Swachh Survekshan 2024-25 Awards Latest News
Syllabus:Awards
- The President of India recently presented the Swachh Survekshan 2024–25 Awards at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. The event was organized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
About the Awards:
- This was the 9th edition of the world’s largest urban cleanliness survey.
It is conducted under the Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban (SBM-U).
A total of 78 awardees were recognized, including cities, cantonment boards, and institutions.
Top Rankings:
- Indore, Surat, and Navi Mumbai were ranked as the top three cities under the newly launched Super Swachh League, which honors consistent performance.
Vijayawada secured the fourth position overall.
Key Recognitions:
- Ahmedabad, Bhopal, and Lucknow were honored as leading Swachh Shehars.
Prayagraj was awarded as the Best Ganga Town.
Secunderabad Cantonment Board received recognition for its exceptional sanitation management.
Visakhapatnam, Jabalpur, and Gorakhpur were named Best SafaiMitra Surakshit Shehars for their commitment to sanitation worker welfare.
Special Honors:
- The Government of Uttar Pradesh, the Prayagraj Mela Adhikari, and the Municipal Corporation of Prayagraj received special recognition for effectively managing urban sanitation during the Mahakumbh, which witnessed a footfall of approximately 66 crore people.
New Initiatives:
- The “One City, One Award” principle was introduced to ensure fair competition among cities of different sizes.
Thirty-four cities were declared Promising Swachh Shehars for their significant progress in sanitation and cleanliness.
With reference to the “Super Swachh League” introduced in Swachh Survekshan 2024–25, consider the following statements:
- It is awarded to cities that have secured first rank in their population categories in the current year only.
- Indore, Surat, and Navi Mumbai were ranked among the top three under this category.
- The league was created to reward consistent top performance over multiple years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the Super Swachh League wasn’t just about the top performance in the current year. It was designed to honor cities with consistent high rankings over several years, thus rewarding sustained excellence.
Statement 2 is correct. Indore, Surat, and Navi Mumbai were the top three performers in the newly introduced Super Swachh League.
Statement 3 is correct and central to the League’s purpose: recognizing consistent excellence rather than one-time wins.
West Bank Displacement Crisis
Syllabus: GS1/Places in News
Context:
- The UN reported unprecedented levels of displacement in the West Bank, the highest since the start of Israeli occupation nearly 60 years ago.
Geographical Location:
- Lies west of the Jordan River.
- Bordered by: Israel (west), Jordan (east), and Jerusalem (south-west).
- Major cities: Ramallah (Palestinian Authority’s administrative capital), Hebron, Nablus, Jenin, Bethlehem.
Historical Background:
- 1948: Post Arab-Israeli War, Jordan occupied the West Bank.
- 1967: Captured by Israel during the Six-Day War.
- 1993–1995 Oslo Accords: Divided the West Bank into:
- Area A: Full Palestinian civil & security control.
- Area B: Palestinian civil control & joint Israeli-Palestinian security.
- Area C: Full Israeli control (about 60% of territory).
Consider the following pairs:
Area | Control under Oslo Accords |
A | Full Israeli control |
B | Joint Palestinian-Israeli civil control |
C | Full Palestinian civil and security control |
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. None
D. All
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Area A → Full Palestinian control
- Area B → Palestinian civil + joint security
- Area C → Full Israeli control
- All given pairings in the question are incorrectly matched, hence the correct answer is None.
Euthanasia in India
Syllabus: GS2/Governance
Context:
- Kerala allows euthanasia of diseased stray dogs under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Animal Husbandry Practices and Procedures) Rules 2023.
Legal Framework:
- Section 8 of Animal Husbandry Rules (2023): Permits euthanasia if an animal is:
- Severely diseased (risk of spread).
- Mortally/severely injured.
- Must be certified by a registered veterinary practitioner.
Types of Euthanasia:
- Active: Direct intervention (e.g. lethal injection).
- Passive: Withdrawing life support/treatment.
Supreme Court Guidelines:
- 2011 (Aruna Shanbaug case): Passive euthanasia allowed in specific conditions.
- 2018: Legalized passive euthanasia for terminally ill, under Article 21 (Right to Die with Dignity).
- Requires advance directive or court-sanctioned decision.
- Permits DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) orders.
With reference to euthanasia and its legal status in India, consider the following statements:
- Active euthanasia is legally permitted in India under the 2018 Supreme Court judgment.
- Passive euthanasia includes withdrawal of nutrition and hydration if approved by the court or living will.
- The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 prohibits all forms of euthanasia for stray animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Active euthanasia is not legal in India. Only passive euthanasia is allowed.
- Statement 2 is correct: Passive euthanasia includes withdrawal of nutrition, hydration, etc., as per a living will or court approval.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2023 Animal Husbandry Rules under PCA Act permit euthanasia under medical grounds.
HIV Pre-exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)
Syllabus: GS2/Health
Context:
- Aurobindo, Cipla, and Viatris to manufacture injectable cabotegravir (CAB LA) for HIV treatment in 133 countries.
About PrEP: Preventive antiretroviral use by HIV-negative individuals.
- Blocks HIV replication post-exposure.
Forms:
- Oral pills: Truvada (TDF/FTC), Descovy (TAF/FTC).
- Injectables:
- Apretude (cabotegravir): Every 2 months.
- Yeztugo: Every 6 months.
With reference to injectable Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention, consider the following statements:
- Cabotegravir injectable (Apretude) is administered once every 6 months.
- PrEP works by directly neutralizing HIV before it enters host cells.
- India has initiated domestic production of injectable PrEP drugs under voluntary licensing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Apretude is taken every 2 months, not 6. (Yeztugo is every 6 months.)
- Statement 2 is incorrect: PrEP prevents HIV replication post-exposure, it doesn’t neutralize virus entry.
- Statement 3 is correct: Indian companies like Aurobindo, Cipla have signed agreements to manufacture CAB LA.
NATO and Secondary Sanctions
Syllabus: GS2/Regional Groupings
Context:
- NATO Secretary-General warned that India, China, Brazil could face secondary sanctions for trading with Russia.
Key Facts:
- India’s Oil Dependency: 88% imported.
- FY 2024-25: Russian crude imports = 87.4 MT (36% of total 244 MT).
- Pre-Ukraine war: Russian share <2%.
- About NATO:
- Founded: 1949 (Washington Treaty).
- Aim: Collective defense and security.
- Article 5: Attack on one = attack on all.
- Members: 32 (latest: Finland & Sweden).
- Governance: Decisions by consensus via North Atlantic Council.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the implications of secondary sanctions in the context of India’s oil imports from Russia?
- Secondary sanctions are imposed only by international institutions like the UN Security Council.
- These sanctions can target entities in India indirectly facilitating trade with Russia, including shipping and insurance.
- India’s increased reliance on Russian oil post-Ukraine war makes it automatically subject to NATO sanctions under Article 5 provisions.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Secondary sanctions are unilateral, e.g., by the US or EU, not UN-mandated.
- Statement 2 is correct: Secondary sanctions can target banks, insurers, ports, etc., even outside Russia.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: NATO is a military alliance, and Article 5 relates to collective military defense—not trade sanctions.
Prime Minister Professorships
Syllabus: GS3/Science and Technology
Context:
- Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) launched Prime Minister Professorships.
Details:
- Objective: Provide sustained academic/research mentorship.
- Eligibility: Retired experts, overseas scientists, Professors of Practice.
Funding:
- 30 lakh (fellowship) + Rs. 24 lakh (research grant)/year.
- 1 lakh/year to host institute.
- Duration: Up to 5 years (performance-based).
About ANRF:
- Established via ANRF 2023 Act under DST.
- Apex body for scientific research.
- Subsumes Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB).
Consider the following features of the Prime Minister Professorship scheme under the ANRF Act:
- It is open to only Indian citizens currently serving in central universities.
- Provides annual funding for both research and institutional overhead.
- It replaces the INSPIRE fellowship under the Department of Science & Technology.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: It is open to retired experts, overseas scientists, and Professors of Practice (not limited to Indian citizens or serving faculty).
- Statement 2 is correct: It provides 30 lakh + Rs. 24 lakh research grant + Rs. 1 lakh/year to host institution.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: It does not replace INSPIRE. It is a new initiative under ANRF, which subsumed SERB, not INSPIRE.
Tribal Genome Sequencing Project
Syllabus: GS3/Science & Technology
Context:
- Gujarat launched India’s first Tribal Genome Sequencing Project.
- Objective: Identify genetic markers for hereditary and immunity-related conditions.
Key Details:
- Agency: Gujarat Biotechnology Research Centre (GBRC).
- Sample Size: 2,000 tribal individuals across 17 districts.
- Target Groups: Bamcha, Garasia Bhil, Chaudhar, Dubla, Gond, Nayaka, Warli, Sidi.
With reference to India’s first Tribal Genome Sequencing Project, consider the following statements:
- The project seeks to analyze tribal epigenomes for developing personalized medicine.
- The Gujarat Biotechnology Research Centre is the lead agency.
- The tribal group “Sidi,” included in the sample, traces partial ancestry to African lineages.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The focus is on genome sequencing (DNA level), not epigenomics (gene expression modulation).
- Statement 2 is correct: GBRC is conducting it.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Sidi tribe of Gujarat has Afro-Indian ancestry, primarily via East Africa during medieval trade.
Javelin Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGMs)
Syllabus: GS3/Defence
Context:
- India requested the US for co-production of Javelin ATGMs.
Features:
- Type: Man-portable, fire-and-forget medium-range missile.
- Capability: Defeats tanks and soft targets.
- Launch Modes: Top-attack & direct-attack.
- Developed by: Raytheon and Lockheed Martin (USA).
Which of the following features make the Javelin missile strategically significant in modern asymmetric warfare?
- Its top-attack mode makes it effective against tanks with reactive armor.
- It requires line-of-sight for tracking the target after launch.
- Co-production of Javelin in India is being negotiated under the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA).
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The top-attack mode bypasses reactive armor, striking where tanks are vulnerable.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: It is “fire-and-forget”—does not need line-of-sight post-launch.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: BECA deals with geospatial intelligence, not co- Javelin talks are under DTTI (Defence Technology & Trade Initiative).
ADEETIE Scheme
Syllabus: GS3/Economy
- Context: ADEETIE scheme launched in Panipat, Haryana.
Details:
- Full Form: Assistance in Deploying Energy Efficient Technologies in Industries & Establishments.
- Budget: Rs. 1,000 crore.
- Implementing Body: Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
- Support Provided:
- Loan interest subvention (5% for Micro/Small, 3% for Medium Enterprises).
- Energy audits, DPRs, Monitoring & Verification.
- Covered Sectors: Brass, Bricks, Ceramics, Chemicals, Fishery, Food Processing, Forging, Foundry, Glass, Leather, Paper, Pharma, Steel Re-rolling, Textiles.
Which of the following correctly explains the purpose of the ADEETIE scheme launched recently in India?
A. To offer capital subsidies for rooftop solar installations in commercial zones.
B. To facilitate green hydrogen production in MSMEs through credit-linked support.
C. To accelerate deployment of energy-efficient tech in high-energy industries via interest subvention.
D. To support carbon offsetting by subsidizing carbon credits from small industries.
Answer: C
Explanation:
- ADEETIE = Assistance in Deploying Energy Efficient Technologies in Industries & Establishments
- Offers loan interest subvention (5%/3%) and supports energy audits, DPRs, etc.
- Covers energy-intensive sectors like brass, foundry, forging, textiles, etc.
Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) Norms
Syllabus: GS3/Environment
Context:
- Govt finalizing CAFE-III and IV norms (2027–2037).
Objective:
- Reduce CO₂ emissions & oil imports.
- Promote clean mobility & EV adoption.
Background:
- Introduced: 2017 (by BEE under Ministry of Power).
- Coverage: Vehicles <3,500 kg (petrol, diesel, LPG, CNG, hybrids, EVs).
- CAFE-II Norms (2022-23):
- Fuel limit: 4.78 L/100 km.
- CO₂ limit: ≤113 g/km.
- Penalties: For non-compliance.
Issues:
- Penalizes lightweight vehicles.
- Discourages innovation in affordable, small car segments crucial for Indian mass mobility.
Consider the following statements about the CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency) norms:
- They are mandatory for vehicle categories under 3,500 kg across all fuel types.
- CAFE-II norms capped CO₂ emissions at 113 g/km for the average fleet.
- The penalties under CAFE are enforced by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
Which of the above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: CAFE covers passenger vehicles <3,500 kg, including EVs, CNG, hybrids, etc.
- Statement 2 is correct: CAFE-II = ≤113 g/km CO₂ limit
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under Ministry of Power, not MoRTH, enforces CAFE norms.