TOne Academy

23rd april 2025 Current Affairs

Blog

swapna April 23, 2025 No Comments

23rd april 2025 Current Affairs

Project Secure Syllabus: Environment   Project SeaCURE is an ambitious initiative launched on England’s south coast, designed to enhance the ocean’s role in addressing climate change. This pioneering pilot project, based in Weymouth, aims to extract carbon dioxide (CO₂) directly from seawater. Funded by the UK government, it explores cutting-edge technologies to improve the ocean’s ability to absorb and store CO₂.   The Project’s Goal SeaCURE targets the ocean as a powerful carbon sink, where CO₂ concentrations are higher than in the atmosphere. By removing carbon from seawater, the project seeks to develop a scalable, cost-effective solution to reduce atmospheric CO₂ levels. It is part of the UK’s broader strategy to explore and scale up carbon capture technologies that can mitigate climate change.   How It Works The process begins by pumping seawater into a specialized facility, where it undergoes acidification. This treatment helps convert dissolved carbon into gas, which is then captured before it escapes back into the atmosphere. The captured CO₂ is concentrated using sustainable materials, such as charred coconut husks, for safe and secure storage. Afterward, the treated seawater is neutralized and returned to the ocean, ready to absorb more CO₂.   Potential Impact SeaCURE has the potential to remove vast amounts of CO₂. If just 1% of the world’s surface seawater were processed, estimates suggest that up to 14 billion tonnes of CO₂ could be removed from the atmosphere each year. For this to be viable, however, the entire operation would need to be powered by renewable energy, such as floating solar panels, ensuring that the carbon removal process itself doesn’t contribute to further emissions.   Challenges and Concerns While SeaCURE holds promise, it faces several challenges. The process of generating the acid and alkaline materials needed for carbon extraction is energy-intensive. If the required energy is not sourced sustainably, the environmental benefits could be diminished or even undone. Additionally, there are concerns about the potential ecological impact of releasing large volumes of altered seawater back into the ocean, which could affect marine ecosystems.   The Issue of Ocean Acidification Project SeaCURE also highlights the growing problem of ocean acidification. As the oceans absorb increasing amounts of CO₂, their pH levels drop, making them more acidic. This shift in the ocean’s chemistry can negatively affect marine life, especially organisms that rely on carbon for essential processes, such as coral reefs and shellfish. Managing this balance is crucial to ensuring that solutions like SeaCURE do not unintentionally harm marine ecosystems.   Looking Ahead SeaCURE is one of 15 pilot projects funded by the UK’s carbon capture program, with experts seeing it as a crucial step toward achieving net-zero emissions. By refining and scaling up ocean-based carbon capture techniques, the ocean could become a more deliberate tool in the fight against climate change—provided the environmental challenges are carefully managed. The future of SeaCURE and similar projects could significantly shape how we address the climate crisis on a global scale. Which of the following trade-offs must be managed to ensure the success and sustainability of Project SeaCURE? Energy consumption vs. net carbon reduction Ocean chemistry balance vs. sequestration efficiency Technological scalability vs. ecological sensitivity Freshwater availability vs. seawater usage Select the correct code:  A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1, 2, and 3 onlyC. 2, 3, and 4 onlyD. All of the above Answer: B Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are valid trade-offs in SeaCURE: The process must be powered sustainably (1). Altering ocean chemistry through repeated treatment could affect marine life (2). Expanding the project globally must consider ecological risks (3). Statement 4 is incorrect because SeaCURE uses seawater, not freshwater, so freshwater availability isn’t a direct concern. Priyanka Chopra, Ang Lee, Megan Thee Stallion to Be Honoured at 4th Annual Gold House Gold Gala Syllabus: Awards   The 4th Annual Gold House Gold Gala returns in grandeur on May 10, 2025, at the Music Centre in Downtown Los Angeles, bringing together over 600 of the world’s most influential leaders in celebration of Asian Pacific excellence. This year’s gala shines a spotlight on individuals who have reshaped global culture through creativity, leadership, and advocacy.   Event Snapshot Name: 4th Annual Gold House Gold Gala Date: May 10, 2025 Location: Music Centre, Downtown Los Angeles Attendance: 600+ distinguished guests Theme: First Light — Honoring pioneers who have lit the path for others to follow   Honorees & Awards Priyanka Chopra Jonas Award: Global Vanguard Honor (Inaugural Recipient) Recognition: For a remarkable 25-year career spanning Bollywood and Hollywood. Impact: A global ambassador for underrepresented voices and Asian Pacific visibility in entertainment. Ang Lee Acclaimed Director: Life of Pi, Crouching Tiger, Hidden Dragon, Brokeback Mountain Recognition: Celebrated for redefining global cinema and championing Asian narratives across genres. Megan Thee Stallion Cultural Powerhouse: Honored for her influence on music, advocacy, and allyship. Contribution: Recognized as a bridge-builder for marginalized voices and supporter of Asian Pacific stories. Jon M. Chu Visionary Filmmaker: Crazy Rich Asians, Wicked Recognition: For transforming the portrayal of Asian communities in mainstream media and inspiring future storytellers.   Theme – “First Light” This year’s theme pays homage to the trailblazers — the “firsts” in their fields or identities — who ignited transformative change. As Gold House CEO Bing Chen stated, the gala “launches the next wave of culture,” honoring those whose achievements have opened doors for future generations.   A Cultural Milestone The Gold Gala stands as a cornerstone of cultural recognition, highlighting innovation, heritage, and leadership within the Asian Pacific community. It also builds momentum ahead of the highly anticipated 2025 A100 List—a definitive index of the top 100 Asian Pacific change makers—set to be revealed on May 1. With its blend of star power and social purpose, the Gold Gala continues to be a powerful platform for celebrating those shaping the future of global culture. In the context of cultural representation and symbolic capital, the conferring of the Global Vanguard Honor to Priyanka Chopra signifies which of the following? Institutionalization of diasporic identity in global pop

karthik April 23, 2025 No Comments

Weekly Current Affairs 24 march- 30 march 2025

Governance Environment Economy Science and Technology Geography Defence Art and Culture International Relations Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act, 2005 Context Over 30 civil society organizations have urged the Union government to safeguard the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, amid concerns about potential restrictions imposed by the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023.   Concerns Raised Activists caution against fully implementing amendments that may weaken the RTI Act under the DPDP Act. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act now broadly prohibits disclosing personal information, even when it serves the public interest. The government justifies the change by citing the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India(2017) case, which recognized privacy as a fundamental right.   Challenges Posed by the Amendment Restricting access to information may hinder social audits and make it difficult to uncover corruption or misuse of public funds. RTI requests have been instrumental in verifying government programs, such as food ration distribution and welfare schemes. Activists argue that the original RTI framework already balanced privacy with transparency, rejecting claims that the changes align with the Supreme Court’s privacy ruling. Right to Information Act, 2005   Objectives and Scope Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in governance by granting citizens the right to access information from public authorities. Applicable to government departments, ministries, and organizations substantially funded by the government.   Key Provisions Information Access:Citizens can request government records, documents, and other relevant data. Exemptions:Information related to national security, confidentiality, and ongoing investigations is excluded. Response Time:Public authorities must respond within 30 days, extendable to 45 days in specific cases. Penalties:Officials withholding information without valid reasons or providing false details may face penalties.   Significance of the RTI Act Empowering Citizens: Enables individuals to seek information, ensuring government transparency and accountability. Preventing Corruption: RTI has exposed fund mismanagement in schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS). Promoting Good Governance: Enhances trust in government by fostering openness in decision-making. Facilitating Social Audits: NGOs and activists use RTI to verify government service delivery, such as the Public Distribution System (PDS). Ensuring Public Access to Records: RTI requests help uncover inefficiencies and corruption in government contracts. Strengthening Democracy: Encourages citizen participation in governance and policymaking.   Criticism and Challenges Administrative Burden: High volumes of RTI requests strain public authorities, diverting resources from primary duties. Misuse of RTI: Some requests are used for harassment or personal/political agendas. Delays in Processing: Authorities struggle to meet response deadlines, leading to frustration among applicants. Lack of Training and Infrastructure: Many government offices lack the expertise and resources for effective RTI implementation. Ambiguity in Exemptions: Vaguely defined exemptions create loopholes for withholding crucial public information.   Way Forward Parliament should define “personal information” and “public interest” more precisely. Personal data disclosure should be permitted when it serves a greater public good, such as exposing corruption or verifying the misuse of funds. Any amendments to the RTI Act should involve consultations with multiple stakeholders, including RTI activists, legal experts, and data protection specialists. The government must balance privacy rights with the need for transparency to ensure democratic accountability. The RTI Act remains a cornerstone of democracy, empowering citizens and ensuring government accountability. Its preservation is crucial for upholding transparency, reducing corruption, and promoting good governance. With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements: The RTI Act applies only to government departments and ministries but not to organizations that receive substantial government funding. The Act allows disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest. The government can reject an RTI request if the information sought affects national security or ongoing criminal investigations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only   Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect:The RTI Act not only applies to government departments and ministries but also covers organizations that receive substantial funding from the government (such as NGOs and public-private partnerships). Statement 2 is correct:The RTI Act permits disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest, but the recent amendment under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023 has created hurdles in this regard. Statement 3 is correct:The Act exempts disclosure of information that affects national security, foreign relations, or ongoing investigations under Section 8(1). Fast Track Special Courts Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) have emerged as a critical judicial mechanism for expediting trials related to sexual crimes, ensuring justice for survivors in a time-bound manner. With an impressive disposal rate of 96.28%, these courts have significantly reduced legal delays in cases under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, and rape cases.   What are Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs)?   Definition: FTSCs are dedicated courts established in India to accelerate the judicial process for heinous crimes, particularly rape and child sexual abuse cases.   Establishment: Initiated in 2019 under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law & Justice.   Funding Pattern: 60:40 (Centre:States) for most states and Union Territories (UTs) with a legislature. 90:10 for Northeastern and Hilly States/UTs to ensure equitable judicial access.   Operational Target: The scheme envisions the establishment of 790 FTSCs, including specialized e-POCSO courts. Each FTSC is expected to handle 41-42 cases per quarter, ensuring the disposal of at least 165 cases annually to reduce case backlog effectively.   Rationale for FTSCs The Supreme Court of India (2019) mandated speedy disposal of POCSO cases, emphasizing that both the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) and POCSO Act, 2012, prescribe strict timelines for investigation and trial. Judicial Backlog: Overburdened courts and limited judicial resources often result in prolonged trials, delaying justice and weakening deterrence against sexual crimes. FTSCs play a crucial role in reinforcing public confidence in the judicial system by ensuring swift and effective justice.   Key Recommendations by the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) Continuation of the FTSC Scheme Given their impact, FTSCs should be sustained and expanded to

karthik April 23, 2025 No Comments

24 april 2025 Current Affairs

Arsenic Pollution Syllabus: Environment   Context: A recent study published in The Lancet Planetary Health warns that climate change may increase arsenic levels in rice, posing serious health risks in Asia by 2050.   What is Arsenic (As)? A naturally occurring trace element, commonly found in combination with sulfur and metals in minerals Highly toxic in its inorganic form     Health Impacts of Arsenic Exposure: Long-term exposure may lead to: Cancer, skin lesions, cardiovascular disease, and diabetes Early-life exposure (in-utero or childhood): Impaired cognitive development Increased mortality in young adults Blackfoot Disease (Taiwan): A severe vascular condition linked to arsenic, leading to gangrene   Permissible Limits: WHO Guideline:01 mg/l (10 μg/l) India (in absence of alternative):05 mg/l (50 μg/l)   Arsenic Contamination in India: First identified in West Bengal (1980) Widespread contamination in the Ganga–Brahmaputra alluvial plains Affects millions of people through contaminated groundwater   Government Initiatives: National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP): Focuses on providing safe drinking water Targets removal of contaminants like arsenic and fluoride   ‘AMRIT’ Technology by IIT-Madras: Innovative method to remove arsenic and metal ions from water Supports affordable, scalable water purification Consider the following statements about arsenic contamination in India: The highest concentrations of arsenic are found in hard rock aquifers of peninsular India. The permissible limit of arsenic in drinking water is stricter in India than the WHO standard. Arsenic contamination is predominantly an issue in alluvial plains. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: B. 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The highest concentrations are found in alluvial aquifers (Ganga–Brahmaputra plains), not hard rock aquifers. Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s permissible limit (0.05 mg/l) is more lenient than the WHO standard (0.01 mg/l). Statement 3 is correct: Arsenic contamination is a major issue in the alluvial plains due to geological and hydrological factors. Gold Prices Cross Rs 1 lakh-mark For First Time Syllabus: GS3/Economy Context: Gold prices in India have surged past ₹1 lakh per 10 grams, marking an all-time high and drawing attention to the underlying global and domestic economic factors.   Key Factors Influencing Gold Prices: Supply and Demand Dynamics: Higher mining output can reduce prices. Increased demand (for investment, jewelry, or industrial use) pushes prices upward.   Inflation: Gold acts as a hedge against inflation. Rising inflation increases demand for gold, driving prices higher.   Interest Rates: Lower interest rates make gold more attractive as it offers no yield but becomes more competitive. Higher rates lead to lower gold prices due to increased opportunity cost.   Geopolitical Instability: Political tensions, wars, or global crises boost demand for gold as a safe haven asset.   Currency Fluctuations: Gold is priced in S. dollars. A weaker dollar makes gold cheaper for other currencies, increasing global demand.   Central Bank Policies: Central banks buying or selling gold significantly influence global prices. Gold is a key component of central banks’ foreign exchange reserves.   Global Economic Conditions: During economic downturns or recessions, investors turn to gold for stability, raising its value.   Key Global Facts About Gold: Top Gold Producers: China (largest) Russia Australia   Top Gold Consumers: China India   Largest Gold Reserves (by country): United States – ~8,133.5 metric tons Germany Italy Consider the following statements regarding the relationship between inflation and gold prices: Gold is an inflation-sensitive commodity due to its industrial utility. In inflationary periods, real interest rates usually rise, making gold more attractive. Gold’s value often rises as it acts as a store of value when currency depreciates. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 3 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: A. 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Gold’s price sensitivity in inflation isn’t due to industrial use but due to its monetary role as a hedge. Statement 2 is incorrect: Inflation typically lowers real interest rates, which makes non-yielding assets like gold more attractive. Statement 3 is correct: Gold maintains purchasing power when currency loses value. Green Way to Recycle Toxic Perovskite Solar Cells Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology   A recent study published in Nature highlights a novel water-based method for recycling Perovskite Solar Cells (PSCs), aiming to reduce environmental risks associated with traditional recycling techniques.   What are Perovskite Solar Cells (PSCs)? A promising class of next-generation photovoltaic (PV) technologies. Utilize materials with a perovskite crystal structure for efficient sunlight absorption. Known for their high power conversion efficiency (PCE) and low production costs. A major concern: Use of toxic elements, especially lead (Pb), which pose environmental and health risks upon disposal.   Limitations of Traditional Recycling: Typically use toxic organic solvents like dimethylformamide (DMF). These pose serious environmental hazards and complicate safe recycling.   The New Water-Based Green Recycling Method: Solvent-free approach using safer and more sustainable chemicals.   Employs three key salts: Sodium acetate: Binds with lead to form water-soluble lead acetate. Sodium iodide: Supplies iodide ions to reconstruct degraded perovskite. Hypophosphorous acid: Stabilizes the solution, enhancing crystal purity and quality.   This process: Dissolves the toxic perovskite layer. Enables re-synthesis of high-purity crystals for reuse in new PSCs.   Additionally, ethanol and ethyl acetate are used to: Recover other components such as metal electrodes and glass substrates   Significance: Promotes sustainable recycling of advanced solar technology. Reduces reliance on hazardous chemicals. Paves the way for greener production cycles in solar energy industries. Consider the following pairs: Compound Function in Water-Based PSC Recycling Sodium iodide Provides iodide ions to reconstruct perovskite Hypophosphorous acid Stabilizes the recycling solution and ensures crystal quality Ethanol and ethyl acetate Used to dissolve the perovskite layer Which of the pairs are correctly matched? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: A. 1 and 2 only Explanation: Pair 1 is correct: Sodium iodide contributes iodide ions to rebuild the perovskite structure. Pair 2 is correct: Hypophosphorous acid stabilizes the

karthik April 22, 2025 No Comments

22nd april 2025 Current Affairs

Cloudburst-Triggered Landslide in Jammu and Kashmir Syllabus: GS1/ Geography   Context A recent cloudburst in Ramban tehsil, Jammu and Kashmir, triggered torrential rains, hailstorms, and strong winds, resulting in widespread damage and disruption across the region.   What is a Cloudburst? A cloudburst is a localized extreme weather event characterized by intense rainfall over a short period, often resulting in flash floods. While more frequent in hilly regions, cloudbursts can also occur in plains.     Definition: 10 cm or more rainfall in an hour over a 10 km x 10 km area 5 cm rainfall in 30 minutes over the same area also qualifies   Mechanism of Cloudbursts: Cloudbursts are more common in mountainous terrains due to a process called orographic lift: Moist, warm air is forced to rise when it hits a mountain slope. As it ascends, the air expands and cools due to lower pressure. Cooling causes condensation, forming dense clouds and heavy rainfall.   What is Orographic Rain? Orographic rain occurs when moist air is lifted over a mountain range: Air rises and cools. Moisture condenses to form clouds. Heavy rainfall occurs on the windward side. The leeward side remains dry — known as the rain shadow area.   Impacts of Cloudbursts Flash Floods: Sudden inflow overwhelms rivers and drainage systems, especially in rocky, non-absorbent hilly regions.Example: 2013 Kedarnath disaster. Landslides: Triggered by saturated soil, leading to rapid downhill movement of rocks and debris. Loss of Life & Livelihood: Sudden onset leaves minimal time for evacuation; homes, crops, and livestock are often destroyed. Infrastructure Damage: Roads, bridges, electricity lines, and telecom networks are frequently washed away. Social Disruption: Leads to trauma, displacement, migration, and affects essential services like health and education in remote areas.   Measures Taken in India: Disaster Management Act, 2005: Framework for disaster risk reduction at national and state levels. National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM): Capacity building and training support. Early Warning Systems India Meteorological Department (IMD): Uses Ensemble Prediction Systems (EPS) for rainfall accuracy. Doppler Weather Radars (DWRs): Real-time detection of intense rainfall, especially in vulnerable zones. Flash Flood Guidance System (FFGS): Developed with WMO to issue early warnings across South Asia. Mobile Alert Systems: Real-time SMS and app notifications by IMD and NDMA.   Way Forward: To reduce the devastating impact of cloudbursts, India must adopt a holistic, proactive strategy: Strict land-use planning and enforcement of zoning regulations in high-risk areas Resilient infrastructure, including: Efficient stormwater drainage Slope stabilization Rainwater harvesting systems Community-based preparedness and localized disaster response training Climate change adaptation must be mainstreamed into all disaster management strategies, as the frequency and intensity of extreme weather events continue to rise. Consider the following statements regarding disaster management in India: The Disaster Management Act, 2005 is applicable only to natural disasters. The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is responsible for disaster response and relief operations on the ground. The Act provides for the establishment of National and State Disaster Management Authorities. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 3 onlyD) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C) 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Disaster Management Act, 2005 covers both natural and man-made disasters. Statement 2 is incorrect: The NIDM focuses on capacity building, research, and training, not direct response. Statement 3 is correct: The Act establishes the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs). ISRO Satellites Forecast Wheat Production: Use of Space Technology in Agriculture Sector Syllabus :GS 3/Economy   The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has estimated India’s total wheat production for the 2024–25 Rabi season at 122.724 million tonnes, based on satellite data from eight major wheat-growing states.   About the Study The study utilized the Comprehensive Remote Sensing Observation on Crop Progress (CROP) framework developed by NRSC/ISRO. CROP is a semi-automated and scalable tool that enables near real-time monitoring of crop sowing and harvesting, especially during the Rabi season. It integrates data from satellites like EOS-04, EOS-06, and Resourcesat-2A, using Optical and Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) datasets to assess wheat sowing patterns and crop health. As of March 31, 2025, the wheat-sown area stood at 330.8 lakh hectares, closely aligning with figures from the Ministry of Agriculture.   The Role of Space Technology in Agriculture India’s agriculture is critical for food security and rural livelihoods, but faces challenges such as population pressure, resource constraints, and climate variability. Space-based technology offers sustainable, smart solutions to modernize and optimize agriculture.   Benefits and Applications of Space Technology in Agriculture Precision Agriculture GNSS (Global Navigation Satellite Systems) allow accurate field mapping and resource allocation. Enables precise irrigation, fertilizer application, and crop scheduling, enhancing productivity and reducing waste. Remote Sensing & Satellite Imaging Tracks crop health, vegetation patterns, and land use changes. Detects early signs of disease for targeted pest control and reduced pesticide usage. Hyperspectral Imaging Provides high-resolution data for plant health diagnostics, identifying subtle physiological stress before visible symptoms appear. More accurate than conventional spectral sensors. Water & Soil Management Supports efficient irrigation, groundwater conservation, and soil moisture monitoring. Helps manage erosion, land degradation, and promotes soil conservation practices. Improved Connectivity Satellite-based networks enhance real-time access to: Weather forecasts Market prices Expert agronomic advice     Key Government Initiatives The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has integrated space technology in agriculture since the 1980s. Mahalanobis National Crop Forecast Centre (MNCFC), established in 2012, operationalizes space-based crop forecasting tools. Soil and Land Use Survey of India (SLUSI) uses satellite data for soil resource mapping. Krishi-DSS: A first-of-its-kind geospatial platform providing: Satellite imagery Weather data Groundwater and soil health information Reservoir storage insights   Conclusion and Way Forward Space technology holds transformative potential for India’s agricultural sector. By leveraging satellite data, geospatial tools, and AI-driven insights, agriculture can become: More productive Resource-efficient Sustainable and climate-resilient Its increased adoption will be crucial for ensuring food security, economic growth, and environmental sustainability in the years ahead. With reference to the Comprehensive Remote Sensing Observation on

karthik April 21, 2025 No Comments

21st april 2025 Current Affairs

Judiciary Can’t Function as Super Parliament: Vice President Syllabus:Polity Vice President’s Criticism Accused the judiciary of acting as a “super Parliament”. Criticized Article 142 of the Constitution, calling it a “nuclear missile against democratic forces”, available to the judiciary 24×7. The remarks came after the Supreme Court set a 3-month deadline for the President to act on bills pending with state governors and invoked Article 142 to deem 10 bills as approved.   What is Article 142? Grants the Supreme Court the power to “pass any order necessary to do complete justice” in any pending case. Originally intended as an extraordinary provision to ensure justice in situations where the law is silent or inadequate.   Example: Vishaka Guidelines (1997) – issued in the absence of sexual harassment laws, later formed the basis for the PoSH Act (2013). Concerns about Article 142 Vague Definition: The term “complete justice” is subjective and lacks a precise definition. Judicial Overreach: Allows the judiciary to potentially interfere in the domains of the legislature or executive. Violation of Separation of Powers: Risks converting judicial activism into judicial legislation.   Judicial Activism vs Judicial Overreach Judicial Activism Judicial Overreach Upholds rights and ensures justice Judiciary enters legislative or executive domains Based on constitutional provisions Often seen as creating “judge-made” laws Example: Vishaka Guidelines Example: Striking down NJAC (2015)   India’s Manuscripts in UNESCO Memory of the World Register Newly Added: Bhagavad Gita:Dialogue between Krishna and Arjuna, dated to the 2nd or 1st century BCE. Contains 700 verses across 18 chapters; serves as a spiritual and philosophical guide.   Natyashastra by Bharatmuni: Ancient Sanskrit treatise on drama, music, dance, and aesthetics. Regarded as the foundation of Indian performing arts, dated around the 2nd century BCE.   UNESCO Memory of the World Programme Launched in 1992. Aims to preserve and promote access to documentary heritage of outstanding universal value. Other Indian Inscriptions in the Register: Rig Veda, Gilgit Manuscripts, Works of Abhinavagupta, Maitreyayvarakarana (Pala period), among others.   Global Entry: Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) is also newly included in the register. Consider the following statements regarding the Vishaka Guidelines: They were issued by the Supreme Court using Article 142. They formed the basis for the PoSH Act, 2013.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1: “They were issued by the Supreme Court using Article 142.” – Correct The Vishaka Guidelines were laid down by the Supreme Court in 1997 in the case Vishaka & Others v. State of Rajasthan & Others, to address sexual harassment of women at the workplace. At the time, there was no legislation in India specifically dealing with workplace sexual harassment. The Supreme Court invoked Article 142 of the Constitution to formulate binding guidelines, ensuring “complete justice” in the absence of statutory law. Statement 2: “They formed the basis for the PoSH Act, 2013.” – Correct. The Vishaka Guidelines acted as a legal framework for preventing and redressing sexual harassment at workplaces for over a decade.In 2013, Parliament passed the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, commonly known as the PoSH Act, which was largely based on the Vishaka Guidelines. Sterkfontein Caves Syllabus: GS1/ History and Culture Location: Situated around 50 km northwest of Johannesburg, South Africa, the Sterkfontein Caves are a key attraction within the Cradle of Humankind. Geological Features: Formed primarily from dolomitic limestone, the caves are known for their dramatic stalactites and stalagmites, shaped over millions of years.     Palaeoanthropological Importance: Among the world’s richest sources of hominid fossils. Landmark discoveries include: “Mrs Ples” – a well-preserved skull of Australopithecus africanus. “Little Foot” – one of the most complete Australopithecus skeletons ever found. These fossils indicate early human ancestors lived in the region up to 5 million years ago.   Heritage Status: Recognized for its outstanding value, the site was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1999. With reference to the Sterkfontein Caves, consider the following statements: The caves are primarily composed of basaltic rock, which facilitated the preservation of early hominid fossils. The discovery of the “Little Foot” skeleton has contributed to the hypothesis that hominins existed in southern Africa much earlier than previously thought. The Sterkfontein Caves are part of a transboundary World Heritage Site shared by South Africa and Namibia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: A. 2 only  Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect:The Sterkfontein Caves are not composed of basaltic rock but dolomitic limestone. This sedimentary rock, not basalt (which is igneous), has aided in fossil preservation due to its slow-forming mineral deposits and cave structures. Statement 2 – Correct: The “Little Foot” skeleton is a nearly complete fossil of Australopithecus, discovered in these caves. Its dating to around 3.5 million years ago has pushed back the timeline for hominin presence in southern Africa, challenging earlier East Africa-centric models of early human evolution. Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Sterkfontein Caves are part of the Cradle of Humankind, a UNESCO World Heritage Site located entirely within South Africa. It is not a trans boundary site and does not extend into Namibia. Davis Strait Proto-Microcontinent Syllabus:Geography A hidden landmass, termed the Davis Strait proto-microcontinent, has been recently discovered beneath the waters of the Davis Strait, located between Baffin Island (Canada) and Greenland.     About the Proto-Microcontinent: It is a submerged primitive microcontinent, formed as a result of the tectonic evolution of the Davis Strait. The microcontinent comprises thickened continental crust measuring 19–24 km in thickness, flanked by narrow bands of thinner crust (15–17 km) that separate it from Greenland and Baffin Island. It formed due to plate tectonic reconfiguration millions of years ago, which reshaped the Earth’s crust in the region.   Davis Strait – Key Geographical and Geological Features: Located between southeastern Baffin Island and southwestern Greenland, it links Baffin Bay (north) and the

karthik April 19, 2025 No Comments

19th april 2025 Current Affairs

World Heritage Day 2025 Syllabus: GS3/ History and Culture Theme 2024: “Heritage under Threat from Disasters and Conflicts: Preparedness and Learning from 60 years of ICOMOS Actions”     Background Proposed by the International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) in 1982 Officially approved by UNESCO in 1983 Observed annually to raise awareness about preserving cultural heritage   World Heritage Sites Sites of outstanding universal value inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List Can be cultural, natural, or mixed Protected under the 1972 World Heritage Convention India became a signatory in 1977   India on the World Heritage Map Home to numerous UNESCO World Heritage Sites and Monuments of National Importance Monuments of National Importance (MNI): Protected under the AMASR Act, 2010 Conserved by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) Total MNIs: 3,697   Key Government Initiatives Retrieval of Antiquities: 655 artefacts recovered from abroad (1976–2024) Adopt a Heritage Scheme: Launched in 2017; revamped in 2023 to involve private/public entities in monument upkeep Must-See Portal: Digital platform to promote iconic monuments Digitization: National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities (NMMA) is documenting and digitizing heritage assets 46th World Heritage Committee Session: Hosted by ASI in 2024, showcasing India’s global cultural leadership   Conclusion: World Heritage Day is a reminder of our collective duty to protect and cherish cultural treasures. Through national commitment and global cooperation, India continues to safeguard its rich heritage for future generations. Which of the following statements regarding the World Heritage Convention, 1972 is/are correct? It is legally binding only on cultural sites and not natural sites. It obligates signatory States to report periodically on the conservation status of World Heritage Sites. India became a signatory to the Convention even before it was adopted by UNESCO. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only   Answer: B. 2 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Convention is applicable to cultural, natural, and mixed sites. Statement 2 is correct: Periodic reporting on the conservation status is a mandatory obligation under the convention. Statement 3 is incorrect: The convention was adopted in 1972 and India joined in 1977, after its adoption. Making Primary Health Care Visible, Accessible, and Affordable Syllabus: GS2/Health   ContextIndia has been actively reforming its primary healthcare system through progressive policies and programs aimed at overcoming key challenges such as accessibility, affordability, and visibility.   What is Primary Healthcare (PHC)? According to the World Health Organization (WHO), Primary Health Care is a comprehensive, society-wide approach to health systems that brings essential health and well-being services closer to communities. PHC is designed to be accessible, affordable, and inclusive, covering the full spectrum of care—promotive, preventive, curative, rehabilitative, and palliative. This approach was first globally recognized in the Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978, which emphasized health care based on scientifically sound and socially acceptable practices as the cornerstone of universal health access.     Key Issues in India’s Primary Healthcare System Urban vs. Rural Divide: Despite proximity to advanced facilities, urban slums face overcrowding and affordability challenges. Meanwhile, rural areas—home to over 65% of the population—struggle with a lack of healthcare centers, trained personnel, and poor transport infrastructure. Human Resource Shortages (2023–24): 77% shortfall in surgeons 69% shortfall in obstetricians 70% shortfall in physicians at Community Health Centres (CHCs) 10–25% vacancy in nursing staff across various states Rising Burden of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) and Mental Health: PHCs now face the added responsibility of addressing lifestyle-related diseases and mental health concerns. However, gaps in infrastructure and training often limit their effectiveness.   Key Government Initiatives National Health Mission (NHM): India operates an extensive network of healthcare facilities, including: 6 lakh Sub-Centres (SCs) 26,636 Primary Health Centres (PHCs) 6,155 Community Health Centres (CHCs):These act as the first point of contact for most healthcare seekers.   Ayushman Bharat Program (2018): Aims to transform the PHC landscape through the creation of Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs), offering expanded services like maternal and child care, mental health, NCD management, and geriatric services. Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC):As outlined in the National Health Policy 2017, this initiative promotes universal health coverage by integrating traditional medicine systems (AYUSH) with modern healthcare delivery. Focus on Underserved Areas: Programs such as the Aspirational District Program (ADP) and Aspirational Block Program (ABP) target healthcare improvements in the most backward regions. PM Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM): With an investment of ₹64,180 crore, this mission strengthens healthcare infrastructure and builds resilience against future health emergencies. Women-Led Initiatives: Over 1.9 crore women are involved in Self Help Groups (SHGs), playing a key role in spreading awareness about primary healthcare services and promoting community health participation.   Global Support and Collaborations Universal Health Coverage (UHC):A global commitment to ensuring equitable access to quality health services without financial hardship. Scaling up PHC in developing nations could save 60 million lives and extend average life expectancy by 3.7 years by 2030. Global Health Programs: Initiatives like the Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis, and Malaria and the Gavi Alliance help integrate PHC with disease-specific strategies and immunization efforts.   Way Forward Infrastructure DevelopmentExpanding the reach and functionality of HWCs, especially in remote areas, and investing in telemedicine to bridge the urban-rural healthcare divide. Increasing Awareness:Strengthening community outreach and health education to improve service visibility and community participation. Enhancing Affordability:Continued focus on reducing out-of-pocket expenses through schemes like PM-JAY to ensure financial protection for all. With reference to India’s efforts in integrating traditional medicine systems in primary healthcare, consider the following statements: AYUSH services are being incorporated under the Comprehensive Primary Health Care model. The National Health Policy 2017 explicitly mentions the role of traditional systems in achieving Universal Health Coverage (UHC). Ayurveda and Yoga are restricted to wellness centres and not used in curative services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer:AExplanation: Statement 1 is correct: AYUSH is a core part of the Comprehensive