Role in a Risk Society: Women and the Unequal Burden
Syllabus: Women and Society
- Ulrich Beck’s concept of the “risk society” underscores how modern crises—driven by technological advancement and environmental change—generate global risks that disproportionately affect women, particularly in developing countries.
- A risk society represents a stage of modernity in which manufactured risks, created through human activity, surpass natural threats in shaping daily life.
- Unlike earlier societies that managed localized, natural dangers such as famines or plagues, today’s world faces unpredictable and far-reaching hazards, many of which are unintended consequences of industrial and technological progress.
- Key features of a risk society include reflexive modernization, where societies must constantly adapt to the challenges generated by earlier innovations.
- These modern risks are global in nature—such as pandemics, nuclear accidents, and climate change—that transcend national boundaries. Furthermore, these risks are marked by unpredictability, making them difficult to foresee and even harder to control.
- The evolution of risk can be understood through three distinct historical phases. In the pre-industrial society, risks were local and natural, typically managed through traditional practices and community-based responses.
- The industrial society introduced urbanization and technological growth, which led to new risks such as pollution and the overexploitation of natural resources.
- In today’s risk society, human activities are the main source of hazards, ranging from nuclear disasters to large-scale climate events, demanding collective global action and systemic change.
- Risks can be categorized into two types: natural and manufactured. Natural risks arise from environmental phenomena, such as the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami, which affected millions.
- Manufactured risks are a product of human decisions and technology, exemplified by the 1986 Chernobyl nuclear disaster, which had long-term health and environmental consequences.
- Within this risk society, women bear a disproportionate burden. Their traditional roles, particularly in domestic and caregiving settings, expose them to health risks such as indoor air pollution from biomass cooking fuels and contaminated water sources.
- The UNDP reports that women are 14 times more likely to die in climate-related disasters due to factors such as restricted mobility, caregiving responsibilities, and lack of access to early warning systems.
- In terms of livelihoods, women—who make up 43% of India’s rural agricultural workforce according to FAO 2023—are often the first to suffer when environmental challenges like droughts or floods damage crops and reduce income.
- Post-disaster recovery relies heavily on women for caregiving, food preparation, and health care—tasks that are unpaid and unrecognized.
- Moreover, as climate change worsens water and food scarcity, women are often forced to travel longer distances for basic resources and may receive less food during shortages.
- To address these challenges, several policy measures are recommended. Gender-disaggregated disaster data systems should be mandated to enable targeted, gender-sensitive risk management.
- Community-led resource management must be encouraged, empowering women to lead initiatives in water conservation, seed preservation, and sustainable agriculture.
- Climate-resilient social protection programs—like MGNREGA—should be expanded to provide immediate support to women-headed households after disasters.
- Financial reforms are also essential, with increased access to microfinance and insurance enabling rural women to rebuild their livelihoods.
- Finally, inclusive governance is crucial, with mandatory quotas for women’s representation in local climate adaptation bodies and Panchayati Raj institutions that oversee natural resource management.
- In conclusion, the concept of a risk society reveals not only the growing complexity of modern hazards but also the systemic gender inequalities that deepen their impact. Ensuring gender equity in risk response and governance is critical to building a resilient and just future for all.
Consider the following statements regarding the impact of a risk society on gender dynamics in developing countries:
- Women are less affected by modern risks due to their limited participation in industrial work.
- Women face higher mortality during disasters due to restricted mobility and caregiving roles.
- Environmental degradation disproportionately affects women involved in agriculture and household care.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Although women may not dominate industrial labor, they are disproportionately vulnerable to the consequences of modern risks due to structural inequalities, care responsibilities, and exposure to environmental hazards. Statements 2 and 3 are correct and supported by UNDP and FAO data, highlighting women’s greater vulnerability during disasters and higher livelihood dependence on natural resources.
SIPRI Report on Military Expenditure
Syllabus:Reports
- According to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) report titled ‘Trends in World Military Expenditure 2024’, India’s military expenditure reached $86.1 billion, marking a 1.6% increase from the previous year and positioning India as the fifth-largest military spender globally.
- This amount is nearly nine times greater than Pakistan’s defense budget of $10.2 billion, highlighting a significant regional disparity and reinforcing India’s strategic posture in South Asia.
- Globally, India follows the United States, China, Russia, and Germany in terms of defense spending.
- Together, these top five nations accounted for 60% of the world’s total military expenditure, illustrating a concentration of military capabilities among a few powers.
- In the regional context, both India and China emerged as key drivers of military expenditure growth in Asia and Oceania, reflecting their expanding strategic interests and evolving security concerns.
- India’s defense strategy continues to emphasize domestic capability enhancement, with 75% of its capital outlay earmarked for indigenous defense production.
- This represents 22% of the overall military budget and aligns with the government’s broader Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative aimed at achieving self-reliance in critical defense manufacturing.
- However, despite this push for indigenization, India remains reliant on foreign imports for advanced platforms and technologies, particularly in areas like combat aircraft, precision weaponry, and defense electronics.
- Strategically, India’s increased military spending underscores its ambition to serve as a key security provider in the Indo-Pacific region, particularly in light of ongoing tensions with neighboring China and Pakistan. The rise in expenditure is not only a response to conventional security threats but also an effort to assert influence in a rapidly shifting geopolitical environment, reinforcing India’s role in regional and global security architecture.
Consider the following statements regarding India’s military expenditure as per the SIPRI report ‘Trends in World Military Expenditure 2024’:
- India’s defense expenditure in 2024 reached $86.1 billion, making it the 5th largest military spender globally.
- India’s defense budget is nearly nine times higher than that of Pakistan, which stood at $10.2 billion.
- India and China were not significant contributors to the growth of military expenditure in Asia and Oceania.
- 75% of India’s capital outlay is dedicated to domestic defense production, supporting the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
- Despite efforts at indigenization, India remains largely independent of foreign defense imports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1, 2, and 5 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 4, and 5
Answer: A (1, 2, and 4 only)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: India’s military expenditure in 2024 is indeed $86.1 billion, placing it as the 5th largest military spender globally.
- Statement 2 is correct: India’s spending is nearly nine times higher than Pakistan’s defense budget of $10.2 billion, emphasizing the regional disparity.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: India and China were key drivers of military expenditure growth in Asia and Oceania, reflecting their expanding strategic interests. This statement contradicts the context of both countries’ roles.
- Statement 4 is correct: A substantial portion (75%) of India’s capital outlay is dedicated to indigenous defense production, aligning with the Atmanirbhar Bharat
- Statement 5 is incorrect: Despite efforts to indigenize, India remains dependent on imports for advanced systems like combat aircraft and defense electronics, indicating a reliance on foreign technology.
Padma Awards
Syllabus:Awards
About Padma Awards:
- The Padma Awards are among India’s highest civilian honors, recognizing exceptional service across diverse fields that contribute to public welfare.
Origin and Classification:
Instituted in 1954 and reclassified in 1955 into three categories:
- Padma Vibhushan (highest honor)
- Padma Bhushan
- Padma Shri
Presentation:
- The President of India presents these awards at a formal ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
- Selection Process:
- Constituted by: The Prime Minister annually.
- Headed by: The Cabinet Secretary.
- Members: The Home Secretary, Secretary to the President, and 4-6 eminent personalities.
- Selection Criteria:
- Focuses on life-long achievements and public service.
Awards span a range of fields, including:
- Arts, Social Work, Science, Public Affairs, Trade, Medicine, Sports, Literature, Education, Civil Service.
- Inclusivity: Open to all citizens regardless of race, occupation, or gender.
- Ineligibility: Active government servants (except doctors/scientists) cannot be nominated.
Posthumous Awards:
- Rare but allowed in exceptional cases.
Nomination Process:
- Nominations can be made by the public, with self-nominations also accepted.
- The Padma Awards Committee screens the nominees.
- The Prime Minister reviews the recommendations, which are then sent to the President for approval.
Award Limits and Restrictions:
- Maximum of 120 awards can be conferred annually, excluding posthumous, foreign, NRI, or OCI awards.
- No title conferred: Awardees cannot use the award as a title in their name.
Historical Context:
- Suspension: The awards were discontinued in 1978–79 by the Janata Party under PM Morarji Desai.
- Resumption: In 1993–97, the awards were suspended due to PILs questioning their validity, but the Supreme Court upheld the award system in 1995 (Balaji Raghavan case), leading to full conferment resumption from 1997.
Recent Ceremony: In Padma Awards 2024, 71 personalities were honored for their distinguished service in various sectors, with the President of India presiding over the ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Consider the following statements regarding the Padma Awards:
- The Padma Awards are conferred on Republic Day each year by the President of India.
- The awards are limited to Indian citizens only and cannot be conferred on foreigners.
- The Padma Vibhushan is the highest of the three categories of Padma Awards.
- Active government servants are eligible for Padma Awards in all categories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: A Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Padma Awards are conferred annually by the President of India on Republic Day.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Padma Awards are also conferred on foreign nationals and NRIs in certain categories.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Padma Vibhushan is the highest honor, followed by Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: Active government servants (except doctors/scientists) are not eligible for these awards.
Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
Syllabus:Economy
About Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):
What is CBDT?
- The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a statutory authority in India responsible for overseeing the administration of direct tax laws. It operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
- Established: 1964
- Formed under: The Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963, after the bifurcation of the Central Board of Revenue (1924).
- Ministry: Ministry of Finance, Government of India
Objectives:
- Formulate and enforce policies for the administration of direct taxes.
- Ensure effective enforcement and compliance of tax laws.
- Broaden and deepen the tax base to support fiscal stability.
- Promote transparency, encourage voluntary tax compliance, and combat tax evasion.
Members:
The CBDT consists of one Chairperson and six members.
Functions:
- Policy Formulation: Responsible for drafting and administering policies related to direct taxes, such as income tax, corporate tax, and wealth tax (which is now abolished).
- Supervision: Oversees the operations of the Income Tax Department to ensure efficient tax collection and compliance.
- Investigation: Carries out searches, raids, and tax assessments to detect and prevent tax evasion and black money.
- International Cooperation: Engages in tax treaties, information exchange, and global tax compliance efforts.
- Taxpayer Services: Facilitates ease of compliance through initiatives such as grievance redressal, e-filing platforms, and awareness programs.
- Legislative Initiatives: Reviews and drafts amendments to tax laws and regulations to ensure their relevance and effectiveness.
Which of the following are the main objectives of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)?
- Formulation of policies related to direct taxes.
- Ensuring effective tax enforcement and compliance.
- Direct administration of corporate tax laws.
- Prevention of indirect tax evasion.
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Answer:A
Explanation: The CBDT primarily focuses on direct taxes, formulation of policies, ensuring compliance, and curbing tax evasion, but does not deal directly with corporate tax laws or indirect tax matters.
AIM4NatuRe initiative
Syllabus:Environment
Context: The FAO, with support from the UK, launched the AIM4NatuRe initiative to enhance global monitoring of ecosystem restoration efforts, aligning with the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
About AIM4NatuRe Initiative:
- The Accelerating Innovative Monitoring for Nature Restoration (AIM4NatuRe) is a global initiative designed to improve the monitoring and reporting of ecosystem restoration efforts.
- Launched By: The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
- Funding Partner:The United Kingdom, which contributed GBP 7 million.
Objective:
- The initiative aims to strengthen countries’ capabilities to monitor and report on restoration progress, supporting the achievement of Target 2 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, which calls for restoring at least 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030.
Key Features:
- Technology-Driven: Utilizes advanced satellite and data analysis tools to monitor ecosystem restoration efforts.
- Global Dataset Creation: Aims to create a harmonized global dataset to track restoration activities across the world.
- Capacity Development: Provides training to countries on using data-driven methods to track restoration progress.
- Data Interoperability: Establishes standardized data formats for seamless integration and comparison across nations.
- Inclusivity Focus: Supports Indigenous Peoples’ monitoring efforts, with pilot projects in Brazil and Peru.
- Expansion: Expands beyond the forest sector (building on FAO’s AIM4Forests program) to include all ecosystems, such as wetlands, grasslands, and marine areas.
Significance:
- Transparency & Accountability: Encourages clear reporting and ownership of restoration targets.
- Filling Data Gaps: Addresses significant data and reporting gaps identified by 80% of countries in the CBD capacity survey.
- Nature-Based Solutions: Supports solutions that tackle climate change, biodiversity loss, and land degradation.
Consider the following statements regarding the AIM4NatuRe initiative launched by the FAO:
- AIM4NatuRe aims to restore 50% of degraded ecosystems globally by 2030, in line with the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
- The initiative uses advanced technologies, including satellite and data analysis tools, to improve the monitoring and reporting of ecosystem restoration efforts.
- AIM4NatuRe is funded exclusively by the United Nations, with the UK providing only technical assistance.
- The initiative includes pilot projects in Brazil and Peru to support Indigenous Peoples’ involvement in ecosystem monitoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only
Answer: B) 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The target set by the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework is to restore at least 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030, not 50%.
- Statement 2 is correct. The AIM4NatuRe initiative employs cutting-edge technologies, including satellite and data analysis tools, to monitor and report ecosystem restoration progress.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The initiative is funded by the UK with a GBP 7 million contribution, alongside FAO’s efforts, not exclusively by the UN.
- Statement 4 is correct. AIM4NatuRe includes pilot projects in Brazil and Peru, focusing on Indigenous Peoples’ contributions to ecosystem restoration monitoring.
Bio-Input Resource Centres
Syllabus:Science
Context: The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has introduced guidelines for establishing Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) to promote natural farming under the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF).
About Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs)
- BRCs are cluster-level enterprises that provide farmers with locally prepared natural farming inputs, such as bio-fertilizers, bio-pesticides, and organic formulations.
- They also function as knowledge hubs, offering training and guidance to farmers transitioning to natural farming practices.
- Established Under: Launched under the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF).
Objectives:
- Ensure easy access to high-quality bio-inputs for farmers.
- Equip farmers with technical knowledge on natural farming methods.
- Promote the expansion of natural farming practices in villages.
Key Features:
- Financial Support: Rs. 1 lakh per centre, provided in two tranches of Rs. 50,000 each.
- Eligibility for Entrepreneurs: Entrepreneurs must either practice or be willing to adopt natural farming.
- Customized Inputs: Bio-inputs will be developed according to local soil conditions, crop patterns, and the specific needs of farmers.
- Training Support: Farmers will be trained in botanical extracts, bio-input preparation, and pest management techniques.
- For-Profit Model: BRCs will operate as sustainable ventures, promoting local economic development.
- Market Facilitation: BRCs will explore partnerships with Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), State Rural Livelihood Missions (SRLMs), and agriculture marketing boards.
About the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)
- The National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aimed at promoting chemical-free, sustainable agriculture based on local agro-ecology and indigenous knowledge.
Objectives:
- Promote natural farming to ensure the production of safe and nutritious food.
- Reduce the dependency on chemical inputs and lower the costs of cultivation.
- Build healthy soil ecosystems, support biodiversity, and enhance climate resilience.
Which of the following is/are true regarding the Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) under the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)?
- BRCs are intended to promote chemical-based farming inputs to improve agricultural productivity.
- Entrepreneurs involved in BRCs must either practice or be willing to adopt natural farming.
- Financial support of Rs. 1 lakh per centre is provided in two tranches of Rs. 50,000 each.
- BRCs will only focus on the production of chemical fertilizers and pesticides for farmers.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Answer:B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect because BRCs promote natural farming inputs, not chemical-based farming.
- Statement 2 is correct as it emphasizes the importance of natural farming practices for entrepreneurs.
- Statement 3 is correct regarding the financial support provided.
- Statement 4 is incorrect as BRCs focus on bio-fertilizers, bio-pesticides, and organic formulations, not chemical inputs.
Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025
Syllabus:Environment
Context:
- The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has released the Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025, to implement India’s Carbon Credit Trading Scheme and support the achievement of its climate commitments.
About Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025:
The GEI Target Rules, 2025 set mandatory targets for reducing emissions intensity in energy-intensive industries, forming a crucial part of India’s strategy to foster low-carbon industrial growth.
Released By: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India.
Objectives:
- Emission Reduction: Aim to reduce the greenhouse gas emissions intensity in key industrial sectors.
- Carbon Credit Trading: Operationalize the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), 2023.
- Climate Commitment: Help India meet its Paris Agreement target to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030, relative to 2005 levels.
- Promote Sustainable Practices: Encourage climate-resilient and innovative industrial practices.
Key Features:
- Baseline Year: The baseline for emissions intensity is set at 2023–24 levels.
- Reduction Timeline: Targets apply for the periods 2025–26 and 2026–27.
- Sector Focus: The rules target energy-intensive industries, including aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper sectors.
- Coverage: The rules cover 282 industrial units, including:
- 13 aluminium plants
- 186 cement plants
- 53 pulp & paper plants
- 30 chlor-alkali plants
- Compliance Mechanism: Carbon credits are awarded for emission reductions, with penalties imposed for non-compliance.
- Trading Platform: Carbon credits will be traded within the Indian Carbon Market, supervised by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
- Enforcement Authority: The Central Pollution Control Board will monitor compliance and enforce penalties for non-compliance.
- These rules are central to India’s efforts in reducing industrial emissions and creating a robust market for carbon credits, helping the country meet its climate commitments under the Paris Agreement.
Consider the following statements regarding the Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025:
- The GEI Target Rules primarily focus on reducing emissions intensity across the energy-intensive sectors, including aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper industries.
- The rules are designed to help India achieve its Paris Agreement target of reducing emissions intensity of GDP by 40% by 2030, relative to 2005 levels.
- The compliance mechanism includes awarding carbon credits for emissions reductions and imposing penalties for industries failing to meet their targets.
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is tasked with overseeing the trading of carbon credits under the Indian Carbon Market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The rules focus on reducing emissions intensity in energy-intensive industries such as aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The target in the Paris Agreement is to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45%, not 40%.
- Statement 3 is correct: The rules include carbon credits for emission reductions and penalties for non-compliance.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) monitors the carbon credits under the Indian Carbon Market, not the CPCB.
Sandy Cay Reef Dispute
Syllabus:Geography
Context: China and the Philippines have exchanged accusations over the Sandy Cay reef dispute in the South China Sea, escalating maritime tensions as both nations assert sovereignty over the area.
About Sandy Cay Reef:
Location:
Sandy Cay Reef is part of the northern Thitu Reefs, located within the Spratly Islands in the South China Sea. It is situated approximately northwest of Thitu Island (Pag-asa) and northeast of Subi Reef.
Disputed Claims:
The reef is claimed by China, Philippines, Taiwan, and Vietnam. In 2025, China announced that it had implemented “maritime control” over Sandy Cay, a claim that was strongly rejected by the Philippines.
Other Notable Locations:
- Thitu Island (Pag-asa): Administered by the Philippines, it has a military base and a Coast Guard station.
- Subi Reef: Heavily militarized by China, located near Sandy Cay.
About the South China Sea:
- Location:
The South China Sea is an arm of the western Pacific Ocean, bordered by Southeast Asia and East Asia. - Nations Bordering the South China Sea:China, Taiwan, Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Vietnam, and Indonesia.
Disputed Islands and Claimants:
- Spratly Islands: Disputed among China, Philippines, Vietnam, Malaysia, Taiwan, and Brunei.
- Paracel Islands: Claimed by China, Taiwan, and Vietnam.
- Scarborough Shoal: Contested primarily between China and the Philippines.
Rivers Flowing into the South China Sea:
- Mekong River (Vietnam)
- Red River (Vietnam)
- Pearl (Zhu) River (China)
- Other Features:
- China Sea Basin: The deepest part of the South China Sea, with depths reaching up to 5,016 meters.
- Sunda Shelf: A broad, shallow shelf that connects the South China Sea to the Gulf of Thailand and Java Sea.
- Key Straits: Taiwan Strait, Luzon Strait, and Strait of Malacca.
Consider the following statements regarding the South China Sea:
- The Mekong River and Pearl River flow into the South China Sea.
- The Sunda Shelf connects the South China Sea to the Gulf of Thailand and Java Sea.
- The deepest point in the South China Sea is located in the Paracel Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Mekong River flows through Southeast Asia (China, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, Vietnam) and empties into the South China Sea via Vietnam.
- Pearl River (Zhujiang) flows through southern China and drains into the South China Sea near Hong Kong and Macau.