Aadhaar Good Governance Portal
- The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has introduced the Aadhaar Good Governance portal to streamline the approval process for Aadhaar authentication requests. This initiative is designed to enhance ease of living and improve access to public services for citizens.
Objective of the Portal
- The portal facilitates the submission and approval of Aadhaar authentication requests, ensuring a more efficient process for both government and non-government entities. It aligns with the broader goal of enhancing transparency, inclusivity, and accessibility in service delivery.
Legislative Framework
- The portal’s launch follows the amendment of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits, and Services) Act, 2016. The amendment, notified in January 2025, expands the scope of Aadhaar authentication, allowing various entities to use it for public interest services and improving overall service delivery.
Boosting India’s Digital Economy
- Aadhaar has established itself as a globally recognized and trusted digital identity. With over a billion users and more than 100 billion authentications over the past decade, it continues to play a crucial role in India’s digital economy by enabling seamless, resident-centric services.
Benefits for Users and Service Providers
- The recent amendment allows Aadhaar number holders to access services across diverse sectors such as healthcare, hospitality, e-commerce, and education. Service providers can leverage Aadhaar authentication for customer onboarding, e-KYC verification, and staff attendance management, ensuring a secure and efficient user experience.
User Guidance and Future Enhancements
- The Aadhaar Good Governance portal will offer a detailed guide for entities seeking authentication, including Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for application and onboarding. Future updates may include advanced features such as face authentication for customer-facing applications, further improving the authentication process.
With reference to the Aadhaar Good Governance portal, consider the following statements:
- The portal has been launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to streamline the approval process for Aadhaar authentication requests.
- It ensures that only government entities can use Aadhaar authentication for public service delivery.
The portal aims to enhance transparency, inclusivity, and efficiency in authentication procedures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The Aadhaar Good Governance portal is an initiative of MeitY to facilitate Aadhaar authentication approvals.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The amendment allows both government and non-government entities to use Aadhaar authentication for public interest services, not just government agencies.
- Statement 3 is correct. The portal aims to improve transparency, inclusivity, and accessibility in authentication services.
Hague Service Convention:
- The recent developments involving the SEC’s request for assistance under the Hague Service Convention to serve summons on Gautam Adani and Sagar Adani highlight significant cross-border legal issues surrounding allegations of bribery linked to the Adani Group’s solar projects.
- The U.S. government’s focus on this case, especially following charges from the U.S. Department of Justice regarding a substantial bribery scheme, underscores the increased scrutiny on international financial practices and compliance with anti-corruption laws.
Overview of the Hague Service Convention
- The Hague Service Convention is a crucial legal framework facilitating international judicial cooperation, ensuring defendants are informed of legal proceedings in a timely manner.
- With 84 member states, including India and the U.S., the Convention provides a structured approach for serving legal documents across borders.
Procedures for Document Service
Service requests are generally made through designated central authorities, though some form of service through postal channels or direct communication between officials is permissible depending on the country’s implementation preferences. In India, the Ministry of Law and Justice handles such matters, and the requirements for service are strict, demanding that documents be in English or accompanied by an English translation.
India’s Reservations
- India’s membership in the Convention came with reservations regarding alternative service methods, which limits the use of diplomatic channels for serving documents.
- This may complicate the SEC’s efforts to effectively notify the Adani brothers of the allegations against them.
Legal Interpretations and Challenges
- The debate surrounding alternative service methods, such as email and social media, adds another layer of complexity. U.S. courts have issued mixed rulings on this issue, reflecting the divergent interpretations of what constitutes valid service in cross-border legal contexts.
- This inconsistency may lead to challenges in enforcing any judgments or decisions resulting from the SEC’s investigation.
Default Judgments Considerations
- If the Adanis do not cooperate with the service request, the Convention allows for default judgments to be issued after specific conditions are met.
- Notably, if the SEC’s documents are not serviced within six months, the ability to secure a default ruling becomes viable, contingent on adhering to the prescribed service methods.
Implications for the Adani Case
- The timing of this SEC request is particularly noteworthy as it coincides with a broader investigation into corporate governance and compliance practices across major corporations.
- Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s characterization of the matter as “personal” adds a political dimension, which could influence India’s response to the SEC’s request.
- The response could set a precedent for how India handles international legal requests in cases involving high-profile individuals and significant allegations.
Conclusion
The unfolding of the SEC’s case against the Adani Group represents not only a critical moment for the individuals involved but also for the integrity of international legal cooperation. As both countries navigate the complexities of the Hague Service Convention and the implications of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, the outcome will likely impact future cross-border legal interactions, especially concerning corporate governance and accountability. The response from the Indian government and ensuing legal rights asserted by the Adani brothers will play a pivotal role in shaping the course of this investigation.
With reference to the Hague Service Convention, consider the following statements:
- It was established in 1965 to facilitate cross-border judicial cooperation by ensuring proper service of legal documents.
- The Convention permits service of judicial documents through diplomatic channels even when the recipient is not a national of the requesting state.
- India, despite being a signatory, has made reservations against alternative service methods such as service via postal channels under Article 10.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The Hague Service Convention (1965) streamlines cross-border service of judicial documents.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. India does not permit service through diplomatic channels unless the recipient is a national of the requesting country.
- Statement 3 is correct. India has made reservations against Article 10, disallowing postal service and direct communication between judicial officials.
Aditya-L1 Captures the First-ever Image of Kernel
India’s first space-based solar observatory, Aditya-L1, has achieved a significant milestone. On February 22, 2025, its Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) recorded the first-ever image of a solar flare ‘kernel’ in the lower solar atmosphere. This groundbreaking observation provides crucial insights into solar activity and its far-reaching effects on Earth’s space environment.
Significance of the Discovery
The observed flare ‘kernel’ lies in the lower layers of the Sun’s atmosphere, offering unprecedented data on solar eruptions.
The detection was made in the near-ultraviolet (NUV) wavelength, an underutilized spectrum for solar studies, allowing for novel insights into mass and energy transfer within the solar atmosphere.
Overview of Aditya-L1 Mission
- Launch Date: September 2, 2023
- Objective: To study the Sun from a halo orbit around Lagrange Point 1 (L1), situated 1.5 million km from Earth.
- Arrival at L1: January 6, 2024
- ISRO’s second space observatory-class mission, following the AstroSat mission.
Scientific Payloads
- The Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) is the primary payload that captures near-ultraviolet (NUV) images of the Sun.
- Other instruments onboard enable the observation of the solar corona, chromosphere, and magnetic fields, crucial for studying solar flares, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and solar wind dynamics.
Observing an X-Class Solar Flare
- On February 22, 2025, Aditya-L1 recorded an X6.3-class solar flare, an intense eruption originating from an active solar region.
- The recorded data has validated existing flare energy-temperature correlations, while also providing new insights into coronal heating mechanisms.
Implications for Space Weather and Technology
- Solar flares and CMEs impact Earth’s magnetosphere, causing disruptions in GPS, satellite communications, and power grids.
- Data from Aditya-L1 will enhance space weather prediction models, improving preparedness against solar storms that can impact technological infrastructure.
Advancements in Solar Physics and Fusion Research
- The mission deepens our understanding of plasma dynamics and magnetic field interactions within the Sun.
- Insights from Aditya-L1 contribute to fusion energy research, as the Sun serves as a natural laboratory for nuclear fusion, offering data critical to the development of sustainable fusion power.
Regarding India’s first space-based solar mission, Aditya-L1, consider the following statements:
- Aditya-L1 is stationed in a geostationary orbit around Earth for continuous solar observation.
- The mission aims to study solar phenomena such as solar flares, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and the solar wind.
- It carries the SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope), which primarily operates in the near-ultraviolet (NUV) spectrum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer:b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Aditya-L1 is positioned at Lagrange Point 1 (L1), not in geostationary orbit.
Statement 2 is correct. The mission studies solar flares, CMEs, and solar wind, which affect space weather.
Statement 3 is correct. The SUIT instrument operates in the NUV spectrum, providing new insights into solar atmospheric dynamics.
Encephalitis as Public Health Issue
The World Health Organization (WHO) has recognized encephalitis as a critical public health issue, citing rising cases and under-reporting in India. Public health experts urge the formulation of a national strategy to mitigate the disease burden and improve surveillance, diagnosis, and prevention efforts.
Understanding Encephalitis
- Encephalitis refers to inflammation of the brain, which can be caused by viral infections, bacterial infections, or autoimmune responses.
- Japanese Encephalitis Virus (JEV) is the leading viral cause in India. It is a mosquito-borne flavivirus prevalent in Southeast Asia.
- The disease disproportionately affects children, with states like Assam, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar witnessing high incidence rates, according to the National Center for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBDC).
Recent Encephalitis Outbreaks in India
- In 2024, India experienced a severe outbreak of Chandipura virus (CHPV)-induced Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES).
- 245 cases were reported, predominantly affecting children under 15 years old.
- Symptoms included fever, convulsions, and neurological impairment, highlighting the urgent need for rapid response mechanisms.
Challenges in Surveillance and Diagnosis
- Lack of a Unified Reporting System: Current reporting is sporadic, focusing mainly on outbreak situations, leading to under-reporting of cases.
- Scarcity of Diagnostic Tools: In rural areas, the absence of rapid diagnostic facilities hampers early detection, delaying critical medical interventions.
The Need for Health Worker Training and Public Awareness
- Training of frontline health workers is vital for the early recognition of symptoms such as photophobia, persistent headaches, and behavioral changes.
- Community education on prevention strategies—including mosquito control, personal hygiene, and early medical intervention—is necessary to curb disease transmission.
Encephalitis Prevention Strategies in India
- Unlike tuberculosis, India lacks a dedicated encephalitis control programme.
- JEV vaccination campaigns exist, but they do not cover all forms of encephalitis.
- Preventive measures such as vector control, waste management, and reducing water stagnation during monsoons are critical to reducing disease outbreaks.
Call for a National Encephalitis Control Programme
- Public health experts recommend establishing a dedicated encephalitis prevention and control programme to:
- Enhance vaccination coverage beyond JEV.
- Strengthen diagnostic and surveillance frameworks.
- Implement structured mosquito-control policies.
- Improve healthcare infrastructure in rural areas.
- Such a programme could significantly lower the disease burden and improve public health outcomes.
Consider the following statements regarding Encephalitis:
- Encephalitis is always caused by viral infections and cannot have autoimmune origins.
- Japanese Encephalitis Virus (JEV) is the most common viral cause of encephalitis in India and is transmitted by mosquitoes.
- The National Center for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBDC) monitors encephalitis cases in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Encephalitis can be caused by viral infections, bacterial infections, and autoimmune responses.
- Statement 2 is correct. JEV is a mosquito-borne flavivirus and the leading cause of viral encephalitis in India.
- Statement 3 is correct. The NCVBDC tracks encephalitis outbreaks and incidence rates across India.
CDSCO Enhances Sugam Portal
- The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has taken a significant step towards regulatory digitization by enhancing the Sugam Portal.
- This upgrade facilitates online applications for clinical trial site modifications and changes in principal investigators (PIs) for biological products.
- The initiative aligns with CDSCO’s long-term objective of streamlining drug approval mechanisms, improving transparency, and expediting regulatory processes.
About the Sugam Portal
- Sugam Portal is a digital regulatory platform enabling pharmaceutical manufacturers to apply for licenses, permissions, and approvals online.
- It simplifies submissions related to clinical trials, vaccines, and rDNA-based drugs.
- Recent updates integrate biological products into the online clinical trial application system.
Recent Amendments in Clinical Trial Approvals
- December 2024 Notification: Allowed online applications for clinical trials of specific drug categories.
- February 2025 Update: Extended the facility to biological products.
- Key Provisions:
- Applications for adding clinical trial sites are automatically approved if no objections arise within 30 days.
- Changes in Principal Investigators (PIs) will be approved if they meet the established checklist criteria.
Digitization and Regulatory Efficiency
- CDSCO’s shift towards digital platforms is aimed at minimizing processing delays, enhancing transparency, and ensuring regulatory compliance.
- Prior Digital Initiatives:
- Online submission of Periodic Safety Update Reports (PSURs).
- Digital processing of various regulatory approvals to reduce bureaucratic inefficiencies.
Brand Name Database and Regulatory Challenges
- Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC) Recommendation:
- Proposed creation of a central database for pharmaceutical brand names on the Sugam Portal.
- Aimed at preventing duplication of brand names, reducing confusion in prescriptions, and enhancing patient safety.
- Addressing Brand Name Conflicts:
- If multiple companies claim a common brand name, the first applicant submitting Form 51 will have exclusive rights.
- Ensures uniformity in branding and mitigates risks of prescription errors.
Regulatory Oversight and Patient Safety Concerns
- National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Concerns:
- The use of identical brand names for different medications can lead to life-threatening prescription errors.
- NHRC has sought detailed reports from health authorities on measures to rectify this issue.
Future Directions for CDSCO
- CDSCO aims to develop a comprehensive pharmaceutical brand name registry in collaboration with state drug controllers.
- Monitoring prescription errors and implementing corrective measures will be a priority for enhancing patient safety.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sugam Portal:
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) to facilitate digital regulatory processes for drug approvals.
- The portal exclusively caters to biological products and does not cover clinical trials for vaccines or rDNA-based drugs.
- Under recent regulatory changes, applications for adding clinical trial sites via the portal will be automatically approved if no objections arise within 30 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The Sugam Portal is a regulatory digitization initiative under the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The portal facilitates applications for vaccines, rDNA-based drugs, and other pharmaceuticals, not just biological products.
- Statement 3 is correct. Clinical trial site applications will be automatically approved if no objections arise within 30 days.
Digital Personal Data Protection Act and Disability Rights
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 (DPDP Act) represents a critical milestone in India’s data governance framework.
Enacted to regulate the processing of digital personal data, the Act seeks to balance individual privacy rights with the legitimate interests of data fiduciaries.
However, its implementation has sparked debates, particularly concerning its impact on Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Recent consultations by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) on draft rules have drawn criticism from disability rights activists over provisions related to guardian consent.
Key Provisions of the DPDP Act
- Consent Requirement for PwDs
- Section 9(1) mandates that data fiduciaries must obtain verifiable consent from the guardian of a child or an adult PwD before processing their personal data.
- Data fiduciary refers to any entity processing digital personal data, while data principal is the individual whose data is being collected.
- Concerns Raised by Disability Rights Activists
- Activists argue that Section 9(1) undermines the autonomy of PwDs by assuming they lack decision-making capacity.
- The provision could restrict PwDs’ access to digital platforms, impacting their ability to participate freely in online activities.
- This contradicts the principle of self-determination enshrined in international disability rights conventions.
Legal Framework Governing Guardianship of PwDs
India has two primary laws addressing legal guardianship for PwDs:
- Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPWD Act)
- Recognizes limited guardianship, where a PwD retains autonomy but receives support in decision-making.
- National Trust Act, 1999 (NT Act)
- Allows full guardianship, where the guardian makes decisions on behalf of the PwD.
This dual legal framework creates ambiguity regarding the extent of a guardian’s role in data processing decisions.
Challenges in Implementation
- The draft rules under the DPDP Act attempt to clarify the consent process for PwDs, yet fail to provide illustrative examples.
- Ambiguity in the application of limited vs. full guardianship raises concerns about the practical enforcement of the law.
Intersectionality and Digital Rights
- The DPDP Act’s one-size-fits-all approach ignores intersectional challenges.
- Example: A PwD woman requiring guardian consent to purchase essential health products online faces both gender- and disability-based restrictions.
- This raises fundamental concerns about digital inclusivity and whether the Act safeguards the rights of all PwDs equally.
Data Privacy and Legal Accountability
- Who is legally responsible if a guardian misuses their control over a PwD’s data?
- The Act does not explicitly address conflicts of interest in guardianship, leading to potential violations of PwDs’ privacy rights.
Accessibility Concerns in the Digital Ecosystem
- The DPDP Act assumes equal digital access for all, but real-world evaluations indicate that many digital platforms remain inaccessible to PwDs.
- Without ensuring universal accessibility standards, PwDs may be denied their fundamental rights under the Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the DPDP Act, 2023:
- The Act requires explicit consent from the guardian of every PwD before their personal data is processed.
- The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPWD Act) and the National Trust Act, 1999 (NT Act) provide identical provisions for legal guardianship.
- The Act aims to balance data privacy rights with the functional autonomy of PwDs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. Section 9(1) mandates guardian consent for data processing related to PwDs and minors.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The RPWD Act allows for limited guardianship, while the NT Act provides for full guardianship, creating legal differences in decision-making rights.
- Statement 3 is correct. The DPDP Act seeks to balance privacy protection with lawful data processing, but activists argue that it compromises PwD autonomy.
Major Initiatives for India’s Maritime Sector
The Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways (MoPSW) has launched a series of strategic initiatives aimed at modernizing India’s maritime infrastructure, enhancing its global trade presence, and promoting sustainability. These reforms align with the broader vision of developed India by 2047, reinforcing India’s role as a maritime powerhouse in international trade.
Key Maritime Initiatives
1. One Nation-One Port Process (ONOP)
- Aims to standardize port operations across major Indian ports, reducing procedural inefficiencies.
- Significant reductions in documentation:
- Container operation documents reduced by 33%
- Bulk cargo documentation cut by 29%
- Impact: Enhances logistical efficiency, minimizes operational delays, and improves India’s global trade competitiveness.
2. Sagar Ankalan Logistics Port Performance Index (LPPI)
- Introduces a performance benchmarking system to evaluate port efficiency.
- Key metrics include:
- Cargo handling capacity
- Turnaround time reduction
- Operational transparency
- Impact: Encourages a culture of excellence, ensuring Indian ports meet international logistics standards.
3. Bharat Global Ports Consortium
- Aims to strengthen India’s maritime trade relations by fostering global port collaborations.
- Supports ‘Make in India’ by:
- Boosting exports
- Enhancing logistics financing
- Improving port operations
- Impact: Elevates India’s strategic maritime influence by integrating domestic and global shipping networks.
4. MAITRI Application – Digital Trade Revolution
- A technology-driven initiative that establishes a Virtual Trade Corridor between India and the UAE.
- Utilizes AI and Blockchain to:
- Reduce bureaucratic hurdles
- Optimize trade flows
- Strengthen supply chain security
- Impact: Reinforces India’s digital leadership in global maritime trade.
5. India Maritime Week 2025
- Scheduled from 27th to 31st October 2025, featuring:
- The Global Maritime India Summit
- Delegates from over 100 countries
- Showcase of India’s maritime heritage & future advancements
- Impact: Positions India as a thought leader in the global maritime industry.
6. Financial Support for Indian Shipbuilding
- Revamped Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Policy provides:
- Maritime Development Fund to modernize ports
- Enhanced financial incentives for Indian shipyards
- Impact: Strengthens domestic shipbuilding capabilities, ensuring India’s competitiveness in the global market.
7. National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS)
- Newly launched website promoting eco-friendly port management.
- Focus areas include:
- Carbon footprint reduction
- Sustainable maritime practices
- Impact: Advances India’s commitment to a ‘Blue Economy’, aligning with global climate goals.
Future Vision & Economic Impact
- Strategic Goals:
- Enhance port efficiency
- Reduce logistics costs
- Boost economic resilience
- Outcome: Creates a future-ready maritime trade network, supporting:
- Employment generation
- Sustainable economic growth
- Increased global maritime dominance
Consider the following statements regarding the One Nation-One Port Process (ONOP):
- The ONOP initiative aims to establish a uniform standard of operations across both major and minor Indian ports.
- It significantly reduces documentation for container and bulk cargo operations.
- ONOP is primarily focused on modernizing port security measures, rather than operational efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. ONOP ensures standardized processes at major ports, but does not explicitly cover minor ports.
Statement 2 is correct. It reduces documentation burden, improving operational efficiency.
Statement 3 is incorrect. ONOP focuses on streamlining port operations, not security protocols.