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TOne Academy

1st may 2025 Current Affairs

Cabinet Hikes Sugarcane Price for 2025–26 Season

Syllabus:Polity

 

Why in the News:

  • The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for the 2025–26 sugar season at ₹355 per quintal, ensuring financial stability for sugarcane farmers and workers in the agro-based sugar sector.
  • Key Highlights: FRP fixed at ₹355/qtl for a basic recovery rate of 10.25%. Premium of ₹3.46/qtl for every 0.1% increase in recovery.
  • Deduction of ₹3.46/qtl for every 0.1% decrease below 10.25%. Minimum price of ₹329.05/qtl guaranteed for mills with recovery below 9.5%. Estimated cost of production is ₹173/qtl (A2 + FL basis), making the FRP 105.2% above cost.

 

 

  • This represents a 4.41% increase over the 2024–25 FRP.
  • Beneficiaries: Around 5 crore sugarcane farmers and their dependents, 5 lakh sugar mill workers, and thousands involved in ancillary services such as logistics and labor.
  • Implementation: Effective from October 1, 2025. Payment Status: For the 2023–24 season, ₹1,11,703 crore (99.92%) of dues have been cleared. For the 2024–25 season (as of April 28, 2025), ₹85,094 crore (87%) has been paid out of ₹97,270 crore.
  • FRP Determination Basis: The approved FRP is based on recommendations from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and consultations with State Governments and key stakeholders.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for the 2025–26 season:

  1. The FRP of ₹355/qtl is based on a recovery rate of 10.5%.
  2. No deduction is applied to mills with a recovery rate below 9.5%.
  3. The FRP is more than double the estimated cost of production as per A2+FL.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect (recovery rate is 10.25%, not 10.5%).
  • Statement 2 is correct (no deductions below 9.5%).
  • Statement 3 is correct (₹355 vs ₹173 ≈ 105.2% above cost).

Top 10 Wealthiest Families in Asia 2025 Revealed by Bloomberg

Syllabus:Economy

 

Asia’s Richest Families 2025 – Bloomberg Rankings

Why in the News:Bloomberg has released its 2025 list of the Top 20 Wealthiest Families in Asia, highlighting enduring business legacies and multi-generational wealth. The Ambani family of India leads the list with a wealth of $90.5 billion, reaffirming India’s prominence in the region’s family-owned corporate landscape.

 

Background / Context: Asia has long been home to powerful family-run conglomerates that continue to influence regional and global markets. Bloomberg’s 2025 list focuses exclusively on dynasties that have passed on wealth across generations, excluding first-generation billionaires. In India, this highlights the resilience and global reach of legacy business houses such as Reliance, Aditya Birla Group, and Bajaj.

 

Key Information:

Aspect

Details

List Name

Asia’s Richest Families 2025

Released By

Bloomberg

Release Date

January 31, 2025

Geographic Focus

Asia (India, Thailand, Indonesia, etc.)

Special Note

6 Indian families featured in Top 20

 

Significance:

  • Highlights inter-generational wealth creation and sustainability
  • Showcases the economic influence of legacy family businesses
  • Reflects India’s entrepreneurial tradition and corporate continuity
  • Offers insight into sectoral dominance by family-led enterprises

 

Top 10 Wealthiest Families in Asia (2025)

Rank

Family Name

Company

Wealth

Country

Generations

1

Ambani

Reliance Industries

$90.5B

India

3

2

Chearavanont

Charoen Pokphand Group

$42.6B

Thailand

4

3

Hartono

Djarum, Bank Central Asia

$42.2B

Indonesia

3

4

Mistry

Shapoorji Pallonji Group

$37.5B

India

5

5

Kwok

Sun Hung Kai Properties

$35.6B

Hong Kong

3

6

Tsai

Cathay Financial, Fubon Financial

$30.9B

Taiwan

3

7

Jindal

OP Jindal Group

$28.1B

India

3

8

Yoovidhya

TCP Group (Red Bull)

$25.7B

Thailand

2

9

Birla

Aditya Birla Group

$23.0B

India

7

10

Lee

Samsung

$22.7B

South Korea

3

 

Indian Families in the Top 20 – 2025

Rank (Asia)

Family

Company

Wealth (USD)

Industry

Generations

1

Ambani

Reliance Industries

$90.5B

Conglomerate

3

4

Mistry

Shapoorji Pallonji Group

$37.5B

Conglomerate

5

7

Jindal

OP Jindal Group

$28.1B

Industrial

3

9

Birla

Aditya Birla Group

$23.0B

Conglomerate

7

13

Bajaj

Bajaj Group

$20.1B

Conglomerate

4

18

Hinduja

Hinduja Group

$15.2B

Finance, Property

4

Consider the following statements regarding Bloomberg’s 2025 list of Asia’s Richest Families:

  1. The list includes only first-generation billionaire entrepreneurs.
  2. The Ambani family is the only Indian family in the top 5.
  3. The Birla family, with 7 generations, is the oldest Indian business dynasty in the top 20.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect (Bloomberg excludes first-generation billionaires).
  • Statement 2 is correct (only Ambani ranks in the top 5 among Indian families).
  • Statement 3 is correct (Birla is 7 generations strong, the oldest in the Indian list).

National Archives Acquires

Syllabus:Polity

  • The National Archives of India (NAI) has recently acquired the private papers of former President Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, which include a range of personal and official materials such as his lectures, original photographs, Aadhaar card, passport, and other significant documents.

 

About the National Archives of India (NAI)

  • Established: 1891 in Calcutta (then Imperial Records Department).
  • Current Headquarters: New Delhi
  • Administrative Control: Operates under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
  • Regional Presence: Offices in Bhopal, and record centres in Bhubaneswar, Jaipur, and Puducherry.
  • Significance: It is the largest archival repository in South Asia, serving as the custodian of public and private records of enduring value.
  • Collections: Includes public records, private papers, oriental manuscripts, maps, and microfilms.
  • Oversight Authority: The Director General of Archives implements the Public Records Act, 1993 and associated rules for management and preservation of government records.

 

About Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (1931–2015)

  • Birthplace: Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu
  • Profession: Renowned aeronautical engineer, scientist, and visionary leader

 

Major Contributions:

  • At ISRO: Project Director for SLV-III, which launched India’s first satellite Rohini in 1980.
  • At DRDO: Led the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) — key projects included Agni, Prithvi, and contributions to India’s nuclear tests (Pokhran-II).
  • Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India (1999–2001).
  • Academic Role: Professor at Anna University, deeply involved in inspiring youth.
  • Presidency: Served as the 11th President of India (2002–2007)

 

Legacy:

  • Popularly known as the “Missile Man of India”
  • Referred to as the “People’s President” for his humility and outreach
  • Post-presidency, he continued to mentor students and promote education and innovation

 

Notable Literary Works:

  • Wings of Fire, India 2020, Ignited Minds, My Journey – works that continue to inspire generations.

 

Awards & Honours:

  • Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan, and Bharat Ratna – India’s highest civilian awards.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Archives of India (NAI):

  1. It was originally established in New Delhi in 1891 as the Imperial Records Department.
  2. The NAI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Culture.
  3. The Director General of Archives is responsible for the enforcement of the Public Records Act, 1993.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect — it was established in Calcutta, not New Delhi.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
  • Statement 1: “It was originally established in New Delhi in 1891 as the Imperial Records Department.”
  • Statement 2: “The NAI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Culture.”
  • Statement 3: “The Director General of Archives is responsible for the enforcement of the Public Records Act, 1993.”

Green Municipal Bond (GMB)

Syllabus: GS3/Economy

  • Ghaziabad has issued India’s first Certified Green Municipal Bond under the Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban, successfully raising ₹150 crore to fund a Tertiary Sewage Treatment Plant (TSTP), marking a significant step toward sustainable urban infrastructure.

 

About Green Municipal Bonds (GMBs):

  • A Municipal Bond is a debt instrument issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) or Municipal Corporations to finance infrastructure and public service projects.
  • A Green Municipal Bond is a sub-category used exclusively for climate-resilient and environmentally sustainable projects, such as renewable energy, water purification, waste management, and sewage and sanitation infrastructure.
  • Empowered by Article 243W of the Indian Constitution, ULBs are responsible for water supply, sanitation, and waste management, making them eligible to raise such bonds.

 

Significance of Green Municipal Bonds:

  • Sustainable development is supported by promoting climate-conscious urban growth and aligning with ESG (Environment, Social, Governance) investing frameworks.
  • These bonds offer affordable financing through lower-cost, long-term capital, often more economical than commercial loans.
  • They help diversify the funding base by attracting institutional and international investors, reducing reliance on domestic banking channels.
  • Additionally, they strengthen urban infrastructure in key sectors such as sewage treatment, clean water supply, and waste disposal.

 

Key Challenges:

  • Many ULBs lack the financial expertise, credit ratings, and project readiness necessary to access capital markets.
  • Regulatory complexity, including lengthy approval mechanisms and a shallow bond market, hinders the widespread adoption of green bonds.
  • Ensuring transparency in the utilization of funds and accurately assessing environmental impact remains difficult.
  • Furthermore, there is limited awareness among domestic investors about green finance instruments, which restricts demand.

 

Way Forward:

  • Urban Local Bodies must be strengthened through capacity building in financial structuring, ESG compliance, and project appraisal.
  • Policy support should be provided in the form of tax incentives, risk guarantees, and simplified regulatory frameworks to facilitate green bond issuance.
  • Establishing independent third-party verification mechanisms for green credentials and impact monitoring is crucial.
  • Investor outreach must be expanded to include pension funds, insurance companies, and ESG-focused global investors.
  • Finally, municipal green finance initiatives should be aligned with national programs like AMRUT, the Smart Cities Mission, and the Jal Jeevan Mission to maximize impact and efficiency.

With reference to Green Municipal Bonds (GMBs) in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India explicitly mandates the issuance of municipal bonds under Article 243W.
  2. Green Municipal Bonds can only be issued with prior approval from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  3. GMBs in India are eligible to finance projects under the Jal Jeevan Mission and AMRUT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:C
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 243W entrusts ULBs with functions like water supply and sanitation but does not explicitly mandate the issuance of municipal bonds.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: SEBI regulates bonds, but prior approval is not explicitly required for every GMB issuance; municipal corporations may issue them based on existing guidelines.
  • Statement 3 is correct: GMBs can fund projects aligned with missions like AMRUT and Jal Jeevan Mission.

USTR Releases 2025 “Special 301 Report” on Protecting Intellectual Property Rights

Syllabus: GS 3/intellectual Property Rights

  • The Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) has released the Special 301 Report 2025, which evaluates the effectiveness of intellectual property (IP) rights protection and enforcement among U.S. trading partners.
  • India continues to feature on the ‘Priority Watch List’ due to several persistent IP-related concerns.

 

About the Special 301 Report

  • The report is an annual review conducted under Section 182 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended by the Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988 and the Uruguay Round Agreements Act.
  • It identifies countries with inadequate IP protection or enforcement mechanisms and aims to address key issues such as:
  • Weak IP enforcement
  • Inadequate trade secret protection
  • Discriminatory innovation policies
  • Online piracy and counterfeiting
  • Barriers to market access for IP-intensive goods
  • In 2025, over 100 trading partners were reviewed; 26 were placed on either the Watch List or Priority Watch List.
  • Review of Ukraine was suspended due to the ongoing conflict.

 

India-Specific Findings

  • India remains on the Priority Watch List for 2025.
  • Key concerns highlighted by the USTR include:
  • Ambiguity in patent laws
  • Delays in patent and trademark approvals
  • Weak copyright and trade secret enforcement
  • Unauthorized content sharing and digital piracy
  • High import duties on IP-intensive products
  • Despite these concerns, the report acknowledged India’s engagement with the U.S. and recent policy steps.

 

Recent Progress by India

  • India notified the Patents (Amendment) Rules, 2024, which aim to address long-standing issues such as:
  • Streamlining pre-grant opposition proceedings
  • Reducing compliance burdens related to patent reporting
  • These amendments mark incremental progress in improving the patent regime.

 

Future Outlook

  • The U.S. intends to monitor the implementation of India’s patent law amendments.
  • It encourages India to take further steps to:
  • Expedite patent approval processes
  • Strengthen overall IP enforcement and protection frameworks

 

Did You Know? (WIPI 2024 Data)

  • India ranks among the top 10 countries globally in all three major IP categories—patents, trademarks, and industrial designs.
  • In 2023:
  • India recorded the fastest growth rate in patent applications (15.7%) among the top 20 economies
  • Filed over 64,000 patent applications, with more than half filed by residents
  • Patent grants grew by 4% year-on-year
  • Trademark filings increased by 60% (2018–2023), and India ranked 4th globally in trademark filings in 2023
  • India now holds the second-largest number of active trademark registrations worldwide (3.2 million)
  • Industrial design applications rose by 36.4%, driven by sectors like textiles, tools, and healthcare
  • India’s patent-to-GDP ratio nearly tripled over the past five years

With reference to the “Special 301 Report” released by the United States Trade Representative (USTR), consider the following statements:

  1. It is mandated under the Trade Act of 1974 and focuses exclusively on tariff and non-tariff trade barriers.
  2. The report places countries under either Priority Foreign Country, Priority Watch List, or Watch List based on IP-related concerns.
  3. India was excluded from the 2025 review due to recent amendments to its patent laws.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A.
    2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Special 301 Report is concerned with intellectual property (IP) rights, not general trade barriers.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The USTR categorizes countries into Priority Foreign Country, Priority Watch List, and Watch List.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India continues to be on the Priority Watch List in 2025

Insufficient Support for Deep Tech Start-ups in India: Study

Syllabus: GS3/Economy; Employment; Growth & Development

 

Context: A recent study commissioned by the Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India, and conducted in collaboration with the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), has revealed critical structural and operational shortcomings in the support extended to deep technology (deep tech) start-ups by publicly funded R&D institutions in India.

 

About Deep Tech Start-ups:Deep tech start-ups are rooted in advanced scientific discoveries and engineering innovations, encompassing domains such as artificial intelligence, quantum computing, space technology, biotechnology, and advanced materials.Unlike traditional start-ups—which often rely on business model innovations in sectors like e-commerce, SaaS, or consumer services—deep tech ventures are characterized by:

  • Prolonged R&D cycles
  • Higher capital intensity and risk
  • Strong dependence on foundational science and engineering breakthroughs

 

Key Findings of the Study:

  1. Limited Incubation Support:
  • Only 25% of publicly funded R&D institutions provide any incubation assistance to start-ups.
  • For deep tech start-ups specifically, this figure drops to merely one in six institutions.
  1. Insufficient Industry Engagement:
  • Merely 15% of institutions reported collaborations with international industries—reflecting a weak integration with global innovation networks.
  1. Restricted Access to R&D Infrastructure:
  • Nearly 50% of the institutions do not permit access to their laboratories and research facilities to external stakeholders such as students, start-ups, or independent researchers.
  • This restriction undermines open innovation, interdisciplinary research, and technology diffusion.

 

Budgetary Allocation and Workforce Trends:

R&D Expenditure Patterns:

  • The Central Government allocated approximately ₹55,685 crore toward R&D in FY 2020–21, of which ₹24,587 crore was distributed to major scientific agencies.
  • While 25% of institutions reported dedicating over 75% of their budgets to core R&D, a significant number fell below this threshold, indicating skewed resource prioritization.

 

Human Resource Trends:

  • A noticeable decline in permanent scientific staff was observed between 2021–22 and 2022–23, replaced increasingly by contractual or project-based hires.
  • Although the proportion of young researchers rose to 58% in 2022–23 (from 54% in the previous year), this remains below the 63%–65% levels recorded between 2017 and 2020.

 

Policy Initiatives and Governmental Support:

  1. National Deep Tech Startup Policy (NDTSP):
  • Envisioned to create a robust, innovation-led deep tech ecosystem in India.
  • Emphasizes economic security, strategic autonomy, and ethical innovation frameworks.
  1. National Quantum Mission:
  • Facilitates research and commercialization in quantum computing and allied technologies, with applications in drug discovery, life sciences, and climate solutions.
  • Indian start-ups like QpiAI are spearheading indigenous quantum innovation.

 

Recommendations for Strengthening India’s Deep Tech Ecosystem:

Foster Strategic Industry Collaboration:

  • Strengthen linkages with both domestic and international industries to scale innovation and enhance technology transfer.

Expand Incubation and Funding Support:

  • Develop targeted incubation programs and increase funding for deep tech ventures, given their longer gestation periods and higher capital requirements.

Democratize Access to Research Facilities:

  • Ensure open and equitable access to publicly funded R&D infrastructure for non-institutional stakeholders to stimulate collaborative research.

Align Institutional Mandates with National Priorities:

  • Reorient R&D objectives to align with the goals of Viksit Bharat@2047, emphasizing strategic research, societal impact, and economic development.

With reference to deep tech start-ups, consider the following statements:

  1. Deep tech start-ups primarily rely on business model innovations rather than scientific research.
  2. They typically involve longer development cycles and greater technological uncertainty than traditional start-ups.
  3. Their success depends significantly on foundational advancements in scientific disciplines like quantum mechanics, biotechnology, or advanced materials.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: “Deep tech start-ups primarily rely on business model innovations rather than scientific research.”
  • Statement 2: “They typically involve longer development cycles and greater technological uncertainty than traditional start-ups.”
  • Statement 3: “Their success depends significantly on foundational advancements in scientific disciplines like quantum mechanics, biotechnology, or advanced materials.”

India Considers Allowing 49% Foreign Stakes in Nuclear Power Plants

Syllabus: GS3/ Infrastructure and Energy

Context:

  • India is considering allowing foreign companies to hold up to 49% stake in its nuclear power plants to accelerate decarbonization goals and enhance clean energy capacity.

 

Background:

  • Currently, India’s nuclear energy sector is exclusively operated by state-owned entities—Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL) and its subsidiary Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI).
  • To enable private and foreign participation, the government is proposing amendments to the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.

 

Nuclear Energy Basics:

  • Nuclear energy is derived from nuclear reactions—either fission (splitting of uranium or plutonium atoms) or fusion (combining atomic nuclei). In India, nuclear fission is used to produce electricity.

 

Current Nuclear Power Status in India:

  • Installed nuclear capacity: 8,180 MW (~2% of total electricity capacity), across 24 reactors.
  • Expansion: 10 new reactors (8 GW) under construction across various states.
  • Approval granted for a 6×1208 MW plant in Andhra Pradesh in collaboration with the USA.

 

Rationale for Foreign/Private Involvement:

  • Clean Energy Transition: Coal accounts for over 70% of India’s electricity; nuclear offers a low-carbon baseload alternative.
  • High Capital Costs: Nuclear projects require large upfront investment; FDI will enable faster capital mobilization and tech transfer.
  • Despite the 2008 Indo-US Civil Nuclear Agreement, commercial deals lag due to liability concerns under existing legislation.

 

Proposed Reforms:

  • FDI up to 49% in nuclear energy ventures under legislative amendments.
  • Atomic Energy Act, 1962: To permit private entities to construct, own, and operate nuclear power plants.
  • Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010: Proposed amendments aim to reduce supplier liability—capping it to contract value and limiting the duration.
  • Liability cap for small reactor operators proposed at $58 million; large reactor cap remains at $175 million.

 

Oversight and Safety:

  • Regulatory control to remain with Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) and Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
  • Safety standards to adhere to IAEA guidelines.

 

Way Forward:

  • Establish a clear regulatory framework ensuring compliance, safety, and transparency.

Implement reforms through pilot projects to assess risks and build trust before scaling up private sector involvement

With reference to proposed reforms in India’s nuclear energy sector, consider the following statements:

  1. The amendments to the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 seek to allow private sector entities to construct and operate nuclear reactors in India.
  2. Foreign companies may be allowed up to 100% ownership in nuclear power plants under the new proposal.
  3. The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 currently caps the liability of all nuclear operators at $58 million.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Proposed amendments include allowing private entities to construct, own, and operate nuclear plants.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: FDI is being considered up to 49%, not 100%.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The cap of $58 million is proposed only for small reactors; large reactor operators remain capped at $175 million.

Climate-driven Extreme Weather Events

Syllabus: GS3/Environment

Context:

  • A new study published in Nature Geoscience warns that extreme monsoon variability driven by climate change could permanently damage marine productivity in the Bay of Bengal.

Study Overview:

  • The research, based on 22,000 years of climate data, reveals how fluctuations in the Indian summer monsoon have historically affected ocean chemistry and ecosystem health in the Bay of Bengal.
  • Scientists used microfossils of foraminifera—single-celled marine organisms that record environmental data in their calcium carbonate shells—to reconstruct past ocean conditions.

 

Key Findings

  • Both excessively strong and unusually weak monsoons have historically disrupted ocean mixing processes, leading to a reduction of up to 50% in nutrient availability for marine organisms.
  • These disruptions starve plankton—the foundation of the marine food web—triggering cascading impacts on marine productivity.
  • Notable declines occurred during climatic episodes such as Heinrich Stadial 1 (17,500–15,500 years ago) and the early Holocene (10,500–9,500 years ago), marked by extreme monsoon patterns.

 

Implications Under Climate Crisis

  • Future climate models indicate rising sea surface temperatures and increasingly erratic monsoon behavior, replicating the historical conditions associated with past collapses in marine productivity.
  • The Bay of Bengal, despite covering less than 1% of the global ocean surface, contributes approximately 8% to global fishery output.
  • Species like Hilsa, vital for food security and livelihoods across South Asia, are especially vulnerable.
  • Over 150 million people rely on the Bay’s fisheries, with Bangladesh’s artisanal fishing sector—responsible for 80% of its marine catch—already facing stress due to overexploitation.

 

Recommendations

  • Enhance and fine-tune climate models to improve projections of monsoon variability and its marine impacts.
  • Implement and enforce sustainable fisheries management, with a focus on protecting artisanal fishing communities.
  • Accelerate efforts to curb greenhouse gas emissions, as global warming intensifies monsoon unpredictability.
  • Develop adaptive resource management and conservation strategies to safeguard coastal populations and ecosystems.

With reference to the recent findings on the Bay of Bengal’s marine ecosystem, consider the following statements:

  1. Foraminifera microfossils are used to reconstruct past ocean temperatures and monsoon patterns.
  2. Stronger monsoons always lead to increased marine productivity due to enhanced nutrient mixing.
  3. The Bay of Bengal accounts for less than 1% of the global ocean surface but contributes significantly to global fisheries output.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Foraminifera shells record environmental conditions.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Both abnormally strong and weak monsoons disrupt nutrient mixing and reduce productivity.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Despite its small size, the Bay contributes ~8% to global fishery production

Uturuncu Volcano

Syllabus:Geography

  • Uturuncu, located in the Central Andes of Bolivia, is often referred to as a “zombie” volcano. Although dormant for 250,000 years, it continues to show signs of activity. Recent studies indicate that this unrest is due to the movement of magma and gases beneath the surface, and understanding these dynamics is key for assessing eruption risks and their potential impacts on local communities.

 

Characteristics of Uturuncu Volcano

  • Uturuncu is part of the Altiplano-Puna Volcanic Complex, home to the largest known magma body in Earth’s crust. The volcano is known for its distinct “sombrero” pattern of deformation, where the center rises while the surrounding areas sink. This deformation pattern is crucial for understanding the volcano’s behaviour.
  • Recent Research
  • A collaborative study, conducted by institutions such as the University of Oxford and Cornell University, used advanced techniques to examine the volcano’s plumbing system. By analyzing data from over 1,700 earthquakes, the researchers created high-resolution images revealing the movement of fluids and gases beneath the surface. While the findings suggest a low likelihood of an immediate eruption, ongoing monitoring remains necessary.

 

 

Volcanic Plumbing Systems

  • Volcanic plumbing systems are networks of fluids and gases that connect the magma chamber to the surface. Understanding fluid movement within these systems is essential for predicting volcanic activity. This study identified pathways for geothermally heated fluids, which are believed to contribute to the observed deformation at Uturuncu.

 

Seismic Tomography in Volcanology

  • Seismic tomography played a critical role in the research, providing detailed insights into the internal structure of the volcano. By analyzing how seismic waves pass through different materials, researchers can create 3D images of the volcanic system. This technique is akin to medical imaging, enabling an in-depth examination of volcanic dynamics.

 

Implications for Local Communities

  • For local populations, understanding the potential for volcanic eruptions is crucial. Although the study suggests a low probability of an eruption, continuous monitoring is important. The findings can help in disaster preparedness and risk assessment, allowing local authorities to develop strategies to protect communities from potential hazards.

 

Future Research Directions

  • The study’s results open the door for further investigations into other volcanic systems worldwide. By applying similar methods, researchers can deepen their understanding of volcanic activity and enhance efforts to identify potential hazards and resources linked to volcanic processes.

With reference to the Uturuncu volcano and its recent study, consider the following statements:

  1. The Uturuncu volcano, located in the Central Andes of Bolivia, has been dormant for over 250,000 years and exhibits significant seismic activity due to the movement of magma beneath the surface.
  2. Seismic tomography was used to analyze the internal structure of the volcano and revealed pathways for geothermally heated fluids that contribute to surface deformation.
  3. The volcano is located in the Altiplano-Puna Volcanic Complex, which is known for having the largest known magma body in the Earth’s crust, making it a key area for volcanic studies.
  4. The study has indicated a high likelihood of an imminent eruption at Uturuncu, which requires immediate evacuation measures for the local population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct

The Uturuncu volcano, located in the Central Andes of Bolivia, has been dormant for over 250,000 years but exhibits significant seismic activity due to magma movement beneath the surface. This is supported by the study which investigates the dynamics beneath the volcano and indicates ongoing unrest.

Statement 2: Correct

Seismic tomography was indeed used to analyze the internal structure of the Uturuncu volcano. It revealed pathways for geothermally heated fluids, which contribute to the observed surface deformation of the volcano. This helps researchers understand the behavior of fluids and gases within the volcanic plumbing system.

Statement 3: Correct

The volcano is part of the Altiplano-Puna Volcanic Complex, which houses the largest known magma body in the Earth’s crust. This is significant for volcanic studies because it indicates a large-scale volcanic system with complex dynamics, making it an important region for understanding volcanic behavior.

Statement 4: Incorrect

The study does not indicate a high likelihood of an imminent eruption at Uturuncu. Rather, the study suggests that while the volcano shows signs of unrest, the probability of an immediate eruption is low. Therefore, evacuation measures are not required based on current findings.

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