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PMAY-U Coffee Table Book Released in Kohima to Highlight Urban Housing Progress Syllabus:Schemes   Context: The Government of Nagaland has officially unveiled a Coffee Table Book titled “Transforming Lives: A Glance of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) Mission in Nagaland”. This publication commemorates the progress and impact of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) scheme in the state, particularly in providing dignified and affordable housing to urban poor communities.   Significance of the Launch Date & Venue: May 16, 2025 | Hotel Vivor, Kohima Released by: Shri Zhaleo Rio, Advisor for Municipal Affairs and Urban Development Chaired by: Shri Kekhrievor Kevichusa, Commissioner & Secretary, MAUD   Special Features: Invocation by Rev. Dr. Kevichalie Metha Musical performance by TRUISM Vote of thanks delivered by Smt. Temjenrenla Kichu, Joint Director, Municipal Affairs Department   About the Coffee Table Book Title: Transforming Lives: A Glance of PMAY (Urban) Mission in Nagaland Purpose: To visually document success stories, policy implementation, and community transformation under PMAY-U   Content Highlights: Real-life narratives of beneficiaries Visual documentation of urban development Insights into implementation challenges and grassroots engagement   Overview of PMAY-U (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban) Launched: June 25, 2015 Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) Objective: Housing for All in urban areas by the year 2022   Key Components: In-Situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR) Credit-Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP) Beneficiary-Led Construction (BLC)   Impact of PMAY-U in Nagaland Thousands of urban households have benefitted from housing assistance Strengthened the construction sector and generated employment Enhanced socio-economic inclusion through property registration in women’s names Improved access to basic amenities, leading to better quality of life for urban poor With reference to the Coffee Table Book “Transforming Lives: A Glance of PMAY (Urban) Mission in Nagaland”, consider the following statements: The book was launched by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting to commemorate 75 years of India’s independence. The book contains a visual record of PMAY-U implementation challenges and beneficiary narratives in Nagaland. The event was presided over by the Governor of Nagaland and included an address by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A) 2 onlyB) 1 and 3 onlyC) 1 and 2 onlyD) 2 and 3 only Answer:A Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. The book documents the visual and narrative impact of PMAY-U in Nagaland, including challenges and success stories. Statement 1 is incorrect as the book was released under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, not the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, and it was not linked to the 75th year of independence. Statement 3 is incorrect as the event was chaired by state officials—not by the Governor or Prime Minister. Justice Bela M. Trivedi Bids Farewell to Supreme Court After Trailblazing Career Syllabus:Polity   Justice Bela M. Trivedi retired from the Supreme Court of India on May 16, 2025, after a distinguished tenure of three-and-a-half years. Her career stands out for a series of pioneering milestones, significant constitutional rulings, and a legal journey that spanned from trial courts to the apex judiciary. Justice Trivedi’s retirement marks the culmination of a historic legal journey, beginning in Gujarat’s trial courts in 1995 and culminating in transformative judgments on constitutional law, child protection, reservation policy, and economic regulation. She was the 11th woman judge in the history of the Supreme Court of India and one of the rare judges to be elevated from a trial court (appointed July 10, 1995, Ahmedabad) to the Supreme Court (August 31, 2021). She was also featured in the Limca Book of Records for being part of a father-daughter judge duo serving in the same court. Among her landmark judgments were the EWS Reservation Case (Nov 2022), where she was part of the 5-judge bench that upheld 10% reservation under the 103rd Constitutional Amendment; the Sub-classification within SCs case (Aug 2024), where she delivered a dissenting opinion against allowing states to sub-categorise Scheduled Castes; and the POCSO Act Interpretation (Nov 2021), where she overruled the controversial “skin-to-skin” verdict by emphasizing that intent and any physical contact qualify as sexual assault. In the IBC ruling, she held that a moratorium under IBC does not prevent states from attaching properties under depositor protection laws. In May 2025, she cleared the UP government’s temple corridor project for the Banke Bihari temple in Mathura. Professionally, she practiced law in the Gujarat High Court for a decade, held key administrative roles including Registrar Vigilance and Law Secretary in Gujarat, was elevated to the Gujarat High Court in 2011, transferred to the Rajasthan High Court the same year, and returned to the Gujarat High Court in 2016. She was appointed to the Supreme Court in 2021 during a historic induction of 9 judges, including 3 women. Justice Trivedi’s legal journey is emblematic of progress in gender inclusivity and judicial reform. Her judgments have significantly influenced protections for children, rights of marginalized communities, and constitutional law, leaving a lasting legacy in Indian jurisprudence. With reference to the judicial career of Justice Bela M. Trivedi, consider the following statements: She was elevated directly from a trial court to the Supreme Court without serving in any High Court. She dissented in a Supreme Court judgment allowing states to sub-categorize Scheduled Castes, arguing it violated the constitutional mandate of equality. She authored the majority opinion in the 2022 verdict upholding the 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) under the 103rd Constitutional Amendment. In a landmark ruling under the POCSO Act, she held that absence of physical skin-to-skin contact nullifies the charge of sexual assault. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 2 onlyB) 1 and 4 onlyC) 2 and 3 onlyD) 1, 2 and 4 only  Answer: A) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Justice Trivedi served in multiple High Courts (Gujarat, Rajasthan) before being elevated to the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is correct: She gave a dissenting opinion in the case allowing sub-categorisation within SCs, citing concerns over equality. Statement 3 is

Amit Shah Inaugurates Training Program on Legislative Drafting in New Delhi Syllabus:Governanace Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated a specialized training program on legislative drafting in New Delhi, aimed at enhancing the understanding and application of legislative drafting principles among officials from Parliament, State Legislatures, ministries, statutory bodies, and other government departments.     Focus on Repealing Obsolete Laws In his address, Mr. Shah highlighted the government’s initiative to repeal nearly 2,000 obsolete laws since 2015. He described legislative drafting as not merely a science or an art, but a skill that demands precision, transparency, and clarity in execution.   Advocating Clear and Accessible Laws Stressing the importance of simplicity in legal language, Mr. Shah urged officials to draft laws that are clear, concise, and free from ambiguity. He emphasized that easily understandable laws can help minimize conflicts and ensure better implementation.   Influence on Governance and Society Shah noted that legislative drafting significantly influences how policies and regulations are interpreted and implemented, ultimately affecting both society and the state. Therefore, regular training is essential to refine the skills of legislative draftsmen.   Capacity Building through Training The program, organized by the Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies (ICPS) in collaboration with the Parliamentary Research and Training Institute for Democracies (PRIDE), aims to build the capacity of government officers. Through this initiative, participants will gain valuable insights into effective legislative drafting, promoting democratic governance and upholding the rule of law. Consider the following statements regarding legislative drafting as per the given text: It plays a key role in the interpretation of policies and their societal impact. It is a static process that, once codified, requires no revision. Training programs in legislative drafting are essential for promoting democratic governance.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.  1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct because the text emphasizes that legislative drafting significantly affects the interpretation and implementation of policies, which in turn impacts society and the state. Statement 2 is incorrect as the passage suggests that legislative drafting is a skill that requires regular training and updating, implying it is a dynamic, not static, process. Statement 3 is correct since the training program is described as a means to build capacity for democratic governance and uphold the rule of law. UGC launches new website, UTSAH and PoP portals to promote quality education Syllabus:Governance The University Grants Commission (UGC) has unveiled several major initiatives to strengthen the quality of higher education in India, including a revamped official website, the UTSAH (Undertaking Transformative Strategies and Actions in Higher Education) Portal, and the Professor of Practice (PoP) Portal. These initiatives mark a significant milestone in the UGC’s efforts to align with the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and to promote excellence in academic institutions across the country.     Overview of the Initiatives UGC’s New Website:The upgraded UGC website is designed to be more user-friendly and informative, featuring categorized content tailored for students, faculty, and universities. It also includes a dedicated section on the National Education Policy 2020, reflecting the UGC’s long-term vision for transforming higher education in India. UTSAH Portal:The UTSAH Portal serves as a centralized platform offering detailed insights into UGC’s initiatives aimed at qualitative reforms in higher education. It covers key areas such as curriculum enhancement, faculty development, research initiatives, and student support services. Professor of Practice (PoP) Portal:In line with the NEP 2020, the PoP Portal is a groundbreaking initiative that enables institutions to engage with industry and domain experts for academic roles. Professionals from various disciplines can register on the portal, providing their credentials, expertise, and preferred modes of engagement. Universities can post advertisements for PoP roles and access a database of eligible candidates to bring practical, real-world knowledge into classrooms.     Key Features of the Initiatives UGC Website: Simplified interface with structured content for different stakeholders. UTSAH Portal: Focuses on policy-driven educational reforms across core academic areas. PoP Portal: Bridges academia and industry by facilitating expert appointments in universities.   Important Facts for Competitive Exams University Grants Commission (UGC) Founded: 1956 UGC Headquarters: New Delhi Preceding Executive: Sukhadeo Thorat These steps by the UGC are aimed at transforming higher education in India by integrating innovation, practical expertise, and policy-driven reforms.   With reference to the UTSAH (Undertaking Transformative Strategies and Actions in Higher Education) Portal, consider the following statements: It serves as a digital platform for real-time academic audits of universities across India. It aligns with the objectives of the National Education Policy 2020 to drive qualitative reforms. It primarily focuses on school-level curriculum development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.  1 and 2 onlyB.  2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the UTSAH Portal is not designed for conducting real-time academic audits of universities. Instead, it serves as a platform to provide detailed information on UGC’s initiatives for reforms in higher education. Statement 2 is correct as the portal aligns with the goals of the National Education Policy 2020 by focusing on qualitative improvements in higher education. Statement 3 is incorrect because the portal targets higher education reforms, not school-level curriculum development. Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami Inaugurates National Homoeopathic Convention ‘Homeocon 2023’ in Uttarakhand Syllabus:Polity Uttarakhand Hosts ‘Homeocon 2023’: Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami Inaugurates National Homoeopathic Convention Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami inaugurated the National Homoeopathic Convention, Homeocon 2023, at Doon University, Dehradun, reaffirming the state’s commitment to promoting traditional medicine systems. The event highlighted homeopathy as the second most widely practiced system of medicine globally and underscored its relevance, particularly during the COVID-19 pandemic.   Significance of Homeopathy Homeopathy has established itself as a globally recognized and widely accepted alternative medical system. During the COVID-19 crisis, its holistic and patient-centric approach demonstrated valuable support in health care. The convention emphasized integrating homeopathy with conventional medicine to provide cost-effective, accessible,

Cabinet approves semiconductor unit in Uttar Pradesh Syllabus:Governanace The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved the establishment of a new semiconductor manufacturing unit, further advancing India’s journey towards self-reliance in the strategically vital semiconductor sector. This will be the sixth unit under the India Semiconductor Mission, with five units already in advanced stages of construction. The newly approved facility will be a joint venture between HCL and Foxconn, combining HCL’s legacy in hardware development with Foxconn’s global expertise in electronics manufacturing.   Location & Production: The plant will be set up near Jewar Airport in the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA) It will manufacture display driver chips for use in mobile phones, laptops, automobiles, PCs, and other display-enabled devices. Designed for a capacity of 20,000 wafers/month and an output of 36 million units/month.   Investment & Ecosystem: The project involves an investment of ₹3,700 crore. India’s semiconductor ecosystem is rapidly expanding, with global equipment giants like Applied Materials and Lam Research, and gas and chemical suppliers such as Merck, Linde, Air Liquide, and Inox establishing a presence in India.   Academic & Startup Contributions: Over 270 academic institutions and 70 startups are engaged in advanced chip design and innovation. 20 student-developed products have already been successfully taped out at SCL Mohali. As India witnesses a surge in demand for semiconductors across sectors—ranging from consumer electronics to defence—the new unit is a significant step towards realizing Prime Minister Modi’s vision of an Atmanirbhar Bharat. Consider the following statements with respect to India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem: The India Semiconductor Mission is being implemented under the aegis of the National Policy on Electronics 2019. Applied Materials and Lam Research are key players in semiconductor design software being developed in India. Display driver chips are typically used in digital screens but not in automobiles due to electromagnetic interference issues. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. None Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: Applied Materials and Lam Research are semiconductor equipment manufacturers, not design software companies. Statement 3 is incorrect: Display driver chips are used in automotive displays as well. NRFMTTI achieves CMVR testing approval for Agricultural Tractors Syllabus:Geography The Northern Region Farm Machinery Training & Testing Institute (NRFMTTI), Hisar (Haryana) has achieved two major milestones: Approval as a CMVR Testing Agency for Agricultural Tractors NABL Accreditation for CMVR Testing of Agricultural Tractors and Combine Harvesters NRFMTTI, a premier institution in the field of training and testing of agricultural machinery, is now an authorized agency to carry out CMVR (Central Motor Vehicle Rules) testing for agricultural tractors, in addition to combine harvesters. The institute has also been granted NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories) accreditation, further validating the quality and reliability of its CMVR testing services. This development will significantly benefit tractor manufacturers in Northern India, allowing them to conduct mandatory CMVR testing locally at NRFMTTI. Furthermore, NABL-accredited CMVR certification will improve the global credibility and acceptance of test results for agricultural tractors and combine harvesters, supporting domestic industry and exports. Which of the following statements regarding the recent accreditation and approval granted to NRFMTTI, Hisar is/are correct? It has been approved as a CMVR testing agency exclusively for Combine Harvesters. It has received NABL accreditation for CMVR testing of both agricultural tractors and Combine Harvesters. The institute is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Heavy Industries. The CMVR certification by NABL-accredited institutions is mandatory for domestic tractor sales under the Farm Mechanization Policy. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 2 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only Answer:A.2onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — NRFMTTI is approved for both tractors and harvesters. Statement 3 is incorrect — it is under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. Statement 4 is incorrect — while CMVR compliance is legally required, NABL certification enhances global acceptance but is not specifically mandated under a “Farm Mechanization Policy.” Ministry of Culture & IBC to Celebrate Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas with Prayers, Dialogue, and Cultural Splendour at Dr. BR Ambedkar International Centre Syllabus:History The Ministry of Culture and International Buddhist Confederation (IBC) is set to commemorate the sacred occasion of Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas—the Triple Blessed Day marking the Birth, Enlightenment, and Mahāparinirvāna of Lord Shākyamuni Buddha. The event will be held at Dr B R Ambedkar International Centre (Auditorium), Janpath, New Delhi on 15thMay 2025 (Thursday). The Guest of Honour for the event will be Shri Kiren Rijiju, Minister of Parliamentary Affairs and Minority Affairs and the Chief Guest will be Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat, Minister of Culture & Tourism. The programme will feature prayers and a thought-provoking panel discussion on the theme: ‘Application of Buddha Dhamma in Conflict Resolution’. Esteemed Buddhist scholar-monks and domain experts, including Geshe Dorji Damdul (Director, Tibet House, New Delhi), Prof. Hira Paul Gang Negi (Former HoD, Buddhist Studies, Delhi University), and Prof. Bimlendra Kumar (Professor, Pali & Buddhist Studies, BHU), will share insights on the timeless relevance of Buddha’s teachings. A special address will be delivered by the distinguished Buddhist nun, Ven. Gyaltsen Samten, and the Ratana Sutta will be rendered by renowned singer Ms. Subhadra Desai. Highlighting the cultural and spiritual significance of the day, two major exhibitions will be showcased:   Comparative Buddhist Art History of India Life and Teachings of the Buddha These exhibitions were part of the United Nations Vesak Day 2025 celebrations in Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam, held alongside the exposition of the Holy Relics of the Buddha from Sarnath across four Vietnamese cities. The event will also feature screenings of a documentary on the Dissemination of Buddha Dhamma in Asia and a film on the Exposition of the Holy Relics of the Buddha. Though the full moon of Vaiśākha falls on May 12 this year, the sanctity of the occasion leads to celebrations across the entire month. This

US-China 90-Day Tariff Truce Syllabus:IR The United States and China have agreed to a 90-day pause in their ongoing trade conflict following two days of talks in Geneva. Both countries will suspend all tariff hikes and non-tariff barriers imposed since April 2, with a mutual commitment to resolving trade disputes.     Background: How the Trade War Escalated Initial Tariffs: The U.S. began imposing tariffs in February, citing concerns over fentanyl exports from China. April 2 – “Liberation Day”: Marked a major escalation, with the U.S. slapping an additional 34% tariff on Chinese goods. China’s Response: Beijing hit back with retaliatory tariffs and non-tariff barriers, including export restrictions on rare earths and regulatory crackdowns on U.S. firms. By April 10: S. tariffs on Chinese goods: 145% China’s tariffs on U.S. goods: 125% A $100 Chinese item effectively cost $245 in the U.S.   Why Tariffs Were Imposed Trade Deficit: The U.S. cited a $1.2 trillion trade deficit in goods, arguing it reflected unfair trade. Unfair Competition: Claims that foreign nations subsidize exports and shield local firms, putting U.S. businesses at a disadvantage. Policy Shift: After failed diplomatic efforts, the U.S. adopted high tariffs as a defense mechanism for domestic industries.   Post-Truce Trade Landscape Tariff Reduction: Both countries lowered base tariffs to 10% on imports. S. Exception: A 20% additional tariff remains on Chinese goods tied to fentanyl concerns, totaling a 30% effective tariff. China’s Action: Beijing has lifted non-tariff measures, including export controls and corporate investigations.   Why the Truce Happened Consumer Impact: Tariffs raised prices, hurting consumers more than helping producers. Economic Strain: Retailers like Walmart warned of supply shortages and rising costs. Recession Risk: The U.S. economy contracted in Q1 2025, and economists warned of a looming recession and possible stagflation.   Conclusion The agreement marks a temporary ceasefire, not a resolution. With deep mistrust and complex negotiations ahead, the truce offers only a window for diplomacy — not a guaranteed peace. With reference to the US-China Tariff Truce of 2025, consider the following statements: The 90-day truce completely eliminated all tariffs and non-tariff barriers between the two nations. One of the triggers for the initial US tariff imposition was the illicit trade in synthetic opioids. China’s response to US tariffs included both retaliatory tariffs and export controls on critical minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer:BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Tariffs were reduced, not eliminated. Statement 2 is correct: Fentanyl trade was a key reason. Statement 3 is correct: China used both tariffs and non-tariff barriers like export restrictions. India’s Strategic Doctrine: PM Aligns Anti-Terror Policy with Global Framework Syllabus:Governance Context: In his first national address following Operation Sindoor — India’s most decisive military engagement since the Kargil War — Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a transformative anti-terror doctrine, redefining India’s approach to cross-border terrorism and regional security.   Core Tenets of the New Strategic Doctrine Response on India’s Terms:India reserves the sovereign right to determine the timing, nature, and intensity of its response to terrorism. Deterrence Beyond Nuclear Threats:India’s actions will not be constrained by adversarial nuclear posturing — signaling the end of “nuclear blackmail” as a deterrent. Unified Targeting Approach:No distinction will be made between terrorists, their leadership, or the states providing them support. All will be held equally accountable.     Doctrinal Evolution Post-Uri and Balakot This doctrine marks a continuity and intensification of India’s response model that began with: Uri Surgical Strikes (2016) Balakot Airstrikes (2019) Operation Sindoor, conducted after the Pahalgam terror attack, is positioned as the new baseline in India’s counter-terrorism strategy, raising the threshold for future military actions and reinforcing India’s offensive preparedness.   India’s Role in the Global War on Terror PM Modi positioned India as a responsible global actor in the fight against terrorism, likening strikes on Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba to international efforts post-9/11.He called for global unity and reiterated that the “era of terrorism” must end, adapting his earlier message: “This is not the era of war” to “This is also not the era of terrorism.”   Strategic Military Capabilities Displayed India showcased its growing technological edge, including: Precision missile strikes Destruction of drones and key enemy airbases Use of Made-in-India weaponry in 21st-century warfare The operation highlighted India’s capacity for deep-strike operations and its readiness for high-stakes, modern conflict scenarios.   Strategic Pause: A Calculated Decision While Pakistan sought diplomatic de-escalation after suffering significant losses, India chose to pause operations only after key objectives were achieved.This was described not as withdrawal, but as conditional suspension, with future actions contingent on Pakistan’s conduct.   Reaffirming Strategic Red Lines India reiterated its uncompromising stance: No engagement with Pakistan unless talks are centered on terrorism or Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). No resumption of trade, water-sharing, or diplomatic normalcy under the shadow of terror.   Philosophical Underpinning: Peace Through Strength On Buddha Purnima, PM Modi evoked Lord Buddha’s message, emphasizing that peace is safeguarded by strength. A militarily strong India is essential to achieving the vision of Viksit Bharat (Developed India).   Conclusion: A Paradigm Shift in National Security Posture India’s updated strategic doctrine signals a bold, assertive, and independent military posture, grounded in zero tolerance for terrorism and supported by advanced capabilities.Operation Sindoor is not just a tactical victory—it is the cornerstone of a new doctrine for India’s national security and global leadership in counter-terrorism. With reference to India’s new anti-terror doctrine post-Operation Sindoor, consider the following statements: It marks the first time India has formally rejected nuclear deterrence in its counter-terror strategy. The doctrine makes a distinction between non-state and state-sponsored terrorism. Operation Sindoor represents a shift from defensive retaliation to pre-emptive, technology-enabled strike capability. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine explicitly states that India will not be deterred by nuclear threats, rejecting

Buddha Purnima Syllabus: GS1/ History and Culture Buddha Purnima, one of the most revered festivals for Buddhists, is celebrated on the full moon day of Vaishakh (April-May). This year, it falls on 12th May. The festival honors the life and teachings of Gautama Buddha and serves as a reminder to follow the principles of kindness, non-violence, and wisdom. In India and across many South and Southeast Asian countries, Buddha Purnima is often referred to as the “thrice-blessed day” because it marks three significant events in the life of the Buddha: His birth at Lumbini. His enlightenment (Nirvana) at Bodh Gaya. His Mahaparinirvana (death) at Kushinagar. In certain parts of the world, however, the focus is solely on the Buddha’s birth, while his enlightenment and passing are commemorated on separate occasions. Since 1999, the United Nations has recognized Buddha Purnima as the UN Day of Vesak, celebrating the spiritual legacy of the Buddha on a global scale.  Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India: GST was implemented in India on 1st July 2017, replacing multiple indirect taxes at both central and state levels. The GST Council is responsible for making recommendations on matters related to GST, including tax rates and exemptions. Under GST, the central government and the state governments both have the authority to levy taxes on goods and services. GST is applicable to only goods and not services, and it does not apply to exempted categories like agricultural produce. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 1, 2, and 3 onlyD) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: C) 1, 2, and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: GST was implemented on 1st July 2017, replacing various indirect taxes like VAT, excise duty, and service tax, creating a unified tax system across the country. Statement 2 is correct: The GST Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister, is tasked with making recommendations regarding the tax structure, rates, and exemptions for GST. Statement 3 is correct: Under GST, both the central government (CGST) and state governments (SGST) have the authority to levy taxes on goods and services within their jurisdiction. Statement 4 is incorrect: GST applies to both goods and services, and exempted categories, such as agricultural produce, are also subject to the provisions of GST, albeit at a zero tax rate or with exemptions for certain goods. Lafora Disease Syllabus: GS2/ Health Researchers are hopeful about discovering a treatment for Lafora Disease, a rare and progressive genetic disorder of the nervous system.   What is Lafora Disease? Lafora disease is classified as one of the Progressive Myoclonic Epilepsies (PMEs), which are conditions characterized by muscle spasms (myoclonus) and seizures. The disease is named after Gonzalo Rodríguez Lafora, the Spanish neurologist who first identified it. It is caused by the accumulation of Lafora bodies, abnormal, insoluble, glycogen-like structures that build up in the brain and other tissues. This buildup interferes with normal neuronal function, leading to severe seizures, cognitive decline, and motor dysfunction.   Genetic Causes and Inheritance Lafora disease is primarily caused by mutations in either the EPM2A gene or the EPM2B (NHLRC1) The disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning both copies of the gene must be altered for the disease to develop. The risk of inheritance is higher in populations where consanguineous marriages (marriage between close relatives) are more common.   Current Status and Treatment Currently, there is no known cure for Lafora disease. Treatment is focused on managing symptoms, but it remains largely palliative. However, ongoing research offers hope for potential breakthroughs in treatment in the near future. Consider the following statements regarding Lafora Disease: Lafora Disease is classified under Progressive Myoclonic Epilepsies (PMEs) and primarily affects the central nervous system. The disease is caused by the accumulation of Lafora bodies, which are insoluble glycogen-like structures, disrupting neuronal function. Lafora Disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning only one mutated gene copy is needed for the disorder to manifest. Mutations in either the EPM2A or EPM2B (NHLRC1) genes are known to cause Lafora Disease. The prevalence of Lafora Disease is higher in populations with high rates of consanguineous marriages. Which of the above statements are correct? A) 1, 2, 4, and 5 onlyB) 1, 3, and 5 onlyC) 2, 4, and 5 onlyD) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only Answer: A) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Lafora Disease is indeed classified under Progressive Myoclonic Epilepsies (PMEs), a group of neurological disorders that affect the central nervous system, primarily manifesting as seizures and cognitive decline. Statement 2 is correct: The disease is caused by the buildup of Lafora bodies, which are abnormal, insoluble, glycogen-like structures that accumulate in neurons, disrupting their function. Statement 3 is incorrect: Lafora Disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) are required for the disease to manifest. This contradicts the autosomal dominant inheritance mentioned in the statement. Statement 4 is correct: The mutations responsible for Lafora Disease are found in the EPM2A and EPM2B (NHLRC1) genes, which are crucial for the proper functioning of glycogen metabolism in the brain. Statement 5 is correct: There is a higher prevalence of Lafora Disease in populations with consanguineous marriages due to the autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, which increases the likelihood of inheriting both mutated gene copies. First Round of Negotiations for the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement Syllabus: GS2/ International Relations, GS3/ Economy Recently, the first round of negotiations for the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement (FTA) concluded successfully, setting the stage for enhanced trade relations between the two nations. Bilateral Trade Between India and New Zealand In the financial year 2024–25, bilateral merchandise trade between India and New Zealand reached USD 1.3 billion, reflecting a remarkable growth of 6% compared to the previous year. This surge indicates the growing trade potential between the two countries. India’s Imports