Author: karthik
Current Affairs 19 july 2025 – Tone Academy
Eswatini: Absolute Monarchy in Southern Africa Syllabus: GS1 – Geography | GS2 – Polity & Governance Context: The United States deported five foreign nationals convicted of crimes to Eswatini, drawing attention to this lesser-known African monarchy. Key Facts about Eswatini: Landlocked country in Southern Africa; borders South Africa and Mozambique. Formerly known as Swaziland; renamed Eswatini in 2018 to shed colonial identity. Member of the Common Monetary Area (CMA) alongside Lesotho, Namibia, and South Africa. One of the last absolute monarchies in the world. King Mswati III has ruled since 1986, exercising centralized control through decrees. Socio-economic issues: Over 50% population lives on <$4/day; highest HIV rate globally (~26%). Way Forward: Strengthen democratic institutions and civil society engagement. Enhance healthcare access, particularly HIV/AIDS treatment. Leverage regional partnerships within CMA for economic growth. Consider the following statements: Eswatini shares borders with South Africa and Zimbabwe. It is the only absolute monarchy in Africa. Eswatini uses its own independent currency and is not part of any monetary union. Which of the above statements is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: It borders South Africa and Mozambique, not Zimbabwe. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: It is part of the Common Monetary Area. Cabo Delgado Region: LNG Projects and Climate Concerns Syllabus: GS1 – Geography | GS3 – Environment Context: A study warns that proposed LNG projects in Mozambique’s Cabo Delgado could significantly increase global GHG emissions. Geographic Significance: Cabo Delgado is Mozambique’s northernmost province, bordering Tanzania and the Indian Ocean. Located near the Rovuma Basin, a hub of natural gas reserves. Strategic for energy exports but vulnerable to climate and security risks. Concerns: Projects could lead to substantial CO₂ emissions if fully exploited. Human rights concerns due to insurgencies and displacement in the region. Risks of environmental degradation and marine ecosystem disruption. Way Forward: Promote sustainable energy transitions and just financing. Improve governance and community involvement in project design. Monitor ecological impacts with international oversight. Which of the following statements about the Cabo Delgado region is/are correct? It borders Tanzania and the Indian Ocean. It is located in southern Mozambique. It lies near the Rovuma Basin, rich in natural gas reserves. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: AExplanation:Statement 2 is incorrect – Cabo Delgado is in northern Mozambique. Statement 1: CorrectCabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique. It shares an international border with Tanzania to the north and has a coastline along the Indian Ocean to the east. This geographic positioning makes it strategically significant, especially for trade, security, and resource extraction. Statement 2: IncorrectCabo Delgado is not in southern Mozambique. It is located in the northern part of the country. The confusion may arise because much of Mozambique’s population and economic centers lie in the south, but Cabo Delgado is a remote, underdeveloped region far from the capital, Maputo. Statement 3: CorrectThe Rovuma Basin, which extends along the border with Tanzania and into the Indian Ocean, is rich in offshore natural gas reserves. Major global energy companies like TotalEnergies and ExxonMobil have invested in LNG (liquefied natural gas) projects in the area. This natural wealth, however, has also made the region vulnerable to insurgency and conflict, as armed groups vie for control and influence. Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha Syllabus: GS2 – Polity & Governance Context: As the Monsoon Session begins, it is vital to understand parliamentary procedures that shape democratic dialogue in India. Key Mechanisms in Lok Sabha: Rule 377: For raising non-point-of-order issues. Question Hour: MPs question ministries on various issues. Zero Hour: Post-Question Hour slot for raising urgent issues (not officially in rules). Rule 193 & 184: Allow discussions with/without voting. Adjournment Motion: Suspends business to discuss urgent matters. No-Confidence Motion: If passed, results in the fall of the government. Rajya Sabha Parallels: Rule 180A–E for public importance matters. Way Forward: Uphold parliamentary conventions. Ensure timely answers to MPs’ queries. Use tools like Zero Hour responsibly for public interest. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? Rule 193 – Discussion with voting Rule 377 – Raising matters of public importance Question Hour – Raised post lunch session A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. All of the above Answer: BExplanation: Rule 193 is for discussion without Question Hour is the first hour of the sitting, not post-lunch. Public Accounts Committee (PAC) on Aadhaar Verification Failures Syllabus: GS2 – Governance | Accountability Mechanisms Context: PAC has called for review of UIDAI’s functioning due to concerns over biometric verification failures. About PAC: Established in 1921; key financial oversight body. Reviews use of public funds, CAG reports, tax administration. 22 members (15 LS, 7 RS); chaired by opposition MP. Concerns Raised: High biometric mismatch rates exclude genuine beneficiaries. Affects access to welfare schemes. With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) and Aadhaar verification issues, consider the following statements: The PAC consists of only Lok Sabha members. The Chairperson of the PAC is conventionally from the ruling party. PAC has raised concerns over biometric mismatches affecting welfare delivery. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The PAC has members from both Lok Sabha (15) and Rajya Sabha (7). Statement 2 is incorrect: The chairperson is usually from the opposition. Statement 3 is correct: PAC highlighted that biometric mismatch under Aadhaar leads to exclusion from welfare schemes. Maulana Azad National Fellowship (MANF) Syllabus: GS2 – Governance | Welfare for Minorities Context: Pending MANF payments have been released after a seven-month delay. About MANF: Launched in 2009-10 for minority students pursuing MPhil/PhD. Covers six notified communities: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Parsis, Buddhists. Administered by Ministry of Minority Affairs. Scope: For
Current Affairs 18 july 2025 – Tone Academy
Swachh Survekshan 2024-25 Awards Latest News Syllabus:Awards The President of India recently presented the Swachh Survekshan 2024–25 Awards at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. The event was organized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). About the Awards: This was the 9th edition of the world’s largest urban cleanliness survey.It is conducted under the Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban (SBM-U).A total of 78 awardees were recognized, including cities, cantonment boards, and institutions. Top Rankings: Indore, Surat, and Navi Mumbai were ranked as the top three cities under the newly launched Super Swachh League, which honors consistent performance.Vijayawada secured the fourth position overall. Key Recognitions: Ahmedabad, Bhopal, and Lucknow were honored as leading Swachh Shehars.Prayagraj was awarded as the Best Ganga Town.Secunderabad Cantonment Board received recognition for its exceptional sanitation management.Visakhapatnam, Jabalpur, and Gorakhpur were named Best SafaiMitra Surakshit Shehars for their commitment to sanitation worker welfare. Special Honors: The Government of Uttar Pradesh, the Prayagraj Mela Adhikari, and the Municipal Corporation of Prayagraj received special recognition for effectively managing urban sanitation during the Mahakumbh, which witnessed a footfall of approximately 66 crore people. New Initiatives: The “One City, One Award” principle was introduced to ensure fair competition among cities of different sizes.Thirty-four cities were declared Promising Swachh Shehars for their significant progress in sanitation and cleanliness. With reference to the “Super Swachh League” introduced in Swachh Survekshan 2024–25, consider the following statements: It is awarded to cities that have secured first rank in their population categories in the current year only. Indore, Surat, and Navi Mumbai were ranked among the top three under this category. The league was created to reward consistent top performance over multiple years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the Super Swachh League wasn’t just about the top performance in the current year. It was designed to honor cities with consistent high rankings over several years, thus rewarding sustained excellence.Statement 2 is correct. Indore, Surat, and Navi Mumbai were the top three performers in the newly introduced Super Swachh League.Statement 3 is correct and central to the League’s purpose: recognizing consistent excellence rather than one-time wins. West Bank Displacement Crisis Syllabus: GS1/Places in News Context: The UN reported unprecedented levels of displacement in the West Bank, the highest since the start of Israeli occupation nearly 60 years ago. Geographical Location: Lies west of the Jordan River. Bordered by: Israel (west), Jordan (east), and Jerusalem (south-west). Major cities: Ramallah (Palestinian Authority’s administrative capital), Hebron, Nablus, Jenin, Bethlehem. Historical Background: 1948: Post Arab-Israeli War, Jordan occupied the West Bank. 1967: Captured by Israel during the Six-Day War. 1993–1995 Oslo Accords: Divided the West Bank into: Area A: Full Palestinian civil & security control. Area B: Palestinian civil control & joint Israeli-Palestinian security. Area C: Full Israeli control (about 60% of territory). Consider the following pairs: Area Control under Oslo Accords A Full Israeli control B Joint Palestinian-Israeli civil control C Full Palestinian civil and security control Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? A. 1 onlyB. 3 onlyC. NoneD. All Answer: C Explanation: Area A → Full Palestinian control Area B → Palestinian civil + joint security Area C → Full Israeli control All given pairings in the question are incorrectly matched, hence the correct answer is None. Euthanasia in India Syllabus: GS2/Governance Context: Kerala allows euthanasia of diseased stray dogs under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Animal Husbandry Practices and Procedures) Rules 2023. Legal Framework: Section 8 of Animal Husbandry Rules (2023): Permits euthanasia if an animal is: Severely diseased (risk of spread). Mortally/severely injured. Must be certified by a registered veterinary practitioner. Types of Euthanasia: Active: Direct intervention (e.g. lethal injection). Passive: Withdrawing life support/treatment. Supreme Court Guidelines: 2011 (Aruna Shanbaug case): Passive euthanasia allowed in specific conditions. 2018: Legalized passive euthanasia for terminally ill, under Article 21 (Right to Die with Dignity). Requires advance directive or court-sanctioned decision. Permits DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) orders. With reference to euthanasia and its legal status in India, consider the following statements: Active euthanasia is legally permitted in India under the 2018 Supreme Court judgment. Passive euthanasia includes withdrawal of nutrition and hydration if approved by the court or living will. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 prohibits all forms of euthanasia for stray animals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Active euthanasia is not legal in India. Only passive euthanasia is allowed. Statement 2 is correct: Passive euthanasia includes withdrawal of nutrition, hydration, etc., as per a living will or court approval. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2023 Animal Husbandry Rules under PCA Act permit euthanasia under medical grounds. HIV Pre-exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) Syllabus: GS2/Health Context: Aurobindo, Cipla, and Viatris to manufacture injectable cabotegravir (CAB LA) for HIV treatment in 133 countries. About PrEP: Preventive antiretroviral use by HIV-negative individuals. Blocks HIV replication post-exposure. Forms: Oral pills: Truvada (TDF/FTC), Descovy (TAF/FTC). Injectables: Apretude (cabotegravir): Every 2 months. Yeztugo: Every 6 months. With reference to injectable Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention, consider the following statements: Cabotegravir injectable (Apretude) is administered once every 6 months. PrEP works by directly neutralizing HIV before it enters host cells. India has initiated domestic production of injectable PrEP drugs under voluntary licensing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Apretude is taken every 2 months, not 6. (Yeztugo is every 6 months.) Statement 2 is incorrect: PrEP prevents HIV replication post-exposure, it doesn’t neutralize virus entry. Statement 3 is correct: Indian companies like Aurobindo, Cipla have signed agreements to manufacture CAB LA. NATO