space-based and terrestrial systems.
- Disruptions to Electrical Infrastructure:
- Intense geomagnetic storms can induce voltage surges in power grids, potentially leading to large-scale blackouts.
- Satellite & Communication Failures:
- Heightened solar radiation affects satellite electronics, causing malfunctions in communication, navigation, and GPS systems.
- Spacecraft operating in low Earth orbit become more vulnerable to drag and radiation damage.
NASA’s PUNCH Mission: A Step Toward Solar Wind Understanding
What is the PUNCH Mission?
- PUNCH (Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere) is a NASA Small Explorer (SMEX) mission.
- It aims to study how the Sun’s corona evolves into the solar wind that pervades the heliosphere.
Key Features of the PUNCH Mission:
- Utilizes a constellation of four small satellites in Sun-synchronous, low Earth orbit.
- Captures continuous, deep-field, 3D imagery of the solar corona to track the origins and dynamics of the solar wind.
- Helps improve space weather forecasting, crucial for protecting astronauts, satellites, and power grids from solar disturbances.
Which of the following statements regarding the solar cycle is/are correct?
- The solar cycle is driven by the reversal of the Sun’s magnetic field approximately every 11 years.
- The solar maximum phase is characterized by a decrease in sunspot activity and lower solar energy output.
- The magnetic field of the Sun is generated by the movement of charged particles in its plasma.
- The time interval between two consecutive solar maxima is precisely 11 years and never varies.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
- a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Correct Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Sun’s magnetic poles reverse every ~11 years, defining the solar cycle.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Solar maximum is a phase of high sunspot activity and increased solar emissions.
Statement 3 is correct: The Sun’s magnetic field originates from the motion of electrically charged particles in its plasma.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The duration of the solar cycle is not fixed and can range between 9 to 13 years.
Rise in India’s R&D Spending
Syllabus: GS3/ S&T
- India’s Gross Expenditure on Research and Development (GERD) has witnessed a 2x increase over the last decade, escalating from ₹60,196 crore (2013-14) to ₹1,27,381 crore.
- However, despite this growth, India’s GERD-to-GDP ratio (~0.7%) remains significantly lower than that of China (2.4%) and the United States (3.1%), highlighting the need for greater investment, policy reforms, and private sector involvement.
DISHA Program: A Catalyst for Technological Advancement
- The DISHA Program (Developing Innovations, Successful Harnessing, and Adoption) aims to position India as a knowledge-driven economy by promoting disruptive technologies across multiple disciplines.
- It fosters a synergistic ecosystem where faculty members, researchers, and students contribute to cutting-edge innovations.
- In alignment with this vision, the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) was introduced to bridge the gap between science, humanities, and social sciences, ensuring a holistic research environment that drives interdisciplinary collaboration.
Major Government Initiatives to Strengthen R&D
- National Research Foundation (NRF):
- Objective: To increase research funding, facilitate public-private partnerships, and boost scientific and technological progress.
- Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
- Encourages entrepreneurship and grassroots-level innovation, particularly among students, startups, and professionals.
- Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme:
- Provides financial incentives to industries investing in high-tech manufacturing and R&D-driven sectors.
- Startup India & Make in India:
- Strengthen India’s startup ecosystem by offering policy incentives, financial support, and regulatory ease for homegrown innovations.
Challenges in India’s R&D Ecosystem
- Low Private Sector Participation
- In India, the private sector accounts for only ~36% of GERD.
- In contrast, developed economies have a private sector R&D contribution exceeding 60-70%.
- Lack of risk appetite, high capital costs, and weak industry-academia collaboration impede private R&D investment.
- Insufficient R&D Funding
- While GERD has grown in absolute terms, its percentage of GDP (~0.7%) remains low compared to:
- China (2.4%)
- United States (3.1%)
- South Korea (4.5%)
- Low public expenditure on fundamental research limits India’s global scientific output and patent filings.
- Weak University-Industry Collaboration
- Limited commercialization of academic research due to:
- Bureaucratic delays in funding approvals.
- Lack of robust technology-transfer mechanisms.
- Minimal industry-driven R&D initiatives in universities.
- This reduces patenting, technology diffusion, and global competitiveness.
Which of the following statements regarding India’s Gross Expenditure on Research and Development (GERD) is/are correct?
- India’s GERD has more than doubled in the last decade but remains below 1% of GDP.
- India’s private sector accounts for over 60% of GERD, aligning with developed nations.
- China and the United States invest a higher percentage of GDP in R&D compared to India.
- India’s public sector remains the dominant contributor to research funding.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 2, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: b) 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: India’s GERD doubled but remains ~0.7% of GDP, much lower than global leaders.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s private sector contributes only ~36%, far lower than in developed economies (60-70%).
Statement 3 is correct: China (2.4% of GDP) and the USA (3.1% of GDP) invest significantly more in R&D than India.
Statement 4 is correct: Public sector entities dominate R&D funding in India due to limited private participation.
Exercise Desert Hunt 2025
2025 Syllabus: GS3/ Defence
- The Indian Air Force conducted Exercise Desert Hunt 2025, a Tri-Service Special Forces exercise, at Air Force Station Jodhpur, Rajasthan.
Participating Special Forces Units
- Para (Special Forces) – Indian Army
- Marine Commandos (MARCOS) – Indian Navy
- Garud (Special Forces) – Indian Air Force
Objective & Strategic Importance:
- The exercise aimed to enhance interoperability, coordination, and synergy among the three elite forces, ensuring swift and effective responses to emerging security threats.
- It focused on joint operational preparedness, fostering seamless collaboration in multi-domain warfare
Key Operations & Tactical Drills
- The participating forces engaged in high-intensity combat drills, including:
- Airborne insertion behind enemy lines for rapid force deployment.
- Precision strikes on high-value targets.
- Hostage rescue operations under simulated conflict conditions.
- Counter-terrorism operations in complex terrains.
- Combat free falls demonstrating stealth and infiltration capabilities.
- Urban warfare scenarios replicating real-time threats in built-up areas.
- The exercise rigorously tested the combat readiness of the Special Forces under realistic battlefield conditions, reinforcing their ability to operate in hostile environments.
Consider the following statements regarding Exercise Desert Hunt 2025:
- It was conducted as a bilateral military exercise between India and France.
- It focused on enhancing joint operational capability among Special Forces of the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force.
- The exercise involved counter-terrorism, hostage rescue, and precision strike operations.
- It was hosted at the Indian Air Force’s frontline base in Rajasthan.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer:(b)
Explanation: Exercise Desert Hunt 2025 was a domestic tri-service exercise and not a bilateral military drill (eliminating Statement 1). The exercise focused on joint operations among Indian Special Forces and was conducted at Air Force Station Jodhpur, Rajasthan.
EU Mobilises €800 Billion for Defence and Ukraine
subject: Defence
- In a landmark policy shift, European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen unveiled a comprehensive €800 billion defence initiative, reflecting Europe’s evolving security doctrine amidst geopolitical volatility.
- This announcement follows the United States’ suspension of military aid to Ukraine, signaling a potential recalibration of Washington’s foreign policy priorities and necessitating a more self-reliant European defence architecture.
- This initiative underscores the European Union’s (EU) strategic imperative to mitigate vulnerabilities exposed by the Ukraine-Russia war, while concurrently addressing long-standing concerns over its military preparedness.
- The plan is scheduled for deliberation at the March 7, 2025, Brussels Summit, where EU member states will assess its feasibility, financial structuring, and geopolitical ramifications.
Structural Framework: Key Components of the Defence Initiative
The proposal is structured around five pivotal elements, each designed to strengthen European defence capabilities while ensuring fiscal sustainability and financial cohesion within the EU framework.
- Revision of Fiscal Rules for Defence Expenditure
- The plan proposes relaxing EU fiscal constraints, allowing member states to surpass the existing 3% GDP defence expenditure cap.
- This amendment could potentially liberate up to €650 billion, significantly bolstering military budgets.
- Establishment of a €150 Billion Defence Loan Facility
- A dedicated loan mechanism will be introduced to finance targeted military investments, facilitating defence-industrial expansion and technological advancements.
- Reallocation of Cohesion Funds for Defence Initiatives
- The plan permits repurposing EU cohesion funds—originally allocated for socioeconomic development in less-developed regions—towards military infrastructure and capability enhancement.
- This reallocation reflects a strategic pivot in EU financial planning, prioritizing security over traditional developmental imperatives.
- Creation of a Savings and Investment Union for Defence
- A unified financial ecosystem will be developed to streamline capital inflows into the European defence-industrial sector, fostering cross-border defence collaborations.
- Expansion of the European Investment Bank’s (EIB) Mandate
- The EIB will be empowered to finance military and police equipment investments, ensuring greater fiscal support for security-related procurements.
However, direct funding for offensive weaponry and ammunition remains prohibited, reflecting EU’s normative constraints on military financing.
Implementation Bottlenecks and Strategic Challenges
- Despite its ambitious scope, the practical realization of the initiative remains uncertain, due to multiple institutional and geopolitical constraints:
- Approval Complexities – The plan requires consensus among EU member states, necessitating extensive diplomatic negotiations and legislative approvals.
- Delayed Battlefield Impact – Given the bureaucratic intricacies of EU policymaking, immediate military support for Ukraine is unlikely, raising concerns over short-term defence gaps.
- Divergent National Interests – While countries like Germany, Italy, and Greece endorse the proposal, some Nordic and Eastern European states remain cautious about its long-term efficacy.
Strategic Implications and the Future of European Defence
- Shift Towards Strategic Autonomy – The initiative signals a long-term EU trajectory towards defence self-sufficiency, reducing its dependence on NATO and U.S. security guarantees.
- Potential Geopolitical Realignment – If successfully implemented, this framework could reshape Europe’s defence posture, impacting transatlantic security dynamics and EU’s global strategic standing.
- Outcome of the Brussels Summit – The March 7, 2025, Brussels Summit will serve as a litmus test for the initiative’s viability, determining the extent of European unity on defence modernization.
With reference to the European Commission’s €800 billion defence initiative, consider the following statements:
- It proposes an exemption from existing fiscal constraints, allowing defence spending beyond the 3% GDP limit.
- The plan enables redirection of EU cohesion funds towards military expenditure.
- The European Investment Bank (EIB) will be permitted to finance weapon and ammunition procurements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct – The plan relaxes fiscal rules, allowing EU nations to surpass the existing 3% GDP defence expenditure ceiling.
Statement 2 is correct – It authorizes repurposing EU cohesion funds for military objectives, deviating from their traditional socioeconomic development focus.
Statement 3 is incorrect – While the EIB’s mandate is expanded to include defence and security investments, direct funding for weapons and ammunition remains restricted.
National Board for Wildlife
Syllabus: GS3/Environment
- The Prime Minister chaired the 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) at Gir National Park, Gujarat, focusing on wildlife conservation strategies, dolphin population estimation, and human-wildlife conflict mitigation.
- India’s first riverine dolphin population estimation was released, recording 6,327 river dolphins across 28 rivers in 8 states. Uttar Pradesh had the highest population, followed by Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam.
- Key wildlife conservation initiatives included the foundation stone laying of the National Referral Centre for Wildlife in Junagadh, Gujarat, to serve as a hub for wildlife health and disease management.
- To address human-wildlife conflicts, a Centre of Excellence will be established at the Wildlife Institute of India’s SACON (Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History) in Coimbatore.
- Rapid Response Teams will be equipped with advanced technology for conflict mitigation.
- Cheetah reintroduction plans were also discussed, with new sites proposed in Gandhisagar Sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh, and Banni Grasslands, Gujarat, aiming to strengthen reintroduction and habitat restoration efforts.
- The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) was originally established as the Indian Board for Wildlife in 1952 and later reconstituted in 2022.
- The Prime Minister serves as the Chairperson (Ex-officio), and the Minister of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the Vice-Chairperson.
- The 47-member committee comprises government officials, conservationists, ecologists, environmentalists, and military personnel.
- NBWL’s approval is required for construction of tourist lodges in protected areas, alteration of Protected Area (PA) boundaries, destruction or diversion of wildlife habitats, and de-notification of Tiger Reserves.
- Gir National Park, located in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat, was declared a sanctuary in 1965 and upgraded to a national park in 1975.
- It is the only place outside Africa where lions exist in the wild. The Asiatic lion population has increased from fewer than 200 in the late 1960s to 674 as per the 2020 Census.
- The park is home to 40 species of mammals and 425 species of birds.
- Regarding India’s first riverine dolphin estimation, a multiple-choice question was posed.
- The study recorded over 6,000 river dolphins, conducted across 28 rivers spanning 8 states. The initiative aligns with Project Dolphin, which aims to conserve freshwater and marine dolphins in India.
The correct answer is that Uttar Pradesh has the highest river dolphin population, making the correct statements the estimation being across 28 rivers in 8 states and alignment with Project Dolphin.
With reference to India’s first riverine dolphin estimation, consider the following statements:
- The study recorded over 6,000 river dolphins across multiple states, with Bihar having the highest population.
- The estimation was conducted across 28 rivers spanning 8 states.
- The initiative aligns with the conservation efforts under ‘Project Dolphin’ launched by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Uttar Pradesh, not Bihar, has the highest river dolphin population.
Statement 2 is correct. The study covered 28 rivers across 8 states.
Statement 3 is correct. The estimation aligns with Project Dolphin, which aims at conserving freshwater and marine dolphins in India.
First Comprehensive Estimate of River Dolphins in India
Syllabus: GS3/ Conservation, Species in News
India’s first nationwide survey of river dolphins, conducted under Project Dolphin (launched in 2020), estimated a total population of 6,327 dolphins, primarily inhabiting the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus river basins.
Key Findings
India hosts two species of freshwater dolphins:
- Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) – Population: 6,324
- Indus River Dolphin (Platanista minor) – Population: 3
- The highest recorded dolphin populations are in Uttar Pradesh, followed by Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam.
- Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica)
Characteristics
- Functionally blind, relying on echolocation for hunting.
- Locally known as “Susu” due to the sound it produces while breathing.
- An exclusively freshwater species, inhabiting the Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins across India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
Threats
- Habitat destruction, pollution, and hunting.
- Conservation Status
- Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
- CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species): Appendix I
- CMS (Convention on Migratory Species): Appendix I
- IUCN Red List: Endangered
- National & State Recognition
- Declared India’s National Aquatic Animal in 2009.
- Recognized as the State Aquatic Animal of Assam.
- Indus River Dolphin (Platanista minor)
Characteristics
- Functionally blind, navigating using
- Locally called “Bhulan” in the Indus region.
- Found primarily in the Indus River system (Pakistan), with a small population in India’s Beas River.
Threats
- Habitat fragmentation due to dam construction.
- Restricted range leading to population isolation.
- Conservation Status
- Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
- CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species): Appendix I
- IUCN Red List: Endangered
State Recognition
- Declared the State Aquatic Animal of Punjab.
- Other Dolphin Species in India
- Irrawaddy Dolphin (Orcaella brevirostris), found in Chilika Lake, Odisha (Asia’s largest brackish water lagoon).
- Unlike river dolphins, Irrawaddy dolphins are not blind and have a bulbous head with no beak.
- IUCN Red List Status: Critically Endangered.
Importance of River Dolphins
- Indicators of Freshwater Ecosystem Health: Their presence reflects the overall health of rivers.
- Ecological Role:
- Help in carbon sequestration, flood regulation, and water purification.
- Maintain ecological balance by controlling fish populations.
- Cultural & Economic Significance:
- Ganges and Indus River Dolphins hold religious and cultural value in several communities.
Promote sustainable tourism and local economic development.
With reference to India’s first river dolphin survey, consider the following statements:
- The survey estimated over 6,000 dolphins, primarily in the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus river basins.
- The highest dolphin population was recorded in Bihar, followed by Uttar Pradesh.
- The survey was conducted under Project Dolphin, which was launched in 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The survey estimated 6,327 dolphins, found mainly in the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus river basins.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The highest population was recorded in Uttar Pradesh, followed by Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam.
- Statement 3 is correct. The survey was conducted under Project Dolphin, which was launched in 2020.
Gharials (Gavialis Gangeticus)
Why in News?
- The Madhya Pradesh government released 10 gharials into the Chambal River at the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary in Morena as part of conservation efforts.
About Gharials (Gavialis gangeticus)
- Etymology: The name “Gharial” is derived from the Hindi word “Ghara” (pot), referring to the bulbous nasal protuberance (narial excrescence) found exclusively in adult males.
Sexual Dimorphism:
- Males and females differ significantly in size and appearance.
- Only males possess the distinctive nasal growth.
- Dietary Specialization:
- Unlike crocodiles, gharials feed exclusively on fish, making them piscivorous.
- They lack the jaw strength to attack large mammals or humans, rendering them non-man-eaters.
Habitat & Distribution:
- Gharials are strictly riverine species, requiring:
- Deep, clear, fast-flowing waters.
- Steep, sandy riverbanks for basking and nesting.
Major River Systems Supporting Gharials:
- Chambal River (Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh).
- Girwa River (Uttar Pradesh).
- Ken River (Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh).
- Yamuna River (Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi).
- Brahmaputra River (Assam, Arunachal Pradesh).
- Ghaghara River (Uttar Pradesh, Bihar).
- Bhagirathi-Hooghly River (West Bengal).
- Conservation Status & Efforts
Legal & International Protection:
- IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered 🛑
- Wildlife Protection Act (1972): Schedule I (Highest Protection)
- CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species): Appendix I (Prohibits commercial trade).
Key Conservation Initiatives:
- Project Crocodile (1975):
- Launched with UNDP & FAO assistance.
- Focused on captive breeding and reintroduction programs.
- Gharial Reserves in India:
- Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan are the main states with dedicated gharial reserves.
Notable Protected Areas:
- National Chambal Sanctuary (MP, UP, Rajasthan).
- Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (UP).
- Chambal River – Geographical & Ecological Significance
- Origin & Course:
- Source: Janapav Hills, Vindhyan Range, Madhya Pradesh.
- Flow: Passes through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, ultimately joining the Yamuna River.
Major Tributaries:
- Right Bank Tributaries: Banas, Parvati, Kali Sindh.
- Left Bank Tributaries: Shipra.
- Dams on the Chambal River:
- Gandhi Sagar Dam
- Rana Pratap Sagar Dam
- Jawahar Sagar Dam
Geological & Ecological Importance:
Ravine Formation:
- Chambal basin is prone to severe soil erosion, leading to deep ravines in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
- These ravines serve as natural habitats for endangered species.
- Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan):
- Receives water supply from the Chambal River Irrigation Project.
Supports migratory birds like Siberian Cranes.
Consider the following statements regarding gharials
- Unlike crocodiles, gharials primarily feed on fish and do not attack large mammals.
- Males and females exhibit no significant difference in physical characteristics.
- The Chambal River is one of the last remaining strongholds of wild gharial populations in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Gharials are piscivorous and not man-eaters.
Statement 2 is incorrect. They show sexual dimorphism (males have a bulbous snout).
Statement 3 is correct. Chambal River hosts one of the largest wild gharial populations.
PM2.5 Pollution Sources in Northern India
Recent studies have highlighted severe air quality problems in Northern India, particularly in the Indo-Gangetic Plain. Research published in Nature Communications examines the sources and health impacts of PM2.5, a harmful particulate matter, emphasizing the need to understand local emission sources and their effects on public health.
PM2.5 Composition Analysis
- The study analysed PM2.5 samples from five locations, including both urban and rural areas, identifying key components like ammonium chloride and organic aerosols. In Delhi, vehicular emissions and residential heating are major contributors. In contrast, areas outside Delhi show higher levels of ammonium sulfate and biomass-burning aerosols.
Health Risks of PM2.5
- 5 poses significant health risks, particularly due to its oxidative potential, which measures its ability to cause harm. This oxidative potential is mainly driven by organic aerosols, which primarily come from incomplete combustion of biomass and fossil fuels. Traffic and residential sources are key contributors to these health risks.
Seasonal Variations in Aerosol Concentration
- The study also observed seasonal variations in aerosol concentration. Hydrocarbon-like organic aerosols remain consistently high throughout the year, but primary organic aerosols increase significantly during the winter months. This seasonal spike is due to the use of cow dung for heating and cooking, with concentrations rising up to ten times higher in colder weather compared to warmer months.
Impact of Traffic Emissions
- Traffic emissions are a major source of PM2.5 pollution, especially in urban areas. Hydrocarbon-like organic aerosols from vehicles contribute significantly to overall aerosol mass, making up as much as 40% in some urban regions. These emissions are especially prominent during the warmer months.
Comparative Global Analysis
The oxidative potential of PM2.5 in Indian cities is alarmingly high, surpassing levels recorded in cities in China and Europe by up to five times. This comparison underscores the urgent need for action to address air quality issues in India
With reference to PM2.5 pollution in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, consider the following statements:
- 5 levels in Delhi are primarily influenced by ammonium sulfate emissions from industrial sources.
- Biomass-burning aerosols are a major contributor to PM2.5 in non-Delhi regions of Northern India.
- Hydrocarbon-like organic aerosols (HOAs) show significant seasonal variation, peaking in monsoon months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: PM2.5 in Delhi is mainly driven by vehicular emissions and residential heating, not ammonium sulfate (which is more dominant in non-Delhi regions due to agricultural burning).
Statement 2 is correct: Non-Delhi areas exhibit higher levels of biomass-burning aerosols, especially from stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana.
Statement 3 is incorrect: HOAs remain consistently high throughout the year rather than showing monsoonal spikes.
SC’s Directive on Forest Conservation Efforts
Subject: Environment
- In a landmark directive issued in March 2025, the Supreme Court of India mandated that Chief Secretaries of States and Administrators of Union Territories establish expert committees to systematically identify forested areas within their jurisdictions.
- This ruling underscores the judicial oversight of environmental governance and reaffirms the significance of scientific forest classification for policy implementation.
- The ruling aligns with the historic Supreme Court judgment of December 1996, which provided an expansive definition of “forests”—encompassing all areas meeting the dictionary definition of a forest, regardless of ownership, classification, or legal status.
- This precedent set a broad conservation framework aimed at ecological balance and sustainable resource management.
Evolution of Forest Conservation Laws in India
- The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
- Enacted to regulate deforestation and protect ecologically sensitive areas from unsustainable exploitation.
- Established the requirement of Central government approval for any diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes.
- T.N. Godavarman Case (1996): The Expanded Definition of ‘Forest’
- In December 1996, the Supreme Court, in N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India, ruled that:
- The term “forest” should be interpreted broadly to include all lands that exhibit forest characteristics, irrespective of ownership, classification, or legal designation.
- This widened the scope of forest conservation laws to cover unclassified forests, private forests, and community forests.
- This ruling laid the foundation for judicial monitoring of forest governance in India.
Recent Supreme Court Orders and Their Implications
- Reiteration of Compliance with 1996 Ruling
- The Supreme Court, in November 2023 and February 2024, reaffirmed that States and UTs must strictly adhere to the 1996 ruling.
- In its March 2025 directive, the court warned that officials failing to comply would face personal liability, strengthening institutional accountability in forest governance.
- Formation of Expert Committees for Forest Identification
- The Supreme Court directed the constitution of expert committees at the State and UT levels.
Their responsibilities include:
- Identifying all forested areas, including degraded, deforested, and encroached lands.
- Assessing private plantations and their ecological contributions.
- Ensuring data accuracy for conservation planning.
- Impact of the 2023 Amendments to the Forest (Conservation) Act
- The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023, introduced significant changes, sparking controversy among environmentalists.
Key concerns raised by critics:
- The amendments narrowed the definition of “forest,” potentially excluding certain ecologically significant areas from protection.
- This could lead to increased commercial exploitation and ecological disruptions.
- Petitioners in the Supreme Court argue that such legislative dilution contradicts the judicially established forest definition from the 1996 ruling.
Data Consolidation and Compliance Mechanisms
- The Supreme Court mandated States and UTs to submit comprehensive records of forest lands.
This is crucial for:
- Accurate assessment of India’s forest cover.
- Ensuring compliance with conservation policies.
- Monitoring deforestation trends.
- Future Roadmap for Forest Governance: Timely completion of forest identification by expert committees.
- Submission of reports to the Union government, followed by review by the Supreme Court.
Enhanced accountability through judicial scrutiny and legal oversight. - This directive signifies a watershed moment in India’s environmental jurisprudence, ensuring scientifically sound, legally robust, and ecologically sustainable forest conservation measures.
With reference to the Supreme Court’s March 2025 directive on forest identification, consider the following statements:
- It mandates the formation of expert committees at the State and Union Territory levels.
- The directive is based on a long-standing legal precedent established in 1980 under the Forest (Conservation) Act.
- The ruling warns that officials failing to comply will face personal liability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court ordered the formation of expert committees to identify all forest lands in each State and UT.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The directive is based on the 1996 Supreme Court ruling in the N. Godavarman case, not the 1980 Act.
Statement 3 is correct: The Court explicitly warned officials of personal liability for non-compliance.
Vantara
Syllabus: GS 3/Environment
- Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated Vantara, a groundbreaking initiative aimed at wildlife conservation, rescue, and rehabilitation.
- Situated in Jamnagar, Gujarat, Vantara represents a monumental step in India’s conservation efforts, integrating scientific rehabilitation methods with traditional animal care.
Vantara: A Global Benchmark in Wildlife Conservation
World’s Largest Wildlife Rehabilitation Centre:
- Encompasses thousands of acres dedicated to the care of rescued and endangered species.
- Currently shelters over 1.5 lakh animals, including endangered and threatened species, offering them a second chance at survival.
Rescue and Rehabilitation:
- Provides advanced veterinary care, nutritional support, and naturalistic enclosures for animal well-being.
- Focuses on long-term conservation strategies, particularly for elephants, big cats, primates, and exotic species.
Awards & Recognitions:
- ‘Prani Mitra’ National Award (Corporate Category): Conferred by the Central Government to Radhe Krishna Temple Elephant Welfare Trust (RKTEWT) for exceptional contributions to elephant rescue, treatment, and care.
Which of the following statements regarding Vantara is/are correct?
- Vantara is the largest wildlife rehabilitation centre in the world, providing care for over 5 lakh rescued animals.
- It has been developed as a government-led initiative under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
- The Radhe Krishna Temple Elephant Welfare Trust (RKTEWT), associated with Vantara, has been awarded the ‘Prani Mitra’ National Award for elephant conservation.
- Vantara is exclusively dedicated to elephant rehabilitation and does not house other endangered species.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Vantara is the world’s largest wildlife rehabilitation centre, housing 5 lakh+ rescued animals.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a privately managed initiative, not directly under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
- Statement 3 is correct: RKTEWT received the ‘Prani Mitra’ National Award for elephant conservation efforts.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While it prioritizes elephant rescue, it also rehabilitates various endangered species, including big cats, primates, and exotic wildlife
India Secures Copper Exploration Block in Zambia
Syllabus: GS1/Geography/Critical Minerals
Context
- India has secured a 9,000 sq. km exploration block in Zambia for copper and cobalt mining, marking a significant step in securing critical minerals.
- Zambia is the 7th largest copper producer globally and a key supplier in the international market.
Recent Trends in the Global Copper Market
- Shrinking Global Supply: According to Bloomberg, the supply of copper ore is tightening, leading to an intense competition for resources.
- China’s Dominance: China controls 50% of the world’s copper smelting and refining capacity, giving it strategic leverage in the global copper supply chain.
- Rising Demand: Copper demand is increasing due to its essential role in EV batteries, renewable energy, and clean technologies.
- Leading Copper Producers: Chile, Peru, China, the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), and the United States dominate global copper production.
- Geopolitical Competition: Major economies like India, China, and the U.S. are aggressively securing copper resources, leading to intensified geopolitical tensions over mineral supply chains.
India’s Copper Situation
- Declining Domestic Production: In 2023-24, India’s copper ore production was 78 million tonnes, an 8% decline from 2018-19 levels.
- Major Copper-Producing States:
- Madhya Pradesh (largest producer)
- Rajasthan (second-largest producer)
- Surge in Copper Imports: India’s copper concentrate imports have doubled in value to ₹26,000 crore in 2023-24 compared to 2018-19.
Challenges in Domestic Copper Mining:
- India possesses significant copper deposits, but extensive exploration is required before mining can commence.
- The global average time to operationalize a new copper mine is 17 years, making long-term planning essential.
India’s Overseas Copper Strategy
- Investment in Foreign Copper Assets: India is securing copper mines in Zambia, Chile, and the DRC to meet short-term demand.
- Geopolitical Risks: While overseas investments help address supply shortages, they come with political and economic risks, including resource nationalism and regulatory uncertainties.
Africa’s Growing Role in Critical Minerals
- Major Supplier: Africa contributes 70% of global cobalt and 16% of global copper
- DRC’s Expansion: The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is set to become the world’s second-largest copper producer by 2030.
India’s Engagement in Africa:
- The Ministry of Mines is actively working to acquire mineral assets in the DRC, Tanzania, Mozambique, and Rwanda to secure long-term supply chains.
Consider the following statements regarding the global copper market:
- China accounts for more than half of the world’s copper smelting and refining capacity.
- The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is projected to become the world’s largest copper producer by 2030.
- The time required to operationalize a new copper mine globally averages around 17 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. China holds 50% of the global copper smelting and refining capacity, giving it control over supply chains.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While the DRC is projected to become the world’s second-largest copper producer by 2030, it is unlikely to surpass Chile, which remains the largest producer.
Statement 3 is correct. The global average time to operationalize a copper mine is 17 years, making long-term investments crucial.
Avalanche
Syllabus: GS1/ Physical Geography, GS3/Disaster Management
Context:
- A devastating avalanche struck a Border Roads Organisation (BRO) project in Mana, Chamoli, Uttarakhand.
- The incident highlights the hazards of working in high-altitude terrain and the vulnerability of critical infrastructure in Himalayan regions.
Avalanche: Understanding the Phenomenon
Definition:
- An avalanche is a sudden, rapid descent of snow, ice, rock, and debris down a steep mountainside.
- Snow avalanches are the most common type and can reach speeds exceeding 320 km/h (200 mph).
Causes of Avalanches:
- Avalanches occur when an unstable snowpack collapses, often due to:
- Weak Layer Formation: Poor bonding between snow layers (e.g., ice sheets, fresh snowfall, or melting layers).
External Triggers:
- Sudden weight addition (e.g., snowfall, human activity).
- Vibrations (e.g., earthquakes, explosions, or movement of heavy vehicles).
- Weather Conditions:
- Heavy snowfall increases snow weight.
- Wind erosion deposits snow unevenly.
- Spring thaw reduces friction between layers.
Terrain Factors:
- Slope steepness (30°–45°) is ideal for avalanches.
- Loose rock formations increase instability.
Types of Avalanches:
- Sluffs (Loose Snow Avalanches):
- Composed of dry, powdery snow.
- Small, less destructive but can trap climbers.
Slab Avalanches:
- Larger and deadlier, caused when a weak layer collapses under a thick slab of snow.
- Fast-moving and highly destructive.
Can bury entire settlements and infrastructure.
Consider the following statements regarding Avalanches:
- Avalanches can only occur in snow-covered regions with an altitude above 3,000 meters.
- Slab avalanches are generally more dangerous than sluff avalanches.
- Earthquakes and explosions can act as triggers for avalanches.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Avalanches can occur at lower altitudes if conditions are unstable.
- Statement 2 is correct: Slab avalanches involve large snow masses and are more destructive than sluffs.
Statement 3 is correct: Vibrations from earthquakes and explosions can trigger avalanches.
Ganga Water Treaty
Subject Geography
The Ganga Water Treaty: Challenges and the Path Ahead
- The Ganga Water Treaty, signed in 1996, is set to expire in 2026, making the upcoming negotiations between India and Bangladesh crucial for future water-sharing agreements. Bangladesh is pushing for a larger share of dry-season water due to severe shortages affecting agriculture. However, these talks unfold against a backdrop of rising tensions following political shifts in Bangladesh and unresolved disputes, particularly over the Teesta River.
Background of the Ganga Water Treaty
- The Ganga River has long been a point of contention between India and Bangladesh. The Farakka Barrage, operational since 1975, was built to regulate water flow but intensified disputes. The treaty established a framework for water-sharing, recognizing Bangladesh as a lower riparian state and attempting to balance the needs of both nations while addressing historical grievances.
Key Provisions of the Treaty
- The treaty outlines a water-sharing formula based on the Ganga’s flow at the Farakka Barrage during the dry season:
- If the flow is 70,000 cusecs or less, both countries receive equal shares.
- It guarantees a minimum water flow for both nations during critical periods.
- A Joint Rivers Commission was established to monitor compliance and resolve disputes
Importance of the Upcoming Talks
- The upcoming negotiations mark the 86th round of discussions between India and Bangladesh. Bangladesh has advocated for a comprehensive water-sharing framework covering all transboundary rivers. Currently, the Ganga Water Treaty remains the only operational agreement between the two nations. The outcome of these talks could shape future water-sharing pacts, particularly for the Teesta River.
Challenges and Future Considerations
- The treaty faces increasing challenges due to climate change and shifting water patterns. Experts warn that if the treaty expires without renewal, India may not be obligated to share water, potentially escalating tensions and threatening the ecologically fragile Sundarbans delta. A holistic and climate-resilient agreement is necessary to ensure sustainable water management.
Geographical and Ecological Impact
- The Ganga River traverses diverse landscapes before forming a delta and flowing into the Bay of Bengal. This region is ecologically critical, supporting rich biodiversity, fisheries, and agriculture. Any disruption in water flow can have far-reaching consequences, impacting livelihoods and the fragile ecosystem of the Sundarbans.
With the 2026 deadline approaching, India and Bangladesh must navigate these challenges to forge a fair, long-term, and environmentally sustainable water-sharing agreement.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ganga Water Treaty:
- The treaty was signed between India and Bangladesh in 1996 for a duration of 50 years.
- The treaty allows India unilateral control over water flow at the Farakka Barrage.
- The agreement provides for an equal share of water if the flow at Farakka Barrage is 70,000 cusecs or less.
- A Joint Rivers Commission was set up under the treaty to ensure compliance and dispute resolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation: The treaty was signed in 1996 but for 30 years, not 50 years (expires in 2026). While India operates the Farakka Barrage, it does not have unilateral control—water-sharing is based on a formula. The treaty ensures equal sharing of water if flow is 70,000 cusecs or less, and a Joint Rivers Commission exists for oversight
Uttara hand Ropeway Projects
Subjects: Geography
- The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has sanctioned two significant ropeway projects to bolster pilgrimage accessibility and tourism in Uttarakhand.
- These ropeways will connect Sonprayag to Kedarnath and Govindghat to Hemkund Sahib Ji, leveraging state-of-the-art technology to ensure efficient, eco-friendly, and sustainable transportation for thousands of pilgrims annually.
Kedarnath Ropeway: A Paradigm Shift in Pilgrimage Transport
- The Kedarnath ropeway, spanning 12.9 km, will be executed under the Design, Build, Finance, Operate, and Transfer (DBFOT) model with an estimated investment of ₹4,081.28 crore.
- Incorporating Tri-cable Detachable Gondola (3S) technology, it will facilitate the movement of 1,800 passengers per hour per direction, translating to a daily carrying capacity of 18,000 passengers.
- This project will drastically reduce travel time from the current 8-9 hours to approximately 36 minutes, significantly enhancing the pilgrim experience.
Religious and Logistical Significance
- Kedarnath, one of the 12 sacred Jyotirlingas, witnesses an annual footfall of approximately 20 lakh devotees.
- Presently, the journey to the temple is undertaken via trekking, ponies, palanquins, or helicopters.
- The introduction of the ropeway ensures all-weather connectivity, augmenting pilgrimage efficiency and accessibility.
Hemkund Sahib Ji Ropeway: Strengthening Accessibility to a High-Altitude Pilgrimage Site
- The second ropeway project spans 4 km from Govindghat to Hemkund Sahib Ji, with an investment of ₹2,730.13 crore.
- This project integrates Monocable Detachable Gondola (MDG) technology for the initial segment and Tri-cable Detachable Gondola (3S) technology for the latter, ensuring optimal safety and efficiency.
- With a capacity of 1,100 passengers per hour per direction, it can accommodate 11,000 passengers daily.
Cultural and Ecotourism Impact
- Situated at an altitude of 15,000 feet, Hemkund Sahib Ji is a revered Sikh pilgrimage site that remains accessible for only five months a year, attracting 5 to 2 lakh devotees annually.
- The ropeway will not only ease the arduous journey but also promote tourism in the adjacent Valley of Flowers, a UNESCO World Heritage site known for its diverse alpine flora and ecological significance.
Economic and Environmental Considerations
- Employment Generation and Socio-Economic Growth
- The implementation of these ropeways is anticipated to generate substantial employment across multiple sectors, including construction, operations, hospitality, travel, and food services.
- The resultant economic boost aligns with the broader objective of balanced socio-economic development in hilly regions of Uttarakhand.
- Sustainable and Eco-Friendly Transit Solutions
- Both projects are meticulously designed to minimize environmental impact, offering low-emission transport alternatives that reduce the carbon footprint associated with traditional pilgrimage routes.
- The initiative embodies the commitment to sustainable tourism, ensuring that development harmonizes with ecological preservation.
Consider the following statements regarding the Kedarnath ropeway project:
- It will operate using the Monocable Detachable Gondola (MDG) technology.
- It will be developed under the Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) model.
- The project aims to reduce the travel time to approximately 36 minutes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
Explanation:
The Kedarnath ropeway employs Tri-cable Detachable Gondola (3S) technology, not MDG (eliminating statement 1). It follows the DBFOT model, not BOT (eliminating statement 2). Statement 3 is correct.
Gum Arabic (Acacia Gum)
Syllabus: GS1/ Natural Resources
Context:
- The illegal smuggling of gum Arabic (Acacia Gum) from war-torn Sudan is significantly affecting global supply chains. Sudan accounts for 80% of the world’s production, followed by Chad, Nigeria, and other Sahelian nations.
What is Gum Arabic?
- Gum Arabic is a natural resin obtained from Acacia trees, primarily Acacia senegal and Acacia seyal.
- It is a complex polysaccharide with exceptional emulsifying, stabilizing, and thickening properties.
Major Applications:
- Food Industry: Functions as an emulsifier, stabilizer, and thickener in soft drinks, baked goods, and confectionery.
- Cosmetics: Enhances texture and stability in skincare products and lipsticks.
- Pharmaceuticals: Used in syrups, capsules, and tablet coatings due to its binding properties.
The ongoing conflict in Sudan has exacerbated disruptions in supply chains, impacting industries reliant on gum Arabic worldwide
Which of the following best explains why the smuggling of Gum Arabic from Sudan is disrupting global supply chains?
- Sudan is the world’s largest producer, supplying over 80% of the total global demand.
- Gum Arabic is classified as a strategic commodity, critical for the food, pharmaceutical, and cosmetic
- The conflict in Sudan has led to the involvement of non-state actors, who control trade routes and manipulate prices.
- Major global industries depend on Sudanese gum Arabic due to the lack of viable synthetic alternatives.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Sudan contributes over 80% of the world’s gum Arabic supply, making disruptions in its production and trade highly consequential.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to its essential role in multiple industries, gum Arabic is considered a strategic commodity, much like rare earth metals in technology.
Statement 3 is correct: Armed groups in Sudan control smuggling routes, using gum Arabic as a source of illicit funding, further disrupting legal supply chains.
Statement 4 is correct: There are no widely used synthetic substitutes for gum Arabic, making industries heavily reliant on natural production.
Wallace Line
Syllabus: GS1/ Geography
- The Wallace Line is a fundamental biogeographical demarcation that explains the stark differences in species distribution between the Asian and Australasian ecozones.
- Identified by Alfred Russel Wallace in the 19th century, this hypothetical boundary delineates Southeast Asia from Wallacea, a transitional region where species exhibit mixed evolutionary traits of both Asian and Australian
Geographical Extent of the Wallace Line:
- It traverses the Lombok Strait between Bali and Lombok, despite the relatively short 35 km distance between them.
- It extends through the Makassar Strait, demarcating Borneo and Sulawesi.
- Further, it runs eastward beyond the Philippines, south of Mindanao Island into the Philippine Sea.
Ecological and Evolutionary Implications:
- The Wallace Line is a consequence of deep oceanic trenches formed during the Pleistocene glaciations, which prevented species migration even when sea levels were lower.
- On the western side of the Wallace Line, faunal species exhibit characteristics of the Indo-Malayan realm (Asiatic origins).
- On the eastern side, species exhibit traits of Australasian descent, reflecting Gondwanan evolutionary lineage.
Findings on Sulawesi Island:
- Sulawesi’s fauna shows affinities with diverse biogeographic regions, including Africa, India, Java, Maluku Islands, New Guinea, and the Philippines.
- It serves as an ecological transition zone, housing species that do not conform strictly to either Asian or Australian lineages.
Examples of Sulawesi’s Unique Fauna:
- Asiatic Influence:
- Tarsiers (Tarsiidae), a type of primate.
- Lowland Anoa (Bubalus depressicornis) and Mountain Anoa (Bubalus quarlesi), small bovid species.
- Australasian Influence:
- Dwarf Cuscus (Strigocuscus celebensis), a marsupial species unique to Sulawesi.
Biogeographical Significance of the Wallace Line Which of the following best explains why the Wallace Line is considered a critical concept in biogeography?
- It represents a sharp faunal divide between Asiatic and Australasian species despite geographic proximity.
- It is caused by deep-sea trenches, which have historically prevented the migration of land-based fauna.
- The Wallace Line runs parallel to tectonic plate boundaries, which influence the speciation process through geological separation.
- It marks a zone of convergent evolution, where species from Asia and Australia have independently evolved similar traits.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: b) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Wallace Line separates Asiatic fauna on the west from Australasian species on the east, despite short geographic distances.
- Statement 2 is correct: Deep-sea trenches (like those in the Lombok Strait) acted as natural barriers preventing the intermingling of species.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Wallace Line is influenced by plate tectonics, as it runs along an ancient boundary separating the Sunda Shelf (Eurasian Plate) from the Sahul Shelf (Australian Plate).
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Wallace Line does not mark convergent evolution; rather, it signifies biogeographic isolation where species did not evolve shared traits.
Thorium Reserves
Syllabus: GS1/Geography/Mineral Resources
- Chinese geologists have discovered one million tonnes of thorium in the Inner Mongolia region, marking a significant development in the global nuclear energy sector.
- The discovery aligns with China’s long-term nuclear energy diversification strategy, with a focus on Thorium Molten-Salt Reactors (TMSRs) as a viable alternative to conventional uranium-based reactors.
Thorium’s Strategic Potential as a Nuclear Fuel
- High Energy Yield: Thorium is capable of generating 200 times more energy than uranium, making it a superior nuclear fuel.
- Enhanced Safety Features: Unlike traditional uranium-based reactors, thorium reactors do not pose a meltdown risk, require no water cooling, and produce minimal radioactive waste.
- TMSRs as a Game-Changer: Thorium molten-salt reactors (TMSRs), which dissolve thorium in liquid salts, have the potential to revolutionize clean energy production.
China’s Ambitious Thorium Energy Projects
- China has approved the world’s first TMSR power plant, expected to generate 10 megawatts by 2029.
- The country is also exploring thorium-powered ships and lunar reactors for future moon-based energy solutions.
- India’s Thorium Reserves & Nuclear Strategy
- India possesses one of the world’s largest thorium reserves, making it a critical player in thorium-based nuclear energy development.
Major Deposits:
- Kerala and Odisha account for over 70% of India’s total thorium deposits.
- Additional reserves are located in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
- India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Program:
- Thorium utilization is central to Stage III of India’s nuclear power strategy, focusing on breeder reactors capable of converting thorium into Uranium-233, a fissile material for sustained energy production.
Challenges in Thorium Utilization
- Technological Barriers: Extracting thorium from its ores is energy-intensive and generates significant waste, necessitating advanced reactor designs.
- Economic Viability: Despite abundant reserves, the high cost of thorium reactor technology has slowed commercial-scale adoption.
Infrastructure Deficiencies: India requires enhanced research and industrial capabilities to transition from uranium-dependent reactors to a thorium-based nuclear program.
Why is thorium considered a superior alternative to uranium for nuclear energy production?
- Thorium produces 200 times more energy per unit compared to uranium.
- Thorium-based reactors are inherently safer, with no risk of meltdown and minimal radioactive waste.
- Unlike uranium, thorium does not require enrichment, making it more economically viable for energy production.
- Thorium can be directly used as a fuel in conventional nuclear reactors without requiring transformation into fissile material.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: b) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Thorium’s energy density is significantly higher than uranium, making it a more efficient nuclear fuel.
Statement 2 is correct: Thorium reactors do not require water cooling, eliminating meltdown risks, and produce less long-lived nuclear waste.
Statement 3 is correct: Unlike uranium, thorium does not need enrichment, reducing processing costs.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Thorium is not naturally fissile and requires conversion into Uranium-233 before it can sustain a chain reaction in nuclear reactors.
25th Anniversary of Jahan-e-Khusrau Sufi Music Festival
Context:
- Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended the Sufi music festival, Jahan-e-Khusrau 2025, a significant international event celebrating Sufi music, poetry, and spiritual heritage.
- Jahan-e-Khusrau Festival – A Confluence of Mysticism and Art
- An internationally acclaimed festival dedicated to Sufi music, poetry, and dance.
- Celebrates the contributions of Amir Khusrau, the poet-musician and disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya.
- Artists from across the world participate, reinforcing the global influence of Sufi traditions.
- Organized by the Rumi Foundation and founded by filmmaker Muzaffar Ali in 2001.
- During the festival, the Prime Minister visited TEH Bazaar (The Exploration of the Handmade), a platform showcasing One District-One Product (ODOP) crafts and traditional Indian artifacts.
- Amir Khusrau – The Parrot of India
- Most beloved disciple of Sufi Saint Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chishti Order.
Served five Delhi Sultans:
- Muizuddin Qaiqabad
- Jalaluddin Khalji (who granted him the title ‘Amir’)
- Alauddin Khalji
- Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah
- Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
- Known for his Persian poetry, he was a master of Hindavi, a precursor to modern Hindi and Urdu.
Legacy in Indian Classical Music:
- Innovated Khayal and Tarana music styles.
- Developed several new ragas.
- Considered a pioneer of Qawwali, the devotional Sufi music tradition.
- Sufism – The Mystical Dimension of Islam
- Origins and Evolution
- A mystic school of thought in Islam, formally emerging in the 9th-10th century in the Middle East.
- Focuses on inner purity, divine love, and spiritual enlightenment through meditation and prayer.
Historically flourished in Egypt, Syria, Iraq, Turkey, and Arabia.
In India: Arrived in the 11th-12th century with Arab traders and later expanded through Sufi saints.
Sufi Orders in India
- Chishti Order (Most influential)
Introduced by Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti in Ajmer.
Prominent saints:
- Nizamuddin Auliya
- Nasiruddin Chiragh Delhi
- Sheikh Burhanuddin Gharib
- Mohammad Banda Nawaz
- Suhrawardi Order
- Founded by Shahabuddin Suhrawardi.
- Known for mysticism combined with knowledge and worldly affairs.
- Flourished in Punjab and Multan, unlike the Chishtis, they did not advocate extreme asceticism.
- Naqshbandi Order
- Introduced by Khawaja Bahauddin Naqshbandi.
- Strict adherence to Islamic law (Shariah).
- Did not support Akbar’s syncretic religious policies, unlike the Chishtis.
- Qadri Order
- Became prominent under the Mughals.
- Advocated Wahdat-al-Wajood (Unity of Being – God and creation are one).
Notable figures:
- Jahanara Begum (Shah Jahan’s daughter).
- Dara Shikoh (Akbar’s great-grandson, known for his syncretic beliefs).
- Sufism and Music – The Spiritual Connection
- Sama: A spiritual gathering where music and dance are used for mystical union with God.
- Whirling Dervishes: Symbolize the soul’s journey towards God.
- Dhikr: The repetition of divine names, often enhanced by music.
- Poetry and Song: Sufi poets like Rumi, Hafiz, and Bulleh Shah expressed divine love through music and verse.
Sufism’s Legacy in India
- Integrated Hindu and Muslim traditions, fostering spiritual harmony.
- Contributed to the Bhakti movement, influencing Kabir, Guru Nanak, Namdev, and Tukaram.
- Promoted peaceful coexistence and religious tolerance.
- Emphasized ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’ (the world as one family).
Key Terms in Sufism
- Tariqa: Spiritual order or path.
- Pir: A Sufi master.
- Sheikh (Murshid): A spiritual teacher.
- Murid: A disciple.
- Khanqah: A Sufi retreat.
- Qalb: The heart, a spiritual center.
- Wali: A saint.
Muraqaba: Meditation on God.
With reference to Amir Khusrau, consider the following statements:
- He served in the courts of six Delhi Sultans.
- He is credited with pioneering Qawwali in India.
- He wrote exclusively in Persian and did not use Hindavi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. He served five Sultans, not six.
Statement 2 is correct. He played a key role in developing Qawwali.
Statement 3 is incorrect. He wrote in both Persian and Hindavi.
Battle of Karnal
Syllabus: GS 1/History
- The Battle of Karnal (February 24, 1739) was a catastrophic defeat for the Mughal Empire, marking the onset of its irreversible decline. The invasion by Nadir Shah, the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of Iran, not only devastated the empire but also exposed its military, administrative, and economic vulnerabilities.
Nadir Shah: The Conqueror from Persia
- Founder of the Afsharid dynasty and a brilliant military strategist.
- Had already defeated the Ottomans, Uzbeks, and Russians before focusing on India.
- After annexing Kandahar, he crossed the Khyber Pass and rapidly subjugated Mughal vassal states, clearing his way towards Delhi.
The Battle of Karnal: Decisive Mughal Defeat
- Date: February 24, 1739.
- Forces Involved:
- Mughal Army: 300,000 troops, including cavalry, infantry, and war elephants.
- Nadir Shah’s Army: 55,000 highly disciplined soldiers, utilizing superior tactics and
Battle Outcome:
- The battle lasted merely three hours, resulting in a devastating Mughal loss.
- Nadir Shah’s use of mounted musketeers and coordinated cavalry attacks outmaneuvered the ill-coordinated Mughal forces.
- The Mughal cavalry, relying on outdated tactics, was utterly ineffective against Persian firepower.
- Muhammad Shah ‘Rangila’ was forced to surrender.
The Sack of Delhi & Aftermath
- Delhi was plundered mercilessly—one of the worst massacres in Indian history.
- Nadir Shah looted immense wealth, including:
- The Peacock Throne (a symbol of Mughal supremacy).
- The Koh-i-Noor diamond.
- Thousands of kilos of gold, silver, and jewels, effectively emptying the Mughal treasury.
- Despite the destruction, Nadir Shah spared Muhammad Shah’s life and formally restored most of his territory.
Long-Term Impact on the Mughal Empire
- Economic Collapse: Delhi was left economically devastated, crippling Mughal governance.
Political Fragmentation:
- Mughal authority weakened drastically, emboldening regional rulers like the Marathas, Sikhs, and Jats.
- The empire ceded more power to autonomous provinces.
- Decline of Military Strength: The once-mighty Mughal army was humiliated and exposed as outdated.
- British Ascendancy: The weakened Mughal state gradually lost control, paving the way for British dominance by 1857.
Underlying Causes of Mughal Decline
- Structural & Administrative Weaknesses
- Excessive taxation on peasants fueled widespread agrarian revolts.
- Rampant corruption within the nobility led to administrative inefficiencies.
- Military & Technological Inferiority
- The Mughal army relied on obsolete tactics, whereas Nadir Shah’s forces were modernized.
- Lack of artillery innovations and tactical flexibility led to repeated defeats.
- Religious Policies & Internal Discontent
- Aurangzeb’s oppressive religious policies alienated Hindus and other non-Muslim communities.
Revolts by Rajputs, Jats, Marathas, and Sikhs weakened centralized control.
With reference to the Battle of Karnal (1739), consider the following statements:
- The Mughal forces outnumbered Nadir Shah’s army but lacked strategic coordination.
- The battle lasted several days before the Mughal army was defeated.
- Nadir Shah’s army effectively utilized mounted musketeers, giving them a tactical advantage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Mughal army (300,000) was numerically superior, but poorly coordinated, whereas Nadir Shah’s disciplined forces (55,000) were far more effective.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The battle lasted only three hours, not several days.
Statement 3 is correct. Nadir Shah’s mounted musketeers played a decisive role in overcoming Mughal cavalry tactics.
President Murmu visits Dholavira
Syllabus: GS1/Indian Ancient History; Art & Culture
- The President of India recently visited Dholavira, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, located in Gujarat.
About Dholavira
- Dholavira was discovered in 1968 by renowned archaeologist Jagat Pati Josh.
Historical Significance:
- Dholavira is the sixth-largest Harappan site, flourishing between 3000 and 1500 BCE. It was inscribed as India’s 40th UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2021.
Dholavira’s Architectural Brilliance
The site’s urban planning is remarkable, with a walled city divided into several key areas:
- Fortified Castle: Houses the Bailey and Ceremonial Ground.
- Middle and Lower Towns: Both are fortified as well, demonstrating advanced architectural techniques.
- Water Management: The city had a series of reservoirs to the east and south of the Citadel.
- StoneUsage:
Unlike other Harappan sites, Dholavira extensively utilized stone in its architecture, setting it apart from other locations that predominantly used brick.
Economic Significance
- Trading Hub: Dholavira was an important trade center, dealing in copper, shells, semi-precious stones, and timber.
- Trade Routes: It had trade links to Mesopotamia (modern-day Iraq), Magan (Oman), and other Harappan cities.
- Exports: The city exported finished goods like beads, metals, and pottery.
Decline of Dholavira
- Climate Change and Aridity: The drying up of the Saraswati River contributed to the site’s decline.
- Trade Disruptions: The collapse of the Mesopotamian Civilization impacted Dholavira’s trade networks.
- Desertification: The once-navigable Rann of Kutch eventually turned into a mudflat, further contributing to the city’s decline.
Which of the following statements best describes the geographical location of Dholavira?
A) It is located on the banks of the Saraswati River in Rajasthan.
B) It is situated on the arid island of Khadir in the Kachchh district of Gujarat, on the Tropic of Cancer.
C) It lies in the northernmost part of the Harappan Civilization, in Punjab.
D) Dholavira is located on the coast of the Arabian Sea in Maharashtra.
Answer: B)
Explanation:
Dholavira is located on the island of Khadir in the Kachchh district of Gujarat. It lies on the Tropic of Cancer, a significant feature of its geographical location.