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TOne Academy

13 june 2025 Current Affairs

Rise in Violent Crimes by Juveniles

Syllabus: GS1/ Society, GS2/ Governance

 

Current Trends

  • Juvenile cases falling overall: From 37,402 (2017) to 33,261 (2022)
  • But violent crimes rising: Share rose from 32.5% (2016) to 49.5% (2022) – NCRB
  • Key crimes: Murder, rape, grievous hurt, robbery, dacoity
  • Hotspots: Madhya Pradesh (20%), Maharashtra (18%), Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Delhi

 

 Key Drivers

  • Digital exposure: Incel culture, violent content, social media addiction
  • Neglect & poverty: Emotional neglect, poor parenting, joblessness
  • Peer pressure: Gangs in informal settlements
  • Substance abuse: Easy access to alcohol and drugs fuels aggression

 

Policy Response

  • Juvenile Justice Act, 2015: Allows 16–18 age group to be tried as adults for heinous crimes
  • ICPS: Rehabilitation, institutional care, family reintegration
  • Cyber Safety Campaigns: NCERT, CBSE, MoE initiatives against grooming, bullying, addiction

 

 Challenges

  • Under-resourced JJBs & CWCs
  • Gaps in counselling & rehabilitation
  • Stigma post-incarceration
  • Lack of gender-specific data & support

 

Way Forward

  • Early Intervention: School-based psychosocial support
  • Juvenile Justice Reform: More funding, trained personnel
  • Rehabilitation Focus: Mental health, skill-building, family therapy
  • Community Role: NGOs, mentors, restorative justice models
  • Digital Regulation: Age-gated content, digital literacy
  • Better Data: Gender- and region-wise tracking for targeted action

 

Conclusion:

  • Tough laws alone are insufficient. A holistic, child-centric approach rooted in prevention, education, mental health, and reintegration is critical to address the surge in juvenile violence in India.

With reference to juvenile crime patterns in India over the past decade, consider the following statements:

  1. Despite a gradual decline in the total number of juveniles apprehended under criminal charges since 2017, the relative share of those involved in violent crimes such as murder, rape, robbery, and grievous hurt has witnessed a statistically significant rise, signaling a qualitative shift in juvenile delinquency.
  2. The 2022 National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data confirms that more than half of the recorded crimes committed by juveniles fall under the category of “violent crimes,” thereby necessitating a legislative rethink on how youth crimes are categorized and addressed.
  3. Geospatial crime mapping based on NCRB datasets between 2017 and 2022 points to a concentration of juvenile violent offences in Central India, particularly in states such as Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, where socio-economic vulnerabilities and inadequate juvenile support systems compound the risks of criminal behavior among minors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B

Detailed Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is Correct:According to NCRB’s 2023 report, the total number of juveniles in conflict with the law has decreased from 37,402 in 2017 to 33,261 in 2022. However, the share of juveniles involved in violent crimes increased markedly from 5% in 2016 to 49.5% in 2022. This indicates a shift from minor/non-violent offences like petty theft toward more serious violent offences, raising alarms about the psychological, socio-economic, and digital influences affecting youth behaviour.
  • Statement 2 is Incorrect:Though close to 50% of juvenile crimes in 2022 were categorized as violent (49.5% to be precise), the number did not exceed the halfway mark, making this a critical statistical distinction. In a UPSC context, the phrasing “more than half” implies crossing the 50% threshold, which did not occur, thus rendering the statement factually incorrect.
  • Statement 3 is Correct:Data disaggregation by state from NCRB indicates that Madhya Pradesh alone accounted for 20% of all violent juvenile crimes from 2017 to 2022. Chhattisgarh followed with around 8.4%, placing Central India at the epicentre of juvenile violent criminality. These states often rank poorly on socio-economic indicators such as literacy, urban poverty, substance abuse prevalence, and child protection infrastructure, contributing to the regional spike.

Ninth Anniversary of the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)

Syllabus: GS2/ Welfare Scheme

 

Context:

  • India recently commemorated the ninth anniversary of the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), a transformative initiative aimed at providing clean cooking fuel to economically disadvantaged households.

 

Overview of PMUY:

  • Launched: 2016
  • Implementing Ministry: Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
  • Objective: To promote the adoption of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) among Below Poverty Line (BPL) households, thereby eliminating dependence on traditional, polluting cooking methods.

 

Beneficiary Focus:

  • Target Group: Adult women from BPL households.
  • Priority Coverage: SC/ST households, PMAY (Gramin) beneficiaries, forest dwellers, tea garden workers, and migrant families (allowed self-declaration for address proof).

 

Implementation Phases:

Phase I (2016–2020):

  • Target: 8 crore LPG connections
  • Achievement: Successfully met target by 2020.

Phase II (2021 onwards):

  • Additional 1.6 crore connections sanctioned.
  • Special focus on migrant households and last-mile inclusion.

Current Status (As of March 1, 2025):

  • Total Active Domestic LPG Consumers:94 crore
  • PMUY Beneficiaries:33 crore

 

Significance of PMUY:

Health Benefits:

  • Replaces traditional biomass fuels (wood, dung, coal) with clean LPG.
  • WHO Estimate: Indoor air pollution due to unclean fuels causes over 5 lakh premature deaths annually in India.

 

Women’s Empowerment:

  • Reduced drudgery: Eliminates the need for time-intensive firewood collection.
  • Ownership in women’s names: Enhances intra-household bargaining power and financial autonomy.

 

Socio-Economic Impact:

  • Increased productivity: Time saved enables women to engage in economic or educational pursuits.
  • Gender-sensitive design: LPG connections issued in women’s names bolster their social standing and control over household decisions.
  • Environmental Gains:
  • Reduction in deforestation and air pollutants due to decreased reliance on firewood and kerosene.
  • Contributes to India’s climate goals by lowering carbon emissions from domestic energy use.

 

Key Challenges:

  • Affordability of Refills:
  • While the initial connection is subsidized, high refill costs limit sustained usage among the poorest families.
  • Infrastructure Deficit:
  • Last-mile delivery issues in rural and remote regions due to limited LPG distribution networks.
  • Administrative Bottlenecks:
  • Delays in verification and beneficiary documentation impede seamless access.
  • Behavioural Barriers:
  • Many households continue to use traditional fuels, driven by cost considerations and entrenched cooking habits.

 

Way Forward:

  • Enhance Supply Chain Infrastructure:
  • Expand LPG distribution points and establish mini-refill centers in underserved areas.
  • Subsidy Rationalisation and Support:
  • Provide targeted subsidy support for refill costs to ensure continued usage among BPL households.
  • Awareness and Behavioural Change Campaigns:
  • Conduct IEC (Information, Education & Communication) outreach to promote awareness of health benefits and encourage sustained adoption.
  • Monitoring & Impact Evaluation:
  • Regular audits and community-level impact assessments to identify usage patterns, gaps, and course-corrective measures.

 

Conclusion:

  • The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana has emerged as a pivotal intervention in India’s pursuit of energy equity, women’s empowerment, and public health. However, to realize its full potential, the scheme must transition from access to sustained usage, through infrastructural, financial, and behavioural interventions.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), consider the following statements:

  1. PMUY is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development in collaboration with the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
  2. Under PMUY Phase-II, migrant households are permitted to self-certify both income and address proofs to avail LPG connections.
  3. PMUY aims to reduce India’s dependence on imported fossil fuels by substituting traditional biomass fuels with LPG.
  4. As per the 2025 data, more than one-third of all active domestic LPG consumers in India are PMUY beneficiaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

 

Answer: C

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect:PMUY is implemented solely by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas, not the Ministry of Rural Development.
  • Statement 2 – Correct:PMUY Phase-II included provisions for migrant households to self-declare their address, though income verification still follows BPL inclusion criteria via SECC data or other government databases.
  • Statement 3 – Correct (Conceptual):By replacing biomass-based cooking fuels with clean LPG, the scheme reduces reliance on inefficient combustion, lowers household emissions, and substitutes traditional fuels, indirectly reducing fossil fuel burden via improved energy efficiency and health outcomes.
  • Statement 4 – Correct (Current Data):As of March 1, 2025:Total active LPG consumers = 32.94 crore

Social Protection Cover in India Rises to Over 64% in 2025: ILO

Syllabus: GS 2/Governance 

Context:

  • As per the latest data released by the International Labour Organization’s (ILO) ILOSTAT, India’s social security coverage has witnessed a significant rise, reaching 3% in 2025, up from a mere 19% a decade ago.

 

Key Highlights:

  • Global Ranking:India now ranks second globally in terms of the absolute number of people covered by at least one form of social security, extending protection to over 94 crore individuals (~950 million).
  • Digital Governance Leadership:India is the first country worldwide to update its 2025 social protection data in the ILOSTAT portal, highlighting its commitment to transparency, digital governance, and evidence-based policy-making.
  • Schemes Driving Coverage Expansion:The rise in social security inclusion is largely attributed to the proliferation and integration of flagship welfare programs such as:
  • Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
  • Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)
  • Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
  • Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
  • PM POSHAN (Mid-Day Meal Scheme)

 

Understanding Social Security:

  • Social security refers to a societal safety net that ensures access to income support and essential services during critical life contingencies—such as old age, illness, unemployment, maternity, disability, and death of a breadwinner.

 

Major Social Protection Initiatives in India:

  • Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-SYM):Voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganized sector workers like domestic workers, street vendors, and construction labourers.
  • Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY):Provides a low-premium life insurance cover to individuals aged 18–50 years, ensuring financial assistance to dependents in case of early demise.
  • Atal Pension Yojana (APY):Targets income security in old age for workers in the informal economy through government-guaranteed pensions.
  • Ayushman Bharat – PM Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY):Aims to deliver universal health coverage, offering cashless hospitalization up to ₹5 lakh per family for the bottom 40% of the population.
  • Public Distribution System (PDS) / National Food Security Act (NFSA):Ensures food and nutritional security by distributing subsidized food grains to priority households and Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)
  • Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G):Provides financial assistance for the construction of pucca houses with basic amenities for rural families living in kutcha or dilapidated dwellings.

 

Significance:

  • India’s transition from fragmented welfare delivery to an integrated social protection architecture reflects a major shift toward universalism, inclusivity, and digital accountability in social security governance. This progress is vital for fulfilling SDG Target 1.3, which aims to implement nationally appropriate social protection systems for all, including floors.

With reference to the recent findings of ILOSTAT (2025) concerning India’s social security landscape, consider the following statements:

  1. India is the only country globally to have updated its 2025 social protection coverage data in the ILOSTAT database.
  2. As per ILO data, over two-thirds of India’s population is now covered under at least one form of social security.
  3. The rapid increase in India’s social security coverage has been attributed to the expansion of both contributory and non-contributory welfare schemes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

 Answer: C
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. India is indeed the first to update 2025 data in the ILOSTAT portal.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Coverage is around 64.3%, i.e., roughly two-thirds, not more than that.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The expansion has been driven by a mix of contributory (e.g., APY) and non-contributory (e.g., PM-KISAN, JSY) schemes.

33% Seat Reservation for Women in Polls in India

Syllabus:GS2/Social Justice; Issues Related To Women

 

Context:

  • The Government of India is gearing up to implement 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, with the target of operationalizing it by the 2029 general elections.

 

Historical Background

  • The demand for political representation of women traces back to the freedom movement, with leaders such as Sarojini Naidu and Begum Shah Nawaz advocating for equal political rights.However, the Constituent Assembly did not provide for such a quota, believing that democratic processes would naturally ensure gender parity.
  • Despite this optimism, women’s representation remained minimal in subsequent decades. The 1970s and 1980s witnessed heightened discourse around political empowerment, culminating in the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, which provided 33% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and urban local bodies—a landmark in grassroots women’s political participation.
  • Efforts to extend similar reservations to Parliament and State Assemblies faced multiple setbacks:
  • The Women’s Reservation Bill was first introduced in 1996 but failed to pass due to lack of consensus.
  • Subsequent attempts in 1998, 1999, and 2008 also met with political resistance.
  • The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 — Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam
  • Passed in September 2023 with near-unanimous support, the Act marks a watershed moment in India’s legislative history.

 

Salient Features:

  • Provides 33% reservation for women in:
  • The Lok Sabha (Lower House of Parliament)
  • State Legislative Assemblies, including Delhi
  • The reservation will include seats earmarked for SC/ST women.
  • To come into effect after the next Census (expected in 2027) and a delimitation exercise based on updated population data.
  • The quota will be valid for 15 years, with the provision for extension through parliamentary approval.
  • Rotation of reserved seats will occur after each delimitation to ensure wider participation.

 

Current Representation

  • As of 2023, women constitute ~15% of Lok Sabha
  • In many state assemblies, women’s representation is less than 10%.

 

Key Challenges and Criticisms

Delayed Implementation

  • The Act’s operationalization is contingent on a future Census and delimitation, both of which are yet to be conducted.
  • This delay has raised concerns regarding political intent and timely empowerment.
  • Delimitation & Regional Imbalance
  • Delimitation based on population could result in northern states gaining more seats due to higher population growth.
  • Southern states, which have achieved demographic stability, fear a reduction in political influence.

 

Demand for OBC Sub-Quota

  • Certain political parties and civil society groups have demanded an internal reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) within the 33% quota.
  • They argue that without such a sub-quota, upper-caste women might disproportionately benefit from the policy.
  • Rotation of Reserved Constituencies
  • Regular rotation may discourage parties from nurturing long-term female political leadership in specific constituencies.
  • It could also lead to strategic and electoral uncertainties for both political parties and candidates.

 

Conclusion and Way Forward

  • The Women’s Reservation Act, 2023 is a historic step toward gender-inclusive governance and strengthening the democratic fabric of India. However, timely execution, transparent delimitation, and addressing demands for OBC sub-quotas are essential to ensure the policy’s inclusiveness and legitimacy.
  • The upcoming Census and delimitation process will be pivotal in determining how soon this transformative vision is realized. The focus must now shift from legislative intent to policy implementation, backed by political will and institutional readiness.

The Women’s Reservation Act, 2023 contains several provisions to institutionalize gender-based representation. Which of the following are key features of the Act?

  1. Rotation of reserved seats after every delimitation exercise
  2. Mandatory sub-quota for OBC women within the 33% reservation
  3. Applicability to State Assemblies and Union Territories with legislatures

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct:The Act mandates that reserved seats be rotated after each delimitation exercise, to ensure wider participation and regional equity.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect:While there are demands for an OBC sub-quota, the Act does not mandate it. The law provides 33% horizontal reservation, but does not sub-classify it by caste or community.
  • Statement 3: Correct:The law applies to the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and legislatures of Union Territories, such as Delhi.

50 Years of Emergency

Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance

 

Context

  • The Allahabad High Court’s landmark verdict on June 12, 1975, nullified the 1971 Lok Sabha election of then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on grounds of electoral malpractice. This decision precipitated the proclamation of National Emergency on June 25, 1975, marking a critical juncture in India’s constitutional history.

 

Constitutional Framework: Article 352

  • Under Article 352 of the Constitution, a National Emergency can be proclaimed by the President if the security of India or any part thereof is threatened by:
  • War or
  • External Aggression (collectively termed as External Emergency) or
  • Armed Rebellion (Internal Emergency, substituted from “internal disturbance” by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978).

 

Procedure and Safeguards

  • Written Cabinet Advice (44th CAA, 1978)
  • The President can proclaim Emergency only upon a written recommendation by the Union Council of Ministers, thereby eliminating unilateral discretion.
  • Parliamentary Approval
  • Must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month of proclamation.
  • If the Lok Sabha is dissolved, Emergency continues until 30 days after reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has approved it in the meantime.
  • Once approved, it continues for six months and may be extended indefinitely, subject to parliamentary reapproval every six months.
  • Special Majority Requirement

 

Each House must pass the resolution by a special majority:

  • A majority of the total membership, and
  • Not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
  • Revocation Mechanism
  • The President may revoke Emergency at any time through a fresh proclamation.
  • Additionally, Lok Sabha can force revocation by passing a resolution disapproving continuation, a safeguard introduced by the 44th Amendment.

 

 

Impact on Fundamental Rights

  • Article 358: Suspension of Article 19
  • Applies only in case of War or External Aggression (not Armed Rebellion).
  • Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended for the duration of Emergency without requiring a separate Presidential order.
  • Article 359: Suspension of Enforcement of Other Fundamental Rights
  • The President may issue a specific order suspending enforcement (not the existence) of other Fundamental Rights, except Articles 20 and 21 (post-44th Amendment).
  • Requires subsequent parliamentary approval.

 

Judicial Review and Constitutional Morality

  • In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court affirmed that:
  • The proclamation of Emergency is subject to judicial review.
  • Grounds like mala fide intent, irrelevant considerations, or perversity can render it invalid.
  • The Court reinforced the Basic Structure Doctrine as a constitutional safeguard against executive overreach.

 

The Emergency of 1975–77: A Democratic Breakdown

  • The Emergency from June 25, 1975, to March 21, 1977, is widely regarded as a constitutional low point due to:
  • Curtailment of civil liberties: Suspension of freedom of speech, press, and assembly.
  • Press censorship and suppression of dissent.
  • Preventive detentions under laws like MISA, with thousands jailed without trial.
  • 39th Amendment insulated the PM’s election from judicial scrutiny.
  • Executive over-centralization and erosion of judicial independence.

 

Post-Emergency Reforms: Strengthening Democracy

  • 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
  • Replaced “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” for Emergency grounds.
  • Ensured that Articles 20 and 21 (right to life and protection from retrospective penal laws) remain enforceable even during Emergency.
  • Introduced mandatory Cabinet recommendation and special majority approval for Emergency.

 

Judicial Safeguards

  • Proclamation and actions under Emergency are not immune from judicial scrutiny.
  • Reinforcement of constitutional supremacy and basic structure doctrine.

 

Conclusion

  • The experience of the 1975 Emergency underscores the fragility of democratic institutions in the absence of robust constitutional checks. While the 44th Amendment fortified procedural safeguards and protected core rights, vigilant institutions, an informed citizenry, and a committed judiciary remain essential to preserving India’s democratic ethos.

With reference to the National Emergency under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. The President is constitutionally required to act solely on the advice of the Prime Minister for proclaiming Emergency.
  2. Article 19 is suspended during a National Emergency declared on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  3. The validity of the Emergency proclamation is not subject to judicial review under any circumstances.
  4. The Lok Sabha can compel the President to revoke an Emergency proclamation through a disapproval resolution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The President must act on the written advice of the Council of Ministers, not just the Prime Minister. (44th CAA)
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 19 is suspended only during Emergency due to war or external aggression, not armed rebellion.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in Minerva Mills (1980) allowed judicial review of Emergency proclamations.
  • Statement 4 is correct: 44th Amendment empowers the Lok Sabha to revoke Emergency through a disapproval resolution.

UNESCO ‘Creative City of Gastronomy’

Syllabus: GS1/ Culture

Context

  • A formal proposal has been submitted to the World Heritage Centre for designating Lucknow as a UNESCO Creative City of Gastronomy, highlighting the rich legacy of Awadhi cuisine.

 

UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN)

  • Established: 2004
  • Objective: To promote culture and creativity as strategic enablers for sustainable urban development.
  • Fields of Creativity Recognized (7 Categories):
  • Crafts and Folk Art
  • Design
  • Film
  • Gastronomy
  • Literature
  • Media Arts
  • Music

 

Indian Cities in the UCCN

·         Creative Field

·         Indian Cities Recognized

·         Crafts and Folk Arts

·         Jaipur, Srinagar

·         Music

·         Varanasi, Chennai, Gwalior

·         Film

·         Mumbai

·         Gastronomy

·         Hyderabad

·         Literature

·         Kozhikode

  • Lucknow (Proposed): Under Gastronomy category for Awadhi culinary heritage.

With reference to the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN), consider the following statements:

  1. The UCCN was established with the primary objective of promoting World Heritage Sites that demonstrate historical creativity.
  2. Only cities from countries that have ratified the 2003 Convention on the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage can become part of UCCN.
  3. The network currently classifies creative sectors into seven categories, including Gastronomy and Media Arts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

 Answer: C. 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The UCCN is not limited to World Heritage Sites. It focuses on using creativity and culture as tools for sustainable urban development, not necessarily historical preservation.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: UCCN does not require ratification of the 2003 Convention. It is a separate UNESCO initiative.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The UCCN officially recognizes seven creative fields—Gastronomy, Media Arts, Film, Literature, Crafts & Folk Arts, Music, and Design.

Shipki La

Syllabus: GS1/ Geography and GS3/ Internal Security

 

Context

  • The Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh recently inaugurated border tourism initiatives at Shipki La, a strategically important Himalayan pass.

 

About Shipki La

  • Location:
    Shipki La is a high-altitude motorable mountain pass (elevation: 3,930 meters) located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh, near the India-China border.

 

Strategic and Cultural Importance

  • Ancient Silk Route Legacy:The pass was historically part of the Silk Route, facilitating cross-border trade and cultural exchange between India and Tibet. Trade through the pass remained active until it was suspended in 2020.
  • Geopolitical Significance:Given its proximity to the Line of Actual Control (LAC), Shipki La holds strategic relevance from a defense and connectivity perspective.
  • River Sutlej Origin:The Sutlej River (called Langqen Zangbo in Tibet) enters Indian territory through Shipki La, making it a significant geographical landmark.
  • Religious Tourism Potential:The Himachal Pradesh government has proposed Shipki La as a viable and logistically easier route for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra. The proposal is currently under consideration by the Central Government.

With reference to Shipki La Pass, consider the following statements:

  1. Shipki La serves as the entry point of the Sutlej River into Indian territory from the Tibetan plateau.
  2. It is located on the border between India and Nepal, making it a key node in the India-Nepal cross-border trade.
  3. Historically, Shipki La was part of the Silk Route and functioned as a traditional trade link between India and Tibet.
  4. It has been identified by the Government of India as the officially recognized route for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct:The Sutlej River, known as Langqen Zangbo in Tibet, enters India through Shipki La, making this a true geographical fact.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect:Shipki La is on the India-China border, not on the India-Nepal border. Hence, the statement is factually wrong.
  • Statement 3: Correct:Shipki La was historically part of the Silk Route and a key trade link between India and Tibet, validating this statement.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect:Although Himachal Pradesh has proposed Shipki La as a potential route for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra, it is not officially recognized by the Government of India. Currently, recognized routes include Lipu Lekh (Uttarakhand) and Nathu La (Sikkim).

Symposium on ‘Discovery and Development of Monoclonal Antibody Therapeutics’

Syllabus: GS3/ Environment

 

In News:

  • India, serving as the Vice President of the International Organization for Marine Aids to Navigation (IALA), actively participated in the 2nd session of the IALA Council held in Nice, France.

About IALA

  • Established: 1957, initially known as the International Association of Marine Aids to Navigation and Lighthouse Authorities.
  • Headquarters: Saint-Germain-en-Laye, near Paris, France.
  • Membership: Comprises 39 member states.
  • Recent Transition:
  • In August 2024, IALA formally transitioned from a Non-Governmental Organization (NGO) to an Intergovernmental Organization (IGO).
  • This change was effected following the ratification of the IALA Convention by 30 states.

 

Objectives and Mandate

  • Enhancing Maritime Safety:Develops common technical standards, best practices, and recommendations for marine aids to navigation.
  • Reducing Marine Accidents:Promotes cooperation to minimize risks in maritime traffic and support safe and efficient navigation.
  • Environmental Protection:Supports sustainable maritime infrastructure to reduce ecological harm from navigation-related activities.

With reference to the International Organization for Marine Aids to Navigation (IALA), consider the following statements:

  1. IALA was originally established as an intergovernmental organization under the auspices of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) in 1957.
  2. The primary objective of IALA is to harmonize marine aids to navigation systems globally to improve maritime safety and protect the marine environment.
  3. India currently holds a Vice-Presidential position in IALA and was among the first 30 countries to ratify the IALA Convention, enabling its transition to an intergovernmental body.
  4. IALA’s headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland, alongside several other UN specialized agencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: C. 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect:IALA was established in 1957 but not as an intergovernmental organization under the IMO. It started as a non-governmental organization and independently evolved into an intergovernmental body in August 2024 after ratification of its convention by 30 countries. It is not a UN or IMO subsidiary body.
  • Statement 2 – Correct:One of IALA’s core objectives is to harmonize and improve marine aids to navigation (like lighthouses, buoys, etc.) to enhance maritime safety, reduce accidents, and promote marine environmental protection.
  • Statement 3 – Correct:India is currently serving as a Vice President of IALA and played a significant role in ratifying the IALA Convention, enabling its status shift from an NGO to an IGO in 2024.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect:IALA’s headquarters is in Saint-Germain-en-Laye, near Paris, France — not Geneva. Geneva is home to many UN agencies, but IALA is not among them.

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