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National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) Syllabus:Budget Driving India’s Strategic Mineral Security & Sustainability Launched in: Union Budget 2024–25 Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Mines, Government of India     Objective: To ensure a secure, resilient, and sustainable supply of critical minerals vital for: Clean energy transition Technological innovation Defence and strategic sectors Achieving Net Zero 2070 and Atmanirbhar Bharat goals   Key Focus Areas: Exploration and Mining Over 1200 mineral exploration projects Auction of more than 100 mineral blocks for commercial mining Overseas Asset Acquisition Facilitates Indian entities in acquiring mineral assets in countries such as Argentina, Australia, and Chile Recycling and Circular Economy Development of Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) and incentives for recycling Aims to reduce import dependency and minimize environmental impact Research and Innovation Establishment of Centres of Excellence (CoEs) Promotes advanced research in extraction, beneficiation, and processing technologies Skill Development Introduction of new academic programs, training modules, and scholarships Focus on building a skilled workforce for the critical minerals sector Infrastructure Development Development of mineral processing parks Creation of national stockpiles for strategic storage and distribution With reference to the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM), consider the following statements: The Mission mandates that all critical mineral block auctions be restricted to public sector undertakings to ensure strategic resource control. One of the objectives of the Mission is to reduce import dependence through both domestic exploration and incentivized recycling mechanisms. The establishment of Centres of Excellence (CoEs) under the Mission is aimed exclusively at promoting downstream manufacturing of critical mineral-based products. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A. 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The NCMM does not mandate that auctions be restricted to public sector undertakings. Instead, it promotes both public and private sector participation in exploration and commercial mining to boost the domestic supply of critical minerals. Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of NCMM is to reduce India’s import dependency. This is to be achieved through extensive mineral exploration and the promotion of recycling via SOPs and incentives—both of which form integral parts of the circular economy strategy. Statement 3 is incorrect. While CoEs are being established under the Mission, their focus is not limited to downstream manufacturing. They are primarily intended to drive advanced research and innovation in extraction, beneficiation, and processing technologies related to critical minerals. Cap-and-Trade India Syllabus:Economy Context: A recent study published in The Quarterly Journal of Economics confirmed that Surat’s Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS), the world’s first market for particulate emissions, successfully reduced pollution by 20–30% and lowered compliance costs by 11%.   What is Cap-and-Trade? Cap-and-Trade is a market-driven environmental policy in which the government sets a maximum limit (cap) on total pollution levels emitted by industries. The system works as follows: Pollution Permits: Companies are allocated pollution permits, each allowing them to emit a specific amount of pollutants. If a company emits less than its allotted share, it can sell the unused permits to other firms that are exceeding their limits. Financial Incentive: This system encourages companies to reduce emissions efficiently and invest in cleaner technologies, as reducing emissions can generate profit through the sale of unused permits.   How Cap-and-Trade Works: Regulatory Cap Setting: The government sets an emissions ceiling based on environmental goals, such as improving air quality or meeting climate targets. Permit Distribution: Emission permits are distributed through: Free allocation based on historical emissions (grandfathering). Auctioning a portion of permits, allowing the market to determine their price. Trading System Among Firms: Companies that can cut emissions cost-effectively will do so and sell their excess permits. Firms facing high abatement costs can purchase permits to comply instead of investing in costly technology upgrades. Penalties for Non-Compliance: Firms that fail to secure enough permits to match their emissions face financial penalties. This incentivizes compliance, making it cheaper to either reduce pollution or purchase additional permits than to pay fines.     Challenges to the Cap-and-Trade Model: Monitoring Gaps: Successful cap-and-trade relies on accurate, real-time emissions data, which requires continuous oversight and maintenance of monitoring systems. For instance, Surat’s success depended on the installation of Continuous Emissions Monitoring Systems (CEMS). High Initial Setup Cost: Implementing systems like CEMS can be expensive, especially for small industries. In Surat, 317 industries had to install CEMS. Market Manipulation Risks: Without stringent regulations, industries could manipulate permit prices by hoarding them. Surat addressed this issue by introducing weekly auctions to prevent hoarding. Sectoral Variations: Pollution abatement costs differ across industries, which may create uneven opportunities for firms to profit from permit trading. Policy Instability: Frequent changes in emission caps or trading rules can discourage long-term investments in clean technologies. Surat adjusted its emission cap from 280 to 170 tonnes/month after reviewing pilot phase data. Way Ahead: Expand ETS to Other Cities: Scaling up ETS to other heavily polluted cities like Delhi and Ahmedabad can maximize the impact and establish a nationwide pollution control framework. Include More Pollutants: The ETS could be extended to cover other pollutants such as sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) for a more comprehensive approach to industrial pollution. Invest in CEMS Technology: Further investment in tamper-proof and reliable CEMS technology will ensure greater transparency and regulatory efficiency. Set Dynamic Emission Caps: Emission caps should be adjusted to accommodate seasonal pollution variations and industrial production cycles for greater effectiveness. Enhance Stakeholder Engagement: Active collaboration between industries, local bodies, and citizens through awareness campaigns can ensure broader acceptance and success of the system.   Conclusion: Surat’s Emissions Trading Scheme showcases how market-based solutions can effectively balance industrial growth with environmental sustainability. Expanding and refining such initiatives across India could be pivotal in achieving national clean air targets while improving industrial efficiency. With reference to the Cap-and-Trade model implemented in Surat’s Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS), consider the following statements: The government’s role in Cap-and-Trade involves setting a maximum pollution limit and ensuring continuous oversight of emissions data through systems like CEMS.

Military Personals Honored With Prestigious MacGregor Memorial Medal Syllabus:Awards Five exceptional military personnel were conferred the prestigious MacGregor Memorial Medal for the years 2023 and 2024, recognising their outstanding contributions to military reconnaissance, adventure, and exploratory missions. The awards were presented by Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) General Anil Chauhan at a solemn ceremony hosted by the United Service Institution of India (USI) in New Delhi.     About the MacGregor Memorial Medal Established: July 3, 1888 Named After: Major General Sir Charles Metcalfe MacGregor, founder of USI (established in 1870) Original Objective: To honour military officers who undertook significant exploratory and reconnaissance journeys. Expanded Scope (Post-1986): Includes military expeditions and adventure activities across terrains and environments. Eligibility: Open to all ranks (serving or retired) of the Armed Forces, Territorial Army, Reserve Forces, Rashtriya Rifles, and Assam Rifles. Total Medals Awarded: 127 (including 103 before Independence)   2023 Recipients Wing Commander D. Panda – Indian Air Force Electrical Artificer (Radio) Rahul Kumar Pandey – Indian Navy   2024 Recipients Chief Electrical Aircraft Artificer (Radio) Ram Ratan Jat – Indian Navy Sergeant Jhumar Ram Poonia – Indian Air Force Colonel Ranvir Singh Jamwal – Director, National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports (NIMAS), Arunachal Pradesh Note: Col. Jamwal is currently on an expedition to Kangchenjunga   Book Launch at the Ceremony Title: Bravest of the Brave Author: Gen. Satish Dua (Retd.) Subject: Chronicles the heroic life of Naib Subedar Chunni Lal, a Param Vir Chakra awardee, highlighting his valour and sacrifices. With reference to the MacGregor Memorial Medal, consider the following statements: It was instituted by the Indian government post-Independence to recognise acts of gallantry in warfare. It is awarded to serving personnel only from the Indian Army. The medal also honours exploratory and adventure activities undertaken by military personnel. Colonel Ranvir Singh Jamwal, a 2024 recipient, is currently leading an expedition to Mt. Kangchenjunga. Which of the statements given above are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 3 and 4 onlyC) 2, 3 and 4 onlyD) 1, 3 and 4 only Answer: B) 3 and 4 only  Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect – The medal was instituted in 1888 during British rule, not post-Independence. Statement 2 is incorrect – It is open to personnel from all branches: Army, Navy, Air Force, as well as Reserve and paramilitary forces. Statements 3 and 4 are correct – The scope was expanded post-1986 to include adventure/exploration; Col. Jamwal is currently on a Mt. Kangchenjunga expedition. India’s Trade Dynamics in FY25 Surplus with US Widens, Deficit with China Deepens Syllabus:Economy India’s trade performance in FY2024–25 reveals contrasting trends with its two major trading partners—the United States and China. While exports to the US surged, reinforcing India’s trade surplus with Washington, the trade deficit with China widened considerably, underscoring persistent import dependence.     Trade with the United States: Growing Surplus Exports to the US:Reached $86.5 billion, marking an 59% increase from $77.5 billion in FY2023–24. Imports from the US:Rose to $45.3 billion, a 44% rise from $42.19 billion the previous year. Trade Surplus:Expanded to $41.2 billion, up from $35.4 billion in FY2023–24, further cementing the US as India’s largest export market.   Trade with China: Widening Deficit Exports to China:Declined sharply to $14.25 billion, registering a 49% fall from $16.66 billion in FY2023–24. Imports from China:Rose significantly to $113.45 billion, up 52% from $101.7 billion in the previous fiscal year. Trade Deficit:Ballooned to $99.2 billion, compared to $85.1 billion in FY2023–24. Major Import Drivers:Electronics, solar cells, electric vehicle (EV) batteries, and critical industrial components continue to dominate the import basket from China.   Policy Implications and Trends The sharp rise in imports from China is partly attributed to the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes, which are driving domestic manufacturing and, paradoxically, increasing short-term demand for imported components. While the United States strengthens its position as India’s top export destination, the dependence on Chinese industrial inputs highlights Consider the following statements regarding India’s bilateral trade with the United States and China in FY2024–25: India’s trade surplus with the United States increased primarily due to a fall in US exports to India. The widening trade deficit with China can partly be attributed to the import of intermediate goods linked to India’s PLI-driven manufacturing push. China retained its position as India’s top export destination and import source in FY2024–25. Despite higher trade with China, India’s export growth to the US outpaced its import growth from the US. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 2 and 4 onlyB) 1 and 3 onlyC) 1, 2 and 4 onlyD) 2 only   Correct Answer: A) 2 and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 — Incorrect:The increase in India’s trade surplus with the US was driven by higher exports to the US (↑11.59%), not a fall in imports. In fact, imports from the US also increased (↑7.44%). Statement 2 — Correct:Imports from China rose due to rising demand for electronic components, EV batteries, and solar cells, much of which are intermediate goods required under Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes. This highlights India’s import-intensive manufacturing base, especially in emerging tech. Statement 3 — Incorrect:China remained India’s top import source, but not the top export destination. That title belongs to the United States, with exports worth $86.5 billion compared to $14.25 billion to China. Statement 4 — Correct:India’s exports to the US grew by 11.59%, outpacing the 44% growth in imports from the US. This led to a widening trade surplus with the US. India’s Exports Rise Marginally by 0.7% in March 2025 Syllabus: Economy India’s foreign trade data for March 2025 and the full fiscal year 2024–25 indicates a delicate balancing act between marginal export growth and a sharp uptick in imports, resulting in a widening trade deficit and potential pressure on the current account position.   March 2025 Snapshot Merchandise Exports: $41.97 billion↳ Year-on-Year (YoY) growth: 7%, reflecting subdued global demand. Merchandise Imports: $63.51 billion↳ YoY growth: 3%, driven by rising consumption of energy products, electronics, and intermediate industrial goods.

Shifting Cheetahs From Kuno Park to Gandhi Sagar Syllabus :GS 3/ Environment   The Cheetah Project Steering Committee has approved the relocation of cheetahs from Kuno National Park to Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh, ~300 km away. Aim: To establish a metapopulation of 60–70 cheetahs across the Kuno-Gandhi Sagar landscape, covering parts of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.     Project Cheetah – Overview Launched in 2022 with 8 cheetahs from Namibia and 12 from South Africa Since then, 8 adult cheetahs and 5 cubs have died Implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under MoEF&CC, in partnership with: Madhya Pradesh Forest Department Wildlife Institute of India (WII) Cheetah experts from Namibia & South Africa   Did You Know? Cheetahs are the world’s fastest land animals (60–70 mph) Adapted with a slender build, long limbs, and semi-retractable claws Once widespread in Africa and Asia, now found in only 10% of their original range A critically endangered population exists in Iran Declared extinct in India in 1952   Cheetah Status at Kuno (2025): 26 cheetahs total 17 in the wild, 9 in enclosures Relocation group yet to be decided   About Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary Located in eastern Madhya Pradesh, along the Chambal River, near Gandhi Sagar Dam Part of the Khathiar-Gir Dry Deciduous Forests eco-region Features mixed dry deciduous vegetation Houses the Chaturbhuj Nala rock shelters with prehistoric cave paintings With reference to cheetah conservation efforts in India, consider the following statements: The relocation of cheetahs from Kuno National Park to Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is aimed at enhancing genetic diversity within a confined breeding population. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary lies within the Central Indian Highlands and belongs to the Northern Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests eco-region. Project Cheetah is implemented solely by the National Tiger Conservation Authority without international collaboration. Cheetahs have been reintroduced into India despite being globally classified as extinct in the wild. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 4 onlyC. 3 and 4 onlyD. None of the above Answer: D. None of the above Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the relocation aims to establish a metapopulation across a landscape to ensure population stability and resilience, not merely to enhance genetic diversity within a confined group. Statement 2 is incorrect as Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary falls under the Khathiar-Gir Dry Deciduous Forests eco-region, not the Northern Tropical Moist Deciduous type. Statement 3 is incorrect because Project Cheetah is being implemented by the NTCA in collaboration with the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department, Wildlife Institute of India, and international experts from Namibia and South Africa. Statement 4 is incorrect as cheetahs are not globally extinct in the wild; they are present in parts of Africa and Iran. They were declared extinct in India in 1952, not globally. Type 5 Diabetes Syllabus:Health In a landmark development, the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) officially recognised Type 5 Diabetes as a distinct medical condition during the World Diabetes Congress in Bangkok. This form of diabetes, largely overlooked until now, primarily affects malnourished individuals and poses a significant yet under acknowledged public health challenge.     Key Features of Type 5 Diabetes Etiology: Type 5 Diabetes is a malnutrition-related form of diabetes, distinct from both Type 1 and Type 2. Demographics: It predominantly affects lean and malnourished adolescents and young adults, particularly in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), with high prevalence in regions of Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. Global Burden: Estimated to affect 20–25 million people worldwide, it is considered more prevalent than tuberculosis and nearly as widespread as HIV/AIDS. Pathophysiology: The disease is characterised by a deep defect in insulin secretion, unlike Type 2 diabetes, which involves insulin resistance. Emerging research also suggests that insulin therapy may be harmful for Type 5 patients, indicating a critical need for tailored treatment strategies.   Historical Context First described in 1955 in Jamaica as J-type diabetes, similar cases were subsequently reported during the 1960s across India, Pakistan, and sub-Saharan Africa. While the World Health Organization (WHO) recognised the condition in 1985, it later retracted this status in 1999 due to limited longitudinal research and diagnostic ambiguity.   Recent Developments and Institutional Response Recognising the growing burden and diagnostic challenges of the disease, the IDF has constituted a working group to: Formulate diagnostic and therapeutic protocols within the next two years. Establish a global patient registry to support clinical research and data-sharing. Develop educational modules for healthcare professionals to improve diagnosis and disease management. This move is seen as a critical step toward addressing the systemic neglect of malnutrition-linked non-communicable diseases, particularly in resource-limited settings. Challenges Ahead The lack of formal recognition and classification until recently has contributed to significant under-diagnosis and mistreatment. The absence of standardised diagnostic criteria and widespread awareness has hampered clinical response and policy formulation. As global health systems increasingly address both communicable and non-communicable diseases in tandem, the recognition of Type 5 Diabetes may serve as a turning point in rethinking nutrition-linked metabolic disorders, especially in underserved populations. Consider the following statements regarding the recently recognised Type 5 Diabetes: It primarily affects overweight adults in high-income countries. Type 5 Diabetes is marked by a fundamental defect in insulin secretion rather than insulin resistance. The World Health Organization (WHO) has continuously recognised Type 5 Diabetes since 1985. The International Diabetes Federation (IDF) plans to develop formal guidelines and establish a global registry for this condition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 onlyB) 2 and 4 onlyC) 2, 3, and 4 onlyD) 1, 2, and 4 only Answer: B) 2 and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1: Incorrect. Type 5 Diabetes does not affect overweight adults in high-income countries. It predominantly affects lean and malnourished teenagers and young adults, especially in low- and middle-income countries across Asia and Africa. Statement 2: Correct. Unlike Type 2 diabetes, which is primarily due to insulin resistance, Type 5 diabetes is marked by a deep defect in insulin secretion. Statement 3:

UP’s Zero Poverty Scheme to be Named After Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Syllabus:   Scheme     On the occasion of Bharat Ratna Dr. B. R. Ambedkar’s 135th birth anniversary, Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath announced that the state’s ambitious ‘Zero Poverty’ Mission will be named in honor of Baba Saheb. The declaration was made at a commemorative event held at the Ambedkar Mahasabha campus in Lucknow on April 14, 2025.   Honoring a Visionary Paying tribute to Dr. Ambedkar, the architect of the Indian Constitution, CM Yogi emphasized the BJP government’s commitment to upholding his ideals. He also criticized opposition parties for failing to respect and preserve Ambedkar’s legacy, asserting that the current government is actively working to realize his vision of social justice and equality.   Mission Objectives The newly named Zero Poverty Scheme aims to eradicate poverty across Uttar Pradesh—the most populous state in India—by uplifting every underprivileged and deprived individual above the poverty line. The initiative will follow a saturation-based approach, ensuring that every eligible family receives the full range of government welfare benefits.   Target Communities The scheme will prioritize assistance to marginalized and tribal groups, including: Musahar Vantangia Tharu Sahariya Gond Kol   Comprehensive Benefits Under the initiative, beneficiaries will receive a host of essential amenities, including: Land allotment Housing Toilets under the Swachh Bharat Mission Pensions Ration cards Ayushman Bharat health cards   Implementation Strategy The state government plans to cover 14 to 15 lakh families in a single phase. Gram Panchayats will play a key role in implementation by identifying 20–25 families in each village who are still excluded from existing welfare schemes.   Support from Central Initiatives CM Yogi highlighted the synergy between the new scheme and ongoing central government programs launched under Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s leadership: Free ration for 80 crore citizens Health insurance for 50 crore people under Ayushman Bharat Construction of 12 crore toilets Clean cooking fuel for 10 crore households under Ujjwala Yojana 45 crore Jan Dhan bank accounts 4 crore houses provided under various housing schemes   Political Reactions On the same day, BSP chief Mayawati and SP president Akhilesh Yadav also paid homage to Dr. Ambedkar, presenting alternative perspectives on Dalit welfare and his vision for an egalitarian society. Their statements underscored the ongoing political significance of Ambedkar’s legacy in contemporary Indian politics. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the ‘Zero Poverty’ Mission announced in Uttar Pradesh? The scheme is named after Bharat Ratna Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. It aims to ensure benefits reach only Scheduled Castes. The implementation is based on a saturation approach. The scheme will cover 80 crore beneficiaries across India. Select the correct answer using the code below: A) 1 and 3 onlyB) 2 and 4 onlyC) 1, 3, and 4 onlyD) 1, 2, and 3 only   Answer: A) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme targets multiple marginalized and tribal communities, not just Scheduled Castes. Statement 4 refers to a central scheme, not the UP-specific mission. Six New Scarab Beetles Discovered in India Syllabus:Environment India’s remarkable biodiversity continues to unfold as scientists report the discovery of six new species of scarab beetles from two of the country’s premier ecological regions—Northeast India and the Western Ghats. The findings, recently published in the peer-reviewed journal Zootaxa, emphasize the critical need for sustained conservation, research, and biodiversity mapping.     New Species Identified (Subfamily: Sericinae) The newly documented beetles belong to the subfamily Sericinae, known for their roles in ecosystem functioning. The six species are: Maladera champhaiensis – Discovered in Champhai, Mizoram Maladera barasingha – Named after the swamp deer (barasingha) due to its antler-like structure Maladera lumlaensis – Found in Lumla, Arunachal Pradesh Maladera onam – Located in Kerala; named after the Onam festival Neoserica churachandpurensis – Identified in Churachandpur, Manipur Serica subansiriensis – From Subansiri, Arunachal Pradesh   Research Team & Collaborative Effort The species were described by: Devanshu Gupta Debika Bhunia Dirk Ahrens Kailash Chandra This research represents a collaborative endeavor between the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) and Germany’s Museum Alexander Koenig, highlighting the importance of international cooperation in taxonomy and conservation science.   Regions of Discovery Five species were discovered in Northeast India, a region falling within the Eastern Himalayas—an area celebrated for its endemic diversity and evolutionary significance. One species was found in Kerala, part of the Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its exceptional biodiversity.   Methodology & Additional Findings The discoveries were based on the examination of specimens housed in the National Zoological Collection maintained by the ZSI. As a result of this detailed survey, 28 new state-level distribution records were also established. Notable examples include: Maladera bengalensis recorded for the first time in Goa Maladera seriatoguttata in Maharashtra   Ecological Significance of Sericinae Beetles Beetles of the Sericinae subfamily are ecologically important, playing key roles in: Soil aeration Nutrient cycling Natural pest regulation While some species are agricultural pests, many contribute significantly to maintaining soil health and ecosystem stability.   Why It Matters This discovery not only enriches the understanding of India’s insect biodiversity but also: Reinforces the ecological significance of India’s biodiversity hotspots Urges the need for deeper scientific exploration and documentation Emphasizes the importance of preserving fragile ecosystems amid growing environmental threats. Which of the following biodiversity hotspots are associated with the recent discovery of six new Sericinae scarab beetle species in India? Eastern Himalayas Sundarbans Western Ghats Indo-Gangetic Plains Select the correct answer using the code below: A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 1 and 3 onlyC) 2 and 4 onlyD) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: B) 1 and 3 only Explanation: India is home to four biodiversity hotspots as recognized globally: Eastern Himalayas Indo-Burma (includes parts of Northeast India) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka Sundaland (includes Nicobar Islands) In the recent discovery published in Zootaxa, six new Sericinae scarab beetle species were identified. Their locations are: Five species were discovered in Northeast India, which falls within the Eastern Himalayas

Neutral Conditions to Prevail in Pacific Ocean: US Weather Monitor Syllabus: GS1/Geography   The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) has forecasted that ENSO-neutral conditions will continue to dominate the Pacific Ocean through October 2025. This indicates the absence of El Niño or La Niña phenomena, collectively referred to as the El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO).   What is ENSO? The El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a natural climate pattern resulting from interactions between the ocean and atmosphere in the equatorial Pacific Ocean, and it influences global weather.   ENSO has three phases: El Niño: Warming of central and eastern Pacific Ocean waters. Weakens monsoons in India and Australia. Brings heavy rains to South America and floods in the southern U.S. La Niña: Cooling of ocean surface temperatures in the same region. Strengthens monsoons in South Asia. Triggers droughts in the U.S. Southwest and enhances Atlantic hurricane activity. Neutral: Sea surface temperatures remain near the long-term average. No dominant El Niño or La Niña conditions. Southern Oscillation: The atmospheric component of ENSO, measured by the Southern Oscillation Index (SOI), tracks pressure differences between Tahiti and Darwin.   Recent Trends A short and weak La Niña earlier in 2025 has transitioned into neutral conditions. Sub-surface ocean temperatures have normalized, confirming the end of La Niña.   India’s Monsoon Outlook ENSO-neutral conditions are usually associated with normal or above-normal monsoon rainfall in India. This is encouraging for Indian agriculture, as nearly 70% of annual rainfall occurs during the June–September monsoon season.   Future Outlook NOAA estimates a 50% chance that ENSO-neutral conditions will continue through August–October 2025. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will soon release its Long-Range Monsoon Forecast, factoring in these conditions. Ongoing monitoring of sea surface temperatures and atmospheric changes is essential for timely detection of El Niño or La Niña developments. With reference to the El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO), consider the following statements: El Niño events are generally associated with suppressed Atlantic hurricane activity. La Niña strengthens the Walker circulation, leading to intensified trade winds. ENSO-neutral conditions always imply the absence of extreme weather events globally. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A. 1 and 2 only   Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. El Niño suppresses Atlantic hurricane activity by increasing wind shear in the region. Statement 2 is correct. La Niña enhances the Walker circulation and strengthens trade winds, pushing warm water westward. Statement 3 is incorrect. ENSO-neutral conditions reduce the probability of ENSO-linked extreme events, but do not eliminate the occurrence of other extreme weather events caused by unrelated climatic factors. Plastic Parks in India Syllabus: GS 3/Environment  The Plastic Parks Scheme is gaining prominence as a strategic initiative to promote industrial development and environmental sustainability within India’s plastics sector.     What are Plastic Parks? Plastic Parks are dedicated industrial zones developed specifically for plastic processing and allied industries. These parks aim to: Consolidate and synergize the fragmented plastic processing sector. Attract investments and boost production and exports. Generate employment and enhance technological innovation. Promote environmentally sustainable practices through integrated waste management and recycling systems.   Significance and Progress: Plastic Parks form a critical component of India’s broader strategy for plastic waste management and circular economy. India is now 12th globally in plastic exports, with figures rising from $8.2 billion in 2014 to $27 billion in 2022, largely due to proactive policy measures like this scheme. So far, 10 Plastic Parks have been approved across various states.   Challenges in the Sector: The Indian plastics industry, though substantial, is highly fragmented, dominated by micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs). These units often lack the infrastructure and scale to compete globally or implement sustainable practices effectively.   Government Interventions: The Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals is implementing the scheme to establish state-of-the-art infrastructure for plastic parks. A cluster development approach is used to enable shared common facilities, including recycling and innovation hubs. The Government of India provides financial assistance up to 50% of the project cost, subject to a maximum of ₹40 crore per park.   Conclusion: The Plastic Parks Scheme represents a transformative initiative to bolster India’s plastic processing industry by promoting scale, sustainability, and competitiveness. As India’s share in global plastic trade expands, these parks will be pivotal in ensuring inclusive, innovative, and eco-conscious growth, aligning with national objectives of ‘Make in India’ and sustainable development. Consider the following statements regarding the Plastic Parks Scheme: It is implemented by the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. The scheme provides 100% central assistance for the development of parks. It aims to promote cluster development and common infrastructure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: B. 1 and 3 only  Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The scheme is indeed implemented by the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals, under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Statement 2 is incorrect: The GoI provides financial assistance up to 50%, not 100%, with a cap of ₹40 crore per park. Statement 3 is correct: It adopts a cluster development approach to build shared infrastructure and common facilities. Powering India’s Participation in Global Value Chains Report Syllabus: GS3/Indian Economy Overview NITI Aayog has released a comprehensive report analyzing the status, opportunities, and challenges of India’s automotive industry. The document outlines a strategic roadmap to position India as a major contributor to global automotive value chains (GVCs).   Key Highlights Global Trends in the Automotive Sector Shift in Supply Chains: Emergence of battery manufacturing hubs in Europe and the U.S. is reshaping traditional supply chains. Industry 4.0 Revolution: Advanced technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), Machine Learning (ML), Internet of Things (IoT), and robotics are enabling smart factories and connected vehicles, redefining manufacturing paradigms. Rising Input Costs: Semiconductor costs per vehicle are projected to increase from $600 to $1,200 by 2030. Global Auto Component Market: Estimated at $2