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1. Santhara Syllabus: GS1/Culture A tragic incident involving a three-year-old girl with a brain tumour has sparked a national debate after her parents initiated her into Santhara, a Jain religious ritual of voluntarily embracing death.   What is Santhara? Santhara, also called Sallekhana or Samadhi Maran, is an ancient Jain religious vow of gradual fasting unto death. It is undertaken with the aim of attaining spiritual purity by detaching from worldly desires and shedding accumulated karma. Jain scriptures permit Santhara only under specific circumstances, such as: Terminal illness Extreme old age Severe and unavoidable hardship (e.g., famine or deteriorating health that may lead to unintentional harm to living beings, violating ahimsa).   Ethical and Legal Concerns The death of a minor has raised critical questions of consent and legality, as children lack the cognitive maturity to make life-ending decisions. Medical professionals and child rights activists argue that the practice, when applied to minors, equates to enforced starvation and violates basic human rights.   Legal Status of Santhara In 2015, the Rajasthan High Court ruled that Santhara is akin to suicide, making it punishable under: Section 306 – Abetment to suicide Section 309 – Attempt to suicide The ruling triggered widespread protests from the Jain community, citing infringement on religious freedom. Later, the Supreme Court stayed the Rajasthan HC verdict, effectively preserving the status quo and recognizing Santhara as part of Jain religious tradition—pending a final decision. Consider the following statements regarding the Jain ritual of Santhara and its legal-constitutional implications in India: Santhara is explicitly protected under Article 25 of the Constitution as a core religious practice of Jainism, as affirmed by the Supreme Court in a final judgment. The Rajasthan High Court, in a 2015 ruling, equated Santhara with suicide and held it punishable under Sections 306 and 309 of the Indian Penal Code. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution has been interpreted to include the right to die with dignity in the context of both euthanasia and religious fasting. The Supreme Court’s stay on the Rajasthan High Court’s verdict effectively legalizes Santhara in all forms and circumstances, including its use by minors. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 3 onlyD) 1, 2, and 4 only Correct Answer: B) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Supreme Court has stayed the Rajasthan HC judgment but has not delivered a final ruling affirming Santhara as a constitutionally protected religious practice. Thus, legal status is pending adjudication, not fully affirmed. Statement 2 – Correct: The Rajasthan HC in 2015 did declare Santhara punishable under IPC Sections 306 and 309, treating it as suicide. Statement 3 – Correct: The right to die with dignity has been interpreted under Article 21 by the Supreme Court, especially in the Common Cause v. Union of India (2018) judgment on passive euthanasia. Statement 4 – Incorrect: The SC’s interim stay on the HC ruling does not equate to full legalization, especially not for minors who cannot give informed consent, making the recent case ethically and legally controversial. Mangar Bani Syllabus: GS1/ Ancient History Recent archaeological findings at Mangar Bani, located in the Aravalli ranges along the Delhi-Haryana border, have uncovered prehistoric tools and rock art dating back to the Lower Palaeolithic period (approximately 200,000–500,000 years ago), making it one of the oldest known human habitations in the region. Mangar Bani is not only an important archaeological site but also a sacred grove and hill forest, believed to be the only surviving primary forest in the Delhi NCR region. Despite its ecological significance, it is not officially notified as a forest under the Forest (Conservation) Act. A primary forest refers to an ecologically mature and naturally regenerated forest, largely untouched by significant human activity, and characterized by the presence of native tree species and high biodiversity. With reference to Mangar Bani, consider the following statements: Mangar Bani is officially classified as a primary forest under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. Archaeological evidence from Mangar Bani indicates human habitation dating back to the Upper Palaeolithic period. It is located in the Aravalli hills, and represents the last surviving patch of primary forest in the Delhi NCR region. Primary forests are typically younger forests subjected to reforestation and managed silviculture practices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 3 onlyC) 1, 3, and 4 onlyD) 2 and 4 only Answer: B) 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Mangar Bani is not officially notified as a forest under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, despite functioning ecologically as one. Statement 2 is incorrect: The evidence dates back to the Lower Palaeolithic period, not Upper Palaeolithic. Statement 3 is correct: Mangar Bani is indeed located in the Aravalli hills and is considered the last remaining primary forest in the Delhi NCR. Statement 4 is incorrect: Primary forests are ecologically mature and minimally disturbed, unlike reforested or managed forests. Rules for Obtaining Voter ID in India Syllabus: GS2/ Governance Context In the aftermath of the recent terrorist attack in Pahalgam, investigations revealed that several deported Pakistani nationals were in possession of Indian identity documents, including voter ID cards, raising concerns about loopholes in the electoral registration system.   Constitutional and Legal Framework Article 326 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every Indian citizen aged 18 years or above for elections to the Lok Sabha and State/Union Territory Legislative Assemblies. Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 disqualifies individuals from being registered in electoral rolls if they: Are not citizens of India, Have been declared to be of unsound mind by a competent court, Are disqualified due to corrupt practices or offences under election laws.   Voter Registration Procedure The Election Commission of India (ECI) requires new applicants to use Form 6 for enrolment.   Required documents include: Self-attested proof of age and address (e.g., utility bills, Aadhaar, driving license), A signed declaration of Indian citizenship. Proof

Maize for Ethanol Production: Fuel vs Feed crisis Syllabus:Agriculture Context: India’s demand for maize-based ethanol has surged from 0.8 million tonnes in 2022–23 to 12.7 million tonnes in 2024–25, creating pressure on feed grain availability and triggering a food-versus-fuel debate.   Maize for Ethanol – The Shift Biofuels help reduce dependence on fossil fuels and cut emissions Maize and sugarcane are the primary feedstocks One tonne of maize yields approximately 380 litres of ethanol India is the fifth-largest ethanol producer and aims for 20 percent blending by 2025   Emerging Challenges Grain Shortage: India has moved from a surplus to a deficit in maize supply Maize prices rose sharply from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 per tonne Feed Crisis: Livestock feed supply is strained, especially for poultry and dairy sectors Feed industries are demanding genetically modified maize imports for ethanol use Soybean Market Disruption: Distillers’ Dried Grains with Soluble (DDGS), a byproduct of ethanol, competes with soybean de-oiled cake Soybean prices have dropped below the Minimum Support Price, affecting farmer incomes   Global Lessons Mandates under the U.S. Renewable Fuel Standard and European policies have previously caused food price spikes and trade disruptions during global crises   Way Forward – A Balanced Approach Implement flexible ethanol blending targets that can be adjusted during periods of food inflation Promote second- and third-generation biofuels from agricultural waste, used cooking oil, and biomass Allow duty-free imports of genetically modified maize exclusively for ethanol, with safeguards Ensure feed security through buffer stocks and support for alternative proteins Protect farmer interests by enforcing MSPs and supporting crop diversification and direct income transfers   Conclusion: India’s clean energy goals through ethanol must be carefully aligned with national food and feed security. A research-driven, flexible policy focused on advanced biofuels is essential for sustainable agricultural and energy development. Consider the following statements regarding the use of maize for ethanol production in India: One tonne of maize yields less ethanol than sugarcane on average. The DDGS byproduct from ethanol production is a complete substitute for maize in animal feed. India became a net importer of maize after ethanol blending targets were raised. Ethanol production from maize does not affect soybean markets directly. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 4 only Answer:CExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: One tonne of maize yields around 380 litres of ethanol, but sugarcane ethanol yield is not directly comparable due to differences in processing and sucrose content. Statement 2 is incorrect: DDGS is a partial, not full, substitute for maize feed. Statement 3 is correct: Maize diversion to ethanol led India to become a net importer. Statement 4 is incorrect: DDGS has undercut soy DOC prices, directly impacting soybean markets Vikramaditya I of Badami Chalukyas Syllabus:History    Context: A 7th-century inscription in Old Kannada, dating to the reign of Vikramaditya I of the Badami Chalukyas, was recently discovered near Madapura Lake in Davangere, Karnataka.The inscription offers valuable insights into the fiscal system, land grants, and local governance structures during his rule. Badami Chalukyas: A Historical Overview Origins and Legitimacy: Emerged as a native Kannada power in the Deccan Claimed descent from Ayodhya to enhance dynastic legitimacy Capital:Vatapi (modern-day Badami) in Karnataka Key Rulers and Political History: Pulakesin I (543–566 CE): Founded the dynasty Fortified Vatapi as the capital Pulakesin II (609–642 CE): Most celebrated ruler Defeated Harshavardhana at the Narmada Established diplomatic ties with Sassanid Persia, depicted in Ajanta murals Vikramaditya I (644–681 CE): Son of Pulakesin II Reclaimed Vatapi from the Pallavas after his father’s defeat Consolidated control over southern kingdoms including Cholas, Pandyas, and Keralas Administrative and Military Contributions Political Reorganisation: Restored centralized authority after a period of decline Appointed trusted feudatories (e.g., Singhavenna) to govern regions (as revealed by recent inscription) Military Successes: Defeated Narasimhavarman I of the Pallavas Reunified the Chalukya empire Strengthened maritime capability—Pulakesin II reportedly maintained a fleet of 100 ships Fiscal Policies: Revenue relied more on military expansion than intensive agriculture Land grants and taxation formed key components of governance Religion and Culture Religious Patronage: Supported Shaivism, Vaishnavism, Shaktism, and Jainism Donations made to Jain institutions Pulakesin I performed Ashvamedha Yajna, asserting imperial authority Art and Architecture: Pioneered the Vesara style, blending Nagara and Dravida elements Built notable rock-cut and structural temples at Aihole, Badami, and Pattadakal Set the architectural foundation later expanded under Vikramaditya II and Kirtivarman Legacy of Vikramaditya I Regarded as “Rajamalla” and “Yuddhamalla” (Warrior among Kings) His reign marked a revival of Chalukya dominance after internal strife and external invasions Laid the groundwork for the cultural and architectural flourishing of the later Chalukyas With reference to the Badami Chalukyas, consider the following statements: Pulakesin II sent diplomatic envoys to the Roman Empire, which is depicted in the murals of Ellora caves. Vikramaditya I successfully defeated Narasimhavarman I and recaptured Vatapi. The Chalukyas primarily followed Shaivism and discouraged Jain patronage. The Vesara style of temple architecture emerged during the Badami Chalukya period. Which of the above statements is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 3 onlyD. 2, 3 and 4 only Answer:BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect – The Chalukyas sent envoys to Persia (Sassanid Empire), not Rome, and it is depicted in Ajanta, not Ellora. Statement 2 is correct – Vikramaditya I defeated Narasimhavarman I and reclaimed Vatapi. Statement 3 is incorrect – They patronized multiple religions, including Jainism. Statement 4 is correct – Vesara style originated under the Badami Chalukyas. Unique Identification Authority of India Syllabus:Polity   Context: The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (NIC) and National Testing Agency (NTA), conducted a successful Proof of Concept (PoC) for face authentication using Aadhaar during NEET-UG 2025. The initiative aims to enhance examination security and eliminate impersonation. What is Aadhaar-Based Face Authentication? A biometric verification process that uses facial recognition linked to an individual’s Aadhaar profile for real-time authentication. Piloted during NEET-UG 2025 at select centres in Delhi.

Western Disturbance Syllabus:Geography                Context A strong Western Disturbance (WD) recently triggered widespread heavy rainfall, storms, hail, and flooding across Delhi and parts of North and South India, disrupting aviation and infrastructure. This event underscores the growing impact of climate change on India’s synoptic weather systems. What Are Western Disturbances? Definition: WDs are eastward-moving extra-tropical weather systems that originate over the Mediterranean, Caspian, and Black Seas. Mechanism: They form due to interactions between polar and tropical air masses and are carried into India via the subtropical westerly jet stream. Nature: These systems are embedded in high-altitude winds and are often associated with low-pressure areas, bringing rain and snow, particularly during winter. Impact on Indian Weather Winter Precipitation: Primary source of rainfall and snow in North India, vital for Rabi crops in Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh. Moderation of Heatwaves: Frequent WDs help reduce pre-monsoon heat intensity. Extreme Weather Events: Increasingly trigger hailstorms, flash floods, and landslides across Himalayan and central regions. Disruption of Urban Life: Lead to flight delays, waterlogging, and urban flooding, notably in Delhi. Monsoon Interference: Overlapping WDs disrupt monsoon timing and amplify precipitation variability. Climate Change and Shifting WD Dynamics Rising Frequency & Intensity: Notable surge in WDs, especially in March–April 2025, extending into May–July, well beyond their typical December–March window. Jet Stream Intensification: Strengthening of the subtropical westerly jet stream has widened WD pathways, causing greater meridional (north-south) oscillations. Arabian Sea Warming: Rising Sea Surface Temperatures (1.2°C–1.4°C) increase atmospheric moisture, enhancing rainfall intensity and flood risk. More Extremes in 2025: IMD reported WD-induced hailstorms in Bihar, Himachal, Vidarbha, and flooding in Telangana and Delhi—a stark indicator of changing WD characteristics. Policy Implications & Way Forward Advanced Forecasting: Invest in AI-enabled models, satellite tracking, and radar infrastructure to improve WD prediction accuracy. Urban Resilience: Develop city-specific WD mitigation plans, including stormwater drainage upgrades and real-time alert systems. Agro-Adaptation: Align sowing calendars and crop insurance with WD behaviour forecasts to safeguard food security. Research & Modeling: Promote cross-disciplinary research on WD dynamics and integrate findings into national and state-level climate strategies. Regional Cooperation: Collaborate with countries in the Hindu Kush-Himalayan region for transboundary weather risk management. Conclusion Western Disturbances, once winter phenomena, have transformed into year-round climate disruptors. Intensified by global warming, they now overlap with monsoon systems, drive extreme weather, and complicate India’s weather predictability. A science-based, climate-resilient policy framework backed by regional collaboration and inter-state coordination is imperative to mitigate future risks. Which of the following statements about Western Disturbances (WDs) is/are correct? WDs are extratropical cyclones originating from the Mediterranean, Caspian, and Black Seas. They primarily affect the Indian subcontinent during the monsoon season. The frequency and intensity of WDs have remained constant over the past century. Select the correct answer using the code below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: a) 1 only Explanation: WDs are extratropical cyclones originating from the Mediterranean, Caspian, and Black Seas, bringing moisture to the Indian subcontinent. They primarily affect the region during the winter and pre-monsoon seasons, not the monsoon season. Studies have shown that the frequency and intensity of WDs have been influenced by climate change, leading to alterations in their patterns. Parliamentary Oversight in India Syllabus: Indian Polity and Governance – Parliament and State Legislatures   Context: India’s adoption of a parliamentary system was meant to ensure daily executive accountability. However, recent developments indicate an erosion in Parliament’s oversight function, with increasing disruptions, underutilised committees, and a near-absence of post-legislative review mechanisms.   Understanding Parliamentary Oversight Definition:Parliamentary oversight refers to the continuous monitoring and evaluation of executive actions by the legislature. It ensures transparency, accountability, and responsiveness in governance.   Constitutional Basis: Article 75: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Oversight Instruments: Include Question Hour, Zero Hour, debates, motions (adjournment, no-confidence), and Parliamentary Committee reports. B.R. Ambedkar’s Vision:Described parliamentary democracy as a system of “more responsibility, less stability,” highlighting the need for constant executive accountability through legislative scrutiny.   Key Challenges Undermining Oversight Disruption of Question Hour In the 17th Lok Sabha, only 60% of Question Hour functioned; Rajya Sabha fared worse at 52%. Example: The 2021 Pegasus spyware controversy saw repeated disruptions, preventing targeted questions.   Ineffective Utilisation of Committees Standing Committees produce detailed reports, but these are rarely discussed in Parliament. Annual membership rotation weakens domain continuity and expertise. Example: The 2021 Environment Committee’s report on Delhi’s pollution lacked follow-up debate or action.   Absence of Post-Legislative Scrutiny (PLS) India lacks a structured mechanism to evaluate laws after enactment. Example: The Companies (Amendment) Act, 2013, aimed at compliance simplification, led to a spike in prosecutions due to poor review.   Reforms for Enhanced Oversight Institutionalise Post-Legislative Scrutiny UK Model: Mandates law implementation reviews 3–5 years post-enactment. India Proposal: Each Department-Related Standing Committee (DRSC) should periodically review major laws like IBC or NEP. Revamp Committee Functioning Translate reports into regional languages and use infographics for wider public understanding. Mandate floor discussions on selected committee reports. Equip committees with technical staff and data analysts. Example: The S. Congressional Research Service (CRS) provides bipartisan policy support — India lacks a comparable body. Leverage Digital Tools and AI Deploy AI to track budget anomalies, audit flags, and scheme implementation failures. Example: AI could have identified early irregularities in PM-Kisan, where ineligible farmers received benefits.   Way Forward Parliamentary Modernisation Mission: Invest in digital infrastructure, multilingual dissemination, and a non-partisan research wing. Cross-party Consensus: Ensure functional sittings during Question Hour and legislative debates. Citizen Engagement: Introduce public consultation mechanisms on bills and reports. Expand Oversight to States: Encourage state legislatures to adopt Standing Committees for federal accountability.   Conclusion As former President R. Narayanan asserted in 1993, “Oversight is not to criticise but to strengthen governance.” Revitalising the oversight role of Parliament is crucial to uphold constitutional checks, restore public trust, and ensure that governance remains accountable, participative, and transparent. Which of the

NITI Aayog Releases Report on “Enhancing Competitiveness of MSMEs in India Syllabus:Reports   NITI Aayog, in collaboration with the Institute for Competitiveness (IFC), has released a comprehensive report titled “Enhancing MSMEs Competitiveness in India”. The report offers a roadmap to unlock the potential of India’s Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) through systemic reforms in financing, skilling, innovation, and market access.   Key Highlights: Credit Access: Formal credit access improved between 2020 and 2024 — from 14% to 20% for micro and small enterprises, and from 4% to 9% for medium enterprises. However, a significant credit gap of ₹80 lakh crore persists. The report calls for revamping the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) with better institutional collaboration. Skill & Innovation Deficit: A large section of MSME workers lack formal technical or vocational training, limiting productivity and scalability. Investment in R&D and innovation remains low, weakening global competitiveness. Technology Adoption Challenges: Barriers include unreliable power, weak internet connectivity, and high costs. Many MSMEs are unaware of or unable to access government schemes aimed at technological support. Cluster Analysis: Upgrading outdated technologies and strengthening branding and marketing capacities are key to improving competitiveness. Policy Gaps: While multiple national and state-level MSME support policies exist, low awareness and weak implementation dilute impact. The report recommends better monitoring, data integration, and stakeholder engagement.   Way Forward: The report emphasizes the need for state-level, cluster-based policies, enhanced digital marketing and logistics support, and improved market linkages, particularly in high-growth regions like eastern and northeastern India. Strengthening institutional frameworks and boosting awareness are crucial to driving inclusive and sustainable growth in the MSME sector. With reference to the recent report titled “Enhancing MSMEs Competitiveness in India”, released by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute for Competitiveness (IFC), consider the following statements: The report identifies the textile and chemical sectors among the four primary MSME sectors analyzed for competitiveness. The Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) currently covers more than 80% of the formal credit demand of the MSME sector. The report finds that the lack of awareness about state-level schemes is a major constraint in technology adoption by MSMEs. The National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) was identified as a major success factor for MSME skilling programs across all sectors. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1, 3, and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, and 4 only Answer: A. 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. The report focuses on four sectors: textiles and apparel, chemical products, automotive, and food processing. Statement 2: Incorrect. The CGTMSE, while expanded, still leaves a large credit gap. Only about 19% of credit demand was met formally as of FY21. Statement 3: Correct. The report highlights that lack of awareness and accessibility to state government schemes is a barrier to technology adoption. Statement 4: Incorrect. NSQF is not cited in the report as a major driver; instead, the report flags gaps in vocational and technical training. India and Denmark signs renewed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) today Syllabus:IR   India and Denmark have deepened their collaboration in the energy sector by signing a renewed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) aimed at accelerating the clean energy transition and supporting India’s target of achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. The MoU was signed by Shri Pankaj Agarwal, Secretary, Ministry of Power, and E. Mr. Rasmus Abildgaard Kristensen, Ambassador of Denmark to India, in the presence of Shri Manohar Lal, Minister of Power and Housing & Urban Affairs. This renewed agreement builds on five years of successful cooperation under the original MoU signed on June 5, 2020, which was set to expire in June 2025. The updated agreement expands the scope of partnership to include advanced energy domains such as:   Power system modeling Integration of variable renewable energy Cross-border electricity trading   Development of electric vehicle (EV) charging infrastructure It also strengthens institutional cooperation through expert exchanges, joint training programs, and study tours. Minister Manohar Lal emphasized that this renewed cooperation reaffirms the shared vision of India and Denmark to promote sustainable development and green energy solutions through innovation and technological collaboration. Which of the following statements regarding the India–Denmark energy cooperation MoU (2025) is/are correct? It supports India’s commitment to achieve net-zero emissions by 2050. The renewed MoU expands cooperation to include power system modeling and EV infrastructure. The original MoU was signed in 2020 and was valid for a period of five years. Select the correct answer using the code below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Answer: B Explanation: India’s net-zero target is by 2070, not 2050. The rest are correct. short explanation. India’s net-zero emissions target is set for 2070, not 2050. However, the MoU does include cooperation on power system modeling and EV infrastructure, and the original agreement was signed in 2020 for five years, making statements 2 and 3 correct. GAME and NITI Aayog join hands to catalyse healthy entrepreneurship ecosystems across India Syllabus:Environment NITI Aayog and the Global Alliance for Mass Entrepreneurship (GAME) have joined forces in a strategic partnership aimed at fostering dynamic entrepreneurship ecosystems across multiple Indian states. The initiative will begin with pilot projects in Nagpur, Visakhapatnam, and parts of Uttar Pradesh, focusing on place-based interventions tailored to the unique needs of each region. The collaboration brings together key local stakeholders — including government agencies, corporates, educational institutions, financial entities, experienced entrepreneurs, and community-based organisations — to support local entrepreneurs through targeted, community-driven approaches. The objective is to create self-sustaining ecosystems that promote entrepreneurship as a vehicle for economic growth and job creation. Speaking on the partnership, Ishtiyaque Ahmed, Programme Director for Industry/MSME at NITI Aayog, emphasized the need for bottom-up engagement, working closely with grassroots entrepreneurs to understand and address their specific challenges. GAME’s proven methodologies will guide the pilot interventions, covering areas such as access to finance, capacity building, policy support, and community