6 march 2025 Current Affairs

India’s Path to a High-Income Economy

Subject:Economy

Why in News?

A recent World Bank report titled “Becoming a High-Income Economy in a Generation” highlights that India needs an average annual growth rate of 7.8% over the next 22 years to achieve high-income country (HIC) status by 2047. The report emphasizes the need for ambitious reforms and their effective implementation to meet this goal.

Key Highlights of the Report

India’s Economic Growth Journey

India’s share in the global economy has doubled from 1.6% in 2000 to 3.4% in 2023, making it the 5th largest economy.
Before the pandemic, India’s economy grew at an average annual rate of 6.7%, second only to China among major economies.

Target: High-Income Status by 2047

Current Status: India is classified as a lower-middle-income country, with a GNI per capita of USD 2,540 (2023).
Goal: To reach HIC status, India’s GNI per capita must increase 8 times by 2047.
In 2023, the World Bank classified high-income countries as those with a GNI per capita above USD 14,005, while upper-middle-income nations fall between USD 4,516 – 14,005.

Growth Scenarios for India

Scenario	Growth Rate (Real GDP)	Outcome
Slow Reforms	Below 6%	India remains upper-middle income, falling short of HIC status.
Business as Usual	6.6%	India improves but does not reach high-income status.
Accelerated Reforms	7.8%	India achieves high-income status by 2047.

Only a few countries—Chile, Romania, Poland, Czech Republic, and Slovakia—have transitioned to high-income status within 20 years. In contrast, Brazil, Mexico, and Turkey remain stuck in the upper-middle-income category, making India’s goal ambitious yet achievable.

Challenges to Achieving High-Income Status

Declining Investment Rate

- Investment-to-GDP ratio peaked at 35.8% in 2008 but has fallen to 27.5% in 2024.

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Challenges

- India’s FDI-to-GDP ratio is 1.6%, much lower than Vietnam (5%) and China (3.1%).

Low Labor Force Participation

- India’s Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is 55% (2023), lower than China (65.8%).
- Female Labor Force Participation (FLFP) has risen to 41.7% in 2023-24, but remains below the global benchmark of over 50%.

Challenges in Job Creation

- 45% of India’s workforce is still in agriculture, a sector with low productivity (disguised unemployment).
- The share of manufacturing in total employment is just 11%, and modern market services account for only 7%—far lower than East Asian economies.
- 73% of India’s workforce is in informal jobs (compared to 32.7% in other emerging economies).

Declining Trade Openness

- Exports and imports account for 46% of GDP (2023), down from 56% in 2012.
- High tariffs and non-tariff barriers restrict trade expansion.

Weak Integration into Global Value Chains (GVCs)

- While India has made gains in mobile phone exports, its overall manufacturing sector lags behind other economies.
- Services sector (IT & BPO) remains strong, but manufacturing needs significant improvements.

Key Reforms Needed to Achieve HIC Status

Boosting Investment
- Increase investment rate from 33.5% to 40% of GDP by 2035.
- Strengthen financial sector regulations to improve credit flow.
- Enhance MSME access to formal credit.
- Improve bankruptcy resolution and bad debt recovery mechanisms.
Creating More and Better Jobs
- Raise labor force participation to match economies like Vietnam (73%) and the Philippines (60%).
- Encourage private sector investment in job-rich sectors like agro-processing, hospitality, transportation, and care economy.
- Expand skilled workforce and improve access to finance.
- Strengthen modern manufacturing and high-value services.
Boosting Global Trade Competitiveness
- Invest in export-oriented sectors and integrate into GVCs.
Formalizing the Workforce
- Simplify labor laws to reduce informal employment and promote better wage conditions.
Strengthening Human Capital and Innovation
- Improve secondary school enrollment and vocational training to meet industry demands.
- Expand R&D investments in Artificial Intelligence (AI), Biotechnology, and Clean Energy.

Understanding the Middle-Income Trap

What is the Middle-Income Trap?

A concept introduced by the World Bank (2007), referring to economies that grow rapidly but fail to reach high-income status.
It applies to countries with a GNI per capita between USD 1,000 – USD 12,000 (2011 prices).
Countries in this trap face challenges such as rising labor costs, weak innovation, income inequality, and overreliance on specific industries.

Is India at Risk of Falling into the Middle-Income Trap?

Income Inequality: The top 10% of India’s population holds 57% of national income, while the bottom 50% holds just 13%.
Tax Structure: High GST and corporate tax cuts disproportionately benefit the wealthy, widening the income gap.
Stagnant Wages & Inflation: Declining or stagnant wages, high household debt, and low savings make India vulnerable to this trap.

Conclusion

India’s goal of becoming a high-income country by 2047 is ambitious but achievable. To meet this target, the country must accelerate reforms in investment, job creation, trade competitiveness, and innovation while addressing income inequality and labor market challenges. Without significant reforms, India risks remaining in the upper-middle-income category, like Brazil, Mexico, and Turkey.

Which of the following statements regarding India’s growth trajectory, as per the World Bank report “Becoming a High-Income Economy in a Generation,” is/are correct?

India’s Gross National Income (GNI) per capita must increase by nearly six times by 2047 to achieve high-income country (HIC) status.
Among major economies, India had the fastest economic growth in the two decades before the pandemic.
The “Accelerated Reforms” scenario predicts that India must sustain a GDP growth rate of at least 8% to reach HIC status by 2047.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) None of the above

Correct Answer: c) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India’s GNI per capita must increase nearly 8 times (not six) from USD 2,540 (2023) to cross the USD 14,005 threshold for high-income status.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India had the second-fastest economic growth before the pandemic, not the fastest. China had the highest growth rate.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The report states that 7.8% GDP growth is required, not at least 8%.

Gum Arabic (Acacia Gum)

Syllabus: GS1/ Natural Resources

Context:

The illegal smuggling of gum Arabic (Acacia Gum) from war-torn Sudan is significantly affecting global supply chains. Sudan accounts for 80% of the world’s production, followed by Chad, Nigeria, and other Sahelian nations.

What is Gum Arabic?

Gum Arabic is a natural resin obtained from Acacia trees, primarily Acacia senegal and Acacia seyal. It is a complex polysaccharide with exceptional emulsifying, stabilizing, and thickening properties.

Major Applications:

Food Industry: Functions as an emulsifier, stabilizer, and thickener in soft drinks, baked goods, and confectionery.
Cosmetics: Enhances texture and stability in skincare products and lipsticks.
Pharmaceuticals: Used in syrups, capsules, and tablet coatings due to its binding properties.

The ongoing conflict in Sudan has exacerbated disruptions in supply chains, impacting industries reliant on gum Arabic worldwide.

Which of the following best explains why the smuggling of Gum Arabic from Sudan is disrupting global supply chains?

Sudan is the world’s largest producer, supplying over 80% of the total global demand.
Gum Arabic is classified as a strategic commodity, critical for the food, pharmaceutical, and cosmetic industries.
The conflict in Sudan has led to the involvement of non-state actors, who control trade routes and manipulate prices.
Major global industries depend on Sudanese gum Arabic due to the lack of viable synthetic alternatives.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Sudan contributes over 80% of the world’s gum Arabic supply, making disruptions in its production and trade highly consequential.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to its essential role in multiple industries, gum Arabic is considered a strategic commodity, much like rare earth metals in technology.
Statement 3 is correct: Armed groups in Sudan control smuggling routes, using gum Arabic as a source of illicit funding, further disrupting legal supply chains.
Statement 4 is correct: There are no widely used synthetic substitutes for gum Arabic, making industries heavily reliant on natural production.

Wallace Line

Syllabus: GS1/ Geography

The Wallace Line is a fundamental biogeographical demarcation that explains the stark differences in species distribution between the Asian and Australasian ecozones. Identified by Alfred Russel Wallace in the 19th century, this hypothetical boundary delineates Southeast Asia from Wallacea, a transitional region where species exhibit mixed evolutionary traits of both Asian and Australian origins.

Geographical Extent of the Wallace Line:

It traverses the Lombok Strait between Bali and Lombok, despite the relatively short 35 km distance between them.
It extends through the Makassar Strait, demarcating Borneo and Sulawesi.
Further, it runs eastward beyond the Philippines, south of Mindanao Island into the Philippine Sea.

Ecological and Evolutionary Implications:

The Wallace Line is a consequence of deep oceanic trenches formed during the Pleistocene glaciations, which prevented species migration even when sea levels were lower.
On the western side of the Wallace Line, faunal species exhibit characteristics of the Indo-Malayan realm (Asiatic origins).
On the eastern side, species exhibit traits of Australasian descent, reflecting Gondwanan evolutionary lineage.

Findings on Sulawesi Island:

Sulawesi’s fauna shows affinities with diverse biogeographic regions, including Africa, India, Java, Maluku Islands, New Guinea, and the Philippines.
It serves as an ecological transition zone, housing species that do not conform strictly to either Asian or Australian lineages.

Examples of Sulawesi’s Unique Fauna:

Asiatic Influence:

Tarsiers (Tarsiidae), a type of primate.
Lowland Anoa (Bubalus depressicornis) and Mountain Anoa (Bubalus quarlesi), small bovid species.

Australasian Influence:

Dwarf Cuscus (Strigocuscus celebensis), a marsupial species unique to Sulawesi.

Biogeographical Significance of the Wallace Line Which of the following best explains why the Wallace Line is considered a critical concept in biogeography?

It represents a sharp faunal divide between Asiatic and Australasian species despite geographic proximity.
It is caused by deep-sea trenches, which have historically prevented the migration of land-based fauna.
The Wallace Line runs parallel to tectonic plate boundaries, which influence the speciation process through geological separation.
It marks a zone of convergent evolution, where species from Asia and Australia have independently evolved similar traits.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: b) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Wallace Line separates Asiatic fauna on the west from Australasian species on the east, despite short geographic distances.
Statement 2 is correct: Deep-sea trenches (like those in the Lombok Strait) acted as natural barriers preventing the intermingling of species.
Statement 3 is correct: The Wallace Line is influenced by plate tectonics, as it runs along an ancient boundary separating the Sunda Shelf (Eurasian Plate) from the Sahul Shelf (Australian Plate).
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Wallace Line does not mark convergent evolution; rather, it signifies biogeographic isolation where species did not evolve shared traits.

Thorium Reserves:

Syllabus: GS1/Geography/Mineral Resources

Chinese geologists have discovered one million tonnes of thorium in the Inner Mongolia region, marking a significant development in the global nuclear energy sector. The discovery aligns with China’s long-term nuclear energy diversification strategy, with a focus on Thorium Molten-Salt Reactors (TMSRs) as a viable alternative to conventional uranium-based reactors.

Thorium’s Strategic Potential as a Nuclear Fuel

High Energy Yield: Thorium is capable of generating 200 times more energy than uranium, making it a superior nuclear fuel.
Enhanced Safety Features: Unlike traditional uranium-based reactors, thorium reactors do not pose a meltdown risk, require no water cooling, and produce minimal radioactive waste.
TMSRs as a Game-Changer: Thorium molten-salt reactors (TMSRs), which dissolve thorium in liquid salts, have the potential to revolutionize clean energy production.

China’s Ambitious Thorium Energy Projects

China has approved the world’s first TMSR power plant, expected to generate 10 megawatts by 2029.
The country is also exploring thorium-powered ships and lunar reactors for future moon-based energy solutions.

India’s Thorium Reserves & Nuclear Strategy

India possesses one of the world’s largest thorium reserves, making it a critical player in thorium-based nuclear energy development.
Major Deposits:
- Kerala and Odisha account for over 70% of India’s total thorium deposits.
- Additional reserves are located in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Program:
- Thorium utilization is central to Stage III of India’s nuclear power strategy, focusing on breeder reactors capable of converting thorium into Uranium-233, a fissile material for sustained energy production.

Challenges in Thorium Utilization

Technological Barriers: Extracting thorium from its ores is energy-intensive and generates significant waste, necessitating advanced reactor designs.
Economic Viability: Despite abundant reserves, the high cost of thorium reactor technology has slowed commercial-scale adoption.
Infrastructure Deficiencies: India requires enhanced research and industrial capabilities to transition from uranium-dependent reactors to a thorium-based nuclear program.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: b) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Thorium’s energy density is significantly higher than uranium, making it a more efficient nuclear fuel.
Statement 2 is correct: Thorium reactors do not require water cooling, eliminating meltdown risks, and produce less long-lived nuclear waste.
Statement 3 is correct: Unlike uranium, thorium does not need enrichment, reducing processing costs.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Thorium is not naturally fissile and requires conversion into Uranium-233 before it can sustain a chain reaction in nuclear reactors.

Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA)

Syllabus: GS 3/Economy

The Supreme Court has criticized the functioning of the Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA), remarking that it has become a “rehabilitation centre for former bureaucrats.” The statement reflects concerns over inefficiency, bureaucratic inertia, and lack of enforcement in ensuring transparency and protection for homebuyers.

About the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 (RERA)

Legislative Domain: While land and colonization fall under the State List (Entry 18 of List II, Schedule VII), real estate regulation was brought under the purview of the Union Parliament to ensure consumer protection and industry transparency.
Objective: RERA is a landmark reform in India’s real estate sector, aimed at eliminating project delays, financial mismanagement, and consumer exploitation.
Regulatory Mechanism: The Act established State Real Estate Regulatory Authorities (S-RERA) for overseeing registration, compliance, and dispute resolution.

Key Provisions of RERA

Establishment of Regulatory Bodies

State Real Estate Regulatory Authority (S-RERA):
- Mandated to register all real estate projects and maintain a public database for consumer transparency.
- Ensures developers, homebuyers, and agents adhere to statutory norms.
- Promotes sustainable and affordable housing by enforcing compliance.
Real Estate Appellate Tribunal:
- Functions as an adjudicating authority for appeals against RERA decisions.
- Ensures expeditious dispute resolution in the real estate sector.

Financial Safeguards for Homebuyers

Escrow Account Provision:
- Developers are required to deposit 70% of buyers’ payments in an escrow account, ensuring funds are used exclusively for project construction.
Advance Payment Restriction:
- Builders cannot collect more than 10% of the total property cost as an advance payment without a legally binding written agreement.

Protection Mechanisms for Homebuyers

Carpet Area-Based Pricing:
- Property prices are determined only on the basis of the net usable floor area (carpet area), eliminating misleading pricing based on the super built-up area.
Mandatory Timely Completion of Projects:
- Developers must adhere to project timelines, with penalties imposed for any unjustified delays.
Structural Defect Liability:
- Builders are legally accountable for five years to fix any structural defects in the property post-handover.

Penal Provisions & Legal Compliance

Equal Penal Interest:
- Both developers and homebuyers are subject to equal penal interest for delays in payment or possession.
Stringent Penal Action:
- Developers face up to 3 years imprisonment for violations.
- Real estate agents and homebuyers may face up to 1 year imprisonment for non-compliance with tribunal rulings.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Correct Answer: b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 246 and the Seventh Schedule allow Parliament to regulate commercial activities with inter-state implications, justifying RERA’s applicability.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 254(2) permits Parliament to legislate on a State subject for national uniformity in consumer protection.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Real estate is not an industry under Entry 6 of the Union List.
Statement 4 is correct: Doctrine of Repugnancy ensures that if a State law conflicts with a Central law, the Central law prevails.

Rise in India’s R&D Spending

Syllabus: GS3/ S&T

India’s Gross Expenditure on Research and Development (GERD) has witnessed a 2x increase over the last decade, escalating from ₹60,196 crore (2013-14) to ₹1,27,381 crore. However, despite this growth, India’s GERD-to-GDP ratio (~0.7%) remains significantly lower than that of China (2.4%) and the United States (3.1%), highlighting the need for greater investment, policy reforms, and private sector involvement.

DISHA Program: A Catalyst for Technological Advancement

The DISHA Program (Developing Innovations, Successful Harnessing, and Adoption) aims to position India as a knowledge-driven economy by promoting disruptive technologies across multiple disciplines. It fosters a synergistic ecosystem where faculty members, researchers, and students contribute to cutting-edge innovations.

In alignment with this vision, the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) was introduced to bridge the gap between science, humanities, and social sciences, ensuring a holistic research environment that drives interdisciplinary collaboration.

Major Government Initiatives to Strengthen R&D

National Research Foundation (NRF):
- Objective: To increase research funding, facilitate public-private partnerships, and boost scientific and technological progress.
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
- Encourages entrepreneurship and grassroots-level innovation, particularly among students, startups, and professionals.
Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme:
- Provides financial incentives to industries investing in high-tech manufacturing and R&D-driven sectors.
Startup India & Make in India:
- Strengthen India’s startup ecosystem by offering policy incentives, financial support, and regulatory ease for homegrown innovations.

Challenges in India’s R&D Ecosystem

Low Private Sector Participation

In India, the private sector accounts for only ~36% of GERD.
In contrast, developed economies have a private sector R&D contribution exceeding 60-70%.
Lack of risk appetite, high capital costs, and weak industry-academia collaboration impede private R&D investment.

Insufficient R&D Funding

While GERD has grown in absolute terms, its percentage of GDP (~0.7%) remains low compared to:
- China (2.4%)
- United States (3.1%)
- South Korea (4.5%)
Low public expenditure on fundamental research limits India’s global scientific output and patent filings.

Weak University-Industry Collaboration

Limited commercialization of academic research due to:
- Bureaucratic delays in funding approvals.
- Lack of robust technology-transfer mechanisms.
- Minimal industry-driven R&D initiatives in universities.
This reduces patenting, technology diffusion, and global competitiveness.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 2, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: b) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India’s GERD doubled but remains ~0.7% of GDP, much lower than global leaders.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s private sector contributes only ~36%, far lower than in developed economies (60-70%).
Statement 3 is correct: China (2.4% of GDP) and the USA (3.1% of GDP) invest significantly more in R&D than India.
Statement 4 is correct: Public sector entities dominate R&D funding in India due to limited private participation.

Vantara

Syllabus :GS 3/Environment

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated Vantara, a groundbreaking initiative aimed at wildlife conservation, rescue, and rehabilitation. Situated in Jamnagar, Gujarat, Vantara represents a monumental step in India’s conservation efforts, integrating scientific rehabilitation methods with traditional animal care.

Vantara: A Global Benchmark in Wildlife Conservation

World’s Largest Wildlife Rehabilitation Centre:
- Encompasses thousands of acres dedicated to the care of rescued and endangered species.
- Currently shelters over 1.5 lakh animals, including endangered and threatened species, offering them a second chance at survival.
Rescue and Rehabilitation:
- Provides advanced veterinary care, nutritional support, and naturalistic enclosures for animal well-being.
- Focuses on long-term conservation strategies, particularly for elephants, big cats, primates, and exotic species.
Awards & Recognitions:
- ‘Prani Mitra’ National Award (Corporate Category): Conferred by the Central Government to Radhe Krishna Temple Elephant Welfare Trust (RKTEWT) for exceptional contributions to elephant rescue, treatment, and care.

Which of the following statements regarding Vantara is/are correct?

Vantara is the largest wildlife rehabilitation centre in the world, providing care for over 1.5 lakh rescued animals.
It has been developed as a government-led initiative under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
The Radhe Krishna Temple Elephant Welfare Trust (RKTEWT), associated with Vantara, has been awarded the ‘Prani Mitra’ National Award for elephant conservation.
Vantara is exclusively dedicated to elephant rehabilitation and does not house other endangered species.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Vantara is the world’s largest wildlife rehabilitation centre, housing 1.5 lakh+ rescued animals.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a privately managed initiative, not directly under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
Statement 3 is correct: RKTEWT received the ‘Prani Mitra’ National Award for elephant conservation efforts.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While it prioritizes elephant rescue, it also rehabilitates various endangered species, including big cats, primates, and exotic wildlife.

Offshore Mining

Mining Syllabus: GS3/Economy

The Kerala Legislative Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution opposing the Central Government’s decision to permit offshore mining along the Kerala coast. This move comes in response to the 2023 amendment to the Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 2002, which empowers the Union Ministry of Mines to auction deep-sea mineral blocks.

Offshore Mining: An Emerging Controversy

What is Offshore Mining?

Offshore mining refers to the extraction of mineral resources from the deep seabed, typically beyond 200 meters depth. It involves specialized technological interventions for resource retrieval, posing significant economic and environmental challenges.

Types of Offshore Resources

Oil and Gas: Extracted using offshore oil rigs and platforms.
Marine Minerals: Includes polymetallic nodules, rare earth elements (REEs), and precious metals from the ocean floor.
Sand and Gravel: Extracted for construction and industrial purposes.

Concerns Surrounding Offshore Mining

1. Environmental Impact

Destruction of Deep-Sea Habitats: Mining robots disrupt the ocean floor, affecting over 5,000 marine species and fragile ecosystems.
Sediment Plumes: Large-scale sediment disturbances can smother marine life, disrupt feeding patterns, and degrade water quality.

2. Technical Challenges

Extreme Pressures & Depths: Mining technology is underdeveloped, and repairing equipment in deep-sea conditions is highly challenging.
High Operational Costs: Deep-sea mining is capital-intensive, making it economically less viable than terrestrial mining.

3. Ethical & Policy Considerations

Corporate Opposition: Leading corporations (SAP, BMW, Google, etc.) oppose the use of deep-sea mineral resources, citing severe environmental risks.
Geopolitical Tensions: Deep-sea resource exploitation can lead to maritime conflicts over resource ownership and extraction rights.

Global Governance of Offshore Mining

1. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)

Adopted in 1982, came into force in 1994.
Establishes a legal framework for ocean governance, including deep-sea mining regulations.
Defines the rights and responsibilities of nations regarding the exploration and use of marine resources.

2. International Seabed Authority (ISA)

Established under:
- 1982 UNCLOS
- 1994 Agreement on the Implementation of Part XI of UNCLOS
ISA’s Role:
- Regulates mining and related activities in areas beyond national jurisdiction.
- Ensures that marine resource exploitation is conducted sustainably and equitably.
Membership: As of May 2023, ISA has 169 members, including India and the European Union.
Headquarters: Kingston, Jamaica.

Which of the following statements regarding offshore mining in India is/are correct?

Offshore mining refers to the extraction of minerals from the deep seabed at depths exceeding 200 meters.
The Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 2002, originally restricted the auction of deep-sea mineral blocks to public sector enterprises.
The 2023 Amendment to the Act enables the Union Ministry of Mines to auction deep-sea mineral blocks to private players as well.
Kerala Assembly recently passed a resolution supporting the Central Government’s offshore mining policy, citing economic benefits.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Correct Answer: c) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Offshore mining targets mineral resources found beyond 200 meters depth.
Statement 2 is correct: The original 2002 Act had restrictions on private participation.
Statement 3 is correct: The 2023 Amendment allows the auctioning of deep-sea blocks to private players.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Kerala Assembly opposed, not supported, offshore mining.

Solar Maximum

NASA has launched the Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere (PUNCH) Mission, strategically coinciding with the solar maximum phase of the Sun’s 11-year cycle. This mission seeks to deepen our understanding of how the Sun’s outer atmosphere (corona) transitions into the solar wind, a phenomenon critical for space weather forecasting.

Understanding the Solar Cycle

What is the Solar Cycle?

The Sun’s magnetic field functions like a massive bar magnet, with distinct north and south poles. This magnetic field is produced by the movement of electrically charged particles within the Sun’s plasma. Approximately every 11 years, the Sun experiences a complete reversal of its magnetic poles, which is known as the solar cycle. This cycle is a fundamental driver of solar activity, including sunspots and various space weather phenomena.

Solar Maximum: The Peak of Solar Activity

Characteristics of Solar Maximum:

Represents the most active phase of the solar cycle.
Characterized by increased solar radiation, heightened energy emissions, and a rise in sunspot numbers.
Occurs when the Sun’s magnetic field undergoes a complete flip, leading to significant geomagnetic and atmospheric changes.

Duration of Solar Maximum:

Typically lasts between 1 to 2 years.
The interval between consecutive solar maxima can range from 9 to 13 years.

Impacts of Solar Maximum on Earth

Solar Flares & Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs):
- The Sun releases bursts of magnetic energy, resulting in large-scale solar storms.
- CMEs can emit high-energy particles and radiation toward Earth, disrupting both space-based and terrestrial systems.
Disruptions to Electrical Infrastructure:
- Intense geomagnetic storms can cause voltage surges in power grids, potentially leading to widespread blackouts.
Satellite & Communication Failures:
- Increased solar radiation can damage satellite electronics, affecting communication, navigation, and GPS systems.
- Spacecraft in low Earth orbit become more susceptible to drag and radiation damage.

NASA’s PUNCH Mission: A Step Toward Solar Wind Understanding

What is the PUNCH Mission?

PUNCH (Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere) is a NASA Small Explorer (SMEX) mission designed to study how the Sun’s corona evolves into the solar wind that fills the heliosphere.

Key Features of the PUNCH Mission:

Utilizes a constellation of four small satellites in a Sun-synchronous, low Earth orbit.
Captures continuous, deep-field, 3D imagery of the solar corona to track the origins and dynamics of the solar wind.
Aims to enhance space weather forecasting, which is essential for safeguarding astronauts, satellites, and power grids from solar disturbances.

Which of the following statements regarding the solar cycle is/are correct?

The solar cycle is driven by the reversal of the Sun’s magnetic field approximately every 11 years.
The solar maximum phase is characterized by a decrease in sunspot activity and lower solar energy output.
The magnetic field of the Sun is generated by the movement of charged particles in its plasma.
The time interval between two consecutive solar maxima is precisely 11 years and never varies.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Sun’s magnetic poles reverse every ~11 years, defining the solar cycle.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Solar maximum is a phase of high sunspot activity and increased solar emissions.
Statement 3 is correct: The Sun’s magnetic field originates from the motion of electrically charged particles in its plasma.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The duration of the solar cycle is not fixed and can range between 9 to 13 years.