TOne Academy

Weekly Current Affairs 24th May -31st May 2025

Nagshankar Temple

Syllabus:History

 

Location:

  • Nagshankar Temple is a historic Hindu shrine dedicated to Lord Shiva, located in the Biswanath district of northeastern Assam. It lies on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra River.

 

Historical Significance:

  • Believed to have been originally constructed in the 4th century CE by King Narasankar of the Nagakha dynasty.
  • The temple underwent major restoration in 1480 CE under the Ahom ruler Su-sen-pha, reflecting its continued cultural relevance across centuries.

 

Ecological Importance:

  • The temple complex features a large pond that serves as a habitat for 250–300 turtles, many of which belong to some of the rarest and most endangered species

 

Notable species include:

  • Black Softshell Turtle (Nilssonia nigricans) – Critically Endangered
  • Indian Softshell Turtle (Nilssonia gangetica)
  • Malayan Softshell Turtle (Dogania subplana)
  • Several turtles in the pond are believed to be centuries old, underlining the site’s unique ecological heritage.

 

Biodiversity Beyond Turtles:

  • The temple campus also shelters a variety of other animals including peacocks, deer, and pythons, making it a significant center for biodiversity conservation within a cultural setting.

 

Conservation Recognition:

  • Due to its exceptional role in preserving critically endangered turtle species within a religious and community-supported framework, Nagshankar Temple has recently been designated as a model temple for turtle conservation.

Consider the following statements regarding the Nagshankar Temple in Assam:

  1. It was originally constructed by an Ahom ruler in the 4th century CE.
  2. The temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is situated on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  3. It has been recognized for its role in the conservation of critically endangered turtle species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: B) 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – The original construction is attributed to King Narasankar of Nagakha in the 4th century CE, not an Ahom ruler.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is located on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra.
  • Statement 3 is correct – It is recognized for turtle conservation.

Guttala Sculptural Inscription

Syllabus:History

  • A rare 16th-century sculptural inscription discovered near the Chandrashekara temple in Guttala village, Haveri district, Karnataka, offers India’s earliest known epigraphic reference to a humanitarian crisis.

 

 

Key Features:

  • Date & Language: Dated Saka 1461 (August 18, 1539 CE), the inscription is etched in Kannada script and language on a stone slab.
  • Disaster Recorded: It details the death of 6,307 people due to a severe drought (referred to as “bara”)—providing both the exact toll and a contemporary social response.
  • Humanitarian Response: A local man, Marulaih Odeya, son of Nanideva Odeya, buried the deceased in baskets to earn spiritual merit for the regional ruler, Timmarasa Svami.
  • Sculptural Representation: The stone also features a carving of Marulaih carrying a basket filled with bodies, combining visual iconography with textual epigraphy.
  • Historical Significance: This inscription serves as a unique and early documentation of a natural disaster, highlighting not only the scale of the tragedy but also the community’s humanitarian response and administrative structure, through the mention of “seeme” (territorial unit).
  • This find offers valuable insights into historical climate events, social resilience, and localized governance during the 16th century in South India.

With reference to the 16th-century Guttala Sculptural Inscription discovered in Karnataka, consider the following statements:

  1. The inscription, dated to 1539 CE, is one of the earliest known epigraphic records of a natural disaster in India and includes both textual and sculptural depictions.
  2. It records a mass death caused by a flood, emphasizing the environmental challenges and hydraulic management failures of the Vijayanagara period.
  3. The act of burying the dead by a local individual is portrayed as a means of accruing spiritual merit on behalf of a regional ruler, indicating a linkage between social welfare and political legitimacy.
  4. The mention of “seeme” in the inscription reflects a formal administrative division under the Delhi Sultanate’s governance in southern India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A) 1 and 3 only
    B) 1, 2, and 4 only
    C) 1, 3, and 4 only
    D) All of the above

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: The inscription is dated 1539 CE and combines textual narration and sculptural representation, making it a rare and early epigraphic account of a humanitarian disaster in Indian history.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: The disaster mentioned is a drought, not a flood. The term used is bara (Kannada for drought), and it led to the death of 6,307 individuals.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: The individual, Marulaih Odeya, buried the dead to earn religious merit for the ruler Timmarasa Svami, reflecting a cultural linkage between public service and the ruler’s dharmic legitimacy.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect: The mention of seeme refers to a local territorial unit and has no direct connection with the Delhi Sultanate. The inscription is associated with the Vijayanagara period’s local governance structures.

Veer Savarkar

Syllabus: GS1/Modern History

 

Savarkar Jayanti (May 28)

  • Honouring the Legacy of Veer Savarkar (1883–1966)

 

About Vinayak Damodar Savarkar:

  • Revolutionary freedom fighter, writer, poet, and political thinker.
  • Advocated for armed struggle to end British rule.
  • Founded Abhinav Bharat (1904) while at Fergusson College, Pune.
  • Established Free India Society in London; authored The First War of Independence on the 1857 revolt.
  • Arrested in 1910; sentenced to 50 years in Cellular Jail, Andaman.
  • Released in 1937; became president of Hindu Mahasabha (served ~7 years).
  • Actively campaigned against untouchability.
  • Dissolved Abhinav Bharat in 1951; focused on Hindu nationalist ideology.

 

About Hindu Mahasabha:

  • Founded: 1915, Haridwar (Kumbh Mela) by Madan Mohan Malviya.
  • Purpose: Counterbalance to Muslim League’s growing political influence.

 

Goals:

  • Unite Hindus politically and culturally
  • Promote Hindu religious and social causes
  • Protect Hindu interests in governance, education, and employment

With reference to the political ideology of Veer Savarkar, consider the following statements:

  1. He considered untouchability a social evil and actively worked to eradicate it.
  2. He believed Hindu identity was primarily religious rather than cultural.
  3. He conceptualized Hindutva as a cultural and political unifying force.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All of the above

Answer: C
Explanation:

  • Savarkar opposed untouchability and campaigned against it → 1 is correct.
  • He emphasized cultural and national aspects of Hindu identity over purely religious ones → 2 is incorrect.

Njattadi Festival

Syllabus: GS1/Culture

Context:

  • Kerala’s Agriculture Minister inaugurated the annual Njattadi Festival, also known as the Sapling Festival.

 

About the Festival:

  • A traditional agricultural celebration observed by farming communities in Kerala.
  • The name “Njattadi” is derived from “Njattuvela”, a period in the Malayalam calendar deemed ideal for paddy sowing.
  • Marks the onset of the paddy cultivation season in the state.

Cultural Significance:

  • Celebrated with folk songs like Vanchipattu and Njattu Pattu.
  • Includes traditional dance performances, reflecting the agrarian heritage of Kerala.

Consider the following statements regarding Njattadi Festival:

  1. It is celebrated during the post-monsoon harvest season.
  2. It is accompanied by folk performances like Vanchipattu and Njattu Pattu.
  3. It is a pan-India agricultural festival celebrated for wheat sowing.

Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above

Answer:B.2only
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect – Njattadi occurs during sowing, not harvest. Statement 3 is incorrect – it is a regional (Kerala-specific) paddy festival, not related to wheat or pan-India observance.

Saraswati Pushkaralu

Syllabus: GS1/ Culture

 

  • The 11th day of the ongoing Saraswati Pushkaralu witnessed a massive influx of pilgrims at Kaleshwaram, marking a significant spiritual gathering.

 

About Saraswati Pushkaralu:

  • Saraswati Pushkaralu, also known as Saraswati Pushkaram, is a sacred Hindu river festival that is celebrated once every 12 years. The timing of the festival is astronomically determined—it coincides with the entry of the planet Jupiter (Brihaspati) into the Gemini zodiac sign (Mithuna Rasi).
  • The festival spans 12 days, beginning precisely from the moment Jupiter transitions into Mithuna Rasi. It is dedicated to the revered and mystical River Saraswati, often referred to as Antarvahini—the invisible river believed to flow beneath the Triveni Sangam.

 

 

Significance of Kaleshwaram:

  • Kaleshwaram becomes a focal pilgrimage destination during this period. It is believed to be the meeting point (Triveni Sangam) of three rivers:
  • Godavari
  • Pranahita
  • Saraswati (the subterranean and spiritual river)
  • Devotees flock to Kaleshwaram during Saraswati Pushkaralu to offer prayers, perform rituals, and take holy dips, seeking spiritual purification and divine blessings.

Consider the following statements with respect to the Saraswati Pushkaralu festival:

  1. The festival is celebrated every 12 years, based on the movement of Saturn into the Gemini constellation.
  2. It is associated with the Triveni Sangam where the rivers Godavari, Krishna, and the invisible Saraswati are believed to meet.
  3. The river Saraswati, though not visible, holds sanctity in Hindu tradition and is often invoked in rituals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Jupiter (Brihaspati) entering Gemini (Mithuna), not Saturn.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Triveni Sangam at Kaleshwaram involves Godavari, Pranahita, and Saraswati, not Krishna.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Saraswati is considered Antarvahini (invisible but sacred), often invoked in religious rites.

Saraswati Pushkaralu

Syllabus: GS1/ Culture

 

  • The 11th day of the ongoing Saraswati Pushkaralu witnessed a massive influx of pilgrims at Kaleshwaram, marking a significant spiritual gathering.

 

About Saraswati Pushkaralu:

  • Saraswati Pushkaralu, also known as Saraswati Pushkaram, is a sacred Hindu river festival that is celebrated once every 12 years. The timing of the festival is astronomically determined—it coincides with the entry of the planet Jupiter (Brihaspati) into the Gemini zodiac sign (Mithuna Rasi).
  • The festival spans 12 days, beginning precisely from the moment Jupiter transitions into Mithuna Rasi. It is dedicated to the revered and mystical River Saraswati, often referred to as Antarvahini—the invisible river believed to flow beneath the Triveni Sangam.

 

 

Significance of Kaleshwaram:

  • Kaleshwaram becomes a focal pilgrimage destination during this period. It is believed to be the meeting point (Triveni Sangam) of three rivers:
  • Godavari
  • Pranahita
  • Saraswati (the subterranean and spiritual river)
  • Devotees flock to Kaleshwaram during Saraswati Pushkaralu to offer prayers, perform rituals, and take holy dips, seeking spiritual purification and divine blessings.

Consider the following statements with respect to the Saraswati Pushkaralu festival:

  1. The festival is celebrated every 12 years, based on the movement of Saturn into the Gemini constellation.
  2. It is associated with the Triveni Sangam where the rivers Godavari, Krishna, and the invisible Saraswati are believed to meet.
  3. The river Saraswati, though not visible, holds sanctity in Hindu tradition and is often invoked in rituals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Jupiter (Brihaspati) entering Gemini (Mithuna), not Saturn.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Triveni Sangam at Kaleshwaram involves Godavari, Pranahita, and Saraswati, not Krishna.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Saraswati is considered Antarvahini (invisible but sacred), often invoked in religious rites.

Nagshankar Temple

Syllabus:History

 

Location:

  • Nagshankar Temple is a historic Hindu shrine dedicated to Lord Shiva, located in the Biswanath district of northeastern Assam. It lies on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra River.

 

Historical Significance:

  • Believed to have been originally constructed in the 4th century CE by King Narasankar of the Nagakha dynasty.
  • The temple underwent major restoration in 1480 CE under the Ahom ruler Su-sen-pha, reflecting its continued cultural relevance across centuries.

 

Ecological Importance:

  • The temple complex features a large pond that serves as a habitat for 250–300 turtles, many of which belong to some of the rarest and most endangered species

 

Notable species include:

  • Black Softshell Turtle (Nilssonia nigricans) – Critically Endangered
  • Indian Softshell Turtle (Nilssonia gangetica)
  • Malayan Softshell Turtle (Dogania subplana)
  • Several turtles in the pond are believed to be centuries old, underlining the site’s unique ecological heritage.

 

Biodiversity Beyond Turtles:

  • The temple campus also shelters a variety of other animals including peacocks, deer, and pythons, making it a significant center for biodiversity conservation within a cultural setting.

 

Conservation Recognition:

  • Due to its exceptional role in preserving critically endangered turtle species within a religious and community-supported framework, Nagshankar Temple has recently been designated as a model temple for turtle conservation.

Consider the following statements regarding the Nagshankar Temple in Assam:

  1. It was originally constructed by an Ahom ruler in the 4th century CE.
  2. The temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is situated on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River.
  3. It has been recognized for its role in the conservation of critically endangered turtle species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: B) 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – The original construction is attributed to King Narasankar of Nagakha in the 4th century CE, not an Ahom ruler.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is located on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra.
  • Statement 3 is correct – It is recognized for turtle conservation.

Right To Digital Access Part of Article 21

Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance

  • The Supreme Court of India has emphasized that digital access is a vital component of the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

 

Background:

  • The ruling stemmed from a petition filed by a group of acid attack survivors. The petition highlighted the challenges faced by disabled individuals, particularly acid attack victims, in completing digital KYC (Know Your Customer) processes that require visual tasks.

 

Supreme Court Ruling:

  • The Court underscored that the state has a responsibility to create an inclusive digital ecosystem, especially for marginalized, vulnerable, and historically excluded sections of society. The judgment mandates the following:

 

 

Directive to Improve KYC Accessibility:

  • The Court directed that alternative methods of verification be provided for individuals who are unable to use facial recognition or perform tasks like blinking.
  • It emphasized full compliance with Section 46 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, which ensures accessibility in electronic and print media.
  • All websites, mobile applications, and digital platforms must adhere to universal accessibility standards.

 

 

State’s Obligations:

  • The state, under Article 21, has a duty to ensure that digital infrastructure, government portals, and financial technologies are universally accessible to all.
  • The Court clarified that the state’s obligations under Article 21 (Right to Life) extend to ensuring the digital inclusion of all individuals, which is reinforced by Articles 14 (Equality before law), 15 (Prohibition of discrimination), and 38 (State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people) of the Constitution.

 

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution:

  • Article 21 states, “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”It is part of the Fundamental Rights, enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, and applies to both citizens and non-citizens. Over time, courts have interpreted Article 21 not only to prevent arbitrary state interference with a person’s life and liberty but also to impose positive obligations on the state, ensuring a dignified life for every individual.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s ruling on digital accessibility as a component of the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution:

  1. The Supreme Court emphasized that digital access is an essential aspect of the Right to Life, especially for vulnerable and marginalized sections of society.
  2. The court’s judgment mandates the introduction of alternative verification mechanisms for individuals unable to use facial recognition or blink during KYC processes.
  3. The Right to Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, mandates that websites and mobile applications must be made fully accessible, but only for government portals, not private entities.
  4. The court interpreted Article 21 in such a way that it imposes a duty on the state to ensure a dignified life, which includes providing inclusive digital infrastructure.

 

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 

Answer: A) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – The Supreme Court indeed emphasized that digital access is crucial to the Right to Life under Article 21, particularly for marginalized groups.
  • Statement 2: Correct – The Court mandated alternative verification mechanisms for individuals who cannot use facial recognition, including those with disabilities or specific conditions like acid attack survivors.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – The RPwD Act mandates accessibility in both government and private sectors, not just government portals. The Court ordered compliance across all digital platforms.
  • Statement 4: Correct – The interpretation of Article 21 does indeed impose a positive obligation on the state to ensure dignified living, including the provision of accessible digital infrastructure.

SC upholds courts’ power to modify arbitral awards under limited circumstances

Syllabus :GS2/Governance

Context:

  • The Supreme Court of India, in a 4:1 majority ruling, has clarified the limited powers of courts to modify arbitral awards under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

 

Background:

  • The decision came in response to a legal question referred to a three-judge bench in February 2024. The bench sought clarity on whether Indian courts have the authority to modify arbitral awards.
  • Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
  • Arbitration is an alternative dispute resolution mechanism that minimizes judicial interference with arbitral awards. Courts are only allowed to intervene in limited circumstances as specified under the Act.

 

Key Highlights of the Judgment:

  • Limited Modifications:Courts are permitted to modify arbitral awards only for specific reasons, such as:
  • Removing invalid portions of the award.
  • Correcting typographical, computational, or clerical errors.
  • Adjusting interest post-award if necessary.

 

Judicial Intervention:

  • The scope for judicial intervention under Section 34 is narrow. Courts can only set aside arbitral awards on specific grounds such as:
  • Violation of public policy.
  • Fraud or corruption.
  • Moral injustice.
  • Courts cannot:
  • Correct factual errors.
  • Reconsider the costs or review the merits of the award.

 

Article 142 Powers:

  • The Supreme Court invoked its inherent powers under Article 142 to ensure complete justice, but emphasized that such powers should be exercised cautiously, consistent with the principles outlined in the 1996 Act.

Do You Know?

  • Section 34: Courts can set aside an arbitral award on grounds like violation of public policy, fundamental legal principles, fraud, corruption, or moral injustice.
  • Section 37: Deals with the circumstances under which an appeal can be made against an arbitral order.
  • Despite the restricted scope for modification under Section 34, the Supreme Court highlighted that it had occasionally modified arbitral awards in the past to prevent prolonged litigation and ensure justice. However, this modification was not explicitly provided for in Section 34.

 

Dissenting Opinion:

  • Justice Viswanathan’s View:Justice Viswanathan dissented, arguing that arbitral awards should not be modified unless explicitly permitted by statute. He emphasized that Section 34 only allows for setting aside an award, not modifying it.
  • The dissent mirrored the government’s stance, which argued that the power to modify should be statutorily granted.
  • Legal experts raised concerns that modifying arbitral awards could effectively replace them with court decrees, which could have international enforcement implications, especially under international conventions.

 

Conclusion:

  • The Supreme Court’s ruling emphasizes that while courts can intervene in certain limited circumstances, the autonomy of arbitral awards must largely be preserved to avoid undermining the arbitration process and its international recognition.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s judgment on the modification of arbitral awards under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:

  1. Courts can modify arbitral awards to correct typographical, computational, or clerical errors.
  2. Courts can reconsider the merits of the arbitral award under Section 34.
  3. The Supreme Court invoked its powers under Article 142 to modify arbitral awards, even in the absence of statutory provisions.
  4. The power to modify arbitral awards is explicitly provided in Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court allowed modifications to arbitral awards for errors like typographical, computational, or clerical mistakes.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Courts cannot reconsider the merits of the arbitral award under Section 34.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The Supreme Court has used its powers under Article 142 to ensure justice, including modifying arbitral awards in certain situations.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect. Section 34 does not explicitly provide the power to modify arbitral awards; it allows setting them aside on specific grounds.

World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit 2025

Syllabus:Summits

 

Context:

  • The WAVES (World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit) 2025, held in Mumbai, has facilitated media and entertainment deals worth over ₹250 crore in just 1.5 days, alongside announcing several significant international collaborations.

 

About WAVES

What is WAVES?

  • WAVES (World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit) is an initiative by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting (I&B) that serves as a global platform for the media and entertainment industry.

 

Key Objectives of WAVES:

  • Facilitate cross-border collaboration in the media and entertainment sector.
  • Promote India as a key global hub for media-related content, including film, OTT platforms, VFX, animation, and music.
  • Provide emerging creators with the opportunity to directly engage with global investors, buyers, and collaborators.
  • Foster structured B2B transactions and content deals to boost the media and entertainment industry.

Which of the following statements about WAVES (World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit) are correct?

  1. WAVES is an initiative by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting to enhance India’s position in the global media and entertainment market.
  2. It primarily focuses on promoting India as a hub for content commerce related to film, OTT, VFX, animation, and music.
  3. WAVES is held annually in various cities across the world, with Mumbai being its inaugural location in 2025.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: WAVES is an initiative by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting to position India as a global media hub for film, OTT, VFX, animation, and music. It is not held annually in various cities globally but is focused on Mumbai for 2025.

Rules for Obtaining Voter ID in India

Syllabus: GS2/ Governance

Context

  • In the aftermath of the recent terrorist attack in Pahalgam, investigations revealed that several deported Pakistani nationals were in possession of Indian identity documents, including voter ID cards, raising concerns about loopholes in the electoral registration system.

 

Constitutional and Legal Framework

  • Article 326 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every Indian citizen aged 18 years or above for elections to the Lok Sabha and State/Union Territory Legislative Assemblies.

Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 disqualifies individuals from being registered in electoral rolls if they:

  • Are not citizens of India,
  • Have been declared to be of unsound mind by a competent court,
  • Are disqualified due to corrupt practices or offences under election laws.

 

Voter Registration Procedure

  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) requires new applicants to use Form 6 for enrolment.

 

Required documents include:

  • Self-attested proof of age and address (e.g., utility bills, Aadhaar, driving license),
  • A signed declaration of Indian citizenship.
  • Proof of citizenship (e.g., birth certificate, passport) is not mandatory by default unless the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) suspects the authenticity of the applicant’s claim.

 

Verification Process involves:

  • Preliminary scrutiny by Booth Level Officers (BLOs),
  • Document verification,
  • Public hearings to consider claims or objections,
  • Final approval or rejection by the ERO.

 

Penal Provisions

  • Section 31 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, criminalizes false declarations in voter applications and prescribes penalties for offenders.

With reference to the legal framework governing electoral registration in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Article 326 of the Constitution provides that only Indian citizens aged 21 and above are eligible to vote in Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections.
  2. Proof of Indian citizenship is always mandatory for voter registration under Form 6.
  3. Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 disqualifies a person from electoral rolls if they are of unsound mind or are not citizens of India.
  4. False declarations made in voter applications are punishable under Section 31 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B. 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The minimum voting age under Article 326 is 18 years, not 21.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Proof of citizenship is not always mandatory unless specifically required by the ERO.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Section 16 disqualifies non-citizens and persons of unsound mind (as declared by a competent court).
  • Statement 4 is correct: Section 31 penalizes false declarations in electoral applications.

NAMASTE (National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem) Scheme

Syllabus :GS 2/Social Justice 

  • A NAMASTE scheme event was recently held in Budaun, Uttar Pradesh, where sanitation workers were honored.

 

About the NAMASTE Scheme:

  • The National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) scheme was launched in July 2023 by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, in collaboration with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
  • Type: Central Sector Scheme
  • Objective: The scheme aims to ensure the safety, dignity, and rehabilitation of sanitation workers by eliminating hazardous manual cleaning of sewers and septic tanks. It focuses on promoting mechanized and safe sanitation practices.

 

Key Components:

  • Profiling of Sewer and Septic Tank Workers (SSWs)
  • Health insurance coverage under AB-PMJAY
  • Occupational safety training for SSWs
  • Upfront capital subsidy for sanitation vehicles/equipment
  • Distribution of PPE kits and safety devices
  • Emergency Response Sanitation Units (ERSUs)
  • IEC Campaign to raise awareness of the safety and dignity of sanitation workers
  • 2024 Addition: The scheme was expanded to include waste pickers, supporting their access to safe, dignified, and sustainable livelihoods.

Which of the following statements regarding the NAMASTE (National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem) scheme is/are correct?

  1. The scheme includes a provision for the financial support of sanitation workers’ children’s education.
  2. The scheme is primarily focused on the manual scavenger rehabilitation process, emphasizing social integration through skills development.
  3. It aims to eliminate manual scavenging by mechanizing the cleaning of sewers and septic tanks while promoting dignity for sanitation workers.
  4. The scheme provides for the setting up of Emergency Response Sanitation Units (ERSUs) for rapid deployment in times of sanitation emergencies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

The correct answer is (b) 2, 3, and 4 only.

Explanation:

  • The scheme includes a provision for the financial support of sanitation workers’ children’s education.
  • This statement is incorrect. The NAMASTE scheme focuses on ensuring the safety, dignity, and rehabilitation of sanitation workers, with a primary focus on mechanizing sewer and septic tank cleaning processes. However, there is no direct provision in the scheme specifically for the financial support of children’s education of sanitation workers. This might be part of future government policies but is not a direct feature of NAMASTE.
  • The scheme is primarily focused on the manual scavenger rehabilitation process, emphasizing social integration through skills development.
  • This statement is correct. While the NAMASTE scheme is focused on eliminating hazardous manual scavenging, it also emphasizes rehabilitation through skill development and social integration. The scheme aims to rehabilitate manual scavengers by providing them with training and support to ensure their dignified inclusion into society.
  • It aims to eliminate manual scavenging by mechanizing the cleaning of sewers and septic tanks while promoting dignity for sanitation workers.
  • This statement is correct. The NAMASTE scheme’s primary objective is to eliminate manual scavenging by mechanizing the cleaning of sewers and septic tanks, thereby ensuring the safety and dignity of sanitation workers. This is the core objective of the scheme.
  • The scheme provides for the setting up of Emergency Response Sanitation Units (ERSUs) for rapid deployment in times of sanitation emergencies.
  • This statement is correct. One of the components of the NAMASTE scheme is the provision of Emergency Response Sanitation Units (ERSUs), which are designed to be deployed during sanitation emergencies. These units help in rapid response to sanitation-related crises, ensuring quick and safe management of waste disposal.

India Launches Chip-Based E-Passports to Enhance Travel Security Syllabus:Security

Syllabus:Security

 

  • India has officially launched chip-based e-passports as part of its ongoing digital transformation of travel documentation. These advanced passports, embedded with RFID chips and biometric data, aim to enhance the security, efficiency, and convenience of international travel for Indian citizens. This move positions India alongside countries like the USA, UK, and Germany, which have already implemented similar e-passport technologies.

 

Why in the News?

  • On April 1, 2024, the Government of India, through the Passport Seva Programme Version 2.0, began the nationwide rollout of chip-based e-passports. This initiative marks a key milestone in modernizing travel infrastructure and ensuring secure, tamper-proof documentation. It also aligns with the introduction of new passport rules in 2025.

 

Key Features of Chip-Based E-Passports

  • Embedded RFID Chip & Antenna: Securely stores biometric and personal data.
  • Enhanced Security: Difficult to forge or duplicate, ensuring higher safety.
  • Scannable Barcode: Enables easy digital access to residential addresses for immigration officers.

 

Objectives

  • Improve passport security and global compatibility.
  • Streamline immigration processes and reduce fraud.
  • Support Digital India and promote paperless governance.
  • Implementation and Rollout
  • Pilot Launch: April 1, 2024.
  • Cities Currently Issuing E-Passports: Chennai, Jaipur, Hyderabad, Nagpur, Amritsar, Goa, Raipur, Surat, Ranchi, Bhubaneswar, Jammu, and Shimla.
  • Issued through selected Regional Passport Offices (RPOs).

 

New Passport Rules (2025)

  • Birth Certificate: Mandatory for those born on or after October 1, 2023.
  • Residential Address: Digitally embedded in the e-passport, no longer printed on the last page.
  • Parents’ Names: Removed from the passport to streamline personal data.
  • Significance
  • Aligns with global best practices in passport security.
  • Supports paperless immigration and enhances data privacy.
  • Demonstrates India’s commitment to tech-based governance and modernization.
  • This shift to chip-based e-passports marks a significant leap toward a more secure and efficient system, contributing to both national and international travel modernization efforts.

onsider the following statements regarding India’s rollout of chip-based e-passports:

  1. The chip-based e-passports are embedded with RFID chips and biometric data to improve security and efficiency.
  2. The e-passports are issued nationwide as part of the “Passport Seva Programme Version 1.0.”
  3. The new passport rules will make birth certificates mandatory for individuals born on or after October 1, 2023.
  4. Parents’ names have been removed from the new e-passports to streamline personal data.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The chip-based e-passports are embedded with RFID chips and biometric data, enhancing passport security and efficiency.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The e-passports are part of the “Passport Seva Programme Version 2.0,” not Version 1.0.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The new passport rules (2025) require birth certificates for applicants born on or after October 1, 2023.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The new e-passports remove parents’ names to streamline personal data.

All Eyes on Poonch Attack: A Humanitarian Crisis Amid Rising Tensions

Syllabus:Security

  • The phrase “All Eyes on Poonch Attack” has gained widespread traction across social media, symbolizing the mounting domestic and international concern over the humanitarian emergency unfolding in the Poonch district of Jammu and Kashmir. The crisis was sparked by Pakistan’s retaliatory shelling following India’s Operation Sindoor, a targeted counter-terrorism operation launched in response to the April 22, 2025 Pahalgam terror attack, which claimed 26 Indian civilian lives.

Operation Sindoor: The Catalyst

  • In the wake of the Pahalgam terror attack, India launched Operation Sindoor to dismantle terrorist infrastructure in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir (PoJK). The operation specifically targeted camps linked to groups such as Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba.
  • While India emphasized the non-escalatory and anti-terror nature of the operation, Pakistan’s response escalated tensions significantly. Intense cross-border shelling ensued, with the civilian population of Poonch bearing the brunt.

 

Pakistan’s Retaliation: Civilian Casualties and Cultural Losses

  • Pakistan’s artillery shelling across the Line of Control (LoC) struck multiple civilian areas, with Poonch emerging as one of the worst-hit districts:
  • 12 civilians, including women and children, were killed.
  • Places of worship—a Gurudwara, mosque, and Geeta Bhawan—sustained damage.
  • Schools, markets, and homes were destroyed, displacing hundreds.
  • This indiscriminate targeting has drawn sharp criticism, particularly for attacking religious and civilian infrastructure.

 

Attack on Central Gurudwara: A Tragedy for the Sikh Community

  • Among the most devastating incidents was the attack on the Central Gurudwara Sri Guru Singh Sabha Sahib in Poonch:
  • A raagi (hymn singer) and a granthi (priest) lost their lives.
  • The Gurudwara’s outer wall was demolished.
  • Several local Sikh traders and bystanders were killed or injured.
  • The incident triggered nationwide outrage, with Sikh leaders and human rights advocates condemning the violence and demanding justice and international intervention.

 

Widespread Civilian Impact

  • The shelling also led to:
  • The destruction of numerous residential houses, forcing families to seek shelter elsewhere.
  • Severe damage to schools, disrupting education for hundreds of children.
  • Marketplaces targeted, causing economic paralysis and widespread panic.
  • These actions have highlighted the indiscriminate nature of Pakistan’s retaliation and intensified global scrutiny.

 

 

Security Response and Ongoing Tensions

  • Following the attacks, the Indian Army launched precision strikes on Pakistani military posts across the LoC. Despite calls for restraint, fears of a broader military escalation persist. Experts stress the need for diplomatic channels to prevent further civilian casualties.
  • Meanwhile, relief and rehabilitation efforts are underway in Poonch, supported by both government and non-government agencies.

 

Strategic Importance of Poonch

  • Geographic Significance:
  • Poonch lies in the Jammu division of Indian-administered Jammu and Kashmir and is bordered on three sides by the LoC, making it highly vulnerable to cross-border hostilities.
  • The Pir Panjal range isolates it from the Kashmir Valley, adding logistical and strategic complexity.

 

Historical and Administrative Background

  • Ancient Era: Believed to be linked to Maharishi Pulastya, Poonch was historically known as Dravabhisar, with references dating back to Alexander’s invasion in 326 BCE.
  • 19th Century: Came under the Sikh Empire, later becoming a jagir under Dogra rule.
  • Post-1947 Partition: The Indo-Pak war of 1947–48 resulted in the division of Poonch between India and Pakistan.

 

 

Administrative Structure:
Poonch consists of six tehsils:

  • Haveli
  • Mandi
  • Mendhar
  • Surankote
  • Mankote
  • Balakote
  • These are further divided into 11 administrative blocks and 179 villages.

 

Cultural Mosaic of Poonch

  • Demographics:
    Poonch is a religiously diverse district:
  • Islam – 44%
  • Sikhism – 33%
  • Hinduism – 21%
  • This diversity has historically fostered communal harmony, which is now under severe strain due to the ongoing violence.

 

Languages and Culture:

  • Local languages include Pahari, Gojri, Kashmiri, Dogri, Urdu, and Hindi. The region is celebrated for its folk music, festivals, and interfaith traditions, making recent attacks on religious and cultural institutions particularly painful.

 

Conclusion

  • The crisis in Poonch underscores the human cost of geopolitical conflict. While strategic and security imperatives dominate headlines, the spotlight on Poonch must serve as a reminder of the urgent need for de-escalation, humanitarian aid, and protection of civilian life. The global community, too, has a role to play in urging restraint and upholding the values of human dignity, religious freedom, and peace.

Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor and its aftermath:

  1. Operation Sindoor was India’s retaliatory response to a terror attack in Poonch district.
  2. The operation specifically targeted terror infrastructure in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Jammu & Kashmir.
  3. Following the operation, Pakistan’s artillery response deliberately targeted religious and civilian sites.
  4. The Indian government officially categorized Operation Sindoor as a cross-border war declaration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer: B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The trigger was a terror attack in Pahalgam, not Poonch.
  • Statement 2 is correct.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Civilian areas including religious sites in Poonch were hit.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: India maintained the operation as non-escalatory and not a formal war declaration.

 

India’s Strategic Doctrine: PM Aligns Anti-Terror Policy with Global Framework

Syllabus:Governance

Context:

  • In his first national address following Operation Sindoor — India’s most decisive military engagement since the Kargil War — Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a transformative anti-terror doctrine, redefining India’s approach to cross-border terrorism and regional security.

 

Core Tenets of the New Strategic Doctrine

  • Response on India’s Terms:India reserves the sovereign right to determine the timing, nature, and intensity of its response to terrorism.
  • Deterrence Beyond Nuclear Threats:India’s actions will not be constrained by adversarial nuclear posturing — signaling the end of “nuclear blackmail” as a deterrent.
  • Unified Targeting Approach:No distinction will be made between terrorists, their leadership, or the states providing them support. All will be held equally accountable.

 

 

Doctrinal Evolution Post-Uri and Balakot

  • This doctrine marks a continuity and intensification of India’s response model that began with:
  • Uri Surgical Strikes (2016)
  • Balakot Airstrikes (2019)
  • Operation Sindoor, conducted after the Pahalgam terror attack, is positioned as the new baseline in India’s counter-terrorism strategy, raising the threshold for future military actions and reinforcing India’s offensive preparedness.

 

India’s Role in the Global War on Terror

  • PM Modi positioned India as a responsible global actor in the fight against terrorism, likening strikes on Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba to international efforts post-9/11.
    He called for global unity and reiterated that the “era of terrorism” must end, adapting his earlier message: “This is not the era of war” to “This is also not the era of terrorism.”

 

Strategic Military Capabilities Displayed

  • India showcased its growing technological edge, including:
  • Precision missile strikes
  • Destruction of drones and key enemy airbases
  • Use of Made-in-India weaponry in 21st-century warfare
  • The operation highlighted India’s capacity for deep-strike operations and its readiness for high-stakes, modern conflict scenarios.

 

Strategic Pause: A Calculated Decision

  • While Pakistan sought diplomatic de-escalation after suffering significant losses, India chose to pause operations only after key objectives were achieved.
    This was described not as withdrawal, but as conditional suspension, with future actions contingent on Pakistan’s conduct.

 

Reaffirming Strategic Red Lines

  • India reiterated its uncompromising stance:
  • No engagement with Pakistan unless talks are centered on terrorism or Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).
  • No resumption of trade, water-sharing, or diplomatic normalcy under the shadow of terror.

 

Philosophical Underpinning: Peace Through Strength

  • On Buddha Purnima, PM Modi evoked Lord Buddha’s message, emphasizing that peace is safeguarded by strength. A militarily strong India is essential to achieving the vision of Viksit Bharat (Developed India).

 

Conclusion: A Paradigm Shift in National Security Posture

  • India’s updated strategic doctrine signals a bold, assertive, and independent military posture, grounded in zero tolerance for terrorism and supported by advanced capabilities.Operation Sindoor is not just a tactical victory—it is the cornerstone of a new doctrine for India’s national security and global leadership in counter-terrorism.

With reference to India’s new anti-terror doctrine post-Operation Sindoor, consider the following statements:

  1. It marks the first time India has formally rejected nuclear deterrence in its counter-terror strategy.
  2. The doctrine makes a distinction between non-state and state-sponsored terrorism.
  3. Operation Sindoor represents a shift from defensive retaliation to pre-emptive, technology-enabled strike capability.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine explicitly states that India will not be deterred by nuclear threats, rejecting the traditional logic of nuclear deterrence in the face of cross-border terrorism.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: A core tenet of the new doctrine is the elimination of any distinction between terrorists, their masterminds, and the states that support them.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Operation Sindoor demonstrates a strategic evolution—from reactive defense to pre-emptive, intelligence-led, and technologically advanced military responses.

National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)

Syllabus:Governance

  • The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) recently dismissed an insolvency petition filed by SNJ Synthetics against PepsiCo India Holdings, stating that the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) cannot be misused as a debt recovery tool when the claim pertains only to disputed interest dues.

 

 

About the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)

  • Established Under: Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013
  • Operational Since: 1st June 2016
  • Nature: Quasi-judicial body

 

Key Functions of NCLAT

  • IBC Appeals: Hears appeals against NCLT decisions under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
  • IBBI Orders: Hears appeals against orders passed by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) under Sections 202 and 211.
  • CCI Appeals: Hears appeals against orders of the Competition Commission of India (CCI).
  • NFRA Appeals: Handles matters related to the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA).
  • Advisory Role: May provide legal opinions when referred by the President of India.

 

Organizational Details

  • Headquarters: New Delhi
  • Composition:
  • Chairperson
  • Judicial Members
  • Technical Members
  • Appointed By: Central Government, based on expertise in law, finance, accountancy, or administration

 

Powers and Jurisdiction

  • Possesses powers of a civil court under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
  • Can:
  • Summon witnesses
  • Receive affidavits
  • Enforce production of documents
  • Issue commissions
  • Orders are executable as civil court decrees
  • Appeals against NCLAT orders lie directly with the Supreme Court of India
  • Civil courts have no jurisdiction over matters under NCLAT’s purview
  • No court or authority can issue injunctions against NCLAT’s lawful actions

 

Timely Resolution

  • NCLAT must dispose of appeals within six months from the date of receipt, ensuring prompt adjudication of corporate disputes.

With reference to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 323B of the Constitution.
  2. It hears appeals against the orders of NCLT, CCI, and NFRA.
  3. Appeals against its decisions can be made directly to the Supreme Court of India.
  4. It functions under the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Which of the statements are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3, and 4

 Answer:A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – NCLAT is a statutory body under the Companies Act, 2013, not a constitutional one.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect – It functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not Law and Justice.
  • The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) is a statutory body, not a constitutional body.
  • It was established under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013.
  • Article 323B of the Constitution enables the creation of tribunals by Parliament via legislation, but it does not itself establish any tribunal.
  • Therefore, while the constitutional provision enables such tribunals in principle, the NCLAT owes its existence and powers to statute, not to the Constitution directly.

Cabinet approves semiconductor unit in Uttar Pradesh

Syllabus:Governanace

  • The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved the establishment of a new semiconductor manufacturing unit, further advancing India’s journey towards self-reliance in the strategically vital semiconductor sector.
  • This will be the sixth unit under the India Semiconductor Mission, with five units already in advanced stages of construction. The newly approved facility will be a joint venture between HCL and Foxconn, combining HCL’s legacy in hardware development with Foxconn’s global expertise in electronics manufacturing.

 

Location & Production:

  • The plant will be set up near Jewar Airport in the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA)
  • It will manufacture display driver chips for use in mobile phones, laptops, automobiles, PCs, and other display-enabled devices.
  • Designed for a capacity of 20,000 wafers/month and an output of 36 million units/month.

 

Investment & Ecosystem:

  • The project involves an investment of ₹3,700 crore.
  • India’s semiconductor ecosystem is rapidly expanding, with global equipment giants like Applied Materials and Lam Research, and gas and chemical suppliers such as Merck, Linde, Air Liquide, and Inox establishing a presence in India.

 

Academic & Startup Contributions:

  • Over 270 academic institutions and 70 startups are engaged in advanced chip design and innovation.
  • 20 student-developed products have already been successfully taped out at SCL Mohali.
  • As India witnesses a surge in demand for semiconductors across sectors—ranging from consumer electronics to defence—the new unit is a significant step towards realizing Prime Minister Modi’s vision of an Atmanirbhar Bharat.

Consider the following statements with respect to India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem:

  1. The India Semiconductor Mission is being implemented under the aegis of the National Policy on Electronics 2019.
  2. Applied Materials and Lam Research are key players in semiconductor design software being developed in India.
  3. Display driver chips are typically used in digital screens but not in automobiles due to electromagnetic interference issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Applied Materials and Lam Research are semiconductor equipment manufacturers, not design software companies.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Display driver chips are used in automotive displays as well.

SAMRIDH Scheme

Syllabus:Governance

Recent Incident:

  • Two individuals, including a chartered accountant, were recently arrested for allegedly defrauding the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) of over ₹3 crore under the guise of availing benefits from the government-backed SAMRIDH scheme meant for startup support.

 

  • About the SAMRIDH Scheme
  • Full Form:
  • SAMRIDH stands for Startup Accelerator of MeitY for Product Innovation, Development and Growth.

 

Launched Under:

  • National Policy on Software Products – 2019

 

Nodal Ministry:

  • Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)

 

Implementing Agencies: MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH) and Digital India Corporation (DIC)

 

Key Objectives:

  • To support existing and upcoming startup accelerators in selecting and scaling promising IT-based startups.
  • To provide startups with support in areas such as:
  • Customer acquisition
  • Investor access
  • Entry into international markets

 

Funding Structure:

  • The scheme offers an investment of up to ₹40 lakh per startup, depending on its valuation and growth stage.
  • A matching contribution from the selected accelerator is required.
  • Financial support is provided through selected accelerators after rigorous screening.

 

Implementation Details:

  • In the first cohort, 22 accelerators across 12 states are engaged.
  • A total of 175 startups have been selected via a multi-level screening process.
  • Accelerators span public institutions, academic bodies, private players, and early-stage funding platforms.

 

Focus Sectors:

  • Health-tech
  • Ed-tech
  • Agri-tech
  • Consumer-tech
  • Fin-tech
  • SaaS (Software as a Service)
  • Sustainability

 

Support Services Provided by Accelerators:

  • Market research and product positioning diagnostics
  • Mentorship by experts in relevant tech verticals
  • Legal assistance in IP, incorporation, and regulatory matters
  • Networking and shared learning opportunities
  • Weekly peer interaction among startup founders
  • Demo Days with venture capitalists and angel investors
  • Support in closing investment deals

With reference to the SAMRIDH Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), consider the following statements:

  1. The scheme provides equity-based investment up to ₹40 lakh per startup and mandates a matching contribution from the accelerator.
  2. It supports startups exclusively in the sectors notified under the Startup India Action Plan.
  3. MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH) and Digital India Corporation are the nodal agencies responsible for implementing the scheme.
  4. Only government-recognized academic institutions are allowed to act as accelerators under the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – The scheme provides financial assistance up to ₹40 lakh per startup and requires equal matching investment from the accelerator.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect – SAMRIDH supports IT-based startups in domains like health-tech, ed-tech, SaaS, and sustainability, not limited to the Startup India Action Plan.
  • Statement 3: Correct – It is implemented by MeitY Start-up Hub and Digital India Corporation.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect – Accelerators include not only government-supported academic institutions but also private organizations and early-stage funding platforms

Amit Shah Inaugurates Training Program on Legislative Drafting in New Delhi

Syllabus:Governanace

  • Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated a specialized training program on legislative drafting in New Delhi, aimed at enhancing the understanding and application of legislative drafting principles among officials from Parliament, State Legislatures, ministries, statutory bodies, and other government departments.

 

 

Focus on Repealing Obsolete Laws

  • In his address, Mr. Shah highlighted the government’s initiative to repeal nearly 2,000 obsolete laws since 2015. He described legislative drafting as not merely a science or an art, but a skill that demands precision, transparency, and clarity in execution.

 

Advocating Clear and Accessible Laws

  • Stressing the importance of simplicity in legal language, Mr. Shah urged officials to draft laws that are clear, concise, and free from ambiguity. He emphasized that easily understandable laws can help minimize conflicts and ensure better implementation.

 

Influence on Governance and Society

  • Shah noted that legislative drafting significantly influences how policies and regulations are interpreted and implemented, ultimately affecting both society and the state. Therefore, regular training is essential to refine the skills of legislative draftsmen.

 

Capacity Building through Training

  • The program, organized by the Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies (ICPS) in collaboration with the Parliamentary Research and Training Institute for Democracies (PRIDE), aims to build the capacity of government officers. Through this initiative, participants will gain valuable insights into effective legislative drafting, promoting democratic governance and upholding the rule of law.

Consider the following statements regarding legislative drafting as per the given text:

  1. It plays a key role in the interpretation of policies and their societal impact.
  2. It is a static process that, once codified, requires no revision.
  3. Training programs in legislative drafting are essential for promoting democratic governance.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct because the text emphasizes that legislative drafting significantly affects the interpretation and implementation of policies, which in turn impacts society and the state.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect as the passage suggests that legislative drafting is a skill that requires regular training and updating, implying it is a dynamic, not static, process.
  • Statement 3 is correct since the training program is described as a means to build capacity for democratic governance and uphold the rule of law.

UGC launches new website, UTSAH and PoP portals to promote quality education

Syllabus:Governance

  • The University Grants Commission (UGC) has unveiled several major initiatives to strengthen the quality of higher education in India, including a revamped official website, the UTSAH (Undertaking Transformative Strategies and Actions in Higher Education) Portal, and the Professor of Practice (PoP) Portal.
  • These initiatives mark a significant milestone in the UGC’s efforts to align with the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and to promote excellence in academic institutions across the country.

 

 

Overview of the Initiatives

  • UGC’s New Website:The upgraded UGC website is designed to be more user-friendly and informative, featuring categorized content tailored for students, faculty, and universities. It also includes a dedicated section on the National Education Policy 2020, reflecting the UGC’s long-term vision for transforming higher education in India.
  • UTSAH Portal:The UTSAH Portal serves as a centralized platform offering detailed insights into UGC’s initiatives aimed at qualitative reforms in higher education. It covers key areas such as curriculum enhancement, faculty development, research initiatives, and student support services.
  • Professor of Practice (PoP) Portal:In line with the NEP 2020, the PoP Portal is a groundbreaking initiative that enables institutions to engage with industry and domain experts for academic roles. Professionals from various disciplines can register on the portal, providing their credentials, expertise, and preferred modes of engagement. Universities can post advertisements for PoP roles and access a database of eligible candidates to bring practical, real-world knowledge into classrooms.

 

 

Key Features of the Initiatives

  • UGC Website: Simplified interface with structured content for different stakeholders.
  • UTSAH Portal: Focuses on policy-driven educational reforms across core academic areas.
  • PoP Portal: Bridges academia and industry by facilitating expert appointments in universities.

 

Important Facts for Competitive Exams

  • University Grants Commission (UGC) Founded: 1956
  • UGC Headquarters: New Delhi
  • Preceding Executive: Sukhadeo Thorat
  • These steps by the UGC are aimed at transforming higher education in India by integrating innovation, practical expertise, and policy-driven reforms.

 

With reference to the UTSAH (Undertaking Transformative Strategies and Actions in Higher Education) Portal, consider the following statements:

  1. It serves as a digital platform for real-time academic audits of universities across India.
  2. It aligns with the objectives of the National Education Policy 2020 to drive qualitative reforms.
  3. It primarily focuses on school-level curriculum development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2 only
B.  2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because the UTSAH Portal is not designed for conducting real-time academic audits of universities.
  • Instead, it serves as a platform to provide detailed information on UGC’s initiatives for reforms in higher education.
  • Statement 2 is correct as the portal aligns with the goals of the National Education Policy 2020 by focusing on qualitative improvements in higher education.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect because the portal targets higher education reforms, not school-level curriculum development.

Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) Portal

Syllabus:Governance

 

Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) – Latest Update:

  • Telangana has become the leading state in India for recovering stolen and lost mobile phones through the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) portal.

 

About the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR):

  • The CEIR is a centralized database developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications, aimed at tracking lost or stolen mobile phones across India. It stores the International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) or Electronic Serial Number (ESN) of all mobile devices registered in the country.

 

 

IMEI Number:

  • A unique 15-digit identifier assigned to every mobile handset, linked to the registered service provider.
  • Tracking Mechanism: Users can report and track lost or stolen phones by submitting the IMEI number along with a copy of the FIR on the CEIR portal.
  • Network Support: The CEIR system integrates all telecom operators, enabling cross-network tracking and notification about blacklisted devices. This ensures the device can be tracked even if the SIM card is changed.

 

Types of Lists in CEIR Database

  • White List: Contains authorized IMEI numbers allowed to access cellular networks.
  • Grey List: Contains authorized IMEIs under observation for suspicious activity.
  • Black List: Contains unauthorized IMEI numbers that are blocked from network registration.

 

Objectives of CEIR

  • To deter mobile phone theft and curb the sale of fraudulent mobile devices.
  • To protect consumers by creating a centralized system for identifying and blocking lost, stolen, or illegal mobile devices.
  • To enable tracking of mobile phones using IMEI numbers even if SIM cards are swapped or disabled.
  • To build infrastructure for effective mobile tracking services.
  • To access the GSMA global database for verifying device authenticity.
  • To detect and prevent the use of duplicate, cloned, reprogrammed, stolen, or unauthorized mobile devices.

Consider the following statements about the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR):

  1. It is maintained by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  2. CEIR tracks mobile devices using IMEI numbers even if the SIM card is changed.
  3. The Black List in CEIR contains IMEIs that are authorized but under observation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B) 2 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The CEIR is maintained by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Statement 2 is correct.The CEIR system tracks lost or stolen mobile devices using their IMEI numbers, which are unique identifiers assigned to mobile handsets. It can continue tracking the device even if the SIM card is changed, helping to locate stolen or lost phones.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect.The Black List in CEIR contains unauthorized IMEI numbers—devices that are blocked from accessing cellular networks, typically because they are stolen, lost, or counterfeit.The list that contains authorized IMEIs under observation is the Grey List, not the Black List.

SPICED Scheme

Syllabus:Governance

  • The Spices Board, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, has launched the “Sustainability in Spice Sector through Progressive, Innovative and Collaborative Interventions for Export Development (SPICED)” scheme for the financial year 2025–26.

 

About the SPICED Scheme:

  • SPICED is designed to provide financial support aimed at promoting sustainability, innovation, and export growth in India’s spices sector. The scheme focuses on improving productivity in small and large cardamom cultivation, enhancing post-harvest quality, and encouraging the production and export of value-added, GI-tagged, and organic spices. It also seeks to help stakeholders comply with global food safety and phytosanitary standards while strengthening the entire value chain.

 

Key Features of SPICED

  • Supports replanting and rejuvenation of cardamom plantations, development of water resources, and implementation of micro-irrigation.
  • Promotes organic farming and adoption of Good Agricultural Practices (GAP).
  • Provides funding for modern post-harvest infrastructure such as dryers, slicers, dehullers, and grading machines to improve product quality.
  • Offers financial assistance to farmers and Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) for acquiring essential machines like spice polishers, turmeric boilers, mint distillation units, and threshers.
  • Supports the establishment of Spice Incubation Centres and fosters entrepreneurship and product development to boost market access and branding for startups and MSMEs.
  • Focuses on capacity building through training and extension services to equip farmers, Self-Help Groups (SHGs), and FPOs with updated technical knowledge, best practices, and market insights.
  • Facilitates export promotion by assisting eligible exporters with participation in international trade fairs, buyer-seller meets, and market linkage programs, prioritizing first-time applicants and SMEs.

 

Transparency and Monitoring:

  • All scheme activities will be geo-tagged, and real-time information on fund availability, application status, and beneficiary lists will be published on the Spices Board’s website to ensure transparency.

Consider the following statements about the SPICED scheme launched by the Spices Board:

  1. It aims to promote the cultivation and export of only organic spices across India.
  2. The scheme supports infrastructure development including modern dryers and grading machines for post-harvest processing.
  3. Financial assistance under the scheme is available exclusively to exporters with multiple years of experience.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) None of the above

The correct answer is: B) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: The SPICED scheme promotes cultivation and export of value-added, GI-tagged, organic, and other spices. It does not restrict itself to only organic spices across India.
  • Statement 2: The scheme supports infrastructure development including the installation of modern post-harvest machinery like dryers, slicers, dehullers, and grading machines to improve the quality of spices.
  • Statement 3: Financial assistance is not exclusively available to exporters with multiple years of experience. In fact, the scheme gives preference to first-time exporters, small and medium enterprises (SMEs), and farmer producer organizations (FPOs).

Experiential Learning

Syllabus: GS2/Education

Context:

  • India’s current education system necessitates a shift towards experiential learning to remain relevant in a rapidly transforming digital and global landscape.
  • The Evolving Nature of Learning: Humans are inherently designed to learn, yet the modern digital environment has revolutionized access to information.
  • With AI and bots now capable of imparting conceptual understanding, the traditional role of schools—as mere content delivery centers—is increasingly under threat.

 

What is Experiential Learning?

  • Experiential learning is a learner-centered pedagogical approach involving learning through direct experience, reflection, and application. Pioneered by David A. Kolb, this theory emphasizes a cyclical learning process, often represented by the Kolb Learning Cycle: Concrete Experience → Reflective Observation → Abstract Conceptualization → Active Experimentation. Unlike passive methods like rote memorization or lectures, experiential learning emphasizes “learning by doing” and focuses on the process over the outcome.

 

Benefits of Experiential Learning:

  • Enhances critical thinking and problem-solving abilities. Boosts student engagement and intrinsic motivation. Encourages collaboration, communication, and peer learning. Promotes real-world skill development that is transferable across contexts.

 

Challenges in Implementation

  • Requires extensive planning, infrastructure, and trained educators. Difficult to scale in overcrowded or under-resourced classrooms. Student readiness for self-guided learning can vary significantly.

 

Need for Reform in India

  • Indian schools face persistent issues such as infrastructure deficits, teacher shortages, and uneven access, particularly in rural and marginalized areas. The system remains exam-oriented, encouraging rote memorization at the cost of creativity and critical thinking. Advances in neuroscience (e.g., neuroplasticity) affirm the brain’s ability to adapt through diverse, hands-on learning experiences.

 

Global Best Practices

  • Finland: Emphasizes student well-being, minimal academic pressure, and play-based learning in early years. Focus on creativity, problem-solving, and critical thinking.
    Singapore: Renowned for world-leading PISA rankings in maths, reading, and science. Features a rigorous, structured curriculum and high investment in teacher training.
    Japan: Emphasizes discipline, uniformity, and moral education. Students participate in classroom cleaning, fostering responsibility and character development.

 

Conclusion

  • The Indian education system’s limitations are deep-rooted, but not insurmountable. A transformative shift requires policy intervention at the national and state levels, community involvement and awareness, teacher empowerment and training, and integration of technology and innovation. By embracing inclusive, adaptive, and learner-centric reforms, India can create an education system that truly prepares its citizens for the challenges and opportunities of the 21st century.

With reference to the office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

  1. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members by a simple majority vote.
  2. The Constitution prescribes a definite time limit within which the Deputy Speaker must be elected after the general election of the Lok Sabha.
  3. The Deputy Speaker, when presiding over the House, can only exercise a casting vote in case of a tie.
  4. A motion for the removal of the Deputy Speaker requires a special majority of the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha members. While the Constitution (Article 93) mandates that the Lok Sabha choose the Deputy Speaker “as soon as may be,” it does not explicitly prescribe the mode of voting. In practice, the election can be by consensus, voice vote, or simple majority.
  • “simple majority” is broadly accepted as a practical method, but unanimity or voice vote may also occur.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify a fixed time limit for electing the Deputy Speaker after the general election. The phrase “as soon as may be” is open-ended.
  • Statement 3 is correct: When presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the powers of the Speaker and votes only to break a tie (casting vote)
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by an effective majority, i.e., a majority of the total membership of the House excluding vacancies, not necessarily a special majority (which is a higher threshold requiring two-thirds majority).

Niveshak Shivir Initiative

Syllabus:Governance

 

Context

  • On June 1, 2025, the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) launched the pilot edition of Niveshak Shivir, an investor-centric outreach program. Held in Pune, this initiative seeks to promote financial inclusion and facilitate resolution of long-standing issues related to unclaimed dividends and shares.

 

Purpose and Objectives

  • The primary aim of Niveshak Shivir is to empower investors through direct engagement with companies and Registrars and Transfer Agents (RTAs), bypassing bureaucratic hurdles. The initiative provides a one-stop solution for:
  • Recovery of unclaimed dividends and shares held for 6–7 years
  • On-the-spot KYC and nomination updates
  • Redressal of pending investor claims with IEPFA

 

Structure and Implementation

  • Dedicated kiosks operated by participating companies and RTAs form the operational backbone of the Shivir. These counters enable real-time, face-to-face interaction between investors and concerned stakeholders, thereby eliminating intermediaries and enhancing both transparency and grievance redressal efficiency.

 

Significance of the Problem

  • According to IEPFA, India currently holds over ₹1 lakh crore worth of unclaimed shares (over 1.1 billion shares), along with unclaimed dividends totaling ₹6,000 crore. This vast pool of dormant investments underscores the critical need for interventions like Niveshak Shivir, which seek to restore investor access and rights over their financial assets.

 

Strategic Vision and Expansion Plan

  • The Pune event is the first in a series of similar camps planned across cities identified as hubs for unclaimed investments. Future Shivir events will not only facilitate claims processing but also emphasize financial literacy and investor education, thereby strengthening grassroots financial awareness.

 

Technological Advancements

  • In a move to digitize and streamline the investor grievance redressal process, IEPFA plans to launch an integrated portal by August 2025. This portal will provide:
  • Real-time tracking of claims
  • Direct interface with companies and RTAs
  • Automated data validation through integration with PAN, bank databases, and depositories

 

IEPFA’s Broader Commitment

  • The Niveshak Shivir initiative is emblematic of IEPFA’s commitment to building a secure, transparent, and investor-friendly financial ecosystem in India. Through sustained engagement with market participants and targeted outreach programs, the authority aims to elevate the standard of investor protection and empowerment

With reference to the Niveshak Shivir initiative launched in 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a program exclusively implemented by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  2. It provides for direct investor interaction with companies and Registrars and Transfer Agents (RTAs).
  3. The program primarily aims to recover unclaimed dividends and shares lying with private banks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The initiative is launched by IEPFA, not SEBI.
  • Statement 2 is correct: A key feature of the initiative is facilitating direct interaction between investors, companies, and RTAs.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The dividends and shares are not limited to private banks; they pertain to listed entities across sectors.

Interpol Issues 2 Silver Notices

Syllabus: GS3/ Internal security

Context:

  • The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) announced that Interpol has issued its first two Silver Notices against individuals wanted by India.

 

About Interpol:

  • Interpol, officially the International Criminal Police Organization, is an intergovernmental agency founded in 1923 at the International Police Congress in Vienna as the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC). It adopted the name Interpol in 1956. With 196 member countries, including India, Interpol is headquartered in Lyon, France. It serves as the world’s largest organization dedicated to facilitating global police cooperation through its mandate and technical infrastructure for sharing crime-related information internationally.

 

 

Governance Structure:

  • The General Secretariat, led by the Secretary General, manages daily operations to combat various crimes and is staffed by both police officers and civilians. The General Assembly, Interpol’s governing body, meets annually to make strategic decisions. Each member country hosts a National Central Bureau (NCB), staffed by national police officials and typically located within the government ministry responsible for policing, serving as the central contact point for Interpol’s global network.

 

India and Interpol:

  • India joined Interpol in 1949. The CBI functions as India’s NCB, coordinating international police cooperation through Interpol channels. India hosted the 90th Interpol General Assembly in Delhi in 2022, during which Interpol released its first global crime trend report.

Interpol Notices:

  • Interpol Notices are international alerts issued by the General Secretariat at the request of member countries’ NCBs. These notices facilitate cooperation by sharing critical crime-related information among member states.

 

Silver Notices:

  • Introduced in January 2025 during a pilot phase involving 51 countries and territories, the Silver Notice is a new color-coded alert focused on tracking assets linked to wanted criminals worldwide. Each participating country is permitted to publish up to nine Silver Notices under this program

Consider the following statements about Interpol:

  1. Interpol was originally established as the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC).
  2. The General Assembly of Interpol meets biennially to decide its policies and governance.
  3. The National Central Bureau (NCB) in each member country acts as the main liaison between the country’s law enforcement and Interpol’s General Secretariat.
  4. India’s Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) functions as the NCB for Interpol in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Interpol was originally established as the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC).
  • Interpol was founded in 1923 as the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC) before it adopted the name Interpol in 1956.
  • The General Assembly of Interpol meets biennially to decide its policies and governance.
  • The General Assembly is Interpol’s supreme governing body, but it meets annually, not biennially.
  • The National Central Bureau (NCB) in each member country acts as the main liaison between the country’s law enforcement and Interpol’s General Secretariat.
  • The NCB serves as the crucial point of contact, facilitating cooperation and communication between Interpol and national law enforcement.
  • India’s Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) functions as the NCB for Interpol in India.True. The CBI is designated as the NCB for India, coordinating all Interpol-related activities within the country.

India has initiated the process to develop Electric Hansa (E-Hansa), a next-generation two-seater electric trainer aircraft: Dr Jitendra Singh

Syllabus:Governance

  • In a high-level review chaired by Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, India highlighted major advancements in green aviation, space exploration, and the broader science and technology landscape.

 

E-HANSA: India’s First Indigenous Electric Aircraft

  • India is developing the Electric Hansa (E-HANSA), a next-generation two-seater electric trainer aircraft.Developed by CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL), Bengaluru, it is priced around ₹2 crore, nearly half the cost of comparable imported trainers.It is part of the HANSA-3 NG program, contributing to India’s green aviation and clean energy goals.

Technology Commercialization and Public-Private Partnerships

  • The National Research Development Corporation (NRDC) will adopt successful models from BIRAC and IN-SPACe to promote technology transfer.
    Focus areas include hub-and-spoke PPP models, AI-powered tech and IP exchange platforms, and regional National Technology Transfer Offices (NTTOs).
    Efforts are aimed at standardizing tech transfer protocols and improving ease of doing business.A global perspective rooted in the philosophy of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam was emphasized.

 

ISRO Recognized for Key Achievements

  • ISRO was praised for the SPADEX mission, which demonstrated docking and undocking technology essential for the upcoming Gaganyaan human spaceflight.
    It also played a major role in Operation Sindoor and is collaborating with 40 central ministries and 28 state governments.As part of the Axiom Space Mission, Group Captain Subhash Shukla will carry out seven microgravity experiments aboard the International Space Station.

 

Whole-of-Science, Whole-of-Government Vision

  • Aligned with Prime Minister Modi’s Viksit Bharat vision, Dr. Singh called for integrated planning through region-wise Chintan Shivirs.These strategic sessions will include departments such as DST, DBT, CSIR, ISRO, Earth Sciences, and Atomic Energy to ensure holistic coordination.

 

Global Collaboration and Science Talent Exchange

  • A proposal was made for a Global Science Talent Bridge to attract leading international researchers.CSIR labs, recently opened to students, received an overwhelming response and will reopen soon after temporary security-related suspension.New science collaboration centers are being explored with countries like Switzerland and Italy, building on the models of the Indo-French and Indo-German Science Centres.

 

Key Attendees

  • The meeting was attended by top scientific leaders including Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood (Principal Scientific Advisor), Dr. N. Kalaiselvi (DG and Secretary, CSIR), Dr. V. Narayanan (Chairman, ISRO), and the Secretaries of DST, DBT, Earth Sciences, Atomic Energy, IMD, and NRDC.This strategic review represents a pivotal moment in the transformation of India’s science and innovation ecosystem.

With reference to the E-HANSA aircraft, consider the following statements:

  1. It is India’s first indigenously developed electric trainer aircraft, designed to support the transition to carbon-neutral aviation under the National Green Aviation Mission.
  2. The aircraft was developed by CSIR–NAL and includes onboard AI modules for autonomous flight control and energy optimization.
  3. The E-HANSA project complements the UDAN scheme by enabling cost-effective pilot training in underserved regions.
  4. The aircraft uses lithium-sulphur battery technology, which offers higher energy density and lower weight compared to conventional lithium-ion batteries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct:E-HANSA is indeed India’s first indigenously developed electric trainer aircraft, intended to promote sustainable aviation. Though there is no official “National Green Aviation Mission,” its development aligns with broader green and clean energy initiatives.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect:There is no public documentation confirming the presence of AI-based autonomous flight systems in E-HANSA. It is primarily a manually piloted trainer aircraft.
  • Statement 3 is correct: E-HANSA supports affordable pilot training and could help extend aviation access in line with the UDAN scheme, which targets regional connectivity.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: E-HANSA currently uses lithium-ion batteries, not lithium-sulphur. Lithium-sulphur technology is still in experimental stages and not yet deployed in this aircraft.

NAMASTE Yojana

Syllabus :GS 2/Welfare Schemes

  • A special event was recently held in Madhya Pradesh to spotlight the National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) scheme.

 

About NAMASTE Yojana:

  • Launched in July 2023 through collaboration between the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, the NAMASTE scheme is designed to promote the safety and dignity of sanitation workers across urban India.
  • The scheme emphasizes the prevention of hazardous cleaning practices by promoting the use of trained and certified sanitation workers who follow safe cleaning protocols. It seeks to enhance occupational safety through capacity building and by improving access to personal protective equipment (PPE), safety devices, and mechanized cleaning machines.

Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG)

Syllabus:Science

 

Latest News:

  • India has detected one case of the newly emerging COVID-19 variant NB.1.8.1 and four cases of the LF.7 variant, as reported by the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG).

About INSACOG:

  • The Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) was established in December 2020 by the Government of India. It is a collaborative initiative involving the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), the Council for Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

 

Structure & Function:

  • Comprises a network of 54 laboratories across India.
  • Conducts genomic surveillance of SARS-CoV-2 through sentinel sequencing, coordinated by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) in Delhi.
  • Integrated with the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP).

 

Evolving Mandate:

  • Initially focused on tracking variants among international travellers, INSACOG now emphasizes early detection of variants emerging within India and monitoring unusual epidemiological trends.

 

Key Objectives:

  • Early identification of SARS-CoV-2 variants of public health concern through nationwide genomic surveillance.
  • Detection of variants in special scenarios such as vaccine breakthrough infections, super spreader events, and areas with high morbidity or mortality.
  • Integration of genomic data with epidemiological insights.
  • Recommending public health interventions based on surveillance findings.

 

Significance:

  • INSACOG’s work helps to uncover links between emerging variants and outbreaks, guiding strategies to interrupt transmission chains and strengthen the nation’s public health response.

With reference to the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG), consider the following statements:

  1. INSACOG was jointly established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Indian Council of Medical Research to study the immunological response of COVID-19 vaccines in high-risk populations.
  2. It functions under the coordination of the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) and focuses exclusively on variants found in international travellers.
  3. One of the key mandates of INSACOG is to integrate genomic surveillance data with epidemiological trends to inform public health interventions.
  4. INSACOG includes over 50 laboratories across India and utilizes sentinel surveillance as part of its genomic monitoring strategy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: INSACOG was established not to study vaccine immunology but to monitor genomic variations in SARS-CoV-2. It was initiated by the Ministry of Health along with DBT, CSIR, and ICMR.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Although it initially focused on international travellers, its mandate has evolved to include domestic variant detection and integration with epidemiological trends.
  • Statement 3 is correct: INSACOG does integrate genomic data with epidemiological surveillance to guide public health actions.
  • Statement 4 is correct: INSACOG comprises 54 laboratories and uses sentinel surveillance for tracking genomic variants.

Tianwen-2 Mission

Syllabus:Defence

  • China is preparing to launch Tianwen-2, a landmark asteroid exploration mission aimed at advancing its deep-space capabilities and scientific understanding of near-Earth objects.

 

Mission Overview

  • Agency: China National Space Administration (CNSA)
  • Launch Vehicle: Long March 3B
  • Launch Site: Xichang Satellite Launch Centre, Sichuan Province
  • Mission Objective: To survey and return samples from near-Earth asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa, followed by a secondary mission to the main asteroid belt to study comet 311P/PANSTARRS.

 

Asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa

  • Discovered in 2016 by the Pan-STARRS 1 telescope (Haleakalā Observatory, Hawaii).
  • Classified as a quasi-satellite of Earth: although it orbits the Sun, it remains gravitationally influenced by Earth.
  • Exhibits an elliptical solar orbit that makes it appear to alternate between leading and trailing Earth.
  • Estimated to have occupied its current orbital configuration for ~100 years, and may persist for another ~300 years—though such orbits are inherently unstable.

 

Sampling Strategy

  • Employs a “touch-and-go” technique for sample retrieval:
  • Spacecraft descends briefly to the asteroid surface.
  • A burst of gas or a small projectile dislodges surface particles, which are collected in a sample capsule.
  • A backup method, termed “anchor-and-attach”, involves robotic arms drilling into the asteroid to extract subsurface material.

 

The Tianwen Series

  • Tianwen-1 (2020): China’s first interplanetary mission, successfully deploying an orbiter, lander, and rover on Mars. The rover operated until 2022.
  • Tianwen-2: Targeting asteroid and comet studies with a sample return component.
  • Tianwen-3 (Projected: 2028): Aimed at returning samples from Mars, potentially making China the second country after the USA to achieve this feat.

With reference to China’s upcoming Tianwen-2 Mission, consider the following statements:

  1. The mission targets both a near-Earth asteroid and a trans-Neptunian object for exploration and sample collection.
  2. Kamo‘oalewa, the asteroid targeted by Tianwen-2, is unique due to its classification as a quasi-satellite of Earth, meaning it temporarily orbits Earth before moving into heliocentric orbit.
  3. Tianwen-2 will employ both “touch-and-go” and “anchor-and-attach” techniques to extract surface and subsurface material from the asteroid.
  4. The Tianwen series marks the first time China has undertaken sample return missions beyond Earth’s orbit.

        Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

 

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect – Tianwen-2 will study a near-Earth asteroid (Kamo‘oalewa) and a comet in the main asteroid belt (311P/PANSTARRS), not a trans-Neptunian object.
  • Statement 2: Correct – Kamo‘oalewa is classified as a quasi-satellite; it orbits the Sun but stays gravitationally close to Earth. It does not orbit Earth directly.
  • Statement 3: Correct – Both the “touch-and-go” and a backup “anchor-and-attach” method are planned for sampling.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect – China has already carried out a planetary mission with Tianwen-1 to Mars, but Tianwen-2 will be its first interplanetary sample return mission, not the first beyond Earth’s orbit generally.

WHO Recognises 4 Nations for Trans Fat Elimination

Syllabus:Health

Context:

  • The World Health Organization (WHO) has recognized Austria, Norway, Oman, and

 

 

Singapore for successfully eliminating industrially produced trans fats from their national food supplies, setting a benchmark in public health policy.

  • Understanding Trans Fats – Definition: Trans-fatty acids (TFAs) are a type of unsaturated fat.
  • They occur in two forms: Naturally Occurring Trans Fats: Found in small quantities in red meat and dairy products.
  • Industrially Produced Trans Fats: Created during hydrogenation, a chemical process that converts liquid vegetable oils into solid fats (e.g., partially hydrogenated oils or PHOs).
  • Common Sources: Processed & fried foods (biscuits, cakes, vanaspati ghee), baked goods (pies, pastries, prepackaged dough), and cooking fats (shortening, stick margarine).
  • Health Risks Associated with Trans Fats – Cardiovascular Disease: Increases LDL (bad cholesterol), decreases HDL (good cholesterol), leads to arterial plaque buildup and atherosclerosis, increasing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
  • Metabolic Disorders: Contributes to obesity due to high energy density (9 kcal/g), and prolonged consumption impairs insulin sensitivity, leading to type 2 diabetes.
  • Global Burden: WHO (2024) estimates 278,000 deaths annually from trans-fat consumption, accounting for ~7% of cardiovascular-related deaths globally.
  • Policy Interventions – WHO Global Strategy (2018): Aims to eliminate industrial trans fats globally by 2025, targeting 90% global and 70% regional population coverage with best-practice policies.
  • India’s Regulatory Framework: FSSAI Regulation (2021) mandates edible oils and fats to contain less than 2% trans fats, effective from January 2022, aligning with WHO guidelines.

 

Conclusion:

  • Eliminating industrial trans fats is a critical public health intervention that significantly reduces non-communicable disease burdens.
  • WHO’s recognition highlights the importance of regulatory enforcement, intergovernmental collaboration, and public engagement in creating a trans-fat-free food environment.

Which of the following statements about industrially produced trans fats is/are correct?

  1. They are formed through the hydrogenation process which converts liquid oils into solid fats.
  2. They occur naturally in small quantities in red meat and dairy products.
  3. Partially hydrogenated oils (PHOs) are a major source of industrial trans fats.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: “They are formed through the hydrogenation process which converts liquid oils into solid fats. “This is correct. Industrially produced trans fats are primarily created through partial hydrogenation, a chemical process that turns liquid vegetable oils into semi-solid or solid fats.
  • Statement 2: “They occur naturally in small quantities in red meat and dairy products.”This statement refers to naturally occurring trans fats, not industrially produced ones. Therefore, this is incorrect in the context of industrially produced trans fats.
  • Statement 3: “Partially hydrogenated oils (PHOs) are a major source of industrial trans fats.”This is correct as a fact, but the question asks which statements about industrially produced trans fats are correct. PHOs are the source of industrial trans fats, so the statement is factually true. However, because the second statement incorrectly attributes natural trans fats to industrially produced trans fats, the combination including statement 2 is invalid.

Niallia tiangongensis

Syllabus:Science

  • Chinese scientists have identified a new bacterial species, Niallia tiangongensis, onboard the Tiangong Space Station, highlighting the station’s growing role in space-based microbiological and scientific research.

 

About Tiangong Space Station:

  • Name Meaning: “Tiangong” translates to Sky Palace.
  • Operator: Exclusively Chinese-owned and operated.
  • Orbit: Permanently crewed space station in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
  • Program Milestone: Represents the third and final phase of China’s Manned Space Program.

 

Launch Timeline:

  • Core Module (Tianhe): Launched in April 2021.
  • Followed earlier prototypes Tiangong-1 and Tiangong-2.

 

Structure and Capacity:

Modules:

  • Tianhe (core)
  • Wentian and Mengtian (science labs)
  • Future addition: Xuntian space telescope (planned).

 

Size Comparison:

  • Tiangong has 3 modules 16 on the ISS.
  • Roughly 20% the mass of the ISS (Tiangong ≈ 90 tons vs. ISS ≈ 450 tons).

 

Crew:

  • Supports 3 astronauts for 6-month missions.
  • Can host 6 astronauts during crew transitions.

 

Objectives:

  • Maintain a long-term orbital presence.
  • Ensure astronaut health and safety over extended missions.
  • Enable advanced scientific and technological experiments in microgravity.

 

Research Capabilities:

  • Functions as an in-orbit laboratory.
  • Equipped with 23 internal experiment racks across disciplines such as:
  • Space life sciences & biotechnology
  • Microgravity fluid physics & combustion
  • Space-based materials science
  • Fundamental physics under microgravity
  • Supports external, unpressurised experimental platforms for space environment exposure.
  • This discovery underscores Tiangong’s increasing contribution to global space science, especially in microbiology and biotechnology research in extraterrestrial environments.

With reference to Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD), consider the following statements:

  1. The heritability estimate for ASD, as per contemporary research, exceeds 80%, suggesting a stronger genetic component than environmental triggers.
  2. While ASD typically manifests before the age of three, it is often underdiagnosed in early childhood due to socio-cultural biases and limited clinical infrastructure, especially in developing regions.
  3. The hypothesis linking vaccines to autism originated from a peer-reviewed study that was later substantiated through meta-analyses involving multiple global health agencies.
  4. Though classical Ayurvedic texts by Charaka and Sushruta do not identify ASD per se, their diagnostic frameworks acknowledged neurodevelopmental anomalies under conditions such as “Unmada” and “Apasmara”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: Studies like Tick et al. (JAMA, 2016) have estimated ASD heritability to be as high as 91%, indicating a strong genetic basis.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: In many countries, especially in resource-limited or culturally stigmatized environments, ASD remains underdiagnosed in early years.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: The vaccine-autism link originated from a fraudulent study by Andrew Wakefield in 1998, which was later retracted. Multiple large-scale studies and reviews (e.g., WHO, CDC, Lancet) have conclusively refuted this hypothesis.
  • Statement 4 – Correct: While ancient texts did not describe ASD in modern clinical terms, certain conditions like Unmada (mental imbalance) and Apasmara (epileptic-like conditions) may reflect rudimentary recognitions of neurodevelopmental disorders.

Liquid Carbon

Syllabus:Chemistry

 

Overview:

  • For the first time, scientists have successfully observed the atomic structure of liquid carbon, using advanced techniques involving the DIPOLE 100-X high-power laser and ultrashort X-ray pulses from the European XFEL (X-ray Free Electron Laser) in Germany. This marks a significant milestone in high-energy material science and planetary physics.

 

What Is Liquid Carbon?

  • Liquid carbon refers to the transient molten phase of carbon, which exists only under extreme conditions of temperature (~4500°C) and pressure. Under normal circumstances, carbon exists as:
  • Solid allotropes (e.g., graphite, diamond)
  • Gaseous compounds (e.g., CO₂)
  • This liquid phase is crucial for:
  • Modelling carbon-rich exoplanetary cores
  • Understanding high-energy astrophysical environments
  • Investigating material behavior under extreme laser interactions, relevant to nuclear fusion research

 

Why Is It Challenging to Study?

  • Unlike many elements, carbon sublimates at normal atmospheric pressure—directly transitioning from solid to gas—making it virtually impossible to study its liquid form in a laboratory. Additionally:
  • It forms only under intense pressures and temperatures
  • No conventional containment system can withstand these conditions
  • The liquid state exists for mere nanoseconds, requiring ultrafast diagnostic tools

 

Experimental Technique

  • To overcome these barriers:
  • The DIPOLE 100-X laser generated shock compression waves, briefly converting solid carbon into liquid
  • Within a billionth of a second, European XFEL’s X-ray pulses diffracted off the sample’s atoms
  • The resulting X-ray diffraction patterns revealed the atomic structure
  • Repeating the experiment at varying intervals enabled a time-resolved sequence or “movie” of the solid-to-liquid transition

 

Key Discoveries

  • Structure: Liquid carbon exhibits a tetrahedral configuration—with four nearest atomic neighbors—resembling solid diamond
  • Validation: The findings confirmed theoretical predictions and provided a precise estimate of carbon’s melting point under high-pressure conditions

 

Implications

  • Planetary Science: Enhances understanding of deep planetary interiors, especially carbon-rich exoplanets and early Earth models
  • Fusion Research: Informs the design of carbon-based materials used in extreme-temperature environments, such as fusion reactors
  • Fundamental Physics: Contributes to the broader understanding of phase transitions in high-energy-density systems

Which of the following factors make experimental observation of liquid carbon uniquely difficult?

  1. Its liquid phase exists only at extremely high pressure and temperature.
  2. Its rapid vaporization causes interference with optical diagnostics.
  3. Conventional laboratory containers cannot withstand the required experimental conditions.
  4. It has a permanent liquid phase in the upper mantle of the Earth.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Answer:A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct – liquid carbon forms only under extreme conditions.
  • Statement 2 is plausible due to rapid phase change causing diagnostic challenges.
  • Statement 3 is correct.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect—carbon does not exist in a liquid state in the Earth’s mantle due to insufficient pressure-temperature conditions.

Intercrystals

Syllabus:Chemistry

  • Researchers at Rutgers University–New Brunswick have discovered a new class of materials called intercrystals, which exhibit unique electronic properties with potential applications in future technologies.

 

What Are Intercrystals?

  • Intercrystals are formed by stacking two layers of twisted graphene on top of hexagonal boron nitride (h-BN), producing moiré patterns that profoundly influence electron behavior. This design leverages the concept of “twistronics,” where ultrathin atomic layers are slightly rotated to create moiré superlattices. The misalignment between these layers gives rise to new electronic phases not observed in conventional crystals. This discovery builds on the team’s earlier work from 2009, which first demonstrated the unusual electronic properties of twisted graphene.

 

Structural Properties of Intercrystals

  • Regular crystals have repeating atomic arrangements with symmetry under certain translations or rotations.
  • Quasicrystals, identified in 1982, possess ordered but non-repeating atomic structures, challenging classical crystallography.
  • Intercrystals blend these characteristics by exhibiting non-repeating atomic patterns like quasicrystals, yet preserving some crystalline symmetries. This unique structure creates geometric frustration, enabling the emergence of novel quantum phases.

 

Unique Electronic Characteristics:

  • In intercrystals, electronic properties vary significantly even with slight structural changes, a feature uncommon in traditional materials. They exhibit new quantum phenomena, including superconductivity (where electrical resistance drops to zero), magnetism, and other exotic quantum electronic states.

Consider the following statements about intercrystals:

  1. Intercrystals are formed by stacking twisted layers of graphene on hexagonal boron nitride (h-BN), resulting in moiré superlattices that modify electron behavior.
  2. Intercrystals exhibit a completely repeating atomic pattern similar to regular crystals but differ in their electronic properties.
  3. The phenomenon underlying intercrystals, known as twistronics, exploits the relative angular rotation between atomic layers to induce novel quantum phases such as superconductivity and magnetism.
  4. Quasicrystals and intercrystals both display non-repeating atomic arrangements, but only intercrystals retain some crystalline symmetries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct — intercrystals are formed by stacking twisted graphene on h-BN, producing moiré patterns.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect — intercrystals do not have completely repeating atomic patterns; they exhibit non-repeating patterns like quasicrystals.
  • Statement 3 is correct — twistronics involves angular rotation between layers to induce novel quantum phases like superconductivity and magnetism.
  • Statement 4 is correct — both quasicrystals and intercrystals have non-repeating atomic arrangements, but intercrystals preserve certain crystalline symmetries, unlike quasicrystals.

What are TR1 Cells?

Syllabus:ScienceBottom of Form

  • Recent scientific research has uncovered critical insights into the immune system’s response to malaria, spotlighting a previously underappreciated subset of immune cells known as TR1 cells.
  • Published in April 2025, the study emphasizes the pivotal role these cells play in orchestrating an effective immune defence against Plasmodium falciparum, the parasite responsible for the most severe form of malaria.
  • These findings carry profound implications for the development of next-generation vaccines and may reshape strategies for combating other persistent infectious diseases.
  • The human immune system comprises two principal arms—innate and adaptive immunity. Innate immunity offers immediate, non-specific protection, whereas adaptive immunity generates a targeted response and retains immunological memory, enabling a more robust reaction upon subsequent exposures to the same pathogen.
  • Within this adaptive framework, CD4+ T-cells are central players, further divided into multiple functional subsets, including helper T-cells that assist in activating B-cells and other immune mechanisms.
  • The research particularly focused on TR1 cells, a lesser-known subset of CD4+ T-cells, revealing their integral role in malaria immunity.
  • Conducted in Uganda, a region with endemic malaria transmission, the study examined children with repeated malaria infections.
  • Despite constituting only a small fraction of the total CD4+ T-cell population, TR1 cells were found to contribute significantly to the immune response.
  • The research employed cutting-edge methodologies, including single-cell RNA sequencing, enabling precise tracking of T-cell genetic barcodes over time.
  • This allowed researchers to monitor the expansion, longevity, and memory potential of TR1 cells during and after malaria episodes.
  • The longitudinal design of the study offered valuable insights into how TR1 cells respond dynamically and specifically to the malaria parasite. A key revelation was that TR1 cells exhibit robust long-term memory and sustain their functionality across successive infections.
  • Unlike other T-cell subsets, these cells demonstrated expansion upon reinfection, underscoring their specificity and adaptability in recognizing and responding to the pathogen.
  • The discovery opens new avenues for vaccine development, as targeting TR1 cells could enhance the effectiveness of immune responses elicited by immunization.
  • Rather than directly targeting the parasite, future vaccines and therapies might instead modulate the immune system by stimulating these highly responsive cells.
  • Beyond malaria, the insights derived from studying TR1 cells may inform immunological approaches to a broader range of infectious diseases.
  • The ability of TR1 cells to maintain memory and adaptability across multiple infections makes them a promising target for therapeutic interventions aimed at bolstering host immunity against complex pathogens.

With reference to TR1 cells recently studied in the context of malaria, consider the following statements:

  1. TR1 cells are a subset of CD8+ T-cells that mediate cytotoxic responses in malaria infections.
  2. TR1 cells exhibit immunological memory and expand upon reinfection with Plasmodium falciparum.
  3. The function of TR1 cells was discovered using gene-editing techniques like CRISPR-Cas9.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: TR1 cells are a subset of CD4+ T-cells, not CD8+.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The study found that TR1 cells exhibit memory and expand on reinfection.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The study used single-cell RNA sequencing, not CRISPR-Cas9.

Coal Sector in India: A Strategic Engine for Sustainable Growth and Global Leadership

Syllabus: GS3/Energy

Importance and Current Status

  • Coal has been the cornerstone of India’s energy sector, powering industries, electricity generation, and fueling economic growth
  • India ranks as the world’s 5th largest coal reserve holder and 2nd largest consumer. Despite the rise of renewables, coal remains critical—currently constituting about 47% of India’s installed power capacity, down from 60% in 2014–15.
  • In FY25, both production and dispatch of coal crossed the 1 billion tonne mark, underscoring its continued significance for energy security and cost-effective power supply.
  • The sector supports over 5 lakh workers across more than 350 coal mines,  contributing substantially to employment and regional economies.

 

 

Strategic Significance

  • Energy Security: Coal generates nearly 47% of India’s electricity, with projections estimating it will still provide about 55% of power by 2030.
  • Industrial Backbone: The steel industry, reliant on coking coal, is poised to ramp up domestic coking coal production to 140 million tonnes by 2029–30 under the Mission Coking Coal initiative.
  • Economic Impact: Coal mining contributes over ₹70,000 crore annually via royalties, GST, and District Mineral Foundation funds.
  • Transport Revenues: Indian Railways derive 49% of their freight revenue from coal transport (FY 2022–23).
  • CSR and Community Development: Coal Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) invest over ₹600 crore annually in social initiatives including schools, hospitals, and skill centers in mining regions.

 

Geographical and Geological Profile

  • Gondwana Coal: About 98% of Indian coal reserves belong to the Gondwana formation, spread across Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, and others.
  • Major Coalfields: Key coal mining regions include the Damodar Valley (Jharia, Bokaro, Dhanbad), Son Valley (Singrauli), Mahanadi Valley (Korba, Talcher), Godavari and Wardha Valleys (Telangana, Maharashtra).
  • Coal Types: India’s coal ranges from anthracite (scarce), bituminous (most common, mainly for power), sub-bituminous (higher heating value), to lignite (low grade, used near mines).

 

Challenges Facing the Sector

  • Supply Constraints: Domestic production stagnation, transport bottlenecks, and reduced imports have occasionally led to coal shortages and power crises.
  • Environmental Concerns: Deforestation, air pollution, and carbon emissions pose sustainability challenges. Transition to cleaner coal technologies like gasification remains gradual.
  • Import Dependency: Despite large reserves, India still imports coal, making it vulnerable to global price volatility.
  • Infrastructure Bottlenecks: Overreliance on railways for coal transport causes congestion and delays.
  • Social Issues: Coal mining employs hundreds of thousands but struggles with worker safety, displacement, and inadequate rehabilitation.

 

Recent Reforms and Innovations

  • Commercial Coal Mining (2020): Opening coal mining to private players through auctions increased competition, production, and employment.
  • Coal Mines Special Provisions Act (CMSP Act 2015): Introduced transparent auctions after Supreme Court cancellations of allocations, boosting private participation.
  • SHAKTI Policy (2025 revision): Enhances flexibility and accessibility in coal allocation to meet rising energy demand.
  • Single Window E-Auction: Streamlines coal sales, ensuring fair pricing and reducing market distortions.
  • Revival of Abandoned Mines: Incentivizes private sector reopening of closed mines with a focus on environmental sustainability.
  • Underground Mining Push: Offers incentives to encourage private investment and advanced mining technologies underground.
  • Coal Gasification Drive: Targets gasifying 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030 to reduce carbon footprint, backed by fiscal support.
  • Digital Transformation: Launch of India’s first coal trading exchange, alongside the DigiCoal initiative integrating AI, 5G, drones, and digital twins for safer, efficient mining operations.
  • Future Vision: Viksit Bharat 2047:India aims to increase per capita electricity consumption from 1.10 MWh to global standards by 2047, supporting the vision of becoming a $35 trillion economy.
  • Coal will continue to play a pivotal role alongside growing renewable energy capacity, ensuring reliable, affordable, and sustainable energy access to power India’s development journey.

Consider the following statements regarding Medium Enterprises (MEs) in India’s MSME sector:

  1. Medium enterprises constitute less than 1% of registered MSMEs but contribute nearly 40% of MSME exports.
  2. Around 82% of medium enterprises have adopted advanced technologies such as AI and IoT, boosting their global competitiveness.
  3. Medium enterprises generate significantly higher foreign exchange per unit compared to micro and small enterprises.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct:Medium enterprises make up just 3% of registered MSMEs but contribute nearly 40% of MSME exports, highlighting their strategic importance in international trade.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect:Contrary to the claim, around 82% of medium enterprises have not adopted advanced technologies such as AI, IoT, or digital automation. This lack of tech integration hampers their productivity and global competitiveness.
  • Statement 3 – Correct:Medium enterprises generate significantly higher foreign exchange per unit (₹95 crore) compared to small (₹8.3 crore) and micro (₹1.39 crore) units.

Mendel’s Work with Laws of Inheritance

Syllabus: GS3/Science and Technology

Context:

  • A recent international research collaboration has significantly advanced pea genome mapping, offering critical insights for crop improvement and reinforcing the foundations of classical genetics laid by Gregor Mendel.

 

About the Study:

  • Published in Nature, the study is a joint effort by the John Innes Centre (JIC) and the Chinese Academy of Agricultural Sciences (CAAS), along with institutions from the UK, USA, France, and China. It connects over 70 agronomic traits with corresponding genomic loci, providing a rich resource for genome-assisted breeding.

 

Key Contributions:

  • The team identified numerous genetic markers for each trait, enabling precision breeding to enhance yield, disease resistance, and agronomic performance.
  • The work revisits and validates several of Mendel’s original seven traits, revealing new genetic diversity and deepening our understanding of inheritance.

 

Significance:

  • The findings come amid a global push for sustainable agriculture and plant-based protein sources.
  • Peas, like other legumes, contribute to environmental sustainability by fixing atmospheric nitrogen, reducing dependence on synthetic fertilizers.
  • The study facilitates predictive breeding, integrating AI-driven models to identify optimal gene combinations, thereby modernizing traditional breeding techniques.

 

Mendel’s Historic Contribution:

  • Gregor Mendel, regarded as the father of genetics, conducted pioneering work on Pisum sativum (pea plant) over 150 years ago. He focused on seven distinct traits, including seed shape and flower color, due to their clear expression and inheritance patterns.

 

Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance:

  • Law of Segregation: Each parent contributes one allele for a trait; alleles segregate during gamete formation.
  • Law of Independent Assortment: Genes for different traits assort independently if located on different chromosomes.
  • Law of Dominance: In heterozygous conditions, the dominant allele masks the expression of the recessive allele.

 

Conclusion:

  • Mendel’s discoveries, initially unrecognized, were rediscovered in 1900 and have since become the cornerstone of classical genetics. This genomic study builds on Mendel’s legacy, demonstrating how modern genetic tools can enhance agricultural sustainability and food security in the 21st century.

Consider the following statements regarding recent research in pea genomics:

  1. The study was a collaboration exclusively between UK and Chinese institutions.
  2. The research connected over 70 agronomic traits with specific genomic loci.
  3. The study holds significance for sustainable agriculture due to the nitrogen-fixing ability of peas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:(b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – The research involved institutions from China, UK, USA, and France, not just China and the UK.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct – The research mapped over 70 traits and promotes sustainability by advancing nitrogen-fixing crop development.

Moringa

Syllabus: GS2/ Health

  • The PKM1 variety of Moringa oleifera has gained global attention for its adaptability and benefits, particularly in African nations such as Senegal, Rwanda, and Madagascar.

 

About Moringa (Moringa oleifera)

  • Origin and Distribution:
  • Indigenous to India, especially the Himalayan foothills.
  • Now extensively cultivated across South Asia, Africa, and the tropical zones of Central and South America.

 

Agronomic Characteristics:

  • Grows best in deep sandy loam soils with a pH range of 6.5 to 8.0.
  • Suited to semi-arid and tropical climates, with an ideal temperature range of 25–30°C.
  • Noted for its drought resistance and rapid growth, enabling multiple harvests annually.

 

Medicinal and Health Applications:

  • Revered in Ayurveda for treating over 300 ailments.
  • Possesses anti-inflammatory, antimicrobial, and anti-diabetic properties.
  • Its seeds exhibit coagulating properties, making them effective in water purification.

Pumped Storage Hydropower Syllabus

Syllabus: GS3/ Energy and Infrastructure

Context:

  • The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has identified major private players like Greenko, Adani Green, and JSW Energy to spearhead India’s goal of achieving 24 GW of Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH) capacity by 2032.

What is Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH)?

  • PSH is a hydroelectric energy storage system used for grid load balancing.
    It works by pumping water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir using surplus renewable energy (e.g., solar) during low demand.
  • During peak demand, water is released back down to generate electricity, effectively acting as a renewable energy “battery”.

 

Current Status in India (as of 2024):

  • Installed capacity: < 5 GW
  • Target by 2032:24 GW (across 39 projects)
  • Under construction: ~10 GW (3 GW expected in FY25)

 

Key states:

  • Andhra Pradesh: 16 GW
  • Maharashtra:13GW
    (Together, 57% of future PSH capacity)

Importance of PSH in India:

  • Grid Stability: Crucial for integrating intermittent sources like solar and wind by offering dispatchable, reliable power.
  • Economic Viability: Offers higher Internal Rate of Return (IRR) than standalone solar or wind.
  • Energy Security: Reduces dependence on imported energy storage components.

Matryoshka

Syllabus: GS3/Science and Technology

  • At its 2025 I/O developer conference, Google unveiled AI Matryoshka, a comprehensive AI integration strategy.

 

About AI Matryoshka:

  • AI Matryoshka is Google’s visionary framework that integrates AI models and capabilities throughout its entire digital ecosystem.
  • Inspired by the concept of Russian nesting dolls (Matryoshkas), each AI component is embedded within another, creating a layered system where each level reinforces and enhances the next.
  • This model ensures that AI is deeply embedded into all of Google’s products and services—whether in the cloud, on-device, or at the edge.

 

Significance:

  • Layered Integration: Each AI layer is tightly coupled with others, ensuring coherent, intelligent behavior across devices and platforms.
  • Hardware-Software Synergy: Enables optimal coordination between physical devices and software-based intelligence.
  • Scalability and Specialization: Different layers offer varying levels of specialization, from lightweight on-device models to powerful cloud-based systems.
  • Adaptive Intelligence: The system dynamically shifts between cloud and on-device processing based on task complexity and device capability.
  • Overall, AI Matryoshka represents a shift toward a unified, context-aware AI ecosystem, enabling Google to deliver smarter, more responsive user experiences.

With reference to Google’s AI Matryoshka framework introduced in 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. It is primarily designed for training monolithic AI models on central cloud infrastructure.
  2. It promotes dynamic load shifting between edge devices and cloud-based systems depending on the computational requirements.
  3. It allows multi-level specialization, enabling reusability of AI functions across various layers of the Google ecosystem.
  4. It ensures that all AI processing is exclusively conducted on-device for enhanced privacy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer:B 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because Matryoshka is not limited to monolithic cloud-based AI; it involves modular, layered AI across platforms.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It allows dynamic load shifting based on the complexity and capability of devices.
  • Statement 3 is correct: It promotes reusability and specialization at various levels (edge, cloud, etc.).
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: AI Matryoshka is not exclusive to on-device processing; it includes cloud integration as well.

Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG)

Syllabus:Science

 

Latest News:

  • India has detected one case of the newly emerging COVID-19 variant NB.1.8.1 and four cases of the LF.7 variant, as reported by the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG).

About INSACOG:

  • The Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) was established in December 2020 by the Government of India. It is a collaborative initiative involving the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), the Council for Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

 

Structure & Function:

  • Comprises a network of 54 laboratories across India.
  • Conducts genomic surveillance of SARS-CoV-2 through sentinel sequencing, coordinated by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) in Delhi.
  • Integrated with the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP).

 

Evolving Mandate:

  • Initially focused on tracking variants among international travellers, INSACOG now emphasizes early detection of variants emerging within India and monitoring unusual epidemiological trends.

 

Key Objectives:

  • Early identification of SARS-CoV-2 variants of public health concern through nationwide genomic surveillance.
  • Detection of variants in special scenarios such as vaccine breakthrough infections, super spreader events, and areas with high morbidity or mortality.
  • Integration of genomic data with epidemiological insights.
  • Recommending public health interventions based on surveillance findings.

 

Significance:

  • INSACOG’s work helps to uncover links between emerging variants and outbreaks, guiding strategies to interrupt transmission chains and strengthen the nation’s public health response.

With reference to the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG), consider the following statements:

  1. INSACOG was jointly established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Indian Council of Medical Research to study the immunological response of COVID-19 vaccines in high-risk populations.
  2. It functions under the coordination of the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) and focuses exclusively on variants found in international travellers.
  3. One of the key mandates of INSACOG is to integrate genomic surveillance data with epidemiological trends to inform public health interventions.
  4. INSACOG includes over 50 laboratories across India and utilizes sentinel surveillance as part of its genomic monitoring strategy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: INSACOG was established not to study vaccine immunology but to monitor genomic variations in SARS-CoV-2. It was initiated by the Ministry of Health along with DBT, CSIR, and ICMR.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Although it initially focused on international travellers, its mandate has evolved to include domestic variant detection and integration with epidemiological trends.
  • Statement 3 is correct: INSACOG does integrate genomic data with epidemiological surveillance to guide public health actions.
  • Statement 4 is correct: INSACOG comprises 54 laboratories and uses sentinel surveillance for tracking genomic variants.

Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

Syllabus:Ecology

  • Scientific Name: Ardeotis nigriceps
  • Endemism: Restricted to the Indian subcontinent.

 

 

Habitat & Distribution

  • Prefers arid and semi-arid grasslands and scrublands—ecosystems under increasing threat from agriculture, infrastructure, and industrial development.
  • The core population (~100 individuals) is confined to the Thar Desert, particularly in Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan.
  • The total estimated population in India ranges between 100 and 150 individuals, making it one of the rarest birds in the world.

 

Physical Characteristics

  • Among the heaviest flying birds, adults can weigh up to 15 kg (33 pounds).

 

Distinctive traits:

  • Black crown on the forehead
  • Pale head and neck
  • Brownish body with grey and black wing patterns
  • Resembles an ostrich in general body form with long bare legs and a horizontal stance.
  • Both males and females appear similar in size and morphology.
  • Lifespan: Approximately 12 to 15 years in the wild.
  • Reproduction and Diet
  • Breeding Season: Occurs during the monsoon, with females laying a single egg directly on the bare ground, making nests extremely vulnerable to predation and accidental destruction.

 

Feeding Behaviour: Omnivorous and opportunistic:

  • Grass seeds, berries
  • Insects (e.g., grasshoppers, beetles)
  • Occasionally small reptiles and rodents
  • Conservation Status
  • IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
  • Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I – Provides the highest legal protection under Indian law.
  • CITES: Appendix I Prohibits international trade in specimens, recognizing the species as threatened with extinction.
  • This bird, once widespread across the Indian subcontinent, is now teetering on the brink of extinction. Conservation efforts, including community engagement models like the one Bishnoi championed, are vital for the species’ survival.

With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:

  1. It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and prefers wetland and forested ecosystems.
  2. It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world.
  3. The nesting behavior of the species increases its vulnerability to natural and anthropogenic threats.
  4. Its current core population is largely confined to Rajasthan’s Thar Desert.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 2, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: GIB inhabits arid and semi-arid grasslands, not wetlands or forests.
  • Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct: It is a heavy flying bird, lays eggs directly on the ground (high vulnerability), and is mostly found in Rajasthan’s Thar Desert.

Kakapo

Syllabus:Environment

  • Artificial Insemination to Save the Critically Endangered Kakapo

 

About Kakapo (Strigops habroptilus):

  • Largest flightless parrot, native to New Zealand
  • Nocturnal, herbivorous, and unique lek-breeding species (males display at specific sites)
  • Distinctive owl-like face; moss-green plumage with yellow & black mottling

 

Breeding & Behavior:

  • Breeds infrequently, only in years with abundant native fruits like rimu berries
  • Males dig bowl-shaped depressions to amplify mating calls

 

Threats to Survival:

  • Predation by invasive mammals (rats, stoats, weasels)
  • High infertility and embryo mortality
  • Vulnerable to fungal diseases like aspergillosis

 

Conservation Breakthrough:

  • Successful use of Artificial Insemination (AI) by international research teams
  • Aimed at boosting population and genetic diversity

 

Status:

  • Critically Endangered (IUCN Red List)

Consider the following statements regarding the Kakapo (Strigops habroptilus) and its conservation:

  1. Kakapo is the world’s largest flightless parrot and exhibits lek-breeding behavior, where males perform mating displays at communal sites.
  2. The Kakapo breeds annually, regardless of fruit availability in its habitat.
  3. Major threats to the Kakapo population include invasive mammalian predators and fungal infections like aspergillosis.
  4. Artificial insemination has been successfully implemented to address infertility and boost genetic diversity in Kakapo populations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:
A) 1, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Kakapo is the largest flightless parrot and practices lek-breeding.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Kakapo breeds infrequently, only in years when specific native fruits (like rimu berries) are abundant.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Invasive predators and fungal diseases pose serious threats.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Artificial insemination has been used successfully for conservation.

International Day for Biological Diversity (IDB)

Syllabus:Environment

 

Date and Purpose:

  • Observed annually on May 22, the International Day for Biological Diversity aims to raise global awareness and understanding of biodiversity and the urgent need to protect it.

 

Theme for 2025:

  • The theme for 2025 is “Harmony with nature and sustainable development”, emphasizing the vital connections between biodiversity conservation and the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The day highlights the synergy between the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF), underscoring the importance of advancing both agendas concurrently as part of the broader Pact for the Future.

 

Historical Background:

  • The United Nations initially designated December 29 as the International Day for Biological Diversity in 1993, marking the date the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) came into force. However, in 2000, the UN General Assembly moved the observance to May 22, commemorating the adoption of the CBD text at the Nairobi Final Act in 1992. The date change also addressed practical challenges faced by many countries in celebrating during the holiday season around December 29.

Consider the following statements about the International Day for Biological Diversity (IDB):

  1. It is observed annually on May 22 to commemorate the adoption of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) text.
  2. The original date designated for IDB was December 29, marking the entry into force of the CBD.
  3. The 2025 theme emphasizes the linkage between biodiversity conservation and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
  4. The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) is unrelated to the goals of IDB.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: A) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct as May 22 marks the adoption of the CBD text.
  • Statement 2 is correct; December 29 was the original date, marking the entry into force of the CBD.
  • Statement 3 is correct; the 2025 theme focuses on the connection between biodiversity and SDGs.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect because the KMGBF is closely linked with IDB goals and is part of the global biodiversity agenda.

Stingless Bees

Syllabus: GS3/ Environment

  • A recent study highlights that stingless bees can enhance crop and vegetable yields by up to 29%, offering a sustainable boost to agricultural productivity.

 

About Stingless Bees

  • Stingless bees, though resembling honeybees, lack a functional sting and defend their nests primarily through biting.
  • Like honeybees, they exhibit eusocial behavior—forming structured, perennial colonies composed of a queen, drones, and numerous worker bees.
  • These bees are smaller in size compared to traditional honeybees and are native to tropical regions across India, Africa, Australia, and beyond.
  • In India, they are predominantly found in the Northeastern, Southern, and Eastern states.
  • Scientific domestication efforts for stingless bees began in Nagaland and have since expanded to states like Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh.

 

Significance

  • Stingless bees contribute both ecologically and economically. They are efficient pollinators, significantly improving agricultural yields, while also producing medicinal honey valued for its therapeutic properties, offering farmers both productivity and income benefits.

Consider the following statements regarding stingless bees:

  1. They possess a functional sting but rarely use it for defense.
  2. They exhibit eusocial behavior with distinct castes such as queen, drones, and workers.
  3. They are scientifically domesticated in parts of Northeast India like Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

The correct answer is: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: They possess a functional sting but rarely use it for defense.
    This is incorrect. Stingless bees, as their name suggests, do not have a functional sting. Instead of stinging, they defend their nests by biting attackers.
  • Statement 2: They exhibit eusocial behavior with distinct castes such as queen, drones, and workers.This is correct. Stingless bees are eusocial insects, living in organized colonies with queens, drones (males), and worker bees.
  • Statement 3: They are scientifically domesticated in parts of Northeast India like Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.This is correct. Scientific domestication of stingless bees has been carried out in Nagaland and extended to Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh.

Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

Syllabus:Ecology

  • Scientific Name: Ardeotis nigriceps
  • Endemism: Restricted to the Indian subcontinent.

 

 

Habitat & Distribution

  • Prefers arid and semi-arid grasslands and scrublands—ecosystems under increasing threat from agriculture, infrastructure, and industrial development.
  • The core population (~100 individuals) is confined to the Thar Desert, particularly in Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan.
  • The total estimated population in India ranges between 100 and 150 individuals, making it one of the rarest birds in the world.

 

Physical Characteristics

  • Among the heaviest flying birds, adults can weigh up to 15 kg (33 pounds).

 

Distinctive traits:

  • Black crown on the forehead
  • Pale head and neck
  • Brownish body with grey and black wing patterns
  • Resembles an ostrich in general body form with long bare legs and a horizontal stance.
  • Both males and females appear similar in size and morphology.
  • Lifespan: Approximately 12 to 15 years in the wild.
  • Reproduction and Diet
  • Breeding Season: Occurs during the monsoon, with females laying a single egg directly on the bare ground, making nests extremely vulnerable to predation and accidental destruction.

 

Feeding Behaviour: Omnivorous and opportunistic:

  • Grass seeds, berries
  • Insects (e.g., grasshoppers, beetles)
  • Occasionally small reptiles and rodents
  • Conservation Status
  • IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
  • Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I – Provides the highest legal protection under Indian law.
  • CITES: Appendix I Prohibits international trade in specimens, recognizing the species as threatened with extinction.
  • This bird, once widespread across the Indian subcontinent, is now teetering on the brink of extinction. Conservation efforts, including community engagement models like the one Bishnoi championed, are vital for the species’ survival.

With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:

  1. It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and prefers wetland and forested ecosystems.
  2. It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world.
  3. The nesting behavior of the species increases its vulnerability to natural and anthropogenic threats.
  4. Its current core population is largely confined to Rajasthan’s Thar Desert.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 2, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: GIB inhabits arid and semi-arid grasslands, not wetlands or forests.
  • Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct: It is a heavy flying bird, lays eggs directly on the ground (high vulnerability), and is mostly found in Rajasthan’s Thar Desert.

Orans

Syllabus:Polity

  • The Rajasthan government has begun the formal process of classifying Oran lands—community-managed sacred groves—as forests, in compliance with the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment on December 18, 2024.
  • This decision comes under the purview of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, aiming to strengthen the legal protection of these ecologically and culturally significant landscapes.

 

About Orans:

  • Definition: Orans are traditional sacred groves preserved by rural communities in Rajasthan, often dedicated to local deities and associated with socio-religious practices.
  • Ecological Significance: They serve as biodiversity hotspots and support critical ecological functions such as:
  • Livelihood support through grazing and forest produce.
  • Water conservation via features like talabs (ponds), nadis (small ponds), open wells, and seasonal streams.
  • Cultural Role: Annual religious festivals and fairs are organized in these groves, reinforcing community stewardship.
  • Extent: Rajasthan houses approximately 25,000 orans spread across 6 lakh hectares. Some, like the Bhadariya Mata Oran in Jaisalmer, span over 17,000 hectares.
  • Conservation Value: Orans are vital habitats for endangered species, notably the Great Indian Bustard (GIB)—India’s most critically endangered bird and the state bird of Rajasthan.

 

Policy and Legal Developments:

  • The Rajasthan Forest Policy 2023 classified orans merely as general community lands, which provided limited conservation safeguards.
  • The Supreme Court’s 2024 judgment recognized orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, enhancing their legal protection against encroachment and ecological degradation.

 

With reference to the traditional ‘Orans’ of Rajasthan, consider the following statements:

  1. Orans are recognized under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, as Community Reserves notified by State governments.
  2. The Supreme Court’s judgment in December 2024 mandated their classification as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
  3. Orans have no role in the hydrological cycle, as they are primarily cultural and religious spaces.
  4. The Great Indian Bustard, a critically endangered bird species, is found exclusively in protected national parks and not in community lands like Orans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect – Orans are not uniformly notified as Community Reserves under the Wildlife Protection Act, though some may qualify. They are traditionally protected community lands.
  • Statement 2: Correct – The Supreme Court, in December 2024, recognized Orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – Orans often contain vital water bodies (e.g., Talab, Nadi) and play a significant role in the hydrological cycle and local ecology.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect – The Great Indian Bustard is indeed found in Orans, which are vital habitats outside formal protected areas.

NITI Aayog

Syllabus:Polity

  • The 10th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog was recently convened in New Delhi, chaired by the Prime Minister of India, under the overarching theme “Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat @2047”, envisioning a developed India by its centenary year of independence.

 

About NITI Aayog

  • Establishment: Constituted in January 2015 via a Union Cabinet resolution, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission.
  • Nature: It is neither a Constitutional nor a Statutory body; it was formed through executive action, not by law or constitutional amendment.
  • Role: Serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.

 

Twin Mandate

  • Oversee the implementation and monitoring of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) across India.
  • Promote competitive and cooperative federalism by actively involving States and Union Territories in the national development process.

 

Organisational Structure

  • Chairperson: Prime Minister of India
  • Governing Council:
  • Comprises Chief Ministers of all States and UTs with legislatures.
  • Lieutenant Governors of other UTs.
  • Up to four Union Ministers as ex-officio members, nominated by the Prime Minister.
  • Vice-Chairperson: Appointed by the Prime Minister.
  • Full-time members and special invitees (domain experts) as nominated by the Prime Minister.

 

Regional Councils:

  • Constituted for fixed terms to address specific regional concerns.
  • Convened by the Prime Minister, involving Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors of relevant States/UTs.

 

CEO of NITI Aayog:

  • Appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure.
  • Holds the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.

 

Key Objectives

  • Inclusive Planning: Emphasis on development at the village level, with special attention to marginalized and vulnerable populations.
  • Security-Integrated Policy: Incorporate national security concerns into economic planning and policy formulation.
  • Innovation Ecosystem: Foster a knowledge-driven, innovation-friendly, and entrepreneurial environment conducive to long-term development.
  • Inter-sectoral Coordination: Serve as a platform for resolving issues that cut across different ministries and sectors, facilitating smoother policy execution.

Which of the following statements about NITI Aayog is/are correct?

  1. NITI Aayog is a constitutional body established through an act of Parliament.
  2. Its Governing Council includes Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories with legislatures.
  3. The Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister.
  4. NITI Aayog is responsible for the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in India.

Select the correct answer:
A) 2, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer:B
Explanation: The Planning Commission was also an executive body, but the question demands distinguishing features. NITI Aayog is explicitly non-constitutional and non-statutory, created via executive order.

Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs)

Syllabus:Polity

  • The Department of Financial Services (DFS), under the Ministry of Finance, recently organised a colloquium in New Delhi. It convened Chairpersons of Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) and Presiding Officers of Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) to discuss issues related to debt recovery.

 

Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs)

  • Nature & Establishment: DRTs are quasi-judicial bodies constituted under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993.
  • Primary Role: They adjudicate disputes related to debt recovery by banks and financial institutions, specifically handling loan defaults above ₹20 lakh focused on secured debts.
  • Other Functions: DRTs also hear Securitisation Applications (SAs) filed under the SARFAESI Act, 2002 by borrowers or aggrieved parties.
  • Presence: Currently, 39 DRTs operate across India, each led by a Presiding Officer.

 

Structure and Powers of DRTs

  • Presiding Officer: Typically a judicial officer eligible to be appointed as a District Judge.
  • Additional Members: Administrative and technical members may be appointed by the Central Government.
  • Powers (Section 22(2), Recovery of Debts Act): DRTs can summon and examine witnesses, compel document production, accept evidence on affidavits, review or dismiss applications, conduct ex parte proceedings, and issue commissions for document and witness examination.
  • Jurisdiction: Territorial jurisdiction defined by the Central Government, limited to debt recovery cases involving banks and financial institutions.

 

Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs)

  • Role: DRATs serve as appellate bodies reviewing decisions of DRTs.
  • Appeals: Aggrieved parties can file appeals against DRT rulings before DRATs.
  • Presence: There are currently 5 DRATs in India, each led by a Chairperson.
  • Significance: DRATs provide judicial oversight, ensure consistency in debt recovery rulings, and clarify complex legal issues related to recovery disputes.

Consider the following statements about Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) and Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs):

  1. Debt Recovery Tribunals were established under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, to expedite the resolution of secured loan defaults exceeding ₹20 lakh.
  2. DRTs have the power to conduct ex parte proceedings and issue commissions for the examination of documents and witnesses under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993.
  3. Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) serve as the first appellate authority against the orders of DRTs and are chaired by judicial officers appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
  4. The territorial jurisdiction of each DRT is determined by the Central Government and is limited strictly to cases involving banks and financial institutions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 and 4 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1 and 3 only

 

Answer: A) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1:DRTs were established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, not under the SARFAESI Act, 2002. SARFAESI Act allows DRTs to hear securitisation applications but does not establish them.
  • Statement 2:Under Section 22(2) of the Recovery of Debts Act, DRTs possess powers including conducting ex parte proceedings and issuing commissions for witness and document examination.
  • Statement 3:DRATs are appellate bodies reviewing DRTs’ decisions but their Chairpersons are not appointed by the Chief Justice of India; rather, the appointment is made by the Central Government, often from judicial officers.
  • Statement 4:The territorial jurisdiction of DRTs is indeed defined by the Central Government and strictly pertains to debt recovery cases involving banks and financial institutions

Importance of the Deputy Speaker in Lok Sabha

Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance

  • The position of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha has remained vacant for over six years, raising significant concerns regarding constitutional compliance and democratic governance.
  • The Deputy Speaker serves as the second-ranking presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, subordinate only to the Speaker. As per Article 95(1) of the Constitution, the Deputy Speaker performs the functions of the Speaker in their absence or when the post is vacant. In joint sittings of both Houses, the Deputy Speaker presides in the absence of the Speaker.
  • The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members, as mandated under Article 93. Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha empowers the Speaker to fix the date for the election.
  • Conventionally, the Deputy Speaker is chosen from the Opposition to maintain representational balance; however, from 1952 to 1969, all four Deputy Speakers were from the ruling party.
  • Notably, the 17th Lok Sabha (2019–2024) witnessed a complete absence of a Deputy Speaker. When officiating as Speaker, the Deputy Speaker enjoys all powers of the Speaker, including maintaining order and interpreting rules.
  • He/she cannot vote in the first instance but holds a casting vote in case of a tie. When not presiding, the Deputy Speaker functions as a regular member, retaining the right to speak and vote.
  • A special privilege conferred upon the Deputy Speaker is that he/she automatically becomes the chairperson of any Parliamentary Committee they are nominated to. The Deputy Speaker can be removed by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by an effective majority, i.e., a majority of the total membership excluding vacant seats.
  • Such a motion requires a 14-day advance notice. During consideration of the removal motion, the Deputy Speaker cannot preside over the House but may remain present.
  • The prolonged vacancy of the Deputy Speaker undermines constitutional propriety and parliamentary norms, weakens the balance between the ruling party and Opposition, compromises democratic inclusiveness, and risks legislative paralysis in the absence of the Speaker.
  • This also reflects the erosion of institutional integrity and neglect of a constitutional office.
  • The Deputy Speaker’s office is a constitutional mandate, not a discretionary appointment.
  • Its continued vacancy violates the spirit of the Constitution and democratic principles. Immediate corrective action is essential to uphold parliamentary integrity and restore institutional balance.

With reference to the office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

  1. The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority of the members present and voting in the Lok Sabha.
  2. The Constitution explicitly mandates the time frame within which the Deputy Speaker must be elected.
  3. The Deputy Speaker, when not presiding over the House, retains the right to vote on any question before the House.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only

Answer:D
Explanation:

  • The Constitution (Article 93) mandates that the House “shall, as soon as may be” choose the Deputy Speaker, but does not specify a time frame (Statement 2 incorrect).
  • When not presiding, the Deputy Speaker can vote like any ordinary member (Statement 3 correct).
  • Deputy Speaker is elected by Lok Sabha, typically by consensus or voice vote; not necessarily only by a simple majority (Statement 1 not fully accurate for UPSC level precision).

Supreme Court Needs to Change from Being a Chief Justice-Centric Court

Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance

  • Former Supreme Court Judge Justice A.S. Oka emphasized the need for a more democratic and institutionalized approach in the Supreme Court’s functioning, moving away from a system heavily centered around the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Currently, the CJI exercises considerable control over key aspects of the Court’s functioning, a practice that requires reform.

 

The Current System and Its Challenges

  • The CJI is the master of the roster, as reaffirmed in Shanti Bhushan vs. Supreme Court of India (2018).
  • This means the CJI alone decides which bench hears which case, which judges are assigned to these benches, and when cases are listed for hearing.
  • For Constitution Bench cases, which must include at least five judges, the CJI not only decides when such benches are constituted but often presides over them as well.
  • In terms of court administration, the CJI holds a unique and dominant position, as observed in State of Rajasthan v. Prakash Chand (1998).
  • While the CJI is ‘first among equals’ in judicial matters, he exercises control over the court registry, work allocation, and administrative decisions, often without formal consultation with other judges.
  • Justice Oka also highlighted the need to empower the district judiciary, the backbone of India’s justice delivery system, which remains under-resourced and weak compared to the apex court.

 

Challenges Emerging from this Structure

  • Lack of Transparency: Litigants and even fellow judges often remain unaware of how cases are allocated or why delays occur.
  • Delay in Justice: The discretionary power of the CJI in constituting benches has led to significant delays, especially in matters of constitutional or national importance.
  • Weakened Collegiality: The current centralized system undermines judicial equality and collective responsibility among Supreme Court judges.
  • Steps Towards Greater Transparency:In 2018, the Supreme Court introduced a public roster system to improve transparency in the allocation of sensitive cases. In Subhash Chandra Agarwal v. Supreme Court (2019), a Constitution Bench ruled that the office of the CJI falls under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, a landmark judgment for judicial transparency. Additionally, the Court has made public details of the judicial appointment process to enhance understanding of judicial selections.

 

Reforms Needed for a More Robust Judiciary

  • Committee-Based Decision-Making: Internal committees should be established to decide Bench composition, case listing, and administrative matters, thereby decentralizing power and encouraging institutional participation.
  • Transparent Listing Mechanism: Use of technology and algorithm-based systems with minimal human discretion should automate case listing to ensure fairness and transparency.
  • Collegiality in Constitution Bench Assignments: A panel of senior judges, rather than the sole discretion of the CJI, should determine the composition and timing of Constitution Benches.

 

Conclusion:

  • As the guardian of constitutional rights, the Supreme Court must ensure it remains independent, institutionally strong, inclusive, and transparent.
  • Moving away from a CJI-centric model toward a more committee-based and democratic structure will enhance judicial credibility, promote shared responsibility among judges, and uphold the principle of justice for all.

With reference to the administration and judicial functioning of the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) unilaterally controls the allocation of cases and formation of benches without formal consultation with other judges, including constitution benches.
  2. The State of Rajasthan v. Prakash Chand (1998) judgment explicitly described the CJI as ‘first among equals’ in judicial matters but granted the CJI exclusive control over court administration.
  3. The Shanti Bhushan vs. Supreme Court (2018) case reaffirmed the CJI’s absolute discretion over case listing and bench constitution, but also mandated mandatory consultation with a committee of senior judges for constitution benches.
  4. The Supreme Court’s public roster system introduced in 2018 and the RTI applicability ruling in Subhash Chandra Agarwal v. Supreme Court (2019) are steps aimed at increasing transparency and decentralizing judicial administration.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: The CJI currently has dominant control over case allocation and bench formation, often without formal consultation, especially for Constitution Benches.
  • Statement 2: State of Rajasthan v. Prakash Chand recognized the CJI as ‘first among equals’ in judicial matters but gave the CJI a unique dominant administrative role.
  • Statement 3: While Shanti Bhushan reaffirmed CJI’s discretion over the roster, it did not mandate mandatory consultation with a committee for Constitution Benches; such reforms remain proposals for democratization.
  • Statement 4: The public roster system and RTI ruling are landmark steps for transparency, but complete decentralization is still a reform objective.

NITI Aayog Releases Report on “Designing a Policy for MediumEnterprises”

Syllabus:Polity

  • The MSME sector stands as a vital pillar of India’s economy, contributing approximately 29% to GDP, 40% to exports, and providing employment to over 60% of the workforce.
  • However, the sector is predominantly composed of micro enterprises, which constitute 97% of registered MSMEs.
  • Small enterprises represent 2.7%, while medium enterprises make up a mere 0.3%.
  • Despite their small numbers, medium enterprises are strategically significant, accounting for nearly 40% of MSME exports.

 

Understanding the Tilt Towards Micro Enterprises

  • This disproportion is largely due to an overreliance on informal, subsistence-level micro firms and a significant underutilization of the potential of medium enterprises, which have greater capacity to scale, innovate, and integrate into global supply chains.

 

Challenges Facing Medium Enterprises

  • Limited Access to Finance: Only 37% of medium enterprises obtain formal loans. Challenges include collateral-heavy lending procedures, inadequate risk assessments, and a lack of dedicated credit facilities.
  • Technology Deficit: About 82% of medium enterprises have not adopted advanced technologies such as AI, IoT, or digital automation, limiting their productivity and competitiveness on a global scale.
  • Skill Gaps: Approximately 88% do not benefit from government skill development programs, which are often outdated or inaccessible.
  • Low Awareness of Government Schemes: Over 90% of medium enterprises are unaware of critical schemes and platforms like RAMP, ZED, or GeM, and even when aware, bureaucratic complexities hinder their utilization.
  • Heavy Compliance Burden: Multiple inspections from labor, health, and safety authorities increase operational costs and reduce ease of doing business.

 

Why Medium Enterprises Matter

  • Forex Earnings: Medium enterprises generate ₹39.95 crore in foreign exchange per unit, significantly higher than small (₹8.3 crore) and micro (₹1.39 crore) units.
  • Innovation Drivers: They contribute 81% of total MSME R&D expenditure, investing heavily in automation, AI, and process improvements.
  • Employment Providers: With an average of 89 employees per unit, medium enterprises create substantially more jobs compared to small (19.1) and micro (5.7) units.
  • Profitability and Scale: Benefiting from economies of scale, superior infrastructure, and investment capacity, medium enterprises achieve higher returns on capital and maintain sustained competitiveness.

 

Policy Recommendations

  • Tailored Financial Instruments: Introduce working capital schemes linked to enterprise turnover with expedited approval processes. Launch a ₹5 crore Medium Enterprise credit card at market rates requiring minimal collateral.
  • Technology Upgradation via Competence Centres: Transform existing technology centres into India ME 4.0 hubs, providing access to Industry 4.0 tools in sectors such as ESDM, pharmaceuticals, and sports goods.
  • Focused R&D Ecosystem: Implement a three-tier funding model involving expert committees, proposal solicitation, and monitoring. Utilize the Self-Reliant India Fund (SRI) to finance sector-specific innovation initiatives.
  • Cluster-Based Testing and Certification: Expand the Micro and Small Enterprises – Cluster Development Programme (MSE-CDP) to medium enterprises and establish regional testing labs to ensure quality compliance, particularly for exports.
  • Customized Skill Development: Develop export-oriented, sector-specific training curricula and integrate medium enterprise modules into existing Entrepreneurship Skill Development Programmes (ESDP) in collaboration with the Ministry of Skill Development.
  • Centralized Digital Support Portal: Create a dedicated sub-portal for medium enterprises under the Udyam portal featuring scheme discovery, compliance tracking, and market intelligence services.
  • This comprehensive approach aims to unlock the untapped potential of medium enterprises, enabling them to scale, innovate, and contribute more robustly to India’s economic growth and global trade.

Consider the following statements regarding Medium Enterprises (MEs) in India’s MSME sector:

  1. Medium enterprises constitute less than 1% of registered MSMEs but contribute nearly 40% of MSME exports.
  2. Around 82% of medium enterprises have adopted advanced technologies such as AI and IoT, boosting their global competitiveness.
  3. Medium enterprises generate significantly higher foreign exchange per unit compared to micro and small enterprises.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Medium enterprises form only about 0.3% of registered MSMEs but account for nearly 40% of MSME exports, showing their strategic export importance.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Around 82% of medium enterprises do not use advanced technologies like AI and IoT, which hampers their productivity.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Medium enterprises generate significantly higher foreign exchange (₹39.95 crore per unit) compared to small (₹8.3 crore) and micro (₹1.39 crore) enterprises.

Orans

Syllabus:Polity

  • The Rajasthan government has begun the formal process of classifying Oran lands—community-managed sacred groves—as forests, in compliance with the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment on December 18, 2024.
  • This decision comes under the purview of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, aiming to strengthen the legal protection of these ecologically and culturally significant landscapes.

 

About Orans:

  • Definition: Orans are traditional sacred groves preserved by rural communities in Rajasthan, often dedicated to local deities and associated with socio-religious practices.
  • Ecological Significance: They serve as biodiversity hotspots and support critical ecological functions such as:
  • Livelihood support through grazing and forest produce.
  • Water conservation via features like talabs (ponds), nadis (small ponds), open wells, and seasonal streams.
  • Cultural Role: Annual religious festivals and fairs are organized in these groves, reinforcing community stewardship.
  • Extent: Rajasthan houses approximately 25,000 orans spread across 6 lakh hectares. Some, like the Bhadariya Mata Oran in Jaisalmer, span over 17,000 hectares.
  • Conservation Value: Orans are vital habitats for endangered species, notably the Great Indian Bustard (GIB)—India’s most critically endangered bird and the state bird of Rajasthan.

 

Policy and Legal Developments:

  • The Rajasthan Forest Policy 2023 classified orans merely as general community lands, which provided limited conservation safeguards.
  • The Supreme Court’s 2024 judgment recognized orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, enhancing their legal protection against encroachment and ecological degradation.

 

With reference to the traditional ‘Orans’ of Rajasthan, consider the following statements:

  1. Orans are recognized under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, as Community Reserves notified by State governments.
  2. The Supreme Court’s judgment in December 2024 mandated their classification as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
  3. Orans have no role in the hydrological cycle, as they are primarily cultural and religious spaces.
  4. The Great Indian Bustard, a critically endangered bird species, is found exclusively in protected national parks and not in community lands like Orans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect – Orans are not uniformly notified as Community Reserves under the Wildlife Protection Act, though some may qualify. They are traditionally protected community lands.
  • Statement 2: Correct – The Supreme Court, in December 2024, recognized Orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – Orans often contain vital water bodies (e.g., Talab, Nadi) and play a significant role in the hydrological cycle and local ecology.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect – The Great Indian Bustard is indeed found in Orans, which are vital habitats outside formal protected areas.

NITI Aayog

Syllabus:Polity

  • The 10th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog was recently convened in New Delhi, chaired by the Prime Minister of India, under the overarching theme “Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat @2047”, envisioning a developed India by its centenary year of independence.

 

About NITI Aayog

  • Establishment: Constituted in January 2015 via a Union Cabinet resolution, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission.
  • Nature: It is neither a Constitutional nor a Statutory body; it was formed through executive action, not by law or constitutional amendment.
  • Role: Serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.

 

Twin Mandate

  • Oversee the implementation and monitoring of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) across India.
  • Promote competitive and cooperative federalism by actively involving States and Union Territories in the national development process.

 

Organisational Structure

  • Chairperson: Prime Minister of India
  • Governing Council:
  • Comprises Chief Ministers of all States and UTs with legislatures.
  • Lieutenant Governors of other UTs.
  • Up to four Union Ministers as ex-officio members, nominated by the Prime Minister.
  • Vice-Chairperson: Appointed by the Prime Minister.
  • Full-time members and special invitees (domain experts) as nominated by the Prime Minister.

 

Regional Councils:

  • Constituted for fixed terms to address specific regional concerns.
  • Convened by the Prime Minister, involving Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors of relevant States/UTs.

 

CEO of NITI Aayog:

  • Appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure.
  • Holds the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.

 

Key Objectives

  • Inclusive Planning: Emphasis on development at the village level, with special attention to marginalized and vulnerable populations.
  • Security-Integrated Policy: Incorporate national security concerns into economic planning and policy formulation.
  • Innovation Ecosystem: Foster a knowledge-driven, innovation-friendly, and entrepreneurial environment conducive to long-term development.
  • Inter-sectoral Coordination: Serve as a platform for resolving issues that cut across different ministries and sectors, facilitating smoother policy execution.

Which of the following statements about NITI Aayog is/are correct?

  1. NITI Aayog is a constitutional body established through an act of Parliament.
  2. Its Governing Council includes Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories with legislatures.
  3. The Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister.
  4. NITI Aayog is responsible for the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in India.

Select the correct answer:
A) 2, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer:B
Explanation: The Planning Commission was also an executive body, but the question demands distinguishing features. NITI Aayog is explicitly non-constitutional and non-statutory, created via executive order.

Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs)

Syllabus:Polity

  • The Department of Financial Services (DFS), under the Ministry of Finance, recently organised a colloquium in New Delhi. It convened Chairpersons of Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) and Presiding Officers of Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) to discuss issues related to debt recovery.

 

Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs)

  • Nature & Establishment: DRTs are quasi-judicial bodies constituted under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993.
  • Primary Role: They adjudicate disputes related to debt recovery by banks and financial institutions, specifically handling loan defaults above ₹20 lakh focused on secured debts.
  • Other Functions: DRTs also hear Securitisation Applications (SAs) filed under the SARFAESI Act, 2002 by borrowers or aggrieved parties.
  • Presence: Currently, 39 DRTs operate across India, each led by a Presiding Officer.

 

Structure and Powers of DRTs

  • Presiding Officer: Typically a judicial officer eligible to be appointed as a District Judge.
  • Additional Members: Administrative and technical members may be appointed by the Central Government.
  • Powers (Section 22(2), Recovery of Debts Act): DRTs can summon and examine witnesses, compel document production, accept evidence on affidavits, review or dismiss applications, conduct ex parte proceedings, and issue commissions for document and witness examination.
  • Jurisdiction: Territorial jurisdiction defined by the Central Government, limited to debt recovery cases involving banks and financial institutions.

 

Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs)

  • Role: DRATs serve as appellate bodies reviewing decisions of DRTs.
  • Appeals: Aggrieved parties can file appeals against DRT rulings before DRATs.
  • Presence: There are currently 5 DRATs in India, each led by a Chairperson.
  • Significance: DRATs provide judicial oversight, ensure consistency in debt recovery rulings, and clarify complex legal issues related to recovery disputes.

Consider the following statements about Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) and Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs):

  1. Debt Recovery Tribunals were established under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, to expedite the resolution of secured loan defaults exceeding ₹20 lakh.
  2. DRTs have the power to conduct ex parte proceedings and issue commissions for the examination of documents and witnesses under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993.
  3. Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) serve as the first appellate authority against the orders of DRTs and are chaired by judicial officers appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
  4. The territorial jurisdiction of each DRT is determined by the Central Government and is limited strictly to cases involving banks and financial institutions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 and 4 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1 and 3 only

 

Answer: A) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1:DRTs were established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, not under the SARFAESI Act, 2002. SARFAESI Act allows DRTs to hear securitisation applications but does not establish them.
  • Statement 2:Under Section 22(2) of the Recovery of Debts Act, DRTs possess powers including conducting ex parte proceedings and issuing commissions for witness and document examination.
  • Statement 3:DRATs are appellate bodies reviewing DRTs’ decisions but their Chairpersons are not appointed by the Chief Justice of India; rather, the appointment is made by the Central Government, often from judicial officers.
  • Statement 4:The territorial jurisdiction of DRTs is indeed defined by the Central Government and strictly pertains to debt recovery cases involving banks and financial institutions

New Development Bank (NDB)

Syllabus:Economy

  • Algeria has officially become a member of the New Development Bank (NDB), the multilateral institution backed by BRICS nations, marking a strategic extension of the Bank’s reach into North Africa.

 

 

About the New Development Bank (NDB)

Origin & Establishment:

  • Initially conceptualized in 2012 during the BRICS Summit in New Delhi.
  • The formal agreement for setting up the bank was signed on July 15, 2014, at the Fortaleza Summit (Brazil).
  • The bank officially commenced operations on July 21, 2015.

 

Objective:

  • To mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development in BRICS nations and other emerging and developing economies.
  • Headquarters & Presence:
  • Headquartered in Shanghai, China.
  • Regional offices are established in South Africa and Brazil, with expanding outreach.

 

Membership and Capital Structure

  • Open Membership:
  • Membership is open to any member state of the United Nations.
  • Capital Base:
  • Authorized Capital: USD 100 billion.
  • Initial Subscribed Capital: USD 50 billion, equally shared among the five founding membersBrazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
  • Voting Rights:
  • Each founding member enjoys equal voting power, unlike the asymmetrical shareholding seen in institutions like the World Bank or Asian Development Bank (ADB).

 

Governance Structure

  • Board of Governors:Comprised of the finance ministers of the five founding BRICS countries.
  • Board of Directors:Oversees project approvals and strategic direction.
  • Leadership Rotation:The positions of President and Vice-President are rotated among the founding BRICS nations.

With reference to the New Development Bank (NDB), consider the following statements:

  1. The idea of establishing the NDB was first proposed at the BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil in 2014.
  2. Unlike the World Bank, the NDB ensures equal voting power among its founding members.
  3. The headquarters of the NDB is located in Johannesburg, South Africa.
  4. The New Development Bank provides financial assistance only to BRICS countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 2 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The idea was first proposed in the 2012 BRICS Summit in New Delhi, not in Fortaleza.
  • Statement 2 is correct: All founding members have equal voting rights.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The headquarters is in Shanghai, China, not Johannesburg.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: NDB extends support to all developing and emerging economies, not just BRICS.

India Post Payments Bank Collaborates with Aditya Birla Capital to Enhance Access to Loan Products Nationwide

Syllabus:Economy

 

  • India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), a Government of India undertaking, has partnered with Aditya Birla Capital Ltd.
  • (ABCL), a leading financial services company, to improve access to loan products across India, particularly in rural and underserved areas.
  • Under this collaboration, IPPB will provide referral services for ABCL’s loan offerings, including personal loans, business loans, and loans against property.
  • Customers will benefit from quick approvals, minimal documentation, and hassle-free disbursements through IPPB’s digital platforms.
  • The initiative uses AI and data analytics to offer personalized financial solutions tailored to individual needs.
  • IPPB was established on 17 August 2016, is headquartered in New Delhi, and is led by MD & CEO Mr. R. Viswesvaran.

With reference to the partnership between India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) and Aditya Birla Capital Ltd. (ABCL), consider the following statements:

  1. The partnership allows IPPB to directly disburse loan amounts to customers from its own corpus.
  2. ABCL’s loan products will be accessible through IPPB’s digital channels in both urban and rural areas.
  3. The use of AI and data analytics in this partnership aims to ensure credit allocation based solely on income tax records.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: IPPB acts only as a referral partner, not a lending institution in this context.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The partnership is designed to reach both urban and rural populations via IPPB’s digital network.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: AI-driven personalization considers multiple data sources, not just income tax records.

Government to Play Key Role in New Payments Regulatory Board

Syllabus: Economy

  • The Central Government has notified the Payments Regulatory Board Regulations, 2025, establishing a Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) to replace the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS)—previously a committee under the RBI Central Board.

 

About the PRB

  • Statutory Basis: Established under Section 3 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
  • Assisted by: The Department of Payment and Settlement Systems (DPSS) within the RBI.

 

Board Composition

  • Chairperson: RBI Governor
  • Members:
  • RBI Deputy Governor (in charge of payment and settlement systems)
  • One RBI officer nominated by the Central Board
  • Three members nominated by the Central Government
  • Experts in payment systems, IT, law, etc., may be invited (permanent or ad hoc)
  • RBI’s Principal Legal Adviser is a permanent invitee

 

Voting and Decision-Making

  • Total 6 voting members (3 RBI + 3 Government)
  • RBI Governor holds a casting vote in case of a tie
  • Each member has one vote
  • Decisions passed by majority vote
  • Meetings and Delegation
  • Minimum of two meetings annually
  • Chaired by Governor or Deputy Governor (in absence)
  • Board may delegate powers to sub-committees, members, or RBI officers
  • Eligibility Criteria for PRB Members
  • Must be below 70 years
  • Cannot be a sitting MP or MLA
  • Must not have material conflict of interest with any payment system
  • Background and Rationale
  • A 2017 committee recommended an independent PRB with a Chairperson appointed by the Government in consultation with the RBI.
  • RBI opposed the idea of an external regulator, insisting the Governor head the PRB and retain the casting vote.
  • The final structure aligns with RBI’s proposal, ensuring regulatory oversight remains within the RBI framework.

 

Strategic Importance

  • The PRB is expected to bring a holistic perspective by including members with expertise in technology and payment systems.
  • It will act as a coordinating body across departments like Fintech and DPSS, promoting uniform standards across the digital payments ecosystem.

With reference to the partnership between India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) and Aditya Birla Capital Ltd. (ABCL), consider the following statements:

  1. The partnership allows IPPB to directly disburse loan amounts to customers from its own corpus.
  2. ABCL’s loan products will be accessible through IPPB’s digital channels in both urban and rural areas.
  3. The use of AI and data analytics in this partnership aims to ensure credit allocation based solely on income tax records.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: IPPB acts only as a referral partner, not a lending institution in this context.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The partnership is designed to reach both urban and rural populations via IPPB’s digital network.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: AI-driven personalization considers multiple data sources, not just income tax records.

RBI Balance Sheet Growth and Economic Outlook 2025

Syllabus:Economy

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reported an 8.2% expansion in its balance sheet for the financial year 2024–25, bringing the total to ₹76.25 lakh crore.
  • This increase reflects the robust performance of India’s central banking system amid a turbulent global economic landscape, reinforcing India’s position as the fastest-growing major economy projected for 2025–26.
  • The RBI’s income increased by 22.77%, driven primarily by gains in foreign exchange operations and higher returns from gold and domestic investments.
  • Total expenditure grew at a relatively moderate 7.76%. The overall surplus rose by 27.37%, reaching ₹2.69 trillion, enabling a significant transfer to the Central Government.
  • Gold holdings increased by 52.09%, marking the highest contribution to asset expansion.
  • Domestic investments grew by 14.32%, reflecting active open market operations and liquidity management.
  • Foreign investments saw marginal growth of 1.70%, indicative of steady foreign exchange reserve management.
  • As of 31 March 2025, domestic assets accounted for 25.73% of total assets, while foreign currency assets, gold, and loans to financial institutions made up 74.27%. On the liabilities side, notes issued increased by 6.03%, revaluation accounts by 17.32%, and other liabilities by 23.31%.
  • The value of banknotes in circulation rose by 6%, with ₹500 notes remaining the most circulated denomination despite a slight decline in their share.
  • Withdrawal of ₹2000 notes continued, with 98.2% returned to banks. The value of coins in circulation increased by 9.6%.
  • The e-rupee saw a surge in usage by 334%, signaling greater acceptance of digital currency. While counterfeit notes generally declined, increases were observed in ₹200 notes by 13.9% and ₹500 notes by 37.3%.
  • The RBI reaffirmed its commitment to macroeconomic stability, citing easing supply chain pressures, robust agricultural output, and a favorable inflation trajectory, with confidence in aligning headline inflation with the 4% target over the next 12 months.
  • The report advised commercial banks to strengthen their risk management frameworks, especially concerning interest rate risk exposure, mitigation of trading and banking book risks, and preserving net interest margins amid a moderating yield environment.

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) balance sheet for the financial year 2024-25:

  1. Gold holdings contributed the highest percentage increase to the RBI’s asset expansion during the year.
  2. Domestic assets constitute less than one-third of the total assets of the RBI as of March 31, 2025.
  3. The increase in foreign investments was the primary driver of the RBI’s balance sheet expansion in 2024-25.
  4. Revaluation accounts form a part of the liabilities side and increased by more than 15% in 2024-25.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above

Answer:A

Explanation:

  • Gold holdings increased by 52.09%, the largest contributor to asset growth; domestic assets were 25.73%, less than one-third; foreign investments rose marginally by 1.7%, not the primary driver; revaluation accounts on liabilities rose by 17.32%, over 15%.

RoDTEP scheme

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy

  • The Government of India has reinstated benefits under the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme for three key categories: Advance Authorization (AA) holders, Export-Oriented Units (EOUs), and Special Economic Zone (SEZ)
  • These benefits will apply to all eligible exports made from 1st June 2025

 

 

About the RoDTEP Scheme:

  • Launch: January 2021
  • Objective: To reimburse embedded taxes and duties on exported goods that were previously non-recoverable.
  • Coverage: Includes Central, State, and local levies not refunded under any other scheme.
  • WTO Compliance: Designed to align with World Trade Organization (WTO) norms by neutralizing domestic taxes on exports.

 

Implementation Mechanism:

  • Fully digitalized and transparent.
  • Benefits are disbursed in the form of transferable electronic duty credit scrips issued by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC).
  • Principle: Upholds the global trade norm that exported products should not carry the burden of domestic taxes.

With reference to the RoDTEP scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. The scheme allows reimbursement of both refundable and non-refundable duties and taxes incurred during the production and export of goods.
  2. It is compliant with the provisions of the WTO Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures.
  3. The electronic scrips issued under the scheme are non-transferable and can only be used by the original exporter.
  4. The benefits under the scheme were initially not available to SEZ units and EOUs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: RoDTEP only refunds previously non-refundable embedded taxes and duties, not those that are already refundable.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The scheme was designed in compliance with WTO norms.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The scrips are transferable.
  • Statement 4 is correct: SEZs, EOUs, and AA holders were initially excluded but were later included (from June 1, 2025).

Quality Council of India (QCI)

Syllabus:Economy

  • The Quality Council of India (QCI) is an autonomous national accreditation body established to ensure quality assurance in products, services, and processes across various sectors through independent third-party assessments.

 

Establishment and Administration:

  • Founded in 1996 following recommendations from an EU Expert Mission and extensive inter-ministerial consultations.
  • It operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, specifically the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
  • Headquarters: World Trade Centre (WTC), New Delhi.

 

Objectives:

  • Promote adoption and implementation of quality standards in both public and private sectors.
  • Provide independent accreditation and third-party assessments to uphold quality.
  • Improve quality of life and public service delivery by enhancing governance standards.
  • Act as the nodal agency for implementing National Quality Campaigns aligned with global best practices.

 

Structure and Governance:

  • Operates on a Public–Private Partnership (PPP) model involving government and key industry associations such as CII, FICCI, and ASSOCHAM.
  • Registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
  • Governed by a Council of 39 members representing government, industry, and other stakeholders equally.
  • The Chairperson is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.

 

Key Functions:

  • Accreditation Services: Through specialized bodies like NABL (labs), NABH (healthcare), NABET (environment), and NBQP, QCI ensures quality standards across sectors.
  • Third-Party Assessments: Conducts independent evaluations of services, infrastructure, and government schemes.
  • Policy Support: Facilitates implementation of quality mandates under flagship programs such as Swachh Bharat and Ayushman Bharat.
  • Capacity Building: Trains auditors and personnel for quality improvement initiatives.
  • Global Alignment: Collaborates internationally to align India’s quality ecosystem with WTO standards and global benchmarks.

Consider the following statements about the Quality Council of India (QCI):

  1. QCI was established as a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  2. It operates on a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model involving government and industry associations like CII, FICCI, and ASSOCHAM.
  3. The Chairperson of QCI is nominated by the Prime Minister of India.
  4. QCI is responsible for accreditation through bodies such as NABL, NABH, and NABET.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • QCI is an autonomous body registered under Societies Registration Act, not a statutory body (statement 1 incorrect).
  • It operates under a PPP model (2), Chairperson is PM-nominated (3), and it handles accreditation through NABL, NABH, NABET etc. (4).

Microfinance Loan Delinquencies Jump 163% in FY2025

Syllabus:Economy

  • India’s microfinance sector has experienced a significant increase in loan delinquencies, surging by 163% to reach Rs 43,075 crore in FY2025.

 

What is Microfinance?

  • Microfinance provides financial services—including microloans, savings, insurance, and remittances—to low-income individuals or groups typically excluded from traditional banking.
  • These services are mainly offered by NBFC-MFIs, Small Finance Banks (SFBs), and banks.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) defines a microfinance loan as a collateral-free loan extended to households with an annual income up to ₹3,00,000.

 

Key Trends in the Microfinance Sector:

  • The gross loan portfolio declined by 13.9% year-on-year, from ₹4.42 lakh crore in March 2024 to ₹3.81 lakh crore in March 2025.
  • There is a noticeable shift from low-ticket to high-ticket loans: loans exceeding ₹1 lakh grew by 38.5% year-on-year, while loans under ₹30,000 dropped by 35.9%.
  • The number of active microfinance loans decreased from 16.1 crore to 14 crore during FY2025.
  • Borrowers with five or more lenders reduced from 9.7% to 4.9%.

 

Causes of Rising Delinquencies:

  • Overleveraging: Borrowers, particularly in rural and semi-urban areas, often take loans from multiple institutions, resulting in unsustainable debt levels.
  • Weak Credit Appraisal: Many MFIs, especially smaller NBFC-MFIs and pressured banks, have relaxed credit checks, lending without thorough background assessments.
  • Income Instability: Post-pandemic economic disruptions, inflation, rural distress, and unstable employment have diminished borrowers’ repayment capacity.
  • Collection Inefficiencies: Reduced field engagement post-COVID, increased digital reliance, and weak recovery mechanisms in some regions have hindered loan collection.
  • Loan Utilization Issues: A significant portion of microfinance loans is diverted from income-generating activities toward consumption or social needs such as weddings, festivals, or health emergencies.

 

Government Initiatives:

  • Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY): Launched in 2015, PMMY enables small businesses to access collateral-free microcredit up to Rs 10 lakhs through MFIs and other financial institutions, with refinancing support from MUDRA Ltd.
  • Udyam Assist Platform (UAP): This platform assists informal micro-entrepreneurs, many of whom are MFI clients, in registering as MSMEs to access priority sector lending, subsidies, and credit guarantees under various schemes.
  • Credit Information Sharing: RBI mandates all microfinance lenders to report borrower data to credit bureaus such as CRIF High Mark and CIBIL, facilitating better credit assessments.
  • RBI’s Revised Regulatory Framework for Microfinance Loans (2022): This uniform framework regulates all lenders—banks, NBFCs, NBFC-MFIs, and SFBs—aimed at borrower protection and promoting responsible lending.

 

The Way Forward:

  • Strengthening credit assessment tools is crucial to prevent borrower over-indebtedness.
  • Utilizing credit bureau data effectively helps identify early signs of financial stress.
  • Enhanced regulatory oversight by RBI and state authorities is needed to ensure fair collection practices and responsible lending norms.
  • Promoting financial literacy and inclusion will empower borrowers to understand their credit obligations and rights, fostering a healthier microfinance ecosystem.

Consider the following statements about India’s microfinance sector:

  1. The Reserve Bank of India defines a microfinance loan as a collateral-free loan given to a household with an annual income up to ₹3,00,000.
  2. The sector witnessed a rise in microfinance loan delinquencies by over 150% in FY2025 despite the gross loan portfolio increasing during the same period.
  3. The shift in loan ticket size in FY2025 indicated a significant growth in loans below ₹30,000 and a decline in loans above ₹1 lakh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above

Correct answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. RBI defines microfinance loans as collateral-free loans to households earning up to ₹3,00,000 annually.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Although loan delinquencies surged by 163%, the gross loan portfolio declined by about 13.9% in FY2025, not increased.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The trend was a shift from low-ticket loans (< ₹30,000 declined by ~35.9%) to high-ticket loans (> ₹1 lakh grew by ~38.5%).

New Development Bank (NDB)

Syllabus:Economy

  • Algeria has officially become a member of the New Development Bank (NDB), the multilateral institution backed by BRICS nations, marking a strategic extension of the Bank’s reach into North Africa.

 

 

About the New Development Bank (NDB)

Origin & Establishment:

  • Initially conceptualized in 2012 during the BRICS Summit in New Delhi.
  • The formal agreement for setting up the bank was signed on July 15, 2014, at the Fortaleza Summit (Brazil).
  • The bank officially commenced operations on July 21, 2015.

 

Objective:

  • To mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development in BRICS nations and other emerging and developing economies.
  • Headquarters & Presence:
  • Headquartered in Shanghai, China.
  • Regional offices are established in South Africa and Brazil, with expanding outreach.

 

Membership and Capital Structure

  • Open Membership:
  • Membership is open to any member state of the United Nations.
  • Capital Base:
  • Authorized Capital: USD 100 billion.
  • Initial Subscribed Capital: USD 50 billion, equally shared among the five founding membersBrazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
  • Voting Rights:
  • Each founding member enjoys equal voting power, unlike the asymmetrical shareholding seen in institutions like the World Bank or Asian Development Bank (ADB).

 

Governance Structure

  • Board of Governors:Comprised of the finance ministers of the five founding BRICS countries.
  • Board of Directors:Oversees project approvals and strategic direction.
  • Leadership Rotation:The positions of President and Vice-President are rotated among the founding BRICS nations.

With reference to the New Development Bank (NDB), consider the following statements:

  1. The idea of establishing the NDB was first proposed at the BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil in 2014.
  2. Unlike the World Bank, the NDB ensures equal voting power among its founding members.
  3. The headquarters of the NDB is located in Johannesburg, South Africa.
  4. The New Development Bank provides financial assistance only to BRICS countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 2 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The idea was first proposed in the 2012 BRICS Summit in New Delhi, not in Fortaleza.
  • Statement 2 is correct: All founding members have equal voting rights.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The headquarters is in Shanghai, China, not Johannesburg.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: NDB extends support to all developing and emerging economies, not just BRICS.

Iran Slams Trump’s Plan to Rename Persian Gulf

Syllabus: GS2/IR/GS1/Places in News           

  • Former U.S. President Donald Trump’s proposal to rename the Persian Gulf as the ‘Arabian Gulf’ or ‘Gulf of Arabia’ sparked sharp criticism from Iran, which viewed the move as a direct challenge to its national identity and historical heritage.
  • The suggestion reportedly surfaced in anticipation of Trump’s visit to Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and the United Arab Emirates.

About the Dispute:

  • The Persian Gulf is a geopolitically and economically vital water body located in Western Asia.
  • It connects to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea through the strategically crucial Strait of Hormuz.
  • The countries bordering it are Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, and the UAE.
  • While Iran insists on the historical term Persian Gulf, Arab Gulf States (except Iran) often refer to it as the ‘Arabian Gulf’ or simply ‘the Gulf’, sparking an ongoing naming dispute that reflects deeper regional rivalries and identity politics.

 

Historical Background:

  • The term Persian Gulf is rooted in antiquity, referring to Persia, the former name of Iran. In 1935, Reza Shah Pahlavi officially changed the country’s international name from Persia to Iran, asserting that Persia was an exonym (a name given by outsiders) and promoting Iran, the country’s endonym (a native name), to reinforce national sovereignty.
  • This naming controversy continues to carry geopolitical weight, symbolizing broader tensions between Iran and its Arab neighbors.

One Big Beautiful Bill Act

Syllabus: GS2/ International issues

  • The United States House of Representatives has passed the One Big Beautiful Bill Act (OBBBA) of 2025, designed to reform the country’s economic and immigration policies.

 

Key Provisions of OBBBA:

  • Permanent Tax Cuts: The act permanently enshrines the tax cuts introduced under the 2017 Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (TCJA), including increased standard deductions and reduced tax brackets.
  • Excise Tax on Remittances: Introduces a 3.5% excise tax on remittances sent by non-citizens, intended to discourage undocumented immigration and raise federal revenue.
  • Raising the Debt Ceiling: Authorizes an increase in the U.S. debt ceiling, which limits the maximum amount of national debt the Treasury can accumulate.
  • Fiscal Prudence Measures: Implements spending cuts by targeting inefficiencies, waste, fraud, and abuse in federal programs.

 

Implications:

  • For the U.S. Economy: Provides tax relief to middle-income households, encouraging consumer spending and economic growth. However, concerns persist about long-term fiscal sustainability, particularly due to simultaneous tax reductions and increased defense expenditures.
  • For Remittance-Dependent Countries: The new excise tax on remittances may adversely affect countries such as Mexico, India, and the Philippines, where remittances are vital for household income and foreign exchange reserves.

South Korea

Syllabus:Geography

 

 

Context:

  • South Korea has formally conveyed its concerns to China regarding the recent unilateral establishment of a “No-Sail Zone” in the Yellow Sea—a geopolitically sensitive maritime region where the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of both nations intersect.

 

Geographical Overview of South Korea:

  • Location: Situated in East Asia, South Korea shares a land border with North Korea (Democratic People’s Republic of Korea) to the north. It is bounded by:
  • The Yellow Sea to the west,
  • The East China Sea to the south,
  • The East Sea (Sea of Japan) to the east.
  • Political Division: The Korean Peninsula is divided at the 38th Parallel, which marks the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) separating North and South Korea.
  • Capital City: Seoul
  • Major Rivers:
  • Han River
  • Nakdong River
  • Significant Islands:
  • Jeju Island (the largest island), located in the Korea Strait, is of volcanic origin.
  • Mountain Ranges:
  • The Taebaek Mountain Range runs along the eastern coastline.
  • Highest Peak:
  • Mount Halla (1,950 meters), an extinct volcano on Jeju Island.

 

Geopolitical and Legal Implications:

Strategic Importance of the Yellow Sea:

  • The Yellow Sea, lying between China and the Korean Peninsula, holds significant geopolitical and economic value. It is crucial for:
  • Regional maritime security,
  • Commercial navigation,
  • Fisheries and marine biodiversity.

 

Legal Concerns Under UNCLOS:

  • South Korea’s Ministry of Foreign Affairs is evaluating the legality of China’s no-sail declaration in accordance with the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Key articles being examined include:
  • Article 58: Rights and duties of other States in the EEZ (including navigation and overflight).
  • Article 74: Delimitation of EEZs between states with opposite or adjacent coasts.
  • Article 87: Freedom of the high seas, including freedom of navigation.
  • South Korea asserts that unilaterally imposed maritime restrictions in overlapping EEZs must comply with international law and must not hinder freedom of navigation or other lawful uses of the sea.

With reference to recent geopolitical developments in East Asia, consider the following statements:

  1. The Yellow Sea, where South Korea raised concerns about a newly declared “No-Sail Zone,” lies entirely within China’s territorial waters.
  2. Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), a coastal state cannot restrict freedom of navigation within its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) except for enforcement of customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary laws.
  3. The Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) between North and South Korea lies along the 38th Parallel, but it is not recognized under international treaties as a de jure international boundary.
  4. Mount Halla, South Korea’s highest peak, is a stratovolcano located in the Taebaek Mountain range.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect:The Yellow Sea is a semi-enclosed sea bordered by both China and South Korea, and includes overlapping Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs). It is not entirely within China’s territorial waters.
  • Statement 2: Correct:According to UNCLOS Articles 58 and 87, freedom of navigation and overflight is preserved in EEZs. Coastal states can only restrict this under specific circumstances related to customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary regulations within their territorial waters, not EEZs without due cause.
  • Statement 3: Correct:The DMZ is a de facto boundary established by the Korean Armistice Agreement (1953), not through an international treaty formally recognizing it as an international boundary. Hence, it lacks full de jure status.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect:Mount Halla is an extinct volcano located on Jeju Island, not part of the Taebaek Range, which lies on the mainland along the eastern coast.

National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research

In News Syllabus:Geography

  • The Union Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) inaugurated two new facilities, “Sagar Bhavan” and “Polar Bhavan,” at the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) in Goa.
  • Established in 1998 as an autonomous R&D institute under MoES, NCPOR was formerly known as the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR).

  • Located in Vasco da Gama, Goa, it serves as the nodal agency for planning and executing India’s polar expeditions across the Antarctic, Arctic, Southern Ocean, and Himalayas.
  • It coordinates scientific research and logistics in polar and oceanic domains and leads strategic projects such as mapping India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), conducting continental shelf surveys, and managing the Deep Ocean Mission.
  • NCPOR is guided by a Research Advisory Committee (RAC) for scientific oversight.
  • Polar Bhavan, the largest facility on campus, spans 11,378 sq. m and was constructed at a cost of ₹55 crore.
  • It features advanced laboratories, 55 rooms for scientists, conference halls, a library, and the Science on Sphere (SOS) 3D earth systems visualization platform.
  • This building will also host India’s first Polar and Ocean Museum dedicated to public scientific outreach.
  • Sagar Bhavan covers 1,772 sq. m and cost ₹13 crore.
  • It houses specialized facilities including two -30°C ice core laboratories, +4°C storage units for sediment and biological samples, and a Class 1000 metal-free clean room for trace metal and isotope analysis.
  • NCPOR maintains India’s scientific presence at polar stations: Maitri and Bharati in Antarctica, Himadri in the Arctic, and Himansh in the Himalayas.
  • The institute’s activities are supported by key legislative frameworks such as India’s Arctic Policy (2022) and the Indian Antarctic Act (2022), which emphasize science-led, environmentally responsible polar engagement in compliance with international obligations.

Consider the following statements about the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR):

  1. It was established as an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 1998.
  2. It coordinates India’s scientific research only in the Antarctic region.
  3. It leads strategic projects such as EEZ mapping and continental shelf surveys.
  4. It operates under the Indian Antarctic Act of 2022 and India’s Arctic Policy of 2022.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Correct Answer: B) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • It was established as an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 1998.” Correct – The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) was indeed established in 1998 and functions as an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
  • It also coordinates scientific research and logistics in the Arctic, Southern Ocean, and the Himalayas (e.g., Arctic Station Himadri, Himalayan Station Himansh). Hence, the word “only” makes this statement incorrect.

Polavaram Project

Syllabus:Geography

  • The Prime Minister is set to meet with the chief ministers of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh to discuss the Polavaram multi-purpose irrigation project.

 

About the Project:

  • The Polavaram Project is located on the Godavari River near Polavaram village in Andhra Pradesh’s West Godavari district, close to the borders of Chhattisgarh and Odisha. Conceived in 1980 based on the Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal (GWDT) recommendations, the project has been granted national status by the central government.

 

Key Features

  • The dam spans approximately 1.2 km with a pier height of 54 meters and includes 48 radial gates (16 m x 20 m each).
  • Its spillway is designed to withstand a 1000-year flood event and has the highest discharge capacity worldwide at 50 lakh cusecs, exceeding even China’s Three Gorges Dam.
  • The project holds a world record for pouring 32,315.5 cubic meters of concrete into its spillway channel.

 

Objectives

  • Develop irrigation potential across 436,825 hectares.
  • Generate 960 MW of hydropower.
  • Provide drinking water to 2.85 million people in 611 villages.
  • Transfer 80 TMC of water from the Godavari basin to the Krishna basin.
  • Manage floodwaters to protect communities along the Godavari River.

Consider the following statements about the Polavaram Project:

  1. The dam is located on the Godavari River near the tri-junction of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Odisha.
  2. Polavaram’s spillway is designed to handle flood discharge exceeding that of China’s Three Gorges Dam.
  3. One of the objectives of the project is to transfer water from the Krishna basin to the Godavari basin.
  4. The project aims to generate nearly 1000 MW of hydropower and supply drinking water to over 2 million people.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: D

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct — the dam is near the border of Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh, not Telangana.
  • Statement 2 is correct — Polavaram’s spillway discharge capacity is 50 lakh cusecs, surpassing the Three Gorges Dam.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect — water transfer is from Godavari basin to Krishna basin, not the reverse.
  • Statement 4 is correct — hydropower generation is about 960 MW, and drinking water supply is to 2.85 million people.

Tropical Cyclones and Their Impact on Infant Mortality

Syllabus:Geography

 

Context:

  • Emerging research has highlighted a disturbing link between tropical cyclones and elevated infant mortality rates in low- and middle-income countries.
  • Infants who experience tropical cyclones during their first year of life are found to face significantly higher risks of death, underscoring the urgent need for robust child health safeguards and improved disaster response mechanisms, particularly in the face of climate change.

Understanding Tropical Cyclones

  • Tropical cyclones are powerful weather systems that form over warm tropical oceans.
  • Characterised by low atmospheric pressure, high-velocity winds, and intense rainfall, they are known by different names globally—hurricanes in the Atlantic and typhoons in the western Pacific.
  • The development of such storms depends on warm sea surface temperatures, atmospheric instability, and specific humidity and wind patterns.

 

Infant Mortality and Cyclone Exposure

  • The study reveals an average 11% rise in infant mortality following cyclone exposure, equating to approximately 4.4 additional deaths per 1,000 live births.
  • The mortality spike is most prominent within the first year after the storm event and tends to normalise by the second year.
  • The exact mechanisms driving this increase remain unclear and require further investigation.

 

Cross-Country Variations

  • Data from seven countries—Bangladesh, Madagascar, Cambodia, the Philippines, the Dominican Republic, and Haiti—showed wide disparities.
  • Bangladesh and Haiti experienced mortality increases of over 10 additional deaths per 1,000 births, while some countries showed negligible change.
  • These differences are attributed to variables such as geographic vulnerability, quality of housing, and resilience of public health systems.

 

Determinants Beyond Nutrition and Healthcare

  • Interestingly, the study found that access to healthcare and nutritional status did not significantly worsen due to cyclone exposure, indicating that other indirect factors—like environmental stress, breakdowns in caregiving networks, or infrastructure disruption—may be central to the mortality rise.
  • Identifying these determinants is critical for formulating targeted, evidence-based interventions.

 

Climate Change and Escalating Cyclone Threats

  • Climate change is expected to increase both the frequency and severity of tropical cyclones, intensifying risks to already vulnerable populations, especially infants. This amplifies the need for integrated disaster preparedness strategies that include maternal and child health as a core component of climate resilience frameworks.

 

Conclusion:

  • The nexus between tropical cyclones and infant mortality presents a pressing global health challenge. In the context of escalating climate threats, it is imperative to prioritise investments in disaster-resilient healthcare systems, strengthen community-based support mechanisms, and develop comprehensive child protection strategies to mitigate future risks.

With reference to recent findings on the impact of tropical cyclones on infant mortality in low- and middle-income countries, consider the following statements:

  1. The highest increase in infant mortality is observed within the first year following a tropical cyclone.
  2. Undernutrition and limited access to healthcare were identified as the primary causes of increased mortality post-cyclone.
  3. The mortality rate tends to stabilize within two years after cyclone exposure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 only

Answer:A
Explanation: Statement 1 and 3 are correct based on the study’s findings. Statement 2 is incorrect because the study found that undernutrition and healthcare access were not directly affected by cyclone exposure, suggesting other factors at play.

Kilauea Volcano

Syllabus: GS1/ Physical Geography

 

Context

  • The Kilauea volcano on Hawaii’s Big Island has emitted lava fountains exceeding 1,000 feet in height, marking its 23rd eruption episode since December 2024.

 

 

About Kilauea

  • Kilauea is one of six active volcanoes in the Hawaiian Islands and is classified as a shield volcano, characterized primarily by effusive lava flows rather than explosive eruptions.
  • Situated within Hawaii Volcanoes National Park alongside Mauna Loa—the world’s largest volcano—Kilauea is smaller but notably more active.
  • It has maintained frequent eruptive activity since 1983, attracting continuous scientific and public attention.

Consider the following statements about the Kilauea volcano:

  1. Kilauea is a stratovolcano known for explosive eruptions.
  2. It is located within the Hawaii Volcanoes National Park alongside Mauna Loa.
  3. Kilauea has been erupting almost continuously since the early 1980s.
  4. Mauna Loa is the largest volcano on Earth by volume.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: B) 2, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because Kilauea is a shield volcano, not a stratovolcano, and is known for effusive lava flows, not explosive eruptions.
  • Statement 2 is correct; Kilauea and Mauna Loa are both located within Hawaii Volcanoes National Park.
  • Statement 3 is correct; Kilauea has been erupting frequently and continuously since 1983.
  • Statement 4 is correct; Mauna Loa is the largest volcano on Earth by volume.

Launch of ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ and ‘Know Your PIN Code’ Web Portals: A Landmark in India's Geospatial and Addressing Infrastructure

Syllabus:Geography

  • In a significant stride towards modernising India’s addressing and geospatial infrastructure, the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, has launched two digital platforms — ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ and ‘Know Your PIN Code’.
  • These initiatives align with the National Geospatial Policy 2022, aimed at enhancing digital governance and service delivery through advanced geospatial systems
  • . The DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number) represents a transformative, geo-coded, grid-based digital addressing system developed through collaboration between the Department of Posts, IIT Hyderabad, and the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), ISRO.
  • DIGIPIN is foundational to the Department’s Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) initiative, which envisions the seamless use of address data across governance, private sector, and citizen-facing applications.
  • The ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ platform allows users to obtain their DIGIPIN using precise latitude-longitude geolocation data and convert geocoordinates into DIGIPINs and vice versa.
  • This system aims to revolutionise last-mile delivery, disaster response, location intelligence, and public service targeting, particularly in rural and underserved areas.
  • Officially adopted by the Thematic Working Group on Address under the National Geospatial Policy, DIGIPIN is now accessible for integration by all Ministries, State Governments, institutions, and individuals.
  • Furthermore, the initiative promotes open innovation: a complete repository of DIGIPIN’s source code and documentation is now publicly available on GitHub, enabling developers and institutions to contribute to its evolution. Introduced in 1972, India’s six-digit PIN Code has long been the backbone of the national postal system.
  • In recognition of the need to modernise this system, the Department conducted a nationwide geofencing exercise to geo-reference PIN Code boundaries across all postal jurisdictions.
  • The newly launched ‘Know Your PIN Code’ application allows users to accurately determine their official PIN Code using GNSS-based geolocation and provide crowdsourced feedback on PIN Code accuracy to continuously enhance the dataset.
  • The geo-fenced PIN Code boundary dataset has also been made publicly accessible via the Open Government Data (OGD) Platform as a geo-json layer titled “All India PIN Code Boundary”.
  • Speaking at the launch, Ms. Vandita Kaul, Secretary, Department of Posts, highlighted the strategic importance of the new systems: “DIGIPIN will redefine how we perceive and utilise addresses, ensuring every citizen is digitally locatable and serviceable — a crucial step towards precision governance and inclusive infrastructure.”
  • By enabling geospatially precise, digitally interoperable addressing, these platforms reinforce the Department of Posts’ evolving role as a pillar of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) — going beyond traditional postal functions to support the broader goals of Digital India and data-driven public administration.
  • Both platforms are designed with citizen participation in mind, offering interfaces to submit real-time feedback on data accuracy and system usability.
  • This participatory mechanism ensures a dynamic, adaptive, and locally contextualised digital addressing framework that evolves with on-ground realities. Together, ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ and ‘Know Your PIN Code’ represent a paradigm shift in India’s spatial governance architecture, fostering more accurate, efficient, and inclusive service delivery across the nation.

With reference to the Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a proprietary digital addressing system developed by the Department of Posts in partnership with private GIS vendors under the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.
  2. DIGIPIN operates on a geo-coded, grid-based architecture and integrates seamlessly with GIS for last-mile service delivery.
  3. The DIGIPIN source code and technical documentation are made publicly available under open-source licensing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: DIGIPIN is not developed under PPP with private vendors but through collaboration between the Department of Posts, IIT Hyderabad, and NRSC (ISRO).
  • Statement 2 is correct: It uses a geo-coded, grid-based digital address format.
  • Statement 3 is correct: It is open-source and available on GitHub.

Bharat Forecasting System Launched

Syllabus :GS 1/Geography

  • The Ministry of Earth Sciences has launched the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) to revolutionize weather prediction in India.
  • Developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, BFS delivers highly localized weather forecasts with a cutting-edge 6 km grid resolution—the highest in the world.
  • It enables more accurate prediction of small-scale weather phenomena across India.
  • Powered by Supercomputer Arka (Speed: 11.77 petaflops, Storage: 33 petabytes), BFS now generates forecasts in 4 hours, compared to 10 hours by the earlier system, Pratyush.
  • It focuses on the tropical belt (30°S to 30°N), including entire India, and surpasses global models from the U.S., UK, and Europe (with 9–14 km resolution).
  • It integrates data from 40 Doppler Weather Radars (to be scaled to 100) and provides nowcasting for the next 2 hours.
  • BFS boosts India’s self-reliance in weather prediction and enhances disaster preparedness, agricultural planning, water resource management, and public safety at local levels.
  • It supports India’s commitment to the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction and marks a major leap in India’s capability to deliver accurate, timely, and actionable forecasts from national to panchayat-level scale.

With reference to the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS), consider the following statements:

  1. It is the first global model to offer sub-10 km resolution for weather forecasts.
  2. It uses a combination of ensemble and deterministic forecasting techniques.
  3. It has real-time integration with satellite-derived precipitation and land-surface data.
  4. It is developed under the National Monsoon Mission by IITM, Pune.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C. 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • The Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) does indeed offer a 6 km × 6 km grid resolution, which is among the highest globally for operational regional weather models.
  • However, it is not the first model globally to offer sub-10 km resolution.
  • Some non-global or specialized regional models (e.g., Japan’s JMA models, or high-resolution models for small regions in Europe) have already operated at similar or finer resolutions.
  • Also, BFS is not a global model — it is designed primarily for the tropical belt (30°S to 30°N), including India, so the claim of being a first global model is inaccurate.
  • The BFS employs ensemble forecasting (multiple simulations for probabilistic forecasts) and deterministic forecasting (single high-accuracy prediction).
  • This hybrid approach improves both accuracy and confidence intervals in weather prediction.

             BFS integrates real-time observational data from multiple sources:

  • Satellite data (for cloud cover, precipitation, temperature)
  • Land-surface observations (e.g., soil moisture, surface temperature)
  • Doppler Weather Radars (currently 40, expanding to 100)
  • This enhances both short-term (nowcasting) and medium-range forecasts.

Iran Slams Trump’s Plan to Rename Persian Gulf

Syllabus: GS2/IR/GS1/Places in News           

  • Former U.S. President Donald Trump’s proposal to rename the Persian Gulf as the ‘Arabian Gulf’ or ‘Gulf of Arabia’ sparked sharp criticism from Iran, which viewed the move as a direct challenge to its national identity and historical heritage.
  • The suggestion reportedly surfaced in anticipation of Trump’s visit to Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and the United Arab Emirates.

 

 

About the Dispute:

  • The Persian Gulf is a geopolitically and economically vital water body located in Western Asia.
  • It connects to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea through the strategically crucial Strait of Hormuz.
  • The countries bordering it are Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, and the UAE.
  • While Iran insists on the historical term Persian Gulf, Arab Gulf States (except Iran) often refer to it as the ‘Arabian Gulf’ or simply ‘the Gulf’, sparking an ongoing naming dispute that reflects deeper regional rivalries and identity politics.

 

Historical Background:

  • The term Persian Gulf is rooted in antiquity, referring to Persia, the former name of Iran. In 1935, Reza Shah Pahlavi officially changed the country’s international name from Persia to Iran, asserting that Persia was an exonym (a name given by outsiders) and promoting Iran, the country’s endonym (a native name), to reinforce national sovereignty.
  • This naming controversy continues to carry geopolitical weight, symbolizing broader tensions between Iran and its Arab neighbors.

With reference to the geopolitical discourse surrounding the Persian Gulf naming controversy, consider the following statements:

  1. The term “Persian Gulf” has been historically recognized in international treaties and cartographic references predating modern nation-states in West Asia.
  2. The Strait of Hormuz, connecting the Persian Gulf to the Arabian Sea, lies entirely within the territorial waters of Iran.
  3. The move by some Arab states to promote the term “Arabian Gulf” is aligned with pan-Arab political assertions post-World War II.
  4. The United Nations has officially adopted “Arabian Gulf” as the standardized name for international usage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 4 only

Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: The name Persian Gulf has been consistently used in historical maps, naval treaties, and geographical references dating back over two millennia, especially in Greek, Roman, and Islamic sources.
  • It remains the official designation used by the United Nations.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Strait of Hormuz is not entirely within Iranian waters. It is a narrow waterway bordered by both Iran to the north and Oman (specifically the Musandam exclave) to the south, making it an international strait subject to maritime law.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: The push to rename the Persian Gulf as the Arabian Gulf gained momentum particularly in the mid-20th century, in line with the rise of Pan-Arab nationalism and the political identity consolidation of Arab states in the Gulf region.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect: The United Nations and most international organizations continue to use “Persian Gulf” as the official name. Any alternative naming is considered politically charged and is not recognized by global institutions.

Moringa

Syllabus: GS2/ Health

  • The PKM1 variety of Moringa oleifera has gained global attention for its adaptability and benefits, particularly in African nations such as Senegal, Rwanda, and Madagascar.

 

About Moringa (Moringa oleifera)

  • Origin and Distribution:
  • Indigenous to India, especially the Himalayan foothills.
  • Now extensively cultivated across South Asia, Africa, and the tropical zones of Central and South America.

 

Agronomic Characteristics:

  • Grows best in deep sandy loam soils with a pH range of 6.5 to 8.0.
  • Suited to semi-arid and tropical climates, with an ideal temperature range of 25–30°C.
  • Noted for its drought resistance and rapid growth, enabling multiple harvests annually.

 

Medicinal and Health Applications:

  • Revered in Ayurveda for treating over 300 ailments.
  • Possesses anti-inflammatory, antimicrobial, and anti-diabetic properties.
  • Its seeds exhibit coagulating properties, making them effective in water purification.

With reference to the PKM1 variety of Moringa oleifera, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a genetically modified variety developed for enhanced drought resistance.
  2. PKM1 is known for faster growth and higher pod yield compared to traditional Moringa varieties.
  3. The cultivation of PKM1 has been promoted in parts of Sub-Saharan Africa for food security purposes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

 Answer: B

Explanation:

  • PKM1 is not genetically modified; it is a selectively bred variety known for high productivity and adaptability.
  • It is widely promoted in African nations as part of nutritional security initiatives.

NAMASTE Yojana

Syllabus :GS 2/Welfare Schemes

  • A special event was recently held in Madhya Pradesh to spotlight the National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) scheme.

 

About NAMASTE Yojana:

  • Launched in July 2023 through collaboration between the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, the NAMASTE scheme is designed to promote the safety and dignity of sanitation workers across urban India.
  • The scheme emphasizes the prevention of hazardous cleaning practices by promoting the use of trained and certified sanitation workers who follow safe cleaning protocols. It seeks to enhance occupational safety through capacity building and by improving access to personal protective equipment (PPE), safety devices, and mechanized cleaning machines.

Which of the following ministries are jointly responsible for the implementation of the NAMASTE scheme?

  1. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  2. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
  3. Ministry of Labour and Employment
  4. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above

Answer:A
Explanation: NAMASTE is a convergence between the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

One Big Beautiful Bill Act

Syllabus: GS2/ International issues

  • The United States House of Representatives has passed the One Big Beautiful Bill Act (OBBBA) of 2025, designed to reform the country’s economic and immigration policies.

 

Key Provisions of OBBBA:

  • Permanent Tax Cuts: The act permanently enshrines the tax cuts introduced under the 2017 Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (TCJA), including increased standard deductions and reduced tax brackets.
  • Excise Tax on Remittances: Introduces a 3.5% excise tax on remittances sent by non-citizens, intended to discourage undocumented immigration and raise federal revenue.
  • Raising the Debt Ceiling: Authorizes an increase in the U.S. debt ceiling, which limits the maximum amount of national debt the Treasury can accumulate.
  • Fiscal Prudence Measures: Implements spending cuts by targeting inefficiencies, waste, fraud, and abuse in federal programs.

 

Implications:

  • For the U.S. Economy: Provides tax relief to middle-income households, encouraging consumer spending and economic growth. However, concerns persist about long-term fiscal sustainability, particularly due to simultaneous tax reductions and increased defense expenditures.
  • For Remittance-Dependent Countries: The new excise tax on remittances may adversely affect countries such as Mexico, India, and the Philippines, where remittances are vital for household income and foreign exchange reserves.

Consider the following statements about the One Big Beautiful Bill Act (OBBBA) 2025 recently passed by the U.S. House of Representatives:

  1. It permanently extends tax cuts introduced under the 2017 Tax Cuts and Jobs Act, including reductions in corporate tax rates.
  2. It imposes a 3.5% excise tax on remittances sent by non-citizens residing in the U.S.
  3. The bill authorizes an increase in the U.S. debt ceiling, which limits the Treasury’s borrowing authority.
  4. It includes provisions to increase government spending on welfare programs to support immigrant communities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only

B) 2 and 4 only

C) 1, 3, and 4 only

D) All of the above

Explanation:

  • It permanently extends tax cuts introduced under the 2017 Tax Cuts and Jobs Act, including reductions in corporate tax rates.
  • While the OBBBA does permanently extend some tax cuts introduced under the 2017 Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (TCJA), especially those affecting individuals such as increased standard deductions and lower tax brackets, it does not specifically include new provisions to extend corporate tax cuts, which had already been made permanent under the original TCJA.
  • So, the statement is partially true, but the mention of corporate tax rate reductions being extended under OBBBA is inaccurate.
  • But in context of UPSC-type questions, when a statement includes both correct and incorrect elements, it is considered incorrect. Therefore, this makes the statement wrong.
  • However, considering ambiguity in how the statement is phrased (as many understand the corporate tax cuts were already made permanent in 2017), some interpretations may still accept it as correct if the focus is broadly on extending TCJA tax cuts — which the bill does. So this becomes a borderline case.

Tianwen-2 Mission

Syllabus :GS 3/Space 

 

About the Tianwen-2 Mission

  • China is preparing to launch its first asteroid sampling mission, Tianwen-2, targeting the near-Earth asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa. This mission aims to both collect material from the asteroid and advance China’s deep-space exploration capabilities.
  • Primary Objective: Investigate and retrieve samples from Kamo‘oalewa using either a “touch-and-go” technique or an “anchor and attach” method.
  • Scientific Goals: Enhance understanding of asteroid composition, structure, and origins, contributing to planetary defense and solar system research.
  • Global Significance: If successful, China will become only the third country—after the United States and Japan—to collect and return samples from an asteroid.

 

About Kamo‘oalewa

  • Discovered in 2016 by the Pan-STARRS 1 telescope in Hawaii.
  • It is classified as a quasi-satellite asteroid—a small body that orbits the Sun but remains close to Earth due to its unique, elliptical path.
  • Estimated to have been in its current orbit for around 100 years, and is expected to maintain it for approximately 300 more years.

 

With reference to the Tianwen-2 mission, consider the following statements:

  1. The mission will use gravity-assist maneuvers from Earth’s Moon to reach the target asteroid.
  2. Tianwen-2 intends to collect subsurface material using a drill-based anchor system.
  3. Upon completion, China would become the first country to perform both sample collection and in-situ chemical analysis on an asteroid.
  4. The mission targets a quasi-satellite asteroid which shares Earth’s orbital region but does not orbit the Earth.

Which of the above statements are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:C)1and4only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is plausible; missions to near-Earth objects often use gravity assists (while not explicitly stated, it aligns with mission norms).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect; the anchor and attach method has been proposed, but not a confirmed drill-based subsurface system.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect; in-situ analysis has been done by missions like Hayabusa2, and China is not the first to attempt both sample collection and on-site analysis.
  • Statement 4 is correct — Kamo‘oalewa is a quasi-satellite of Earth, meaning it orbits the Sun but remains in Earth’s orbital vicinity.

Pumped Storage Hydropower Syllabus

Syllabus: GS3/ Energy and Infrastructure

Context:

  • The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has identified major private players like Greenko, Adani Green, and JSW Energy to spearhead India’s goal of achieving 24 GW of Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH) capacity by 2032.

 

What is Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH)?

  • PSH is a hydroelectric energy storage system used for grid load balancing.
    It works by pumping water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir using surplus renewable energy (e.g., solar) during low demand.
  • During peak demand, water is released back down to generate electricity, effectively acting as a renewable energy “battery”.

 

Current Status in India (as of 2024):

  • Installed capacity: < 5 GW
  • Target by 2032:24 GW (across 39 projects)
  • Under construction: ~10 GW (3 GW expected in FY25)

 

Key states:

  • Andhra Pradesh: 16 GW
  • Maharashtra:13GW
    (Together, 57% of future PSH capacity)

 

Importance of PSH in India:

  • Grid Stability: Crucial for integrating intermittent sources like solar and wind by offering dispatchable, reliable power.
  • Economic Viability: Offers higher Internal Rate of Return (IRR) than standalone solar or wind.
  • Energy Security: Reduces dependence on imported energy storage components.

With reference to Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH) in India, consider the following statements:

  1. PSH projects help in maintaining grid stability by providing dispatchable power to balance variable renewable energy sources.
  2. The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) for PSH projects is generally lower than for standalone solar or wind power plants.
  3. Unlike battery energy storage systems (BESS), PSH projects are free from critical mineral supply chain dependencies.
  4. PSH plants provide instantaneous power output, making them more suitable for frequency regulation than BESS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: PSH offers flexible, dispatchable power for grid stability.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: PSH has slightly higher IRR than standalone solar/wind.
  • Statement 3 is correct: PSH depends on local water/land, not imported minerals.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: BESS provides instantaneous power, not PSH.

Matryoshka

Syllabus: GS3/Science and Technology

  • At its 2025 I/O developer conference, Google unveiled AI Matryoshka, a comprehensive AI integration strategy.

 

About AI Matryoshka:

  • AI Matryoshka is Google’s visionary framework that integrates AI models and capabilities throughout its entire digital ecosystem.
  • Inspired by the concept of Russian nesting dolls (Matryoshkas), each AI component is embedded within another, creating a layered system where each level reinforces and enhances the next.
  • This model ensures that AI is deeply embedded into all of Google’s products and services—whether in the cloud, on-device, or at the edge.

 

Significance:

  • Layered Integration: Each AI layer is tightly coupled with others, ensuring coherent, intelligent behavior across devices and platforms.
  • Hardware-Software Synergy: Enables optimal coordination between physical devices and software-based intelligence.
  • Scalability and Specialization: Different layers offer varying levels of specialization, from lightweight on-device models to powerful cloud-based systems.
  • Adaptive Intelligence: The system dynamically shifts between cloud and on-device processing based on task complexity and device capability.
  • Overall, AI Matryoshka represents a shift toward a unified, context-aware AI ecosystem, enabling Google to deliver smarter, more responsive user experiences.

With reference to Google’s AI Matryoshka framework introduced in 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. It is primarily designed for training monolithic AI models on central cloud infrastructure.
  2. It promotes dynamic load shifting between edge devices and cloud-based systems depending on the computational requirements.
  3. It allows multi-level specialization, enabling reusability of AI functions across various layers of the Google ecosystem.
  4. It ensures that all AI processing is exclusively conducted on-device for enhanced privacy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer:B 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because Matryoshka is not limited to monolithic cloud-based AI; it involves modular, layered AI across platforms.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It allows dynamic load shifting based on the complexity and capability of devices.
  • Statement 3 is correct: It promotes reusability and specialization at various levels (edge, cloud, etc.).
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: AI Matryoshka is not exclusive to on-device processing; it includes cloud integration as well.

South Korea

Syllabus:Geography

 

 

Context:

  • South Korea has formally conveyed its concerns to China regarding the recent unilateral establishment of a “No-Sail Zone” in the Yellow Sea—a geopolitically sensitive maritime region where the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of both nations intersect.

 

Geographical Overview of South Korea:

  • Location: Situated in East Asia, South Korea shares a land border with North Korea (Democratic People’s Republic of Korea) to the north. It is bounded by:
  • The Yellow Sea to the west,
  • The East China Sea to the south,
  • The East Sea (Sea of Japan) to the east.
  • Political Division: The Korean Peninsula is divided at the 38th Parallel, which marks the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) separating North and South Korea.
  • Capital City: Seoul
  • Major Rivers:
  • Han River
  • Nakdong River
  • Significant Islands:
  • Jeju Island (the largest island), located in the Korea Strait, is of volcanic origin.
  • Mountain Ranges:
  • The Taebaek Mountain Range runs along the eastern coastline.
  • Highest Peak:
  • Mount Halla (1,950 meters), an extinct volcano on Jeju Island.

 

Geopolitical and Legal Implications:

Strategic Importance of the Yellow Sea:

  • The Yellow Sea, lying between China and the Korean Peninsula, holds significant geopolitical and economic value. It is crucial for:
  • Regional maritime security,
  • Commercial navigation,
  • Fisheries and marine biodiversity.

 

Legal Concerns Under UNCLOS:

  • South Korea’s Ministry of Foreign Affairs is evaluating the legality of China’s no-sail declaration in accordance with the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Key articles being examined include:
  • Article 58: Rights and duties of other States in the EEZ (including navigation and overflight).
  • Article 74: Delimitation of EEZs between states with opposite or adjacent coasts.
  • Article 87: Freedom of the high seas, including freedom of navigation.
  • South Korea asserts that unilaterally imposed maritime restrictions in overlapping EEZs must comply with international law and must not hinder freedom of navigation or other lawful uses of the sea.

With reference to recent geopolitical developments in East Asia, consider the following statements:

  1. The Yellow Sea, where South Korea raised concerns about a newly declared “No-Sail Zone,” lies entirely within China’s territorial waters.
  2. Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), a coastal state cannot restrict freedom of navigation within its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) except for enforcement of customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary laws.
  3. The Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) between North and South Korea lies along the 38th Parallel, but it is not recognized under international treaties as a de jure international boundary.
  4. Mount Halla, South Korea’s highest peak, is a stratovolcano located in the Taebaek Mountain range.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect:The Yellow Sea is a semi-enclosed sea bordered by both China and South Korea, and includes overlapping Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs). It is not entirely within China’s territorial waters.
  • Statement 2: Correct:According to UNCLOS Articles 58 and 87, freedom of navigation and overflight is preserved in EEZs. Coastal states can only restrict this under specific circumstances related to customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary regulations within their territorial waters, not EEZs without due cause.
  • Statement 3: Correct:The DMZ is a de facto boundary established by the Korean Armistice Agreement (1953), not through an international treaty formally recognizing it as an international boundary. Hence, it lacks full de jure status.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect:Mount Halla is an extinct volcano located on Jeju Island, not part of the Taebaek Range, which lies on the mainland along the eastern coast.

INSV Kaundinya

Syllabus:Defence

 

Overview

  • The Indian Navy has inducted INSV Kaundinya, a reconstructed ancient Indian ship inspired by 5th-century maritime imagery found in the Ajanta cave murals. This unique vessel symbolizes India’s historic shipbuilding prowess and aims to raise awareness of the country’s rich maritime legacy.

 

Project Background

  • Launched in July 2023 under a tripartite collaboration between the Ministry of Culture, Indian Navy, and Hodi Innovations.
  • Funded by the Ministry of Culture to celebrate traditional craftsmanship and maritime traditions.
  • The ship is scheduled to sail along the ancient maritime trade route from Gujarat to Oman in 2025.

 

Traditional Shipbuilding Techniques

  • Built using ancient “stitched ship” methods, where wooden planks are fastened with coir ropes, coconut fibres, and natural resin, completely avoiding the use of metal nails.
  • Design inspired by maritime scenes depicted in the Ajanta cave paintings.
  • With no original blueprints available, the ship’s reconstruction relied on a combination of 2D artistic analysis, archaeological evidence, naval architecture, and hydrodynamic modeling.

 

Symbolism and Design

  • The sails display traditional motifs like the Gandabherunda (two-headed eagle) and the Sun, representing strength and vitality.
  • The bow features a Simha Yali, a mythical lion-like figure rooted in South Indian iconography.
  • A Harappan-style stone anchor on deck symbolically connects the ship to the maritime practices of the Indus Valley Civilization.
  • Named after Kaundinya, a legendary Indian sailor believed to have sailed to Southeast Asia, the vessel pays tribute to India’s role in ancient trade and cultural exchange across oceans.

 

Ajanta Cave Paintings Context

  • The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra, dating from the 2nd century BCE to the 6th century CE, are renowned for their early Indian mural art.
  • The murals use the tempera technique (painting on dry plaster) with natural pigments like red ochre and black.
  • Artistic themes center around Buddhism, depicting Jataka Tales, scenes from the Buddha’s life, and moral stories (Avadanas).
  • The paintings are notable for their expressive human figures, detailed gestures, and rich decorative patterns reflecting spiritual and emotional depth.

Which of the following statements about the maritime trade network referenced in the voyage of INSV Kaundinya is/are correct?

  1. It was part of the “Maritime Silk Route” linking India to Southeast Asia and East Africa.
  2. It had established ports like Lothal, Arikamedu, and Barygaza that facilitated Roman and Arab trade.
  3. Kaundinya’s voyage is associated with the cultural transmission of Buddhism to Sri Lanka.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer:A
Explanation:

  • Kaundinya is associated with Indian maritime expansion to Southeast Asia (e.g., Funan), not Sri Lanka. Buddhism reached Sri Lanka via Ashoka’s missionary efforts.
  • The “Maritime Silk Route” was an ancient network of sea routes that linked Southeast Asia, South Asia (including India), the Arabian Peninsula, and East Africa.
  • India played a pivotal role in this trade network, acting as a central hub due to its strategic location between the East and the West.
  • Indian ports facilitated the movement of goods (like spices, textiles, gems) as well as ideas (like religion, language, and culture) across the Indian Ocean.
  • The voyage of INSV Kaundinya is a tribute to this historical maritime linkage, especially between India and Southeast Asia (e.g., ancient kingdoms like Funan, in modern-day Cambodia and Vietnam).

Government Notifies Inter-services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Rules, 2025

Syllabus: GS3/ Defence

In News:

  • The Ministry of Defence has notified the ISO Rules, 2025 under the Inter-Services Organisations (ISO) Act, 2023, effective May 27, 2025.
  • Background – ISO Act, 2023: Enacted to support seamless functioning of Joint Commands and Inter-Service Establishments; aims to enhance coordination among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
  • Objectives of ISO Rules, 2025: Unified Command – streamline control across services; Efficient Discipline – speed up case disposal, reduce duplication; Interoperability – legally and administratively align the three services.
  • Key Provisions of the ISO Act & Rules: Creation of ISOs – Central Govt. empowered to form joint structures with personnel from two or more services; Command Authority – Commander-in-Chief (CiC), Officer-in-Command (OiC), and Commanding Officers (COs) have full disciplinary and administrative powers over all personnel, regardless of service; Retention of Service Acts – personnel remain governed under respective Acts (Army, Navy, Air Force); Residuary Powers – unaddressed issues to be resolved by Central Govt; Chain of Command – temporary replacements permitted during leave/absence or emergencies.
  • Implementation Challenges: Cultural Integration – possible resistance due to differing service traditions; Jurisdiction Overlap – risk of confusion between ISO and parent service authority; Legal Complexity – harmonising distinct service laws may pose difficulties.

With reference to the Inter-Services Organisations (ISO) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

  1. The ISO Act enables the formation of Inter-Service Organisations composed exclusively of personnel from the Army and Navy.
  2. Under the ISO Rules, 2025, the Commander-in-Chief (CiC) of a Joint Services Command can exercise administrative control over civilian personnel posted to that command.
  3. The ISO Act overrides the Army, Navy, and Air Force Acts with respect to disciplinary powers in Joint Commands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None

Answer: D. None

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because ISOs can be composed of personnel from two or more services, not just Army and Navy.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect as ISO Rules empower control over service personnel, not civilian staff.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect; the respective Service Acts still apply to individuals; the ISO Act does not override them.

India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise Nomadic Elephant

Syllabus:Defence

Context:

  • The 17th edition of the India-Mongolia joint military exercise, Nomadic Elephant, is scheduled to take place in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia, from 31st May to 13th June 2025.
  • This bilateral military engagement alternates annually between the two nations, with the previous edition held in Umroi, Meghalaya in July 2024.

 

About the Exercise:

  • Nomadic Elephant is a bilateral military training initiative between the Indian Army and the Mongolian Armed Forces, aimed at enhancing operational synergy in counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency operations, particularly under a UN mandate. It serves as a critical platform for exchanging tactical knowledge, sharing operational best practices, and strengthening defence ties.

 

Participating Forces:

  • India: 45 personnel from the Arunachal Scouts Battalion, a unit skilled in high-altitude and mountain warfare.
  • Mongolia: A 150-strong Special Forces team.

 

Objectives and Training Modules:

  • The exercise is designed to develop interoperability in semi-conventional warfare within mountainous terrain and includes endurance drills, reflex shooting, room intervention techniques, rock craft training, small team tactics, and cyber warfare simulations (a new feature in this edition).

 

Tactical Drills and Operations:

  • The joint training will feature key operational exercises such as joint counter-terrorism responses, establishment of a combined command post, special heliborne operations, drone deployment and anti-drone tactics, insertion and extraction missions for small units, and landing zone security.
  • These drills aim to refine coordination between the two forces in multi-domain operational environments.

 

Historical Context:

  • Initiated in 2004, Nomadic Elephant has evolved into a significant pillar of bilateral defence cooperation. The inaugural edition was hosted by Mongolia, and the exercise has since seen alternate hosting by both nations, with increased scope and complexity over the years.

 

Broader India-Mongolia Defence Engagement:

  • Joint Working Group (JWG) on Defence Cooperation meets annually to review strategic collaboration.
  • India actively participates in Mongolia’s Khan Quest, a multinational military exercise.
  • This sustained engagement underscores the shared commitment of both nations to regional security, counter-terrorism preparedness, and strategic stability in the Indo-Pacific.

 

Conclusion:

  • The 17th edition of Nomadic Elephant reflects the growing strategic alignment between India and Mongolia. Through advanced tactical training and enhanced military collaboration, the two nations continue to foster a robust defence partnership anchored in mutual respect and regional peace.

With reference to Exercise Nomadic Elephant, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a trilateral exercise involving India, Mongolia, and Russia under a UN peacekeeping mandate.
  2. The exercise alternates annually between India and Mongolia since its inception in 2004.
  3. The Arunachal Scouts, participating from India, are specially trained in amphibious warfare for riverine operations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

 Answer: A
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Nomadic Elephant is bilateral, not trilateral.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It has alternated annually between India and Mongolia since 2004.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Arunachal Scouts specialize in high-altitude and mountain warfare, not amphibious operations.

Defence Minister Approves AMCA Fighter Jet Execution Model

  Syllabus: GS3/Defence

Context:

  • Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has approved the execution framework for the development of the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), a key milestone in India’s indigenous aerospace capability.

 About the AMCA Programme:

  • Executing Agency: Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), under the Ministry of Defence.
  • Manufacturing Model: Competitive execution model with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and private sector players eligible to participate independently or in joint ventures/consortia.
  • Eligibility: Bidding entities must be Indian companies compliant with national laws.
  • Key Features of AMCA: Type: 5th-generation twin-engine stealth multirole fighter aircraft.
  • Weight Class: 25 tonnes. Approval: Cleared by the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) in 2024.
  • Estimated Cost: ₹15,000 crore. Design Status: Completed. Prototype Timeline: Expected by 2028–29.
  • Production Timeline: Commencing 2032–33. Induction Goal: Targeted for operational deployment by 2034.
  • Strategic Significance: Aatmanirbharta in Defence: Reinforces India’s commitment to self-reliance in critical military technologies.
  • Geopolitical Imperatives: Responds to increasing regional threats, particularly following Operation Sindoor and enhanced China-Pakistan strategic cooperation.
  • Air Superiority & Tech Parity: AMCA is critical to achieving long-term air dominance and narrowing the technological gap with adversarial forces.
  • Global Standing: Upon successful induction, India would join a select group of nations possessing indigenous fifth-generation fighter capability.

With respect to the development timeline of AMCA, arrange the following in chronological order:

  1. Start of production
  2. Completion of design phase
  3. Deployment into Indian Air Force
  4. Roll-out of prototype

Choose the correct sequence:

A. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
B. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
C. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
D. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1

Answer:A
Explanation: Design is complete → prototype roll-out by 2028-29 → production starts by 2032-33 → induction by 2034. It involved conceptualization, engineering design, stealth shaping, radar cross-section optimization, and wind tunnel testing.  The first physical prototype is expected to be built and revealed during this period.  This stage includes building a full-scale test aircraft for evaluation, ground testing, and limited flight trials.

DRDO inaugurates Quantum Technology Research Centre to further bolster indigenous quantum capabilities for strategic & defence applications

Syllabus:Defence

 

  • On May 27, 2025, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) inaugurated the Quantum Technology Research Centre (QTRC) at Metcalfe House, Delhi.
  • The state-of-the-art facility was inaugurated by Samir V. Kamat, Secretary, Department of Defence R&D and Chairman, DRDO.
  • The QTRC aims to strengthen India’s indigenous quantum research capabilities, particularly in support of strategic and defence applications.
  • Equipped with cutting-edge experimental infrastructure, QTRC is poised to advance research across critical quantum technology domains.
  • Its key capabilities include:
  • Characterisation of Vertical-Cavity Surface-Emitting Lasers (VCSELs) and Distributed Feedback (DFB) Lasers,
  • Test-beds for evaluating single-photon sources,
  • Characterisation of Micro-Fabricated Alkali Vapor Cells,
  • Experimental platforms for developing and validating Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) techniques, a critical enabler of ultra-secure communication in the post-quantum era.
  • These initiatives are spearheaded by the Scientific Analysis Group (SAG), DRDO.
  • In parallel, the Solid State Physics Laboratory (SSPL) is leading the development of foundational quantum technologies at QTRC. These include:
  • An ultra-small atomic clock based on Coherent Population Trapping (CPT) for highly precise timekeeping in GNSS-denied environments,
  • An atomic magnetometer utilizing optically pumped magnetometry for ultra-sensitive magnetic field detection,
  • Advanced solid-state quantum devices and materials, critical for the development of scalable quantum systems.
  • DRDO continues to play a pivotal role in India’s quantum technology ecosystem, leading national efforts in quantum sensing, secure communications, and post-quantum cryptography.
  • As a core stakeholder in the National Quantum Mission, DRDO remains committed to fostering sovereign quantum capabilities through indigenous innovation.
  • The inauguration ceremony was attended by Suma Varughese, Director General (Micro Electronic Devices, Computational Systems & Cyber Systems), whose vision was instrumental in conceptualising this next-generation research facility.
  • Also present were Manu Korulla, DG (Resources & Management), along with Directors of SSPL and SAG, senior scientists, and distinguished guests.

With reference to the Quantum Technology Research Centre (QTRC) recently inaugurated by DRDO, consider the following statements:

  1. The primary aim of QTRC is to establish a commercial ecosystem for quantum computing in collaboration with private sector partners under the National Quantum Mission.
  2. The centre hosts facilities for characterisation of laser systems such as Vertical-Cavity Surface-Emitting Lasers (VCSELs) and Distributed Feedback (DFB) Lasers, which are essential for quantum optics research.
  3. QTRC includes experimental setups for Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) development and micro-fabricated Alkali Vapor Cell characterisation, with support from Scientific Analysis Group (SAG), DRDO.
  4. The foundational quantum technologies at QTRC, including atomic clocks and magnetometers, are developed under the leadership of the Solid State Physics Laboratory (SSPL), DRDO.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: While DRDO’s QTRC plays a strategic role in India’s quantum ecosystem, its primary focus is not commercialisation or private sector collaboration, but indigenous R&D for strategic and defence applications. The National Quantum Mission supports such initiatives, but QTRC is primarily a government-led facility with security-focused goals.
  • Statement 2 is correct: QTRC has facilities for characterising VCSELs and DFB lasers, essential tools in quantum optics and communication systems.
  • Statement 3 is correct: QTRC indeed includes experimental platforms for QKD, alkali vapor cell characterisation, and single-photon source test-beds, under the guidance of SAG (Scientific Analysis Group).
  • Statement 4 is correct: The development of atomic clocks, atomic magnetometers, and solid-state quantum devices at QTRC is spearheaded by SSPL (Solid State Physics Laboratory), DRDO.

Tianwen-2 Mission

Syllabus :GS 3/Space 

 

About the Tianwen-2 Mission

  • China is preparing to launch its first asteroid sampling mission, Tianwen-2, targeting the near-Earth asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa. This mission aims to both collect material from the asteroid and advance China’s deep-space exploration capabilities.
  • Primary Objective: Investigate and retrieve samples from Kamo‘oalewa using either a “touch-and-go” technique or an “anchor and attach” method.
  • Scientific Goals: Enhance understanding of asteroid composition, structure, and origins, contributing to planetary defense and solar system research.
  • Global Significance: If successful, China will become only the third country—after the United States and Japan—to collect and return samples from an asteroid.

 

About Kamo‘oalewa

  • Discovered in 2016 by the Pan-STARRS 1 telescope in Hawaii.
  • It is classified as a quasi-satellite asteroid—a small body that orbits the Sun but remains close to Earth due to its unique, elliptical path.
  • Estimated to have been in its current orbit for around 100 years, and is expected to maintain it for approximately 300 more years.

 

Tianwen-2 Mission

Syllabus:Defence

  • China is preparing to launch Tianwen-2, a landmark asteroid exploration mission aimed at advancing its deep-space capabilities and scientific understanding of near-Earth objects.

 

Mission Overview

  • Agency: China National Space Administration (CNSA)
  • Launch Vehicle: Long March 3B
  • Launch Site: Xichang Satellite Launch Centre, Sichuan Province
  • Mission Objective: To survey and return samples from near-Earth asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa, followed by a secondary mission to the main asteroid belt to study comet 311P/PANSTARRS.

 

Asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa

  • Discovered in 2016 by the Pan-STARRS 1 telescope (Haleakalā Observatory, Hawaii).
  • Classified as a quasi-satellite of Earth: although it orbits the Sun, it remains gravitationally influenced by Earth.
  • Exhibits an elliptical solar orbit that makes it appear to alternate between leading and trailing Earth.
  • Estimated to have occupied its current orbital configuration for ~100 years, and may persist for another ~300 years—though such orbits are inherently unstable.

 

Sampling Strategy

  • Employs a “touch-and-go” technique for sample retrieval:
  • Spacecraft descends briefly to the asteroid surface.
  • A burst of gas or a small projectile dislodges surface particles, which are collected in a sample capsule.
  • A backup method, termed “anchor-and-attach”, involves robotic arms drilling into the asteroid to extract subsurface material.

 

The Tianwen Series

  • Tianwen-1 (2020): China’s first interplanetary mission, successfully deploying an orbiter, lander, and rover on Mars. The rover operated until 2022.
  • Tianwen-2: Targeting asteroid and comet studies with a sample return component.
  • Tianwen-3 (Projected: 2028): Aimed at returning samples from Mars, potentially making China the second country after the USA to achieve this feat.

With reference to China’s upcoming Tianwen-2 Mission, consider the following statements:

  1. The mission targets both a near-Earth asteroid and a trans-Neptunian object for exploration and sample collection.
  2. Kamo‘oalewa, the asteroid targeted by Tianwen-2, is unique due to its classification as a quasi-satellite of Earth, meaning it temporarily orbits Earth before moving into heliocentric orbit.
  3. Tianwen-2 will employ both “touch-and-go” and “anchor-and-attach” techniques to extract surface and subsurface material from the asteroid.
  4. The Tianwen series marks the first time China has undertaken sample return missions beyond Earth’s orbit.

        Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

 

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect – Tianwen-2 will study a near-Earth asteroid (Kamo‘oalewa) and a comet in the main asteroid belt (311P/PANSTARRS), not a trans-Neptunian object.
  • Statement 2: Correct – Kamo‘oalewa is classified as a quasi-satellite; it orbits the Sun but stays gravitationally close to Earth. It does not orbit Earth directly.
  • Statement 3: Correct – Both the “touch-and-go” and a backup “anchor-and-attach” method are planned for sampling.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect – China has already carried out a planetary mission with Tianwen-1 to Mars, but Tianwen-2 will be its first interplanetary sample return mission, not the first beyond Earth’s orbit generally.

International Booker Prize 2025

Syllabus:Awards

  • Banu Mushtaq, an Indian writer, lawyer, and activist, has made history as the first Kannada author to win the prestigious International Booker Prize for her short story collection Heart Lamp.

 

About the International Booker Prize:

  • The International Booker Prize is awarded annually to outstanding works of long-form fiction or short story collections that have been translated into English and published in the UK and/or Ireland.

 

History and Eligibility:

  • Established in 2005 as a biennial award recognizing an author’s global literary contribution, it initially had no requirement for the work to be originally written in a language other than English.
  • Since 2015, it is awarded annually to a work of fiction originally written in a language other than English and subsequently translated into English.
  • The prize is open to authors of any nationality, provided their work is translated into English.
  • The award emphasizes the importance of translators by equally dividing the £50,000 prize money between the author and the translator. Shortlisted authors and translators receive £2,500 each.
  • It is administered by the Booker Prize Foundation.

 

International Booker Prize 2025:

  • Heart Lamp, translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi, won the 2025 prize. It is notable for being the first collection of short stories and the first Kannada-language work to receive this honor. The book features stories written between 1990 and 2023, depicting the struggles of Muslim women in southern India.

 

Consider the following statements about the International Booker Prize and its 2025 winner:

  1. The International Booker Prize has been awarded annually since its inception in 2005.
  2. Since 2015, the prize is given only to works originally written in a language other than English and translated into English.
  3. The prize money is shared equally between the author and the translator.
  4. Banu Mushtaq is the first Indian author to win the International Booker Prize.
  5. Heart Lamp is the first collection of short stories to win the International Booker Prize and is originally written in Kannada.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 2, 3, and 5 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 5 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because the prize was biennial until 2015 and became annual thereafter.
  • Statement 2 is correct as since 2015, the prize is awarded annually to a work originally written in a non-English language and translated into English.
  • Statement 3 is correct; the prize money is split equally between author and translator.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect; Banu Mushtaq is the first Kannada author but not the first Indian author overall to win the prize.
  • Statement 5 is correct; Heart Lamp is the first short story collection and the first Kannada work to win.

Daily Current Affairs

6 june 2025 Current Affairs
5 june 2025 Current Affairs
4 june 2025 Current Affairs
3 june 2025 Current Affairs
2 june 2025 Current Affairs
31th may 2025 Current Affairs
30th may 2025 Current Affairs
29th may 2025 Current Affairs
28th may 2025 Current Affairs
27 may 2025 Current Affairs
26th may 2025 Current Affairs
24th may 2025 Current Affairs
23rd may 2025 Current Affairs
22nd may 2025 Current Affairs
21th may 2025 Current Affairs
20th may 2025 Current Affairs
17th may 2025 Current Affairs
16th may 2025 Current Affairs
15th may 2025 Current Affairs
14th may 2025 Current Affairs
13th may 2025 Current Affairs
12th may 2025 Current Affairs
10th may 2025 Current Affairs
9th may 2025 Current Affairs
8th may 2025 Current Affairs
7th may 2025 Current Affairs
6th may 2025 Current Affairs
5th may 2025 Current Affairs
3rd may 2025 Current Affairs
2nd may 2025 Current Affairs
1st may 2025 Current Affairs
30th april 2025 Current Affairs
29th april 2025 Current Affairs
28th april 2025 Current Affairs
26th april 2025 Current Affairs
25th april 2025 Current Affairs
23rd april 2025 Current Affairs
24 april 2025 Current Affairs
22nd april 2025 Current Affairs
21st april 2025 Current Affairs
19th april 2025 Current Affairs
18th april 2025 Current Affairs
17th april 2025 Current Affairs
16th april 2025 Current Affairs
15th april 2025 Current Affairs
14th april 2025 Current Affairs
12th april 2025 Current Affairs
11th april 2025 Current Affairs
10th april 2025 Current Affairs
9th april 2025 Current Affairs
8th april 2025 Current Affairs
7th april 2025 Current Affairs
5th april 2025 Current Affairs
4th april 2025 Current Affairs
3rd april 2025 Current Affairs
2nd april 2025 Current Affairs
1st april 2025 Current Affairs
31 march 2025 Current Affairs
29 march 2025 Current Affairs
28 march 2025 Current Affairs
27 march 2025 Current Affairs
26 march 2025 Current Affairs
25 march 2025 Current Affairs
24 march 2025 Current Affairs
22 march 2025 Current Affairs
21 march 2025 Current Affairs
20 march 2025 Current Affairs
19 march 2025 Current Affairs
18 march 2025 Current Affairs
17 march 2025 Current Affairs
14 & 15 march 2025 Current Affairs
13 march 2025 Current Affairs
12 march 2025 Current Affairs
11 march 2025 Current Affairs
10 march 2025 Current Affairs
8 march 2025 Current Affairs
7 march 2025 Current Affairs
6 march 2025 Current Affairs
5 march 2025 Current Affairs
4 march 2025 Current Affairs
3 march 2025 Current Affairs
1 march 2025 Current Affairs
28 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
27 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
26 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
25 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
22 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
21 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
20 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
19 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
18 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
17 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
15 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
14 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
13 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
12 Feb 2025 Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs MCQs

6 June Current Affairs
5 June Current Affairs
3 June Current Affairs
4 June Current Affairs
2 June Current Affairs
31 May Current Affairs
29 May Current Affairs
28 May Current Affairs
27 May Current Affairs
26 May Current Affairs
24 May Current Affairs
23 May Current Affairs
22 May Current Affairs
21 May Current Affairs
20 May Current Affairs
17 May Current Affairs
16 May Current Affairs
15 May Current Affairs
14 May Current Affairs
13 May Current Affairs
12 May Current Affairs
10 May Current Affairs
9 May Current Affairs
8 May Current Affairs
7 May Current Affairs
6 May Current Affairs
5 May Current Affairs
3 May Current Affairs
2 May Current Affairs
1 May Current Affairs
30 April Current Affairs
29 April Current Affairs
28 April Current Affairs
26 April Current Affairs
25 April Current Affairs
24 April Current Affairs
23 April Current Affairs
22 April Current Affairs
21 April Current Affairs
19 April Current Affairs
18 April Current Affairs
17 April Current Affairs
16 April Current Affairs
15 April Current Affairs
14 April Current Affairs
12 April Current Affairs
11 April Current Affairs
10 April Current Affairs
9 April Current Affairs
8 April Current Affairs
7 April Current Affairs
5 April Current Affairs
4 April Current Affairs
3 April Current Affairs
2 April Current Affairs
1 April Current Affairs
31 March Current Affairs
29 March Current Affairs
28 March Current Affairs
27 March Current Affairs
26 March Current Affairs
25 March Current Affairs
24 March Current Affairs
22 March Current Affairs
21th March Current Affairs
20th March Current Affairs
19th March Current Affairs
18th March Current Affairs
17th March Current Affairs
14 & 15th March Current Affairs
13th March Current Affairs
12th March Current Affairs
11th March Current Affairs
10th March Current Affairs
8th March Current Affairs
7th March Current Affairs
6th March Current Affairs
5th March Current Affairs
4th March Current Affairs
3rd March Current Affairs
1st March Current Affairs
28th Feb Current Affairs
27th Feb Current Affairs
26th Feb Current Affairs
25th Feb Current Affairs
24th Feb Current Affairs
22th Feb Current Affairs
21th Feb Current Affairs
20th Feb Current Affairs
19th Feb Current Affairs
18th Feb Current Affairs
17th Feb Current Affairs
15th Feb Current Affairs
12th Feb Current Affairs
14th Feb Current Affairs
13th Feb Current Affairs

Write a comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *