16 June 2025 Current Affairs | Daily Current Affairs

Viksit Bharat Ka Amrit Kaal Report

Syllabus: Governance

Theme: Seva, Sushasan, Garib Kalyan

Serving the Poor & Marginalized: Antyodaya in Action

Goal: Inclusive growth through 100% welfare saturation.

81 crore received free foodgrains under PMGKY
5+ crore MUDRA loans (>50% to SC/ST/OBC)
15 crore households got tap water under Jal Jeevan Mission
4 crore houses built under PM Awas Yojana
68 lakh street vendors aided via PM SVANidhi
112+ Aspirational Districts exceeded state development averages

Outcome: IMF affirms end of extreme poverty, UNDP hails MPI progress.

Farmer Welfare: ‘Beej Se Bazaar Tak’
Goal: Holistic agricultural reforms
₹3.7 lakh crore via PM-KISAN
MSP procurement surged: Pulses (↑7350%), Oilseeds (↑1500%)
1,473 eNAM mandis, 24 Mega Food Parks
₹1 lakh crore Agri Infra Fund

Achievements:

Foodgrain output: 347 MMT
Milk production: ↑63.56%
1,943 agri-startups supported
Processed food exports: ↑to $9.03 billion

Nari Shakti: Empowerment Across Life Stages
Goal: Socio-economic & digital inclusion
38 crore MUDRA loans (₹14.72 lakh crore) to women
10 crore+ women in SHGs; 3 crore becoming Lakhpati Didis
Sex ratio at birth: 1020 females/1000 males
77 crore+ sanitary pads distributed via Jan Aushadhi

Achievements:

Paid maternity leave extended to 26 weeks
Women own 73% of PMAY-Gramin homes
50,000+ startups with women directors

Empowering Amrit Peedhi (Youth)

Goal: Skilling, education, entrepreneurship, sports
6 crore skilled under PMKVY
6,500 new IIT seats, 23 IITs & 23 AIIMS operational
6 lakh+ startups created 6 lakh jobs
490 new universities

Achievements:

8 lakh direct jobs via DPIIT startups
61 medals at Tokyo & Paris Olympics/Paralympics
94+ athletes supported under TOPS
Ease of Living for the Middle Class
Goal: Connectivity, digital access, housing, tax reforms
4 crore homes under PMAY
Metro spread from 5 to 23 cities
UPI users: 46 crore individuals, 6.5 crore merchants
5G in 6% districts within 22 months

Achievements:

5 crore+ flew under UDAN
₹37,000 crore unlocked via SWAMIH
52 crore Digilocker users
2,297+ e-services via UMANG

Affordable, Accessible Healthcare for All

Goal: Health equity through infrastructure & digital outreach
9 crore+ Ayushman Bharat admissions (₹1.3 lakh crore)
77 crore ABHA IDs created
220+ crore COVID vaccine doses given
18 lakh MBBS, 74,000 PG seats

Achievements:

16,000+ Jan Aushadhi stores saved ₹38,000 crore
37 crore e-consultations via eSanjeevani
MMR dropped from 130 → 80
AIIMS in NE, 2,045 medical colleges now operational

Conclusion:

India’s 11-year journey under PM Modi showcases a new era of inclusive growth, digital empowerment, grassroots upliftment, and global leadership — laying the foundation for a Viksit Bharat by 2047.

Consider the following statements regarding the Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP):

It uses a data-driven approach focusing on 5 key sectors: Health, Education, Agriculture, Infrastructure, and Basic Financial Inclusion.
Over 100 aspirational districts have shown improvement beyond the state average in development parameters.
The programme is being implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development alone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Detailed Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct

The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) was launched by NITI Aayog in January 2018, with the objective of quickly and effectively transforming 112 most underdeveloped districts of India across key sectors.
The programme uses a data-driven approach by ranking districts based on 49 Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) across 5 core sectors:
Health & Nutrition
Education
Agriculture & Water Resources
Financial Inclusion & Skill Development
Basic Infrastructure
The rankings are updated monthly using the Champions of Change dashboard, enabling real-time tracking and nudging of districts towards better governance and service delivery.

Restricting AC Temperature: A Climate-Smart and Health-Safe Cooling Strategy

Syllabus: Energy

Context:

The Union Ministry of Power has proposed a mandatory operational temperature range of 20°C to 28°C for all new air conditioners used in residential, commercial, and vehicular settings. This marks a significant policy evolution from the 2018 advisory of a default 24°C setting, transitioning from voluntary compliance to enforced manufacturing norms.

Why the Reform Is Necessary

Mounting Energy Demand from Cooling
Rising Load Projection: India’s cooling demand is projected to reach 200 GW by 2030, placing immense stress on the national grid.
Current Burden: ACs already contribute 50 GW, nearly 20% of peak power demand, despite only 6% household penetration, indicating unsustainable growth ahead.

Economic Implications

Electricity Tariffs: Escalating demand could necessitate tariff hikes and increased fossil-fuel-based generation, disproportionately affecting lower-income households.
Energy Equity: Demand moderation ensures affordable and inclusive access to electricity, preserving socioeconomic balance.

Health Hazards of Overcooling (<18°C)

Cardiovascular Stress: Indoor temperatures below 18°C cause vasoconstriction, increasing blood pressure by 6–8 mmHg, elevating hypertension risk.
Respiratory Risks in Children: Prolonged exposure to ~16°C has been associated with reduced lung capacity and airway resistance in young children.
Mental Health Deterioration: Cold indoor environments correlate with depression, anxiety, and stress, as observed in studies from temperate regions like the UK.
Disrupted Sleep & Immunity: Overcooling adversely affects sleep cycles, weakens immune function, and impairs cognitive performance.
Thermal Vulnerability: Elderly and infants, with diminished thermoregulatory efficiency, are more prone to cold-induced morbidity.

Benefits of the Proposed Temperature Regulation

Energy Efficiency
Each 1°C increase in AC temperature can result in 6% energy savings.
Cumulative savings could reach 20 billion units annually, easing grid pressure during peak demand.

Climate Impact Mitigation

Reduces CO₂ emissions, supporting India’s net-zero pathway and Paris Agreement commitments.
Enhances compliance with SDG 13 (Climate Action).
Health-Conscious Cooling
Promotes thermal comfort without compromising physiological or mental health.
Helps normalize moderate cooling as a social and behavioral standard.
Infrastructure Resilience
Helps avoid blackouts, reduces reliance on emergency fossil-fuel generation, and curbs long-term infrastructure costs.

Alignment with National and Global Frameworks

India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP): Reinforces the ICAP target to reduce cooling energy demand by 25–30% by 2038.
Global Best Practices: Mirrors Japan’s 28°C default, aligning India with international climate-smart standards.
Smart Cities & Urban Sustainability: Facilitates climate-resilient urban planning, sustainable architecture, and eco-sensitive infrastructure.

Conclusion

The Ministry’s proposal to mandate a standardized AC temperature range represents a scientifically grounded, eco-conscious, and public health-sensitive regulatory reform. It not only aligns with India’s climate and energy goals but also cultivates responsible consumption behavior. By addressing both infrastructural stress and individual well-being, the initiative marks a decisive step toward sustainable urban living and intergenerational equity in the Anthropocene era.

Consider the following statements regarding the Union Ministry of Power’s proposal to regulate air conditioner temperature settings in India:

The proposal seeks to make 24°C the maximum allowable temperature setting for all new air conditioners sold in
The move aims to reduce India’s cooling energy demand in line with the objectives of the India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP).
Japan’s “Cool Biz” campaign has influenced India’s push towards a behavioral shift in indoor thermal comfort norms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Detailed Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect
Claim: The proposal seeks to make 24°C the maximum allowable temperature for ACs.
Reality: The Union Ministry of Power has proposed a mandatory operational temperature range of 20°C to 28°C for all new AC units, not a maximum of 24°C.
The key misinterpretation here is that 24°C is a maximum, when in fact:
24°C was an advisory default setting in 2018 (voluntary).
Now, the proposed regulation is to hardwire all new ACs with a temperature operating range between 20°C (minimum) and 28°C (maximum).
This is aimed at limiting excessive cooling to save energy and avoid health hazards.

Statement 2: Correct

The regulation aligns directly with the India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP), which aims to:
Reduce cooling energy demand by 25–30% by 2038.
Promote sustainable and climate-smart cooling solutions.
Enhance energy efficiency and reduce greenhouse gas emissions from refrigeration and AC use.
Controlling default temperature settings in ACs directly contributes to these ICAP targets by:
Reducing electricity consumption.
Minimizing peak demand on power grids.

Statement 3: Correct

The “Cool Biz” campaign launched by Japan in 2005:
Encouraged government offices and businesses to set ACs to 28°C.
Promoted lighter dress codes and behavioral adaptation to reduce energy use.
India has drawn inspiration from this global practice to create behavioral norms and public awareness about energy-conscious cooling habits.
This approach is being incorporated into regulatory norms, not just public campaigns, in India.

Conclusion:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Misrepresents the policy — 24°C is not the cap; it’s about a 20–28°C operating range.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The policy aligns with ICAP and reflects lessons from international best practices like Japan’s Cool Biz.

DNA Identification Techniques

Syllabus:Science and Technology

Context:

Following the Air India Boeing 787 crash in Ahmedabad, authorities have turned to DNA identification to ascertain the identities of the deceased victims.

What is DNA Identification?

DNA identification is a forensic method used to match DNA from human remains with known samples to confirm identity.
Each individual (except identical twins) has unique DNA, making it an effective biological fingerprint.
Widely used in mass disasters, aviation accidents, war zones, and criminal investigations.

How It Works

Sample Collection & Preservation

Sources: Hard tissues (bones, teeth) or soft tissues (skin, muscle).
Preservation: Stored in ethanol or frozen at –20°C to prevent degradation, especially crucial in hot/humid conditions.

Reference DNA

Obtained from:

Biological relatives (parents, children, siblings).
Personal items (e.g., toothbrushes, hairbrushes).
Used for comparison and confirmation.

DNA Analysis Methods

Technique	Use Case	Notes
STR (Short Tandem Repeat)	Most common for nuclear DNA	High accuracy; ideal for preserved samples
mtDNA (Mitochondrial DNA)	When nuclear DNA is degraded	Inherited maternally; matches maternal relatives
Y-STR Analysis	Traces paternal lineage (males)	Used when maternal relatives are unavailable
SNP (Single Nucleotide Polymorphism)	Extremely degraded DNA	Less precise, but useful with minimal reference data

Key Features & Applications

Gold Standard: Globally adopted for victim identification in mass casualty incidents.
Precision: Capable of identifying individuals from even highly degraded remains.
Storage-Sensitive: Requires careful handling to preserve data integrity.
International Practice: Used by CBI, Interpol, and ICRC.
Legal Standing: DNA evidence is admissible in Indian courts under the Indian Evidence Act.

With reference to forensic DNA identification techniques used in mass disasters and aviation accidents, consider the following statements:

Short Tandem Repeat (STR) analysis can be used even when DNA is highly degraded due to environmental exposure.
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) analysis is preferred in cases where reference DNA is available only from paternal relatives.
Y-chromosome STR analysis is ineffective in identifying female victims.
DNA evidence obtained from personal items like toothbrushes is not legally admissible in Indian courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: C. 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect:STR analysis requires relatively intact nuclear DNA. It is not suitable when DNA is severely degraded due to heat, moisture, or time. In such cases, mtDNA or SNP analysis is used.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: mtDNA is inherited maternally, not paternally. If only paternal relatives are available, Y-STR (for males) may be used, not mtDNA.
Statement 3 – Correct:Y-STR analysis traces male lineage (Y chromosome is present only in males). Thus, it is not applicable to identify female victims.
Statement 4 – Incorrect:DNA obtained from personal items like toothbrushes, razors, or hairbrushes is legally admissible in Indian courts under the Indian Evidence Act, provided chain of custody is established.

A New Species of Jumping Spider

Syllabus:Ecology

Context:

A team of researchers has identified a new species of jumping spider, Spartaeus karigiri, in the southern Indian states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
This discovery marks the first recorded presence of the genera Spartaeus and Sonoita in India, which were previously confined to Southeast Asia and Africa.

Key Highlights

Scientific Classification

Species: Spartaeus karigiri
Family: Salticidae (Jumping spiders)
Subfamily: Spartaeinae
Genera involved: Spartaeus, Sonoita

Geographical Range

Primary location: Karigiri (Elephant Hill), Devarayanadurga, Karnataka
Additional site: Villupuram district, Tamil Nadu

Distinctive Features

Habitat: Rocky outcrops and crevices in dry deciduous forests
Sexual Dimorphism:
Male: Active predator, often found in rocky habitats
Female: Observed guarding egg sacs, indicating maternal care
Behavioral Traits:
Intelligent mimicry
Web-invasion hunting strategy
Physiology: Advanced vision—a signature trait of Salticidae spiders

Scientific Significance

Biogeographic Breakthrough:
Spartaeus and Sonoita genera previously known only from Southeast Asia and Africa
First Indian record raises questions about historical dispersal and ecological adaptation
New Record: Confirms presence of Sonoita cf. lightfooti, a species previously thought to be African-endemic
Conservation Insight: Highlights the underexplored biodiversity of southern India’s rocky terrain
Ecological Value: Offers insights into the evolution of mimicry, maternal behavior, and predator intelligence in arachnids

With reference to the discovery of Spartaeus karigiri, consider the following statements:

Spartaeus karigiri is the first documented species of Salticidae in India to exhibit maternal egg guarding behavior in its natural habitat.
The genera Spartaeus and Sonoita were previously recorded only from the Afrotropical biogeographic realm.
The discovery of Spartaeus karigiri in Devarayanadurga reinforces the hypothesis of Gondwanan origin for several arachnid lineages in peninsular India.
The genus Sonoita, unlike Spartaeus, is characterized by nocturnal predation and silk-dependent hunting strategies.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct — The female of Spartaeus karigiri has been observed guarding her eggs, a behavior not widely documented previously in Salticidae in Indian records.
Statement 2: Incorrect — Spartaeus and Sonoita were known from both Southeast Asia and Africa, not exclusively from the Afrotropical realm.
Statement 3: Correct — The discovery in ancient rocky terrain supports hypotheses of Gondwanan biogeographic continuity, where isolated ecosystems in peninsular India retain relic species.
Statement 4: Incorrect — Jumping spiders of the Sonoita genus are known for keen vision and active daytime hunting, not nocturnal or silk-dependent predation.

Relaxed Key Provisions of the SEZ Rules, 2006

Syllabus:Governance

Context:

The Government of India has amended key provisions of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Rules, 2006, aimed at incentivizing domestic manufacturing in the semiconductor and electronics sectors by simplifying regulatory requirements and facilitating ease of doing business.

About SEZs:

Legal Basis: Governed under the SEZ Act, 2005 and SEZ Rules, 2006.
Objective: Promote exports, attract investment (both FDI and domestic), and boost employment through designated zones with differential regulatory and fiscal regimes.
Administering Authority: Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Salient Features of SEZ Rules (Pre-Relaxation):

Minimum Land Requirement: 50 hectares for general SEZs; sector-specific criteria varied.
Encumbrance-Free Land: Mandatory provision requiring land to be legally and administratively unencumbered.
Export Orientation: Units required to maintain positive Net Foreign Exchange (NFE) over a five-year period.
Single-Window Clearance: Facilitated by the Board of Approval (BoA) to streamline administrative approvals.
Fiscal Incentives: Income tax holidays, customs duty exemptions, and GST-related concessions.
Separate Customs Territory: SEZs function as deemed foreign territory for trade, tariff, and taxation purposes.

Recent Amendments (2024–25):

Land Norms Rationalized:

Reduced Minimum Area: For semiconductor and electronic component SEZs, land requirement reduced from 50 hectares to 10 hectares.
Purpose: Accommodate high-value, low-footprint industries like chip fabrication and electronics manufacturing.

Encumbrance-Free Clause Relaxed:

SEZs can now be established on land that has pending legal, administrative, or financial encumbrances.
Implication: Accelerates land acquisition and development timelines for strategic sectors.

Domestic Market Access Allowed:

SEZ units in the semiconductor and electronics sectors may now supply to the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) upon payment of applicable duties.
Impact: Enhances backward integration with domestic value chains and reduces import dependence.

Significance:

Aligns with India Semiconductor Mission and Make in India
Encourages capital-intensive, technology-driven investments.
Enhances strategic autonomy in electronics and chip supply chains.
Supports India’s ambition to emerge as a global electronics hub.

With reference to the recent amendments to the SEZ Rules, 2006 aimed at boosting semiconductor and electronics manufacturing in India, consider the following statements:

The amended rules allow SEZs for semiconductor and electronics sectors to be established on land with legal or administrative encumbrances, provided the land lies within notified brownfield zones.
The relaxation permits SEZ units in these sectors to supply to the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) without the obligation to maintain positive Net Foreign Exchange (NFE).
The revised minimum land requirement for setting up a sector-specific SEZ for semiconductors has been brought down to less than one-fourth of the original requirement applicable to general SEZs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only

Answer: D. 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 — Incorrect:While the encumbrance-free land requirement has been relaxed, no condition has been introduced regarding the land being in “notified brownfield zones.” The rule now permits SEZs on land with existing legal or administrative issues without this additional stipulation.
Statement 2 — Incorrect:SEZ units supplying to the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) are still required to pay applicable customs duties. Moreover, there is no indication that the obligation to maintain Net Foreign Exchange (NFE) has been waived under the new relaxation. The NFE condition generally remains a key requirement under SEZ regulations.
Statement 3 — Correct:The land requirement has been reduced from 50 hectares to 10 hectares, which is 1/5th (i.e., less than one-fourth) of the original threshold for general SEZs — making this statement factually accurate.

Policy Reforms to Boost the Ease of Doing Research

Syllabus:Governance

Context:

The Union Minister of Science & Technology has unveiled comprehensive policy reforms aimed at enhancing the Ease of Innovation, Ease of Doing Research, and Ease of Science across the country. These measures target structural bottlenecks that have historically hindered India’s research ecosystem.

What is ‘Ease of Doing Research’?

It refers to creating a conducive environment for research by removing bureaucratic roadblocks, simplifying procurement and approval processes, and enabling greater institutional autonomy—particularly for academic and scientific research bodies.

Key Reforms & Features:

Non-GeM Procurement Flexibility:

Research institutions can now bypass the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) for procuring specialised scientific equipment not listed on the portal, expediting the acquisition of critical tools.

Institutional Autonomy for Global Tenders:

Heads of institutions such as Directors and Vice-Chancellors are empowered to approve Global Tender Enquiries (GTEs) up to ₹200 crore, eliminating dependence on central approvals.

Enhanced Financial Limits:

Direct purchase limit increased from ₹1 lakh to ₹2 lakh
Departmental purchase committee ceiling raised from ₹1–10 lakh to ₹2–25 lakh
Cap for limited/advertised tenders increased from ₹50 lakh to ₹1 crore

Reduction in R&D Delays:

Reforms aim to address key challenges like slow procurement, delayed approvals, and lengthy exemption processes, which have historically hampered research timelines.

Trust-Based Governance Framework:

Shifts the research funding model toward one of autonomy and accountability, empowering institutional leadership while ensuring responsible expenditure.

Significance of the Reforms:

Accelerated Project Implementation: Faster procurement and decision-making mechanisms ensure timely execution of research projects and innovation.
Boost for Startups and Young Researchers:Simplified access to high-end research tools lowers entry barriers for early-stage innovators and scholars.
Stimulus for R&D Investment:Encourages greater public-private collaboration by signalling a supportive and agile policy environment.
Alignment with NEP 2020:Supports the National Education Policy’s emphasis on interdisciplinary and student-led research.
Towards a $100 Billion Science Economy:Builds on the liberalisation success of India’s space and nuclear sectors to catalyse high-impact research across domains.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent procurement reforms for scientific research bodies in India:

Institutional heads can now approve Global Tender Enquiries up to ₹500 crore.
Non-GeM procurement is allowed for specialized scientific tools not available on the portal.
The limit for direct purchases by research institutions has been increased from ₹1 lakh to ₹2 lakh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The limit for GTE approval by institutional heads is ₹200 crore, not ₹500 crore.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the announced reforms.

Step-and-Shoot Spot-Scanning Proton Arc Therapy (SPArc Therapy)

Syllabus:Science and Technology

Context:

A 46-year-old woman with skull-base parotid cancer has become the world’s first recipient of treatment using SPArc therapy, an advanced form of proton-based radiotherapy designed to minimize damage to surrounding healthy tissue while delivering highly targeted cancer treatment.

What is SPArc Therapy?

SPArc (Step-and-Shoot Spot-Scanning Proton Arc Therapy) is an innovative radiotherapy modality that combines the precision of proton therapy with dynamic arc-based delivery. It is particularly suited for treating anatomically complex and high-risk tumours.

Developed By:

Corewell Health William Beaumont University Hospital, United States.

Key Technological Features:

Step-and-Shoot Angular Delivery:Radiation is administered at pre-programmed angular intervals (typically across 180º), allowing for high precision while limiting radiation spillage into surrounding tissues.
Layered Energy Modulation (“Proton Painting”):Tumours are irradiated layer by layer, with modulated proton energies, to ensure comprehensive tumour coverage with minimal exposure to adjacent critical structures.
AI-Driven Adaptive Planning:Synthetic CT images generated via AI from cone-beam CT scans help dynamically adjust treatment plans in response to real-time anatomical shifts.
Minimal Toxicity Profile:In the first human trial, the patient experienced only minor skin irritation and maintained normal dietary and daily functions—indicating superior tolerance compared to conventional therapies.

Clinical Applications:

Head and Neck Malignancies:Particularly effective in tumours located near the brainstem, skull base, optic nerves, and facial nerves.
Complex or Large Tumours:Offers precise coverage with minimal collateral damage, essential in anatomically dense regions.
Refractory or High-Risk Cancers:Potentially beneficial in cases where conventional radiotherapy poses significant risk or fails to achieve adequate targeting.

Significance for India:

Advancing Precision Oncology:SPArc therapy holds promise for improving clinical outcomes in aggressive and otherwise inoperable cancers, marking a leap in India’s cancer care capabilities.
Equity and Cost Considerations:The high cost of proton therapy infrastructure raises concerns regarding equitable access and its scalability within India’s public health ecosystem.
Strategic Implementation Opportunity:With India’s rising cancer burden, selective integration of SPArc technology in apex cancer centres (like AIIMS, Tata Memorial, etc.) could serve as a critical component in strengthening tertiary care infrastructure.

With reference to SPArc (Step-and-Shoot Spot-Scanning Proton Arc Therapy), consider the following features:

It uses photon beams in a continuous arc to maximize tumour targeting.
It enables real-time adaptation to anatomical changes through AI-generated synthetic imaging.
It irradiates tumours layer by layer by modulating proton beam energies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: SPArc uses proton beams, not photon beams.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct and are central to the technique’s adaptive and precision features.

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