Author: karthik
Current Affairs 17 july 2025 – Tone Academy
Earthquake Preparedness in India: Wake-up Call from Delhi Tremor Syllabus: GS1 – Geography | GS3 – Disaster Management Context: A 4.4 magnitude earthquake near Delhi has spotlighted India’s vulnerability and unpreparedness in seismic zones. Seismic Zonation in India• 59% of India’s landmass is earthquake-prone, divided into Zones II–V.• High-risk zones: Himalayan belt, Northeast, Andaman & Nicobar Islands.• Delhi lies in Zone IV, highly susceptible to moderate to severe tremors. Urban Vulnerability• Most buildings in Delhi lack compliance with IS 1893:2016 seismic norms.• Older infrastructure, high population density, and poor urban planning increase risk.• Liquefaction risk in floodplains like Delhi and Guwahati. Government Initiatives• National Building Code 2021 promotes earthquake-safe designs.• BIS building guidelines revised; new earthquake zoning map proposed.• Disaster Management Act 2005 enables NDMA and SDMAs to enforce resilience.• Mobile app ‘BhooKamp’ launched for real-time alerts. Way Forward• Strict building code enforcement, retrofitting critical structures, public education, and robust early warning systems are essential for urban resilience. Consider the following statements regarding earthquake risk and preparedness in India: Delhi falls under Seismic Zone V as per the Bureau of Indian Standards. Liquefaction risk is a concern in floodplain cities like Delhi and Guwahati. The National Building Code 2021 is a legally binding framework for seismic design. Which of the above statements is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Delhi lies in Seismic Zone IV, not V. Statement 2 is correct: Liquefaction is a risk in floodplain areas due to loose soil and high water tables. Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Building Code provides guidelines but is not legally binding unless incorporated into local bylaws. UN SDG Report 2025: Course Correction Needed Syllabus: GS2 – Governance, International Reports Context: The UN’s 2025 SDG Progress Report reveals major setbacks with just 5 years to meet the 2030 Agenda. Key Findings:• 35% of targets are stagnating or regressing.• SDG 2 (Zero Hunger), SDG 4 (Education), SDG 6 (Water), SDG 8 (Work), SDG 10 (Inequality) face severe challenges.• 2.3 billion affected by food insecurity; 57% of education goals off track. Positive Trends• 40% decline in HIV cases; rise in malaria prevention.• Broader social protection coverage seen globally. India’s Context• SDG India Index by NITI Aayog aligns domestic priorities with global targets.• Strong performance in clean energy (SDG 7), climate action (SDG 13), but education and inequality lag. Recommendations• Renewed political will, reforming global finance (Sevilla Commitment), improved data tracking (Medellín Framework), and focused action on lagging goals. With reference to the 2025 UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Progress Report, consider the following: SDG 13 (Climate Action) is among the most severely lagging targets globally. The Sevilla Commitment advocates reform in global financing for SDGs. Medellín Framework focuses on educational inclusivity among indigenous populations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: SDG 13 has shown progress in India, though global challenges remain. Statement 2 is correct: The Sevilla Commitment pushes for reform in global financing systems for SDG implementation. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Medellín Framework pertains to data tracking and monitoring, not indigenous education. Adoption Crisis in India: Too Few Children, Too Many Waiting Parents Syllabus: GS2 – Governance, Vulnerable Sections Context:• An RTI reveals a sharp mismatch between adoptable children and registered prospective parents. Current Scenario• Ratio of families to adoptable children is 13:1 (2025), up from 11:1 in 2021.• 36,000+ families wait; only 2,652 children legally free for adoption.• Average wait time has increased to 3–5 years. Root Causes• Delay in declaring children legally free due to red tape.• Most children in CCIs (Child Care Institutions) not eligible for adoption.• Bias against older children and legal ambiguity post-amendment to JJ Act. Legal and Institutional Framework• Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) governs adoptions under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.• Hague Convention compliance adds global legitimacy. Need of the Hour• Streamline adoption process, improve inter-agency coordination, increase awareness about special needs and older child adoption. Which of the following is/are contributing factors to the adoption crisis in India? Most children in Child Care Institutions are not legally eligible for adoption. The Hague Convention prohibits inter-country adoption of special-needs children. The Juvenile Justice (Amendment) Act has led to reduced adoption eligibility. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is correct: Many children are in CCIs but not declared legally free, hence not adoptable. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Hague Convention allows inter-country adoption, including of special-needs children, under proper safeguards. Statement 3 is correct: Recent amendments have slowed processes due to ambiguities in child status. 4. PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana: A District-Level Agri Push Syllabus: GS3 – Agriculture, Government Schemes Context:• The Union Cabinet launched a ₹24,000 crore annual scheme to boost agriculture in 100 underperforming districts. Key Features• Integrates 36 existing schemes across 11 ministries.• Aims to increase productivity, promote diversification, and modernize farming.• Special emphasis on irrigation, credit access, and post-harvest facilities. Implementation Strategy• Unified District Agriculture & Allied Plan (DAAP) for convergence.• 117 Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) monitored via digital dashboard.• NITI Aayog and Central Officers to supervise progress. Significance• Aims to bridge yield gaps and boost rural incomes.• Aligns with goals of doubling farmers’ income and sustainable agriculture. Which of the following correctly describe features of the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana? It is targeted at 100 aspirational districts with low agricultural productivity. It merges all schemes under the Ministry of Agriculture. The DAAP strategy aims for inter-ministerial convergence at district level. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is correct: Targets 100 underperforming
Current Affairs 16 july 2025 – Tone Academy
Machilipatnam: Reawakening of an Ancient Port Syllabus: GS1 – Ancient History, Geography Context: Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam), a historically significant port town in Andhra Pradesh, is undergoing revitalization. Historical Significance Location: At the mouth of the Krishna River, on the Bay of Bengal. Ancient References: Known as Masulipatnam or Maisolos in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea (1st century CE). Role in Maritime Trade: Vital node on the Coromandel Coast, facilitating trade with Romans, Arabs, and Southeast Asia. Satavahana Period (1st BCE – 3rd CE) Major exports: Muslin, spices, pearls, and textiles. Inland trade linked with Amaravati and Dharanikota (Buddhist and commercial centres). Medieval to Colonial Era Prominent under Golconda Sultanate (16th–18th centuries). Important trading post for Dutch, British, and French East India Companies. Declined after Madras (Chennai) became British capital. Ancient Indian Port Cities · Port City · Region · Dynasty/Period · Lothal · Gujarat · Indus Valley Civilization · Arikamedu · Puducherry · Early Tamil Kingdoms, Cholas · Kaveripattinam · Tamil Nadu · Cholas · Sopara · Maharashtra · Satavahanas · Tamralipta · West Bengal · Mauryas, Guptas · Barygaza (Bharuch) · Gujarat · Indo-Greek, Kushan periods With reference to the historical maritime trade of ancient India, consider the following pairs: Port City Ancient Text / Source Associated Dynasty Masulipatnam Periplus of the Erythraean Sea Satavahanas Barygaza Ptolemy’s Geography Indo-Greeks Tamralipta Mahavamsa and Chinese Pilgrims’ Accounts Mauryas Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1, 2 and 3D. 1 and 3 only Answer: CExplanation: All three are correct. Masulipatnam was indeed known to Greco-Roman traders; Barygaza (Bharuch) is frequently mentioned in Greek texts like those of Ptolemy; and Tamralipta is referenced in Mahavamsa and by Chinese travelers like Xuanzang. Behdeinkhlam Festival – Meghalaya Syllabus: GS1 – Culture Context: Celebrated annually in Jowai, the festival symbolizes spiritual cleansing. Key Features Meaning: “Driving away the plague” — symbolic of expelling disease and evil. Timing: Post-sowing season in July, to seek good harvest and health. Celebrated by: Pnars, a Jaintia sub-tribe. Faith: Helps preserve the Niamtre indigenous religion. Rituals and Symbolism Duration: Three-day festival. Men perform rituals and dances. Women prepare and offer food to ancestral spirits. Symbud Khnong: Sacred log carried through town to ward off evil. Dad-lawakor: Traditional football-like community game. Recent messages: Campaigns on anti-drug abuse, alcoholism, and climate awareness. Consider the following statements regarding indigenous festivals and their cultural symbolism in India: The Behdeinkhlam festival includes matrilineal rituals involving women leading public worship. It is associated with the Jaintia Hills and preserves the indigenous religion of the Pnars. Dad-lawakor, a traditional ball game played during the festival, has ritual significance related to the monsoon cycle. Which of the above statements is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: CExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect—rituals are predominantly performed by men, while women offer food to ancestors, not public worship. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Pradhan Mantri Divyasha Kendra (PMDK) Syllabus: GS2 – Welfare Schemes Context: The 75th PMDK centre was inaugurated in Uttar Pradesh. About PMDK: Objective: Provide rehabilitation and assistive support. Target Groups: Persons with disabilities (Divyangjan) under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. Senior citizens from economically weaker sections. Ministry: Social Justice & Empowerment. Implementing Agency: ALIMCO (Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India). Services: Assessment, counselling, distribution, post-distribution care. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Divyasha Kendra (PMDK), consider the following statements: It is implemented exclusively through private sector CSR initiatives. It aims to integrate services like screening, assistive aid distribution, and rehabilitation under one platform. It targets only those above 60 years of age falling under BPL categories. Which of the above is/are correct?A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: AExplanation: ALIMCO (a public sector unit) implements the scheme, not CSR; the scheme also includes people with disabilities irrespective of age. Only Statement 2 is correct. ‘Sugar and Fat Boards’ in Government Offices Syllabus: GS2 – Health and Nutrition Context: The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare mandated display boards showing sugar and fat content in food sold at government offices. About the Initiative Launched with support from ICMR–NIN. Intended as a behavioural nudge toward healthier eating. Scientific Rationale India faces rising non-communicable diseases such as diabetes and heart disease. Daily recommended intake: Sugar: 25g Visible fat: 30g About Trans Fats Industrial trans fats (e.g., vanaspati, fried street food) increase LDL and lower HDL. WHO calls for global elimination of industrial trans fats. In the context of India’s nutrition policy and non-communicable diseases (NCDs), consider the following statements: The WHO recommends that trans fat intake be less than 1% of total energy intake. Visible fats refer to naturally occurring fats in grains and legumes. Behavioural nudges like displaying ‘sugar and fat boards’ are part of India’s National Multisectoral Action Plan (NMAP) for NCDs. Which of the above is/are correct?A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: AExplanation: Visible fats are not from grains/legumes but added cooking fats/oils. Statements 1 and 3 are correct and in line with WHO and NMAP recommendations. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) Syllabus: GS2 – Health Context: NPPA has capped the prices of 71 essential drugs for diabetes, cancer, and other conditions. About NPPA Established: 1997 under the Department of Pharmaceuticals. Legal Basis: Drug Price Control Order (DPCO), 2013. Function: Fix, revise, and monitor drug prices to ensure affordability and accessibility. With respect to NPPA and its role in public health, consider the following pairs: Functionality Legal Provision Enabling It Price fixation of essential medicines Drug (Prices Control) Order, 2013 Penal action for overpricing Essential Commodities Act, 1955 Granting patents for pharmaceuticals NPPA’s executive powers Which of the pairs are correctly matched?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. All three Answer: AExplanation: NPPA has no role in patenting;
Current Affairs 15 july 2025 – Tone Academy
Nomination to Rajya Sabha Syllabus: GS2/ Polity Context: The President of India has recently nominated four distinguished individuals to the Rajya Sabha, acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister. This move underscores the constitutional provision aimed at enriching parliamentary debates with expertise from various fields. Constitutional Provisions: Article 80 of the Constitution empowers the President to nominate up to 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. These nominations are reserved for individuals possessing special knowledge or practical experience in disciplines such as literature, science, art, and social service. Purpose of Nomination: The system of nomination is designed to ensure that non-political yet eminent voices are represented in the Upper House. It facilitates the inclusion of expert opinions in legislative deliberations, thereby enhancing the quality of national policymaking. Tenure and Rights: Nominated members serve a term of six years, similar to elected members. They enjoy equal privileges, rights, and responsibilities as other members of the Rajya Sabha, except the right to vote in the Presidential election. Which of the following statements regarding nominated members of the Rajya Sabha is/are correct? They are nominated by the President of India under Article 80 on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers. Nominated members have voting rights in the impeachment of the President. The Constitution restricts nominated members from holding ministerial office in the Union Council of Ministers. Select the correct answer using the code below:a) 1 onlyb) 1 and 2 onlyc) 2 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: a) 1 only Explanation: Nominated members can vote in Presidential impeachment but not in Presidential election. They can be appointed as ministers (e.g., Dr. Manmohan Singh). Article 80 allows their nomination. Jarawa Tribe Syllabus: GS2/ Marginalized Community In a significant move, the upcoming Census 2027 will make a focused effort to enumerate the six major indigenous tribes of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, including the Jarawa community—one of the most ancient surviving tribes in the world. The Jarawa Tribe: An Ancient Community Lifestyle: The Jarawas are nomadic hunter-gatherers residing in the dense forests of Middle and South Andaman Islands. Social Structure: They typically live in small bands of 40–50 people, sustaining themselves through forest and marine resources. Isolation: Historically, the tribe remained hostile to outsiders, maintaining isolation until the late 1990s, when limited contact began. Demographics and Census Insights 2011 Census: Documented 380 Jarawa individuals out of a total of 28,530 Scheduled Tribe (ST) population in the islands. 2025 Estimates: The Jarawa population has grown to 647 individuals, attributed to improved health services and declining mortality rates. Other Indigenous ST Tribes: Andamanese Nicobarese Shompen Onge Sentinelese Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs): All except Nicobarese are categorized as PVTGs, reflecting their fragile socio-economic status and low population. Policy Measures and Development Initiatives The PM-JANMAN scheme (Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan) has identified 191 PVTG individuals in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands so far. The scheme focuses on justice, welfare, and livelihood enhancement for PVTGs across India, including remote tribal communities in island territories. With reference to the Jarawa tribe of the Andaman Islands, consider the following statements: The Jarawa tribe is classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. They traditionally inhabit the Little Andaman region and practice shifting cultivation. The first significant peaceful contact with the tribe began only in the late 20th century. The PM-JANMAN scheme specifically excludes island tribes due to ecological sensitivity. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 onlyB) 1 and 2 onlyC) 3 and 4 onlyD) 2, 3, and 4 only Answer: A) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is correct: Jarawa is among the PVTGs. Statement 2 is incorrect: They inhabit Middle and South Andaman, not Little Andaman, and are hunter-gatherers, not shifting cultivators. Statement 3 is correct: Contact started in the late 1990s. Statement 4 is incorrect: PM-JANMAN includes PVTGs in the islands. Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB) Syllabus: GS2/Statutory Body Context: The AAIB has released a 15-page preliminary report regarding the Air India plane crash in Ahmedabad, which tragically claimed 260 lives. About AAIB (India) The Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India. Established under the Aircraft (Investigation of Accidents and Incidents) Rules, 2017. Mandate: Its sole objective is to prevent recurrence of aviation accidents and incidents —→ Not to fix blame or liability. Powers: Has unrestricted access to all relevant material and evidence. Does not require prior approval from judicial or executive authorities for access during investigations. Global Aviation Safety Framework Chicago Convention, 1944 Also known as the Convention on International Civil Aviation. Provides the global legal framework for civil aviation safety and governance. India is a signatory. ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization): A UN specialized agency headquartered in Montreal. Has 193 member states (including India). Develops and enforces global technical standards in aviation safety. Annex 13 – Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation Defines international norms and protocols for accident investigation. Emphasizes the following roles: State of Occurrence: Leads the investigation. State of Registry, State of Operator, State of Design, and State of Manufacture: Have the right to participate in the investigation. Bottom of Form With reference to the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB) in India, consider the following statements: It operates independently under the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). It is mandated by law to identify criminal negligence in civil aviation accidents. The AAIB follows the investigative framework provided under the Aircraft (Investigation of Accidents and Incidents) Rules, 2017. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1 and 3 only Answer: (c)❗Statement 1 is incorrect – AAIB is independent of DGCA.❗Statement 2 is incorrect – AAIB is not meant to apportion blame or determine criminal liability. Natural Rubber Production Syllabus: GS3/ Agriculture Context India’s consumption of natural rubber (NR) is projected