Khultabad to be Renamed ‘Ratnapur’ A Cultural Reclamation Move by Maharashtra Government
Syllabus:Polity
- Maharashtra Government Renames Khultabad to Ratnapur as Part of Heritage Restoration Efforts
- In a significant move to revive historical and cultural heritage predating the Mughal era, the Maharashtra government has announced the official renaming of Khultabad to its ancient name, Ratnapur.
- The declaration was made on April 8, 2025, by State Social Justice Minister Sanjay Shirsat, as part of an ongoing initiative led by the BJP-Shiv Sena alliance to restore original place names altered during medieval and colonial periods.
Key Highlights of the Announcement
- Official Renaming
- The historic town of Khultabad, located around 25 km from Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar (formerly Aurangabad), will now officially be known as Ratnapur.
- The government emphasized that the renaming aims to restore the town’s original identity and is not intended as a politically motivated act.
- Historical and Cultural Significance
- Originally named Ratnapur, the town was renamed during the Mughal period.
- Khultabad is known for its spiritual significance, being home to several Sufi shrines, and is a key site on the Aurangabad–Ellora route.
- Aurangzeb’s Tomb and Controversy
- The town houses the tomb of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb, along with the graves of his son Azam Shah and Asaf Jah I, the founder of the Hyderabad Nizam dynasty.
- Minister Shirsat referred to Aurangzeb as a “tyrant” who persecuted Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj, prompting calls to remove his tomb from the list of protected monuments.
- The site has become a focal point of historical and ideological debate.
- Proposed Developments
- Plans have been proposed to build memorials for Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj in the area.
- These efforts aim to highlight the legacy of Maratha valour and reinforce regional identity.
Political and Cultural Context
The renaming of Khultabad follows similar moves:
- Aurangabad was renamed Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar.
- Osmanabad was renamed Dharashiv.
- These name changes are part of a broader cultural campaign to reclaim historical narratives, particularly those tied to the Maratha heritage and pre-colonial Indian civilization.
- The campaign reflects a larger political strategy by the state’s ruling coalition to assert regional and cultural pride, especially in the context of rising historical revisionism in public discourse.
Conclusion
- The renaming of Khultabad to Ratnapur represents a symbolic act of cultural revival and historical reclamation, embedded within the larger socio-political discourse of heritage, identity, and memory.
- As the government moves forward with monument construction and heritage reforms, the initiative continues to evoke diverse responses across the political and academic spectrum.
With reference to the renaming of Khultabad to Ratnapur, consider the following statements:
- Khultabad is located in present-day Osmanabad district.
- The renaming initiative is part of a cultural movement to restore pre-Mughal identities.
- Aurangzeb’s tomb in Khultabad is classified as a protected monument under ASI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Khultabad is in Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar district, not Osmanabad.
- Statement 2 is correct: The renaming is part of a larger cultural strategy to revive pre-Mughal heritage.
- Statement 3 is correct: Aurangzeb’s tomb is currently on the list of protected monuments by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), although there are political demands to remove it.
First Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) Report Released – Gujarat & Telangana Lead
Syllabus:Polity
- In a landmark initiative to strengthen evidence-based governance at the grassroots level, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj has launched the first-ever Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) baseline report for FY 2022–23.
- The PAI introduces a robust data-driven framework to assess the developmental performance of over 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats (GPs), enabling targeted planning, enhanced accountability, and the advancement of Localized Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs).
Objectives of the Panchayat Advancement Index
- Provide a quantitative assessment of Panchayat-level development.
- Foster data-informed planning and decision-making at the local level.
- Encourage a competitive and inclusive governance environment among Panchayats
Coverage and Validation
- Total Gram Panchayats (GPs) considered: 2,55,699
- GPs with validated data: 2,16,285
- Excluded States/UTs: Meghalaya, Nagaland, Goa, Puducherry, and West Bengal (pending data validation by respective governments)
- Top Performing States (by Number of Front Runner Panchayats)
- Gujarat – 346 GPs
- Telangana – 270 GPs
- Followed by: Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
States with Majority in Aspirant Category
- Bihar
- Chhattisgarh
- Andhra Pradesh
- Assessment Framework
- Based on 9 Localized Sustainable Development Goal (LSDG) themes
- Aligned with the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and the National Indicator Framework (NIF) developed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) Includes 435 performance indicators
Nine LSDG Themes:
- Poverty-free and Enhanced Livelihoods
- Healthy Panchayat
- Child-Friendly Panchayat
- Water-Sufficient Panchayat
- Clean and Green Panchayat
- Self-Sufficient Infrastructure
- Socially Secured Panchayat
- Good Governance
- Women-Friendly Panchayat
- Data Collection and Technology
Significance of PAI
- Identifies developmental gaps and priorities at the Panchayat level
- Facilitates formulation of Strategic Development Plans (SDPs)
- Promotes a performance-based governance culture
- Aids in state and national-level policy interventions
With reference to the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI), consider the following statements:
- It is launched by NITI Aayog to track Gram Panchayat performance on Human Development indicators.
- It uses the National Indicator Framework developed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- No Gram Panchayat was categorized as an ‘Achiever’ in the first baseline report (FY 2022–23).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Explanation: PAI was launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, not NITI Aayog (Statement 1 is incorrect). It does use NIF (Statement 2 correct), and no GP was rated as Achiever (Statement 3 correct).
Judicial Cooperation Between India and Nepal
Syllabus :GS 2/IR/Governance
About the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU):
- The Supreme Court of India and the Supreme Court of Nepal have signed an MoU aimed at enhancing judicial cooperation between the two nations.
- The MoU seeks to promote exchange of information, mutual judicial interactions, and capacity-building programs such as training for judges and court officials.
- It emphasizes the adoption of technology to improve judicial efficiency, streamline court procedures, reduce case backlogs, and enhance citizen-centric services.
- A Joint Working Group (JWG) will be constituted to devise actionable plans and monitor the progress of initiatives under this cooperation framework.
- The MoU also envisions collaboration through judicial exchanges, joint research projects, seminars, and official visits to foster deeper mutual understanding.
Noteworthy Highlights:
- Chief Justice of India (CJI), Sanjiv Khanna, termed the MoU as a “new milestone” in strengthening judicial ties between India and Nepal.
- He highlighted the reciprocal influence of judicial decisions between the two countries—citing Nepal’s adoption of India’s Basic Structure Doctrine and parallels such as the decriminalization of Section 377 of the IPC influencing judicial discourse.
With reference to the recent MoU signed between the Supreme Courts of India and Nepal, consider the following statements:
- The MoU mandates the creation of a permanent judicial tribunal for cross-border legal disputes.
- One of the key aims of the MoU is to promote the use of technology to enhance judicial service delivery and reduce pendency.
- The MoU includes provisions for joint research, training programs, and reciprocal visits of judicial officers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The MoU is focused on cooperation, not adjudication; it does not establish a judicial tribunal for cross-border disputes.
- Statement 2 is correct: Emphasis on the adoption of technology is a key feature—to streamline procedures and reduce backlog.
- Statement 3 is correct: It includes joint research, training, seminars, and judicial exchange programs
10 Years Of PM MUDRA Yojana
Schemes
Objective:
- To provide collateral-free institutional credit to micro and small enterprises, especially in rural and semi-urban areas, promoting entrepreneurship and self-employment.
Loan Categories under MUDRA
- Shishu: Up to ₹50,000 – For startups and early-stage businesses
- Kishor: ₹50,001 – ₹5 lakh – For growing small businesses
- Tarun: ₹5 lakh – ₹20 lakh – For business expansion and established unitsKey Statistics (As of April 2025)
- Total Loans Sanctioned: 52+ crore
- Total Disbursed Amount: ₹32.61 lakh crore
- Women Beneficiaries: 68%
- SC/ST/OBC Beneficiaries: 50%
- Trend: Rise in Kishor and Tarun categories → Increasing entrepreneurial ambition
Recognition & Impact
Recognized by: International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Key Impacts:
- Enhanced credit access to MSMEs
- Empowered first-generation entrepreneurs
- Shift towards job creators over job seekers
- Promoted inclusive growth and gender equity
Implementing Agencies
- Apex Body: MUDRA (Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency)
- Loan Disbursal Partners:
- Public Sector Banks (PSBs)
- Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
- Cooperative Banks
- Microfinance Institutions (MFIs)
- Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)
Consider the following statements regarding the MUDRA Yojana:
- It provides credit guarantees to medium-scale industries.
- It focuses exclusively on urban entrepreneurial ecosystems.
- It supports first-generation entrepreneurs through institutional finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B) 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect:The MUDRA Yojana is aimed at micro and small enterprises, not medium-scale industries. It provides collateral-free credit to small entrepreneurs but does not provide credit guarantees. Credit guarantees are typically handled by separate schemes like CGTMSE (Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises).
- Statement 2 is incorrect:The scheme does not focus exclusively on urban areas. In fact, one of its primary objectives is to empower entrepreneurs in rural and semi-urban regions, where access to formal credit is limited. It plays a crucial role in promoting inclusive growth in underdeveloped areas.
- Statement 3 is correct:MUDRA supports first-generation entrepreneurs—those without any prior business background—by offering institutional finance through banks and financial institutions. This helps them start or expand micro/small businesses without collateral, fostering self-employment and entrepreneurship.
22nd Amendment to the U.S. Constitution state
Syllabus: GS2/ International issues
Context: The 22nd Amendment to the U.S. Constitution has resurfaced in public discourse following former President Donald Trump’s comments regarding the two-term limit for U.S. Presidents.
About the 22nd Amendment:
The 22nd Amendment imposes a restriction on the number of terms an individual can serve as President of the United States.
Key Provision:
It states that no person shall be elected to the office of the President more than twice.
Historical Background:
Ratified in 1951, the amendment was introduced in response to President Franklin D. Roosevelt’s unprecedented four-term presidency (1932–1944), which broke the longstanding tradition of a two-term limit.
Successor Clause: If a person assumes the presidency and serves more than two years of a term to which another was elected (e.g., a Vice President succeeding a President), they may be elected only once more.
Maximum Possible Tenure:
- A person may thus serve as President for a maximum of 10 years (2 years as a successor + 2 full 4-year terms).
- The amendment reflects a constitutional safeguard aimed at preventing the concentration of power and reinforcing the principle of democratic rotation in office.
With reference to the 22nd Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, consider the following statements:
- It was introduced in response to Franklin D. Roosevelt’s decision to serve more than two terms as President.
- The amendment completely bars any individual from holding the office of the U.S. President for more than eight years under all circumstances.
- A Vice President who succeeds to the presidency and serves less than two years of the predecessor’s term may be elected to the presidency for two additional terms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The 22nd Amendment was indeed passed following FDR’s four-term presidency, breaking the informal two-term precedent.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: A person can serve up to 10 years—if they succeed to the presidency and serve less than two years, they can still be elected twice.
- Statement 3 is correct: This clause explicitly allows a Vice President or successor to complete less than two years of a term and still be elected twice.
President Murmu Receives City Key of Honour
Syllabus: IR
- President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu, undertook a significant state visit to Portugal on April 7, 2025, marking the golden jubilee of diplomatic relations between India and Portugal.
- The visit underscored the shared aspirations of both nations to advance as knowledge-based, innovation-driven economies, while further consolidating historical and cultural bonds.
Key Outcomes and Strategic Engagements
- Symbolic Recognition: City Key of Honour
President Murmu was conferred the prestigious ‘City Key of Honour’ by the Mayor of Lisbon at City Hall.
In her address, she lauded Lisbon’s values of:
- Cultural openness and diversity
- Democratic tolerance
- Progressiveness in digital transformation and innovation ecosystems
- Techno-Digital Partnership
Lisbon was acknowledged as an emerging European hub for digital innovation, notably in:
- Digital public infrastructure
- Smart city solutions
- Startup accelerators
President Murmu identified these sectors as high-potential areas for India–Portugal cooperation, aligning with India’s Digital India and Start-up India missions.
- State Banquet at Palacio da Ajuda
- Hosted by Portuguese President H.E. Marcelo Rebelo de Sousa, the banquet reflected the warmth of bilateral relations.
President Murmu reiterated the countries’ deep-rooted cultural connections, referencing:
- Architectural influences
- Historical maritime linkages
- Culinary and linguistic imprints
- Commemorating 50 Years of Diplomatic Relations (1975–2025)
The visit served as a platform to transform historical ties into a visionary partnership, expanding into modern sectors such as:
- Science and technology
- Defence cooperation
- Education and research collaboration
- Information Technology and innovation ecosystems
- Cultural and academic exchange
India’s Aspirational Identity as a Knowledge Economy
President Murmu emphasized India’s focus on:
- Innovation-led growth
- Robust digital infrastructure
- Inclusive and sustainable development
Portugal was identified as a strategic and like-minded partner in achieving this vision, particularly through collaboration in emerging tech sectors.
Portugal’s Role in India–EU Engagement
Acknowledged Portugal’s leadership in fostering India–EU relations, citing:
- 2000: Hosting of the first India–EU Summit under Portugal’s EU Presidency.
- 2021: Facilitation of the “India–EU Plus 27” Leaders’ Meeting, a landmark multilateral engagement.
Vision for the Future
President Murmu expressed optimism regarding:
- A broadened bilateral agenda, encompassing global challenges.
- A mutually beneficial partnership that contributes to regional and international peace, prosperity, and innovation.
Consider the following statements regarding India–Portugal bilateral relations in the context of the 2025 Presidential visit:
- The conferment of the ‘City Key of Honour’ on President Murmu was a symbolic act representing civic appreciation for India’s leadership in smart city governance.
- Portugal’s role in hosting both the first India–EU Summit in 2000 and the India–EU Plus 27 Summit in 2021 indicates its centrality in fostering multilateral EU engagements with India.
- Lisbon’s emergence as a hub of digital public infrastructure and startup accelerators was explicitly recognized as complementary to India’s goals under Digital India and Start-up India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: While the ‘City Key of Honour’ symbolized mutual respect and strong ties, it wasn’t awarded for India’s smart city governance specifically.
- Statement 2 is correct: Portugal hosted the first India–EU Summit (2000) and the India–EU Plus 27 Summit (2021).
- Statement 3 is correct: Lisbon’s innovation ecosystem aligns with India’s flagship missions — Digital India and Start-up India.
IIM-Ahmedabad to Set Up Campus in Dubai
Syllabus:IR
- In a landmark move toward global expansion, the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Ahmedabad will establish its first international campus in Dubai, following a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed with the UAE government.
- This strategic initiative aims to enhance India’s global footprint in management education.
Campus Details
- Location: Dubai International Academic City (DIAC) – Phase 1
- Permanent Campus: Operational by 2029 on land allocated by the UAE government
- Launch Date: September 2025
- Program Highlights
- Course Offered: One-year full-time MBA
- Target Audience: Global working professionals & entrepreneurs
- Curriculum: Five-term structure with broad electives and international exposure
Strategic Significance
- Dubai’s global position as a hub for innovation, investment, and talent makes it ideal for the new campus
- Aligns with IIM Ahmedabad’s vision of delivering world-class education with global accessibility
Institutional & Government Backing
- Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan welcomed the MoU as a step toward globalizing Indian higher education
- IIM-A Director Bharat Bhaskar emphasized its potential for academic excellence and research collaboration
- Dubai Economic Development Corp. CEO Hadi Badri and Indian Ambassador Sunjay Sudhir praised the initiative for strengthening bilateral ties and knowledge exchange
Broader Impact
- Reinforces India’s image as an emerging education powerhouse
- Enhances IIM Ahmedabad’s global reputation
- Fosters cross-cultural exchange and prepares leaders for the international business landscape
With reference to IIM Ahmedabad’s overseas expansion, consider the following statements:
- The Dubai campus will be IIM Ahmedabad’s second international campus after Singapore.
- The MBA program to be offered in Dubai will cater primarily to undergraduate students seeking international placements.
- The campus is being established in collaboration with the UAE government, with a permanent facility planned by 2029.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer:B
Explanation: IIM Ahmedabad is opening its first international campus (not second), and the MBA program is designed for working professionals and entrepreneurs, not undergraduates. Statement 3 is correct.
India and Russia Approved Strategic Projects
Syllabus: GS 2/IR
India–Russia Strategic Cooperation: Key Highlights
In the News
- India and Russia have agreed to initiate six new strategic investment projects during the 8th Session of the India-Russia Working Group on Priority Investment Projects (IRWG-PIP), held in New Delhi.
Background: Evolution of the Partnership
- The foundation of modern India-Russia relations was laid with the “Declaration on Strategic Partnership” signed in October 2000, during President Vladimir Putin’s visit to India.
- In 2010, the partnership was further elevated to a “Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership,” reflecting deepening engagement across various sectors—defense, economic cooperation, science & technology, and cultural exchange.
8th IRWG-PIP Session: Key Outcomes
Six new strategic projects were approved, focusing on:
- Trade and commerce
- Technological innovation
- Economic development and investment
- The IRWG-PIP functions under the India-Russia Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological, and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC).
Strategic Significance
- Enhancing Economic Resilience: Promotes diversification of trade and investment, reducing dependence on traditional partners.
- Strategic Autonomy: Aligns with India’s foreign policy of balancing major powers in a multipolar world.
- Boost to Domestic Initiatives: Supports ‘Make in India’ and Atmanirbhar Bharat through technology transfer and local manufacturing.
- Geopolitical Advantage: Expands India’s engagement with Eurasia, enhancing its strategic footprint.
India–Russia Economic Relations
- Historical Ties: Bilateral trade has grown from USD 1.4 billion in 1995 to approximately USD 65.7 billion in FY 2023–24.
Trade Composition:
- India’s exports: Pharmaceuticals, agricultural products, chemicals, and machinery.
- Russia’s exports: Crude oil, fertilizers, mineral fuels, and metals.
- Target: Both nations aim to achieve USD 100 billion in bilateral trade by 2030.
Institutional Mechanisms Supporting Ties
- IRIGC-TEC: Comprises 15 Working Groups and 6 Sub-Groups, covering diverse sectors.
- India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue (IRSED): Facilitates high-level economic coordination.
Multilateral Cooperation
- India and Russia maintain close coordination at major international forums:
- United Nations (UN)
- BRICS
- Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
- G20
India’s presidency of the G20 and SCO in 2023 facilitated numerous bilateral meetings on the sidelines.
Defence and Strategic Cooperation
- India and Russia have a robust defense partnership characterized by both supply and co-development projects:
- S-400 Triumf missile systems
- Licensed production of T-90 tanks and Su-30 MKI aircraft
- Supply of MiG-29s, Kamov helicopters
- INS Vikramaditya (formerly Admiral Gorshkov)
- AK-203 assault rifles (joint production in India)
- BrahMos missiles (jointly developed and exported)
With reference to the India-Russia Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), consider the following statements:
- It includes more than ten Working Groups and multiple Sub-Groups to facilitate sectoral cooperation.
- The IRIGC-TEC is a ministerial-level mechanism that reports directly to the UN Security Council.
- One of its objectives is to coordinate economic cooperation aligned with the BRICS development agenda.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A. 1 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct – The IRIGC-TEC includes 15 Working Groups and 6 Sub-Groups.
- Statement 2 is incorrect – It is a bilateral mechanism between India and Russia, not linked to the UN Security Council.
- Statement 3 is incorrect – While India and Russia coordinate within BRICS, the IRIGC-TEC is not designed explicitly to align with the BRICS development agenda.
NAFTA (North American Free Trade Agreement)
Syllabus: GS2/ International, GS3/ Economy
Context
- To accelerate progress on a potential trade agreement with the United States and avert the imposition of 26% reciprocal tariffs, India’s Ministry of Commerce and Industry has expanded its NAFTA division.
North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)
- The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) was a trilateral trade pact between the United States, Canada, and Mexico, in effect from 1994 to 2020.
- It created one of the world’s largest free trade areas by eliminating tariffs and reducing trade barriers to foster deeper economic integration.
- In 2020, NAFTA was replaced by the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA), which introduced updated provisions, particularly in digital trade, labor standards, and environmental protection.
Key Challenges in India-US Trade Negotiations
Data Localisation Requirements
- The S. Trade Representative (USTR) has raised concerns over India’s data localisation norms, which require financial institutions and payment service providers to store data exclusively within India’s borders—a policy seen as restrictive by U.S. tech and financial companies.
Intellectual Property (IP) Issues
India remains on the USTR’s Priority Watch List due to multiple IP-related concerns, including:
- Absence of a dedicated trade secrets law.
Delays in patent approvals.
- Inconsistent enforcement of IP protections across jurisdictions.
- Labour and Environmental Standards
India has not finalized a comprehensive trade agreement with any Western country, largely due to divergent stances on:
- Labor rights, particularly regarding enforcement mechanisms.
- Environmental regulations, where developed countries demand more stringent commitments than India is currently prepared to adopt.
The replacement of NAFTA by USMCA in 2020 primarily aimed to address which of the following gaps in the original agreement?
- Outdated digital trade provisions
- Weak labor and environmental commitments
- Absence of an investment dispute resolution mechanism
- Tariff barriers among member states
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
- USMCA modernized NAFTA by adding provisions on digital trade, enhancing labor protections, and strengthening environmental standards.
- NAFTA already had dispute resolution and tariff elimination mechanisms.
Statement 3 is incorrect—both NAFTA and USMCA contain dispute mechanisms; the change was not their introduction but refinement. - Statement 4 is incorrect—NAFTA had already removed most tariffs.
MoSPI Released “Women and Men in India 2024” Report
Syllabus: GS3/ Economy
Context:
- The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has released the 26th edition of its annual publication titled “Women and Men in India 2024: Selected Indicators and Data”, providing a statistical snapshot of gender-based progress and disparities across the country.
Overview
- The publication compiles gender-disaggregated data across critical sectors such as population, education, health, labour, finance, entrepreneurship, political participation, and gender-based violence, drawing from diverse government and institutional sources.
Key Findings
Education
- The Gender Parity Index (GPI) for both primary and higher secondary enrolments has improved in FY 2024 compared to the two previous years, suggesting rising female participation in formal education.
- Enrolment rates at upper primary and elementary levels are now nearly equal between boys and girls.
Labour Force Participation
The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for women aged 15 and above has significantly risen from 49.8% in 2017–18 to 60.1% in 2023–24, highlighting greater integration of women into the workforce and formal economy.
Financial Inclusion
- Women account holders now comprise 2% of all bank accounts nationwide.
- They contribute 7% of total deposits, with rural women accounting for 42.2% of all rural account holders—indicating increased financial agency in rural India.
Entrepreneurship and Economic Independence
- Female-headed proprietary establishments in manufacturing, trade, and services sectors have shown consistent growth from 2021–22 through 2023–24.
- Startups with at least one woman director (DPIIT-recognized) grew from 1,943 in 2017 to 17,405 in 2024—an over 800% increase in just seven years.
Political Participation
- Female voter turnout peaked at 2% in 2019, followed by a slight dip to 65.8% in 2024, yet remaining comparable to male turnout—indicating sustained political engagement among women.
Violence Against Women
- 9% of married women aged 18–49 report having experienced spousal violence.
States with the highest reported prevalence include:
- Karnataka:4%
- Bihar:5%
- Manipur:6%
With reference to the trends presented in the “Women and Men in India 2024” report, consider the following statements:
- The Gender Parity Index (GPI) at the primary and higher secondary levels showed a declining trend from FY22 to FY24.
- Female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for women aged 15+ has exceeded 60% as of FY 2023–24.
- Rural women constitute a majority of India’s total bank deposit holders.
- Startups with at least one woman director have grown more than 700% between 2017 and 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Answer: A. 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 – Incorrect: GPI has shown an increasing trend at both primary and higher secondary levels, not declining.
Statement 2 – Correct: The LFPR for women 15+ rose to 60.1% in 2023–24, a significant improvement.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: While rural women account for 42.2% of bank accounts, this doesn’t imply they form the majority of total deposit holders.
Statement 4 – Correct: Startups with at least one woman director increased from 1,943 (2017) to 17,405 (2024), i.e., over 800% growth.
Unemployment Rate Dips Marginally to 4.9% in 2024
Syllabus: Economy
Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2024: Key Findings and Trends
- The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has released the latest Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data for the year 2024, offering nuanced insights into India’s labour market dynamics.
- The report reflects marginal improvement in overall employment conditions, though disparities persist across gender, region, and sector.
Unemployment Rate (15 Years and Above)
- All-India unemployment rate decreased marginally from 5.0% in 2023 to 4.9% in 2024, indicating a slight uptick in employment opportunities.
Rural Areas:
- Unemployment rate declined from 4.3% to 4.2%.
- Both male and female unemployment recorded minor reductions.
Urban Areas:
- Male unemployment slightly increased from 6.0% to 6.1%.
- Female unemployment declined from 8.9% to 8.2%.
- Overall urban unemployment remained static at 6.7%.
Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)
National LFPR (15+ years, PS+SS) declined modestly from 59.8% to 59.6%.
Urban LFPR Trends:
- Male LFPR rose from 74.3% to 75.6%.
- Female LFPR improved slightly from 25.5% to 25.8%.
- Overall urban LFPR increased from 50.3% to 51.0%.
- Total LFPR across India remained largely unchanged at 56.2%, with minor variations by category.
Worker Population Ratio (WPR)
- All-India WPR declined from 58.0% to 57.7%, indicating a marginal contraction in the working population.
- Urban WPR improved slightly from 47.0% to 47.6%, suggesting better employment absorption in cities.
- Rural Female WPR dropped, likely due to a reduction in unpaid female workers in household enterprises:
- Share of female helpers fell from 19.9% to 18.1%.
Employment Shifts and Emerging Trends
- There is a gradual movement away from unpaid household roles, particularly among rural women, possibly signaling a transition towards formal or more productive employment.
Sectoral Hiring Outlook:
- IT and manufacturing sectors are expected to witness a revival in hiring in early 2025.
- Youth employability continues to pose challenges amid growing automation and AI-driven disruptions across multiple industries.
- Despite overall improvements, joblessness among minority communities saw an uptick during the 2023–24 period (July–June).
Consider the following statements regarding India’s labour market trends as per PLFS 2024:
- The all-India unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above decreased from the previous year.
- Urban male unemployment rate declined while rural female unemployment rate increased.
- The overall Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) remained static despite sectoral fluctuations.
- Urban Worker Population Ratio (WPR) saw a marginal decline due to falling formal employment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1: The all-India unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above decreased from the previous year.
According to PLFS 2024:
- Unemployment rate decreased from 0% in 2023 to 4.9% in 2024.
This confirms a slight overall improvement.
ADB Projected India Economy Grow By 6.7% in FY2025
Syllabus:Economy
- India’s economy remains on a robust growth trajectory, demonstrating resilience despite mounting global uncertainties.
- The Asian Development Outlook (ADO) April 2025, published by the Asian Development Bank (ADB), forecasts India’s GDP growth at 6.7% in FY2025, propelled by strong domestic demand, improved rural incomes, and easing inflationary pressures.
- Looking ahead, GDP is expected to rise further to 6.8% in FY2026, underpinned by supportive fiscal and monetary policies.
- Meanwhile, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised its own growth estimate for FY2025 downward from 6.7% to 6.5%, attributing the revision to persisting global trade disruptions and policy uncertainty.
Key Highlights
- Economic Growth Forecasts
ADB Projections:
- FY2025: 6.7%
- FY2026: 6.8%
RBI Projection:
- FY2025: Revised to 6.5%
- Major Growth Drivers
Domestic Demand:
- Stronger household consumption fueled by increased rural incomes
- Urban middle-class and affluent consumers expected to drive spending via higher disposable income
Inflation Trends:
- Inflation is forecasted to ease to 3% in FY2026, and further to 4.0% in FY2027
- Lower inflation likely to bolster consumer confidence and real purchasing power
Policy Stimulus:
- Income tax relief for the middle-income segment
- Monetary easing: The RBI has cut the repo rate by 50 basis points, now at 0%
Sectoral Outlook
- Services Sector: Continues to act as the primary growth engine; driven by exports of business services, and robust performance in education and healthcare
- Agriculture Sector: Strong outlook for FY2025, aided by favorable winter crop output, especially wheat and pulses
- Manufacturing Sector: Set to rebound after subdued performance in FY2024–25, supported by regulatory and structural reforms
Investment and Infrastructure Trends
Urban Infrastructure:
- The central government has launched a dedicated ₹100 billion (approx. USD 1.17 billion) fund for infrastructure modernization and smart city development.
Private Investment:
- Near-term concerns remain due to global instability, but medium-to-long-term prospects are promising due to lower interest rates and an improving regulatory climate
Risks to the Growth Outlook
Global Risks:
- Economic slowdown in the United States
- Imposition of new US tariffs on Indian exports
- Potential surge in commodity prices impacting import bills
Mitigating Factors:
- India’s sound macroeconomic fundamentals
- Adequate monetary and fiscal policy space to cushion external shocks
- ADB Disclaimer: Projections were finalized before April 2, and do not incorporate the impact of newly imposed US tariffs. A regional impact analysis is included to assess possible ramifications on Asia-Pacific economies.
With reference to the Asian Development Outlook (ADO) April 2025, consider the following statements:
- The ADO forecasts India’s GDP to grow at 6.7% in FY2026.
- The ADO attributes India’s growth to robust domestic demand and inflationary trends.
- The Reserve Bank of India has revised its FY2025 growth forecast upward in response to ADO findings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 only
D) None
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect – ADO forecasts 6.7% for FY25, not FY26.
- Statement 2 is partially incorrect – growth is attributed to moderating inflation, not inflationary trends.
- Statement 3 is incorrect – RBI revised GDP downward from 6.7% to 6.5%.
India Needs an Ecosystem That Better Enables Deep-tech Innovation
Syllabus :GS 3/Economy
InNews: It the Startup Mahakumbh event, Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal urged Indian startups to shift their focus from consumer-oriented services like food delivery and online betting to high-tech, innovation-driven sectors such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), semiconductors, and electric vehicles (EVs), drawing a sharp contrast with China’s approach.
Startup Mahakumbh: Context and Vision
- A flagship national event promoting innovation and entrepreneurship in India.
- Themed “Startup India @2047: Unfolding the Bharat Story”, the event envisions India as a global startup powerhouse by the centenary of independence.
- It aims to foster global partnerships, spotlight Indian innovation, and accelerate sectoral diversification beyond consumer apps.
Key Challenges in India’s Startup Ecosystem
- Innovation Deficit: Despite Indian-origin CEOs leading tech giants globally, India lacks corresponding domestic innovation depth.
- Funding Disparities: Long-gestation sectors like deep tech receive less VC attention than short-term consumer apps.
- Educational Gaps: Many graduates lack employable skills; R&D output from Indian universities remains globally marginal.
- Brain Drain: Talented individuals often pursue better-funded opportunities abroad.
- Risk Aversion in VC Culture: Conservative funding norms limit breakthrough tech investments.
- Domestic Market Lock-In: Startups like Swiggy and Zomato primarily serve the Indian market with limited international expansion.
Opportunities and Strengths
- India is now the world’s third-largest startup ecosystem, with over 57 lakh DPIIT-recognized startups and more than 100 unicorns.
- Tier II and III cities now contribute over 51% of startups, indicating a strong grassroots entrepreneurial movement.
Notable success in:
- SaaS (e.g., Zoho, Freshworks),
- Digital payments (e.g., UPI, Paytm, PhonePe),
- Space tech (e.g., Digantara, Skyroot, Agnikul),
- Cybersecurity (though acquisition risk persists).
- Deep-tech investments surged by 78% in 2024, reaching $1.6 billion.
Way Forward: From Consumer Apps to Core Tech Leadership
- India’s startup growth, while commendable in sectors like fintech and SaaS, must evolve toward strategic tech dominance. Bridging the innovation and funding gap requires:
- Policy Support: Long-term frameworks for AI, semiconductors, defence tech, and climate innovation.
- Investment Boldness: Prioritize high-risk, high-reward deep-tech ventures through sovereign funds and incentivized VC models.
- Educational Reforms: Align curricula with global R&D standards and foster academic-industry partnerships.
- Global Integration: Expand Indian startups’ global presence through diplomatic, trade, and venture collaborations.
Conclusion
- India stands at a defining moment in its startup journey. To emerge as a global technology leader, the country must pivot from consumer-centric ventures to deep-tech innovation.
- Achieving this vision demands structural reforms, cultural transformation, and visionary leadership to catalyze a new era of knowledge-driven growth.
With reference to the comparison between Indian and Chinese startup ecosystems, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- India has invested more in technology and innovation than China between 2014 and 2024.
- China leads globally in electric vehicles and AI innovation.
- India ranks below China in the Global Innovation Index 2024.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: India invested ~$160B vs China’s ~$845B in tech between 2014 and 2024.
- Statement 2 is correct: China leads in EVs and AI (e.g., Deepseek).
- Statement 3 is correct: India ranks 39th, while China is 11th on the Global Innovation Index 2024.
Weaponization of Trade and Finance
Syllabus: GS2-International Relations / GS3-Economy
- The Defence Minister of India recently emphasized the growing erosion of global order and multilateralism, driven by the weaponization of trade, finance, and emerging technologies.
What is the Weaponization of Trade and Finance?
- Weaponization of trade and finance refers to the strategic use of trade policies and economic measures by countries to exert political or economic pressure on others. This marks a departure from the traditional role of trade and finance as tools for cooperation and globalization.
Tools of Trade Weaponization:
- Tariffs and Sanctions
- Export Restrictions: Limiting the export of critical technologies or materials.
- Currency Manipulation
Recent Incidents of Trade and Finance Weaponization:
- Tariff War 2.0: The ongoing trade friction between the US and China has led to high tariffs and investment restrictions aimed at securing supply chains and gaining strategic advantages.
- Financial Sanctions: The West’s exclusion of Russia from the SWIFT network and freezing its central bank reserves following the Ukraine invasion is a classic example of financial weaponization.
- Technology Denial Regimes: Restrictions on semiconductor exports to China, and controls over technologies like AI and quantum computing hardware, demonstrate the weaponization of technology.
Consequences of Economic Weaponization:
- Erosion of Multilateral Institutions: The WTO’s dispute settlement mechanism is losing credibility due to the increasing use of unilateral tariffs. Other institutions like the IMF and World Bank are also seen as being Western-dominated, leading to legitimacy crises.
- Decline of Rules-Based Global Order: Unilateral actions are becoming more common, with countries prioritizing national interests over international norms and treaties.
- Economic Fragmentation: The world is experiencing “geo-economic decoupling,” with regional trading blocs like RCEP and IPEF gaining importance, further weakening global economic integration.
- Global Inequality: The disruptions in global supply chains, such as those triggered by the pandemic and the Ukraine war, have exacerbated global inequalities.
Steps Taken Against Trade Weaponization:
- Regional Trade Agreements (RTAs): Countries are forging regional agreements like the CPTPP and RCEP to reduce dependence on major economies and enhance cooperation.
- Alternative Financial Systems: Russia’s SPFS, China’s CIPS, and proposals for a BRICS payment system are alternative solutions to the SWIFT network. Additionally, Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) are being developed to achieve monetary independence.
- Mineral Security Partnership (MSP): This initiative aims to diversify and stabilize the global supply chains of critical minerals.
- Reform of the WTO: Ongoing reforms to the World Trade Organization aim to improve its dispute resolution mechanisms and address challenges posed by unilateral trade actions.
- Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF): This framework counters economic coercion, promoting a more equitable and rules-based trading system.
ConcludingRemarks:
- The weaponization of trade and finance signals the beginning of a new era of geopolitical contestation, where economic interdependence no longer guarantees peace.
- For India, which has always advocated for multilateralism and global cooperation, navigating this fractured world order requires strategic clarity, resilient institutions, and a robust technological foundation.
With reference to the weaponization of trade and finance, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Weaponization of trade refers to the strategic use of trade policies to foster cooperation and globalization.
- Financial sanctions, such as the exclusion of Russia from the SWIFT network, are an example of economic weaponization.
- The weaponization of technology includes restricting the export of critical technologies like semiconductors and AI hardware.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The weaponization of trade marks a departure from cooperation and globalization, as it involves using trade policies and economic measures for political and economic pressure.
- Statement 2 is correct: Financial sanctions, like the exclusion of Russia from the SWIFT network and freezing its central bank reserves, are a clear example of financial weaponization.
- Statement 3 is correct: The restriction on critical technologies, such as semiconductors and AI hardware, reflects the weaponization of technology.
Shingles Vaccine Can Reduce Risk of Dementia
Syllabus: GS 2/Health
- A study conducted in Wales and published in Nature suggests a link between the shingles vaccine and a reduced risk of dementia.
- Individuals who received the shingles vaccine were found to be about 20% less likely to develop dementia over a seven-year period, compared to those who did not receive the vaccine.
- The protective effect appeared stronger in women than in men.
- Shingles, or Herpes Zoster, is caused by the Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV), which also causes chickenpox.
- After an initial infection, the virus can remain dormant in nerve tissue and may reactivate later in life as shingles.
- The shingles vaccine is recommended for older adults to prevent this reactivation.
- Dementia refers to a group of disorders that result in progressive cognitive decline, impacting memory, reasoning, behavior, and the ability to perform daily activities.
- Common types of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia.
- Risk factors for dementia include advancing age, hypertension, diabetes, obesity, smoking, alcohol misuse, physical inactivity, social isolation, depression, strokes, infections, and brain injury.
- The condition places a significant burden on individuals, caregivers, and society. While there is no cure for dementia, management strategies include medication (such as cholinesterase inhibitors and NMDA antagonists), physical and cognitive activities, and controlling associated medical conditions.
- The recent study’s design allowed researchers to compare dementia rates between groups eligible and ineligible for the shingles vaccine based on birth dates.
- The findings support the theory that reducing the occurrence of viral infections may contribute to lowering the risk of developing dementia.
With reference to a recent population-based cohort study published in Nature, which examined the association between shingles (Herpes Zoster) vaccination and reduced dementia incidence, consider the following statements:
- The use of birth-date-based eligibility in the study strengthens causal inference by minimizing selection bias.
- The observed reduction in dementia risk among vaccinated individuals supports the hypothesis that latent viral reactivation may contribute to neurodegeneration.
- The findings conclusively establish that shingles vaccination can prevent all forms of dementia across demographic groups.
- The effect observed was sex-neutral, indicating similar vaccine efficacy across genders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct :The study design used birth-date-based eligibility to determine who received the vaccine. This is a form of a quasi-experimental design that can reduce selection bias, as eligibility is externally assigned and not based on individual choice, helping approximate causal inference.
Statement 2: Correct: The study suggests a plausible biological mechanism: latent VZV reactivation may contribute to chronic neuroinflammation, which is a known contributor to neurodegenerative conditions like dementia. Preventing shingles reactivation could therefore have indirect neuroprotective effects.
Statement 3: Incorrect:The study does not conclusively establish prevention of all dementia types. It’s observational, shows association not causation, and was based on a specific demographic (those eligible for the vaccine by age). Dementia is multifactorial, and no vaccine offers universal protection.
Statement 4: Incorrect: The findings were more pronounced in women than in men, suggesting gender differences in response to vaccination or in baseline dementia risk—possibly due to differences in immunity, behavior, or reporting.
Palna Scheme Under Mission Shakti
Syllabus: GS2/ Health
Context:
- The Palna Scheme addresses the pressing childcare needs of working mothers by offering quality crèche services, thereby facilitating their participation in the workforce without compromising the well-being of their children.
- The scheme also contributes to the recognition and formalization of unpaid care work, aligning with Sustainable Development Goal 8 – promoting decent work and economic growth.
About the Scheme:
- Launched in 2022, the Palna Scheme is the restructured version of the erstwhile National Crèche Scheme.
- It functions under the ‘Samarthya’ sub-scheme of the umbrella programme ‘Mission Shakti’.
- The scheme is Centrally Sponsored, with a Centre-State funding pattern:
- 60:40 for States and UTs with legislature.
- 90:10 for North-Eastern and Special Category States.
- 100% Central assistance for UTs without legislature.
- It ensures active participation of States/UTs to strengthen implementation, monitoring, and accountability.
Objectives:
- To provide safe, secure, and high-quality crèche services for children aged 6 months to 6 years.
- To support the nutritional needs, health, and early cognitive development of children.
- To facilitate growth monitoring, immunization, and other essential early childhood services.
- The scheme is universal in access, providing services to all mothers, regardless of their employment status.
With reference to the Palna Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is implemented under the Samarthya sub-scheme of Mission Shakti.
- The scheme is applicable only to mothers who are engaged in formal employment.
- For UTs without legislatures, the entire cost is borne by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Palna is a sub-component of ‘Samarthya’, which is a sub-scheme under ‘Mission Shakti’.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Crèche services are available to all mothers, irrespective of employment status.
- Statement 3 is correct: For UTs without legislature, the scheme is 100% centrally funded
World Homeopathy Day 2025 Date, Significance, Background
Syllabus:Health
Overview:
- World Homeopathy Day is observed annually on April 10 to commemorate the birth anniversary of Christian Friedrich Samuel Hahnemann, the German physician and founder of homeopathy.
- The day serves to acknowledge homeopathy’s contributions to holistic and integrative healthcare, while encouraging scientific discourse, public awareness, and policy engagement.
Significance and Purpose
- Historical Relevance: Honors Dr. Hahnemann, who pioneered homeopathy in the late 18th century based on the core principle of “Similia Similibus Curentur” (like cures like).
- Healthcare Contribution: Highlights homeopathy’s role as a complementary medical system focused on natural, non-invasive, and patient-centric healing.
- Global Impact: Over 200 million people worldwide, particularly in India, utilize homeopathic treatments for a wide range of ailments.
Core Principles of Homeopathy
- Philosophy: Treats patients using highly diluted substances that stimulate the body’s natural healing mechanisms.
- Sources of Remedies: Derived from plants, minerals, animals, and synthetic compounds.
- Treatment Approach: Aims to address the root cause of illness, focusing on the mind-body connection.
Objectives of World Homeopathy Day
AwarenessGeneration: Educates the public about the efficacy, safety, and scope of homeopathy in modern healthcare.
ScientificAdvancement: Encourages research, clinical validation, and evidence-based practice through academic and institutional collaboration.
Healthcare:Integration: Promotes dialogue for synergizing homeopathy with conventional medicine to ensure comprehensive patient care.
Myth:Busting: Addresses misconceptions and counters misinformation regarding homeopathy’s effectiveness and scientific basis.
Key Activities and Events (2025)
- Health Camps: Free consultations and distribution of homeopathic remedies.
- Workshops and Webinars: Expert-led sessions on treatment principles and patient outcomes.
- Educational Campaigns: Outreach programs in schools and colleges to inform youth.
- Recognition Programs: Awards for distinguished contributions by homeopathic practitioners and researchers.
Community Engagement:
- “Plant a Medicinal Garden” initiative to promote herbal awareness.
- Student Competitions to foster academic interest in holistic medicine.
- Social Media Campaigns using hashtags like #WorldHomeopathyDay.
Ways to Participate
- Organize Public Seminars or community events on holistic health.
- Offer Free Check-ups at local clinics to encourage first-time users.
- Launch Digital Awareness Campaigns featuring patient testimonials and expert interviews.
- Collaborate with Healthcare Influencers to amplify reach and trust.
- Involve Youth through quizzes, essay contests, and science projects on homeopathy.
Conclusion
- World Homeopathy Day is not only a tribute to Dr. Hahnemann’s legacy but also a platform to re-evaluate homeopathy’s role in 21st-century healthcare.
- By fostering public awareness, encouraging interdisciplinary research, and promoting inclusive health policies, the day underscores the enduring relevance of holistic healing in a scientifically evolving world.
With reference to World Homeopathy Day, consider the following statements:
- It is celebrated annually on April 10 to commemorate the birth anniversary of Dr. Edward Bach.
- Homeopathy follows the principle of “like cures like.”
- India is the country with the largest number of homeopathy users globally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect; World Homeopathy Day is celebrated on April 10 in honor of Dr. Samuel Hahnemann, not Edward Bach.
- Statement 2 is correct; homeopathy is based on the principle of “like cures like.”
- Statement 3 is also correct; India has the largest number of homeopathy users.
Launch of the ‘Inter-AIIMS Referral Portal’ for Seamless Healthcare Management
Syllabus: Health
In a significant stride toward transforming India’s public healthcare ecosystem, the Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare, J.P. Nadda, launched the Inter-AIIMS Referral Portal, an indigenously developed digital platform by AIIMS New Delhi. The portal seeks to streamline patient referrals, enhance healthcare delivery, and minimize administrative delays through cutting-edge digital integration.
Core Objectives and Vision
- Purpose: To modernize and digitize the referral mechanism between AIIMS institutions for seamless, secure, and efficient patient transfers.
- Institutional Development: Developed in-house by AIIMS New Delhi as a scalable model for replication across India’s AIIMS network.
- Governance Alignment: Part of the Ministry of Health’s broader digital health transformation agenda.
Key Features and Technological Innovations
- Facial Recognition: Facilitates secure patient identification and automates check-in/out processes.
- Automated Workflows: Minimizes human error and accelerates case management, improving turnaround times for referrals.
- Integrated Communication: Enables authorized medical staff to manage referrals, schedule slots, and communicate across AIIMS centers via a centralized system.
- Patient-Centric Interface: Offers patients real-time clarity on referral status and treatment schedules, improving transparency and trust.
Pilot Implementation and Future Expansion
- Pilot Sites: The initial rollout links AIIMS New Delhi and AIIMS Bilaspur, allowing for protocol testing and system optimization.
- Scalability: Based on pilot feedback, the portal is intended for pan-AIIMS integration, forming a nationwide digital referral network within centrally governed healthcare institutions.
Complementary Facilities and Patient Support
- Vishram Sadan Integration: The portal will connect with the Vishram Sadan system, offering affordable accommodation options for patients and their families during prolonged treatment periods.
- Reduced Waiting Times: Automated referrals and slot allocation systems are expected to substantially reduce patient wait periods, improving clinical outcomes and satisfaction.
Strategic Impact
- Digital Health Infrastructure: Strengthens India’s e-health backbone, especially within the tertiary care network.
- Efficiency and Transparency: Promotes data-driven decision-making, real-time case tracking, and institutional accountability.
- Inclusive Access: Enhances the reach and equity of high-quality medical care through digital innovation, especially for inter-state and rural patients.
With reference to India’s public health digital infrastructure, consider the following statements regarding the Inter-AIIMS Referral Portal:
- It is part of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).
- It enables patient referrals only within states.
- It allows integration with Vishram Sadan to support accommodation for patients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C. 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not under ABDM but a standalone initiative by AIIMS and MoHFW.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: It allows inter-state referrals across AIIMS institutions.
- Statement 3 is correct: The portal integrates with Vishram Sadan for patient accommodation.
Delay in Reporting Births and Deaths Data
Syllabus: GS2/ Governance, Health
In News
- The Civil Registration System (CRS), responsible for recording births and deaths in India, is currently experiencing implementation issues, resulting in delays in issuing digital certificates.
About Civil Registration System (CRS) App
- Developed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (under the Ministry of Home Affairs), the CRS mobile application aims to streamline and accelerate the registration process for births and deaths across the country.
- Digital Mandate: As per the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, all births and deaths occurring from October 1, 2023, onwards must be digitally registered.
- Single Document Utility: Digital birth certificates will now serve as a unified proof of date of birth for key services, including:
- School and college admissions
- Government recruitment
- Marriage registration
- Voter list inclusion
- Centralized Database Integration: The digital records will feed into and help update several national databases such as:
- National Population Register (NPR)
- Ration card system
- Electoral rolls
- Property registration records
National Population Register (NPR)
- NPR is the precursor to the National Register of Citizens (NRC) under the Citizenship Act.
- Initially compiled in 2010 and updated in 2015, NPR currently holds data of over 119 crore residents.
Key Provisions of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023
- Amends: The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
- National Database: The Registrar General of India is tasked with maintaining a centralized, national database of registered births and deaths.
- Data Sharing:
- Chief Registrars and local Registrars (appointed by states) must transmit their data to the central registry.
- The centralized data may be shared with other national databases such as NPR, electoral rolls, and any other database notified by the Central Government.
Expanded Utility of Digital Birth Certificates: These will serve as a standardized proof of age for:
- Admissions to educational institutions
- Voter registration
- Employment in government posts
- Any other official use as prescribed by the government
Mandatory Digital Records: All reported births and deaths across India must be recorded digitally.
Implementation Challenges
- Delayed Reporting by Institutions: Hospitals and healthcare providers are not uploading data in real time, creating processing backlogs.
- Technical and Systemic Glitches: Full-scale integration across state platforms and institutions is yet to be achieved.
Lack of Training and Infrastructure:
- Registration officials and hospital staff require better training on digital tools.
- Infrastructure deficits are hampering real-time data capture.
Way Forward
- Data Security & Privacy: Implement robust cybersecurity protocols to safeguard sensitive personal data.
- Institutional Accountability: Introduce monitoring mechanisms and penalties for non-compliance or delayed data reporting.
- Capacity Building: Launch targeted training programs for hospital administrators, local registrars, and government personnel to enhance digital registration efficiency.
With reference to the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:
- The Chief Registrars and local Registrars are constitutionally obligated to share data with the national database.
- Digital birth certificates issued under the Act shall be considered valid proof for appointment to government posts.
- The Act mandates the establishment of separate databases for births and deaths at state and central levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: They are statutorily (not constitutionally) obligated, and the Act mandates data sharing with the national database.
- Statement 2 is correct: Digital birth certificates are valid for government appointments, among other uses.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act mandates a single centralized national database, not separate ones.
Exercise INDRA 2025
Syllabus: GS3/Defence
Context:
The 14th edition of the India–Russia bilateral naval exercise, INDRA 2025, was recently concluded.
Overview:
The exercise featured complex maritime drills aimed at enhancing operational synergy between the navies of India and Russia. It focused on strengthening interoperability for addressing shared maritime security challenges.
Background:
Initiated in 2003, the INDRA series has evolved into a pivotal component of India–Russia defence cooperation. The exercise underscores the strategic commitment of both nations to safeguard maritime domains through joint preparedness and collaborative frameworks against emerging threats at sea.
With reference to the India–Russia bilateral naval exercise INDRA, consider the following statements:
- The INDRA exercises began as army-only exercises and later expanded to include naval and air components.
- One of the core objectives of the INDRA series is to enhance interoperability between India and Russia for countering asymmetric threats in maritime domains.
- The INDRA exercises are conducted annually with alternating host nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The INDRA exercises initially began as army-level drills and were later expanded to include tri-services, i.e., naval and air components, reflecting a comprehensive security approach.
Statement 2 is correct: The key focus of INDRA exercises includes countering common threats, including asymmetric and non-traditional threats like piracy, terrorism, and smuggling in maritime spaces.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The exercise is not held annually with strict alternation of host nations. The frequency and venue have varied depending on diplomatic and logistical considerations.
Military Space Doctrine
MCQ 1. With reference to India’s proposed Military Space Doctrine, consider the following statements:
- It is being developed to counter emerging threats such as anti-satellite weapons and electronic warfare.
- The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the nodal agency responsible for its formulation.
- It seeks to promote a “space culture” within the defense establishment, including the development of indigenous space laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine addresses threats like ASAT weapons and jamming.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Defence Space Agency (DSA), not ISRO, is responsible for the doctrine.
- Statement 3 is correct: The doctrine aims to develop a “space culture” including laws and indigenous research.
MCQ 2 . With reference to India’s proposed Military Space Doctrine, consider the following statements:
- It is being developed to counter emerging threats such as anti-satellite weapons and electronic warfare.
- The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the nodal agency responsible for its formulation.
- It seeks to promote a “space culture” within the defense establishment, including the development of indigenous space laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine addresses threats like ASAT weapons and jamming.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Defence Space Agency (DSA), not ISRO, is responsible for the doctrine.
- Statement 3 is correct: The doctrine aims to develop a “space culture” including laws and indigenous research.
Brazil’s Proposal for a UN-Backed Global Climate Action Council
Syllabus: Environment
Context:
In a bid to catalyze global climate governance, Brazil has proposed the establishment of a Global Climate Action Council under the aegis of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). This initiative is expected to take center stage at the upcoming 30th Conference of the Parties (COP30), scheduled to be held in Belém, Brazil, in November 2025.
Key Features of the Proposal:
- Objective and Vision:
- The proposed Global Climate Action Council is envisioned as a streamlined, agile mechanism to complement existing UNFCCC structures.
- It aims to simplify decision-making, accelerate implementation, and enhance coordination among nations for climate action.
- The council is intended to reduce bureaucratic inertia, often criticized in the current multilateral negotiation process.
- Core Functions:
- Expedite Climate Implementation: Bridge the gap between climate commitments made at COPs and their ground-level execution.
- Global Coordination Hub: Serve as a platform for synchronizing national efforts, aligning them with global climate targets.
- Monitoring and Accountability: Facilitate transparent review of climate pledges and their progress through periodic assessments.
- Minimize Procedural Complexity: Create a more result-oriented and responsive institutional framework within the UNFCCC ecosystem.
Strategic Significance of COP30:
- Brazil’s proposal gains particular salience as it prepares to host COP30—an opportunity to showcase its leadership in climate diplomacy.
- The Belém summit is expected to deliberate extensively on the feasibility, structure, and potential mandate of the council.
Global Response and Emerging Divergences:
Supportive Positions:
- Countries like Germany, the Netherlands, and Sweden have shown support, citing the need to reform and expedite climate governance mechanisms.
- These countries see the council as a corrective step to overcome the sluggish pace of existing frameworks.
Cautious Voices:
- Several developed nations have expressed measured interest, voicing concern over the creation of a parallel institutional structure.
- There are apprehensions that such a council could dilute the authority of the UNFCCC or create institutional overlap, adding more complexity rather than resolving it.
Current Status and Way Forward:
- As of now, Brazil’s proposal remains informal and under exploratory discussion.
- It is expected to feature prominently in COP30 deliberations, where its structure, legitimacy, and compatibility with existing frameworks will be critically assessed.
Broader Implications:
- The proposal underscores the growing urgency of climate action amidst increasing global climate crises.
- It also highlights Brazil’s aspiration to reposition itself as a climate leader, especially from the Global South, advocating for a more agile and responsive global climate architecture.
With reference to Brazil’s proposal for a Global Climate Action Council under the UNFCCC, consider the following statements:
- The council, if created, would function as a legally binding body parallel to the COP structure.
- One of its primary objectives is to ensure time-bound implementation of climate decisions made during COP meetings.
- The proposal has received universal support among developed countries due to its efficiency-oriented focus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The proposal is currently informal and not legally binding. It aims to complement, not replace or parallel, the COP.
- Statement 2 is correct: The core aim is to speed up implementation of COP decisions, enhancing global response efficiency.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: While some developed nations support the initiative (e.g., Germany, Sweden), others have expressed concerns over redundancy and bureaucratic overlap.
Biomass Mission
Syllabus: GS 3/Environment
In News:
- The European Space Agency (ESA) is set to launch the Biomass Mission on April 29, 2025, under its Earth Explorer programme.
Need for the Mission:
- Forests act as major carbon sinks, absorbing nearly 16 billion metric tonnes of CO₂ annually and storing about 861 gigatonnes of carbon.
- In 2023, approximately 3.7 million hectares of tropical forests were lost, contributing to 6% of global CO₂ emissions.
- Accurate data on forest biomass and carbon storage is essential to evaluate climate change impacts and improve carbon accounting models.
About the Biomass Mission:
Objective:
- To map and monitor the world’s forests and understand their role in the global carbon cycle, particularly in terms of biomass and carbon sequestration.
- Orbit Type:
It will operate in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO) at an altitude of 666 km, allowing consistent lighting conditions for data capture.
- Technology Used:
- The mission will deploy a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) operating in the P-band frequency, capable of penetrating dense forest canopies.
- Biomass will be the first satellite to use P-band SAR for such applications.
Applications:
- Measuring above-ground biomass and carbon storage.
- Creating 3D maps of forest height and structure.
- Monitoring ice sheet movements in Antarctica.
- Generating terrain models in heavily vegetated regions.
Earth Explorer Programme:
- The Biomass mission is the seventh mission in the ESA’s Earth Explorer series, which provides crucial scientific data on Earth’s dynamic systems (e.g., atmosphere, biosphere, hydrosphere, cryosphere).
Previous missions include:
- GOCE (Gravity field and steady-state Ocean Circulation Explorer) – 2009 to 2013
- EarthCARE (Earth Clouds, Aerosols and Radiation Explorer) – launched in 2024
With reference to the European Space Agency’s (ESA) Biomass Mission, consider the following statements:
- It is the first satellite to use P-band synthetic aperture radar for measuring forest biomass.
- It aims to provide high-resolution data on forest canopy carbon only in the tropical belt.
- The mission will operate from a Sun-Synchronous Orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Biomass is the first satellite to use P-band SAR for this purpose.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: It will map global forests, not just tropical ones.
- Statement 3 is correct: The satellite will be placed in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO)
CM Dhami Launches Bhagirath App for Water Conservation in Uttarakhand
Syllabus: Environment
- In a significant move towards sustainable water resource management, Uttarakhand Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami launched the Bhagirath mobile app as part of the Jal Sanrakshan Abhiyan 2025.
- The initiative aims to promote citizen involvement in conserving the state’s natural water heritage.
Key Features of the Initiative:
Bhagirath App:
- Designed to encourage public participation in water conservation.
- Enables users to report endangered water sources like Naulas, Dharaas, and rain-fed rivers.
- Facilitates timely government response for restoration and protection.
Campaign Theme:
- “Dhara Mera, Naula Mera, Gaon Mera, Prayas Mera” — emphasizes collective responsibility and grassroots involvement in water conservation.
- A detailed brochure outlining the campaign strategy was also released.
Spring and River Rejuvenation Authority (SARA):
- Key nodal agency overseeing water conservation in the state.
- Achievements include storing 12 million cubic meters of rainwater and conserving over 6,500 water sources.
- Working in collaboration with the Central Ground Water Board to improve groundwater recharge, especially in plains.
River Rejuvenation Projects:
In partnership with IIT Roorkee and NIH Roorkee, DPRs are being developed for the rejuvenation of rivers such as:
- Nayar
- Song
- Uttarvahini Shipra
- Gauri
Community Engagement and Governance:
- A Dhara-Naula Conservation Committee formed at the village level.
- Statewide campaign to build awareness and train Gram Panchayats through workshops in sustainable water management techniques.
Government’s Vision:
- CM Dhami reiterated the importance of natural water sources in ensuring ecological balance and sustainable development.
- Emphasis on people-led governance and local resource mobilization for long-term water security.
Consider the following statements about the Bhagirath mobile app:
- It is launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti under the National Water Mission.
- It enables citizens to report endangered water sources like Naulas and Dharaas.
- It aims to facilitate public participation in water conservation in Uttarakhand.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The app was launched by the Uttarakhand Government, not the Ministry of Jal Shakti. It enables citizens to report local water sources under threat and promotes public participation in water conservation.
Nilgiri Tahr Census
Syllabus:Environment
- The Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius), an endangered mountain ungulate, is endemic to the southern Western Ghats of India and serves as the state animal of Tamil Nadu.
- Culturally revered and referenced in ancient Tamil literature, adult males are colloquially known as “Saddlebacks” due to the distinct light grey saddle-shaped patch on their backs.
2024 Census Initiative
- In a joint initiative commemorating the 50th anniversary of Eravikulam National Park, a comprehensive Nilgiri Tahr census is scheduled from April 24 to 27 across 89 blocks in Kerala and 176 blocks in Tamil Nadu.
- The operation will involve forest officials and trained volunteers, utilizing camera traps and pellet sampling to facilitate genetic studies.
- The ‘bounded count’ method will be employed to estimate the species’ population density accurately.
Habitat and Distribution
- The species is primarily found in the montane grasslands, Shola forests, and high-altitude rocky terrains of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
- The largest contiguous population is located in Eravikulam National Park, Kerala, which offers the species a cold, wet, and rugged terrain ideal for survival.
- The Nilgiri Tahr is diurnal and exhibits a high degree of ecological resilience and adaptability.
Conservation Status
- Listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
- Protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- The population has declined significantly due to habitat degradation, poaching, and anthropogenic pressures.
- As per a 2015 WWF assessment, the wild population stood at an estimated 3,122 individuals, indicating a major contraction from its historical range.
Project Nilgiri Tahr
- Launched in December 2022 by the Tamil Nadu Government, Project Nilgiri Tahr is a five-year conservation initiative with a financial outlay of ₹25.14 crore. The project’s key objectives include:
- Conducting systematic population surveys.
- Implementing radio telemetry studies.
- Reintroducing the species to historical habitats.
- Mitigating immediate threats such as habitat encroachment and climate vulnerability.
With reference to the Nilgiri Tahr, consider the following statements:
- It is found only in Tamil Nadu and nowhere else in India.
- It inhabits both tropical montane grasslands and Shola forests.
- Adult males are commonly referred to as “Saddlebacks” due to a light grey patch on their back.
- The Nilgiri Tahr is nocturnal and prefers dry scrublands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: While the largest population is in Tamil Nadu, it is also found in Kerala, especially in Eravikulam National Park.
- Statement 2 is correct: It inhabits tropical montane grasslands, Shola forests, and high-altitude rocky areas.
- Statement 3 is correct: Adult males are called “Saddlebacks” due to the light grey saddle-shaped patch.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The Nilgiri Tahr is diurnal, not nocturnal, and does not prefer dry scrublands.
Cabinet Approves Modernization of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM)
Syllabus:Environment
- In a significant policy intervention aimed at augmenting agricultural water-use efficiency and productivity, the Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved a new sub-scheme titled Modernization of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM) under the overarching umbrella of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY).
- The scheme, with a total outlay of ₹1,600 crore, will be operational during FY 2025–26 and is envisaged as a precursor to a comprehensive national plan aligned with the 16th Finance Commission cycle, set to commence in April 2026.
Key Components and Strategic Objectives
- Sub-scheme under PMKSY, the flagship irrigation and water resource management programme.
- Financial Outlay: ₹1,600 crore for 2025–26.
- Modernize backend irrigation infrastructure, specifically targeting canal-based systems, to ensure seamless water delivery from source to farm gate.
- Emphasis on micro-irrigation compatibility through pressurized underground piping networks, enabling coverage of up to 1 hectare per farmer.
Technological Interventions
- To drive precision and efficiency, the sub-scheme proposes integration of:
- SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) systems for automated monitoring.
- IoT (Internet of Things) solutions for:
- Real-time water management
- Water accounting
- These technologies aim to optimize Water Use Efficiency (WUE) at the field level.
Implementation Model: Pilots with Innovation Incentives
- Pilot Projects to be implemented across diverse agro-climatic zones to ensure replicability and contextual adaptability.
- Adopted through a Challenge Fund mechanism, encouraging inter-state competitiveness and innovation.
Community Engagement and Institutional Synergy
- Promotes Irrigation Management Transfer (IMT) to Water User Societies (WUS).
- Five-year handholding period, with linkages to:
- Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs)
- Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
- This fosters local ownership, accountability, and long-term sustainability.
Youth Participation and Future Orientation
- The scheme aims to incentivize youth involvement in agriculture via technologically enabled irrigation solutions.
- Insights from the pilot phase will inform a National Command Area Development and Water Management Plan beginning April 2026.
Significance
- M-CADWM aligns with the government’s vision of “Per Drop More Crop”, addressing climate resilience, food security, and sustainable resource use.
- It marks a paradigm shift from conventional irrigation models towards smart, tech-driven, and community-led irrigation governance.
Consider the following statements with reference to the M-CADWM sub-scheme:
- It adopts a top-down, centralized implementation strategy.
- It will provide irrigation support up to 5 hectares per farmer through open canal systems.
- It promotes community-level ownership through Water User Societies.
- Learnings from this pilot phase will be used to develop a National Plan from FY 2026 onward.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer:B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: M-CADWM uses a decentralized, challenge-funding model to promote state innovation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The irrigation support is up to 1 hectare per farmer, not 5.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct: The scheme promotes Water User Societies and feeds into a national plan starting April 2026.
Gaza Strip
Syllabus: GS1/ Places in News
- Israel has gained control over more than 50% of the Gaza Strip’s territory since resuming its military operations against Hamas.
About the Gaza Strip:
- Location: The Gaza Strip is a small region situated along the eastern Mediterranean coast. It borders Israel to the north and east and Egypt to the southwest, covering approximately 365 square kilometers.
- Conflict Zone: The Gaza Strip has been the site of recurring conflicts between Israel and Hamas, with major wars occurring in 2008, 2012, 2014, and most recently in 2023–2024.
- Humanitarian Crisis: Due to the ongoing blockade and repeated conflicts, the Gaza Strip faces severe humanitarian challenges, including high unemployment, limited access to clean water, electricity, and healthcare, and widespread poverty.
With reference to the Gaza Strip, consider the following statements:
- It shares a border with both Israel and Jordan.
- It has an area less than that of the Indian city of Mumbai.
- It lies along the Red Sea coast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Gaza shares borders with Israel and Egypt, not Jordan.
- Statement 2 is correct: Gaza Strip’s area is approx. 365 sq km, which is less than Mumbai’s area (~603 sq km).
- Statement 3 is incorrect: It lies along the eastern Mediterranean Sea, not the Red Sea.
Ancient Jawbone Discovery Expands Insights into Denisovan Migration and Evolution
Syllabus: GS1/Geography; GS3/Science
Denisovan Jawbone Discovery Sheds Light on Archaic Human Migration
- A remarkable fossil discovery off the coast of Taiwan is reshaping our understanding of Denisovan migration and habitat.
- The fossilized jawbone, known as Penghu 1, was recovered from the Penghu Channel near Taiwan during a commercial fishing operation and offers new insights into the geographic range of these mysterious archaic humans.
Who Were the Denisovans?
- Denisovans are an extinct group of archaic humans, known largely through limited fossil remains—including a jawbone, teeth, and a finger bone.
- First Discovery: They were first identified in 2010 through DNA analysis of a finger bone found in the Denisova Cave in Siberia.
- Genetic Lineage: Studies revealed that Denisovans were a distinct branch of the human family tree, closely related to Neanderthals and Homo sapiens.
- Physical Features: Based on DNA methylation patterns, Denisovans likely had a broader skull and a longer dental arch than both Neanderthals and modern humans.
Significance of the Penghu 1 Discovery
Expanding Geographic Range: The Penghu 1 jawbone suggests Denisovans were more adaptable than previously thought, capable of surviving in diverse climates—from Siberia’s cold mountains to Taiwan’s subtropical coasts.
Key Denisovan Fossil Sites:
- Taiwan (Penghu Channel): Jawbone (Penghu 1)
- Russia (Denisova Cave): Teeth and a finger bone
- China (Baishiya Karst Cave, Tibetan Plateau): Mandible and rib fragment
- Laos (Cobra Cave): A molar likely belonging to a Denisovan based on shape
- Genetic Legacy: Denisovans interbred with both Neanderthals and modern humans. Their DNA lives on in present-day populations, particularly in Asia and Oceania.
- Notably, a gene variant from Denisovans helps modern Tibetans thrive at high altitudes.
Challenges and Future Directions
Dating Difficulties: The precise age of Penghu 1 is unclear, as it was found without surrounding sediments or datable materials. Estimates based on associated animal fossils range from 10,000 to 190,000 years old.
Need for Further Exploration: The discovery underscores the importance of investigating submerged landmasses and lesser-known regions for Denisovan remains.
Innovative Research Methods: New tools like paleoproteomics (the study of ancient proteins) may help identify additional Denisovan fossils and refine our understanding of their evolutionary story.
Recognition in Science
- In 2022, the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Swedish geneticist Svante Pääbo for his groundbreaking work on the genomes of extinct hominins, including the Denisovans, and their role in human evolution.
Consider the following statements regarding Denisovans:
- The presence of Denisovan fossils exclusively in high-altitude regions suggests limited adaptability to environmental diversity.
- Genetic studies have confirmed Denisovan contributions to the adaptation of certain modern human populations to extreme altitudes.
- The Penghu 1 fossil is considered the earliest known Denisovan fossil found in a marine environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The discovery of the Penghu 1 jawbone off the coast of Taiwan, a subtropical region, contradicts the idea that Denisovans were confined to high-altitude or cold regions. This fossil, along with others found in diverse habitats, indicates they were highly adaptable.
- Statement 2 is correct: Genetic evidence has shown that modern populations such as Tibetans possess genes inherited from Denisovans that assist with high-altitude adaptation—specifically for efficient oxygen usage.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Although the Penghu 1 jawbone was found in a marine context (from the seabed), it is not necessarily the earliest known Denisovan fossil. Furthermore, the fossil’s precise age remains debated due to lack of datable material at the recovery site.
Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act
Syllabus: GS2/Governance
New Data Protection Rules and Impact on the RTI Act
Recent Development
- The Union Minister for Information and Technology clarified that personal information required to be disclosed under existing laws will continue to be available under the RTI Act even after the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules are implemented.
Key Changes to the RTI Act
- Amendment Trigger: The RTI Act will be amended following the notification of DPDP rules.
- Section 8(1)(j) Update: Now includes a blanket restriction on disclosing personal information, even if public interest is involved.
- Government’s Stand: Disclosure is still allowed where it is legally mandated. The amendment is justified in light of the 2017 Supreme Court ruling that affirmed the right to privacy as a part of Article 21.
Concerns Raised
- Reduced Transparency: May hinder access to critical information needed for social audits and exposing corruption or fund misuse.
- Civil Society View: The amendment undermines the balance between privacy and transparency established in the original Act.
- Pending Status: The amendment is not yet in effect; civil society groups are urging the government to revise the draft DPDP rules.
Related Reforms and Rules
RTI Amendment Act, 2019
- Tenure: Reduced tenure of CICs and ICs to 3 years (from 5).
- Service Conditions: Salaries and terms now set by the Central Government, no longer linked to Election Commissioners.
- RTI Rules, 2022
- Encourages online filing of RTI applications.
- Streamlined appeal and complaint
RTI Act, 2005 – Overview
Purpose
- To promote transparency and hold public authorities accountable by giving citizens the right to access information.
Scope
- Covers government bodies and any organization substantially funded by the government.
Key Features
- 30-day response period (extendable to 45 days in some cases).
- Penalties for non-compliance or false information.
- Exemptions include matters affecting national security, confidentiality, or ongoing investigations.
Significance of RTI
- Empowers citizens and encourages democratic participation.
- Critical in exposing corruption, e.g., in NREGS and PDS.
- Facilitates social audits by NGOs and activists.
- Improves transparency in government contracts and projects.
Challenges
- Burden on authorities due to high volume of requests.
- Misuse by individuals for personal vendettas.
- Delays in processing applications.
- Inadequate training and infrastructure in public offices.
- Ambiguous exemptions sometimes used to deny legitimate information.
Way Forward
- RTI remains a cornerstone for good governance and democratic accountability.
- The upcoming DPDP Rules must ensure that transparency is not compromised.
- A careful balance is needed between the right to privacy and the citizen’s right to information.
- Civil society’s input should be incorporated before finalizing the rules to safeguard the RTI Act’s original intent.
Consider the following statements regarding the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019:
- It fixed the tenure of CIC and ICs at both central and state levels to three years.
- Salaries of CICs and ICs are now equated with the Chief Election Commissioner.
- The amendment grants the Central Government power to determine service conditions of Information Commissioners.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer:C
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect — the amendment removed equivalence with Election Commissioners. Now, the Centre decides their salary and terms. Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
Breakthrough Prize 2025
Syllabus :Miscellaneous
In News: The 2025 Breakthrough Prizes have been announced, recognizing outstanding contributions in the fields of Life Sciences, Mathematics, and Fundamental Physics.
About the Breakthrough Prize:
- Established in 2013 by prominent tech leaders including Mark Zuckerberg & Priscilla Chan, Sergey Brin, Anne Wojcicki (23&Me), and Yuri & Julia Milner.
- Often referred to as the “Oscars of Science”, it is one of the most prestigious global science awards. Awards are presented annually in three main categories: Life Sciences, Fundamental Physics, and Mathematics.
- Each prize carries a monetary reward of $3 million, significantly higher than that of the Nobel Prize.
2025 Winners:
- The Fundamental Physics Prize was awarded to 13,508 scientists from four CERN collaborations for their contributions to the discovery of the Higgs boson and advancements in particle physics.
- The Life Sciences Prizes recognized path-breaking research in weight-loss drugs, Multiple Sclerosis (MS) treatment, and gene-editing technologies.
- The Mathematics Prize was awarded to Dennis Gaitsgory for his work on the Langlands conjecture, a deep theory linking number theory and geometry.
Consider the following statements regarding the Breakthrough Prize:
- It was established to promote public awareness and appreciation of scientific achievements in core research fields.
- It is awarded annually in four major categories, including Artificial Intelligence and Space Technology.
- It is known for awarding a larger monetary prize than the Nobel Prize.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: One of the aims of the Breakthrough Prize is to increase public interest in science and honor groundbreaking work.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The prize is awarded in three categories – Life Sciences, Mathematics, and Fundamental Physics (not AI or Space Technology).
- Statement 3 is correct: Each prize carries a reward of $3 million, which is indeed larger than the Nobel Prize.
Rajesh Unni Honored With National Maritime Varuna Award
Syllabus:Awards
- On April 5, 2025, during the 62nd National Maritime Day celebrations in Mumbai, Rajesh Unni, founder of Synergy Marine Group, was conferred the National Maritime Varuna Award—India’s highest individual honor in the maritime sector.
- The award is presented by the Directorate General of Shipping (DGS) to recognize outstanding and sustained contributions to the maritime industry.
About the Award
- The National Maritime Varuna Award honors individuals who have played a pivotal role in advancing India’s maritime landscape.
- It goes beyond operational excellence to acknowledge visionary leadership and contributions in areas like innovation, management, and maritime policy.
Rajesh Unni’s Contributions
- Founder of Synergy Marine Group, a global leader in third-party ship management and maritime solutions.
- His firm manages a substantial fleet of Indian-flagged vessels and is known for integrating technology and sustainability into maritime operations.
- Unni’s leadership has significantly enhanced India’s global stature in the maritime sector.
Unni’s Vision
- In his acceptance speech, Unni highlighted the transformative potential of India’s maritime workforce.
- He emphasized that Indian seafarers and shore-based professionals are not just ship operators—they are future leaders of global shipping.
About Synergy Marine Group
- Provides integrated maritime solutions and manages a wide range of vessels.
- Recognized for its innovative approach, Synergy plays a crucial role in strengthening maritime operations both in India and globally.
Consider the following statements about the National Maritime Varuna Award:
- It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
- The award exclusively recognizes contributions related to the operational efficiency of cargo shipping.
- Rajesh Unni, founder of Synergy Marine Group, received the award in 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer:C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct — The award is conferred by the Directorate General of Shipping under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
- Statement 2 is incorrect — The award also considers leadership, innovation, and strategic contribution to the maritime sector, not just operational efficiency.
- Statement 3 is correct — Rajesh Unni was honored in 2025.
Juspay Becomes India’s First Unicorn of 2025: $1 Billion Valuation Achieved
Syllabus: Awards
- Bengaluru-based fintech infrastructure company Juspay has emerged as India’s first unicorn of 2025 after securing $60 million in Series D funding.
- The round was led by Kedaara Capital, with continued backing from existing investors SoftBank and Accel.
- Despite scaling back from an initially projected $150 million raise, the latest funding round has propelled Juspay’s valuation beyond $1 billion, marking a notable development in India’s digital payments ecosystem.
Key Developments
Funding Snapshot:
- Amount Raised: $60 million
- Series: D
- Lead Investor: Kedaara Capital
- Other Participants: SoftBank, Accel
- Funding Structure: Mix of primary and secondary investment
- Initial Target: $150 million (scaled down)
Unicorn Milestone:
- Valuation: Exceeds $1 billion
- Status: First Indian unicorn of 2025
- Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka
- Strategic Roadmap
Technology Focus:
- Investments in AI-based productivity tools
- Reduction of manual processes in operational workflows
- Development of advanced merchant analytics dashboards
Global Expansion Plans:
- Target regions include:
- Asia-Pacific (APAC)
- Latin America
- Europe, UK, and North America
Emerging Challenges
- Loss of Key Clients: Major fintech players like Razorpay and PhonePe have exited Juspay’s platform
- Impact: Potential slowdown in adoption and growth trajectory
- Strategic Response: Emphasis on continuous innovation to retain partners and secure global market share
Consider the following statements regarding India’s startup ecosystem:
- Juspay became India’s first unicorn of 2025 after raising $150 million in Series D funding.
- The Series D funding round of Juspay was led by SoftBank.
- Juspay is primarily known for providing payment infrastructure services.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C) 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Juspay raised $60 million, not $150 million (which was the initial target).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The lead investor was Kedaara Capital, not SoftBank.
- Statement 3 is correct: Juspay is a payments infrastructure provider.
Jatra Utsav
Syllabus: GS1/ History and Culture
Context:
- Tripura is set to host a Jatra Utsav aimed at preserving its traditional art forms, culture, and heritage.
\
AboutJatra: Jatra, or Jatrapala, is a widely recognized traditional Bengali folk theatre form, typically performed in open-air settings, encouraging interaction with the audience.
The term “Jatra” means “journey,” which reflects its origins as a traveling theatrical performance.
Region: Jatrapala is most popular in the regions of West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, and Tripura, showcasing the rich cultural and linguistic heritage of these areas.
Features:Jatra combines dramatic storytelling with music, dance, and social commentary.
The performances are known for their vibrant costumes, expressive gestures, loud dialogues, and often convey moral lessons.
Themes:The performances typically focus on mythological tales, historical narratives, and contemporary social issues.
With reference to the traditional Bengali folk theatre form “Jatra” or “Jatrapala,” which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Jatra performances are primarily performed indoors, with limited interaction with the audience.
- The word “Jatra” refers to “journey,” indicating its origins as a traveling theatrical performance.
- The performances are known for their elaborate costumes, exaggerated gestures, and moral messaging.
- Jatra is only popular in West Bengal, with no significant presence in other states.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Jatra is typically performed in open-air settings with audience interaction.
- Statement 2 is correct: The word “Jatra” means “journey,” which reflects its origins as a traveling theatrical performance.
- Statement 3 is correct: Jatra is characterized by elaborate costumes, dramatic gestures, and moral or social messaging.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: Jatra is popular in several states, including West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, and Tripura.
Mahavir Jayanti
Syllabus: GS 1/History, Famous Personalities
- Mahavir Jayanti is being celebrated with great devotion across India to commemorate the birth of Lord Mahavir, the 24th and last Tirthankara (teacher) of Jainism.
- This significant occasion serves as a reminder for followers of Jainism to reflect upon and embrace the core principles taught by Lord Mahavir.
- The celebration includes prayers, meditation, and compassionate acts, encouraging individuals to lead an ethical life and show kindness to all living beings.
- Mahavir Jayanti is primarily observed by Jains in India, Nepal, the United States, and the United Kingdom.
VardhamanMahavira:
- Lord Mahavir, also known as Vardhaman, is regarded as the founder of Jainism. He was born in 599 BC at Vaishali, the capital of the Vajji tribe.
- His father, Siddhartha, was the chief of a Kshatriya clan. Mahavir left his royal life at the age of thirty to pursue spiritual awakening, enduring a life of austerity to gain true knowledge.
- After achieving supreme wisdom, he came to be known as Mahavir.
- Mahavir was deeply committed to the practice of celibacy (brahmacharya) and believed strongly in the importance of living a disciplined and ethical life.
Philosophy and Teachings
- Lord Mahavir rejected the belief in a personal god, rituals, and the caste system, advocating for equality among all people.
- He taught four primary vows: non-violence (Ahimsa), truthfulness (Satya), non-attachment (Aparigraha), and non-stealing (Asteya).
- He emphasized the path of Right Belief, Right Knowledge, and Right Conduct as the key to attaining Moksha—liberation from the cycle of birth and rebirth.
- His central tenet, Ahimsa (non-violence), influenced practices like vegetarianism and extreme care in avoiding harm to even the smallest life forms.
- Mahavir spent much of his life preaching across regions like Anga, Mithila, Magadha, and Kosala. He passed away in 527 BC at Pawapuri.
Did You Know?
- The term Jaina comes from the Sanskrit word Jina, meaning “the conqueror”—one who has conquered passion and desire. Mahavir is called Jina after he attained supreme realization.
- Mahavir’s teachings gained widespread acceptance due to his use of the common language, Ardha Magadhi.
- Jainism eventually split into two main sects: Digambaras (sky-clad) and Swetambaras (white-clad).
- Notable kings like Bimbisara and Ajatsatru embraced Jainism, and under their patronage, Jain art, architecture, and literature flourished.
Chittorgarh Fort
Syllabus: GS1/History
Context: The Rajasthan government has informed the Supreme Court that it is “actively considering” a complete ban on mining activities within 10 kilometers of the outer boundary of the historic Chittorgarh Fort.
About Chittorgarh Fort:
- Chittorgarh Fort, one of the largest forts in India, was originally built in the 7th century AD by Chitrangada Mori, a ruler from the Maurya dynasty of Rajasthan.
Historical Significance:
- In 728 AD, the fort was captured by the rulers of Mewar, who made it their capital and transformed it into a symbol of Rajput power and resistance.
- The fort’s history is famously depicted in Malik Muhammad Jayasi’s epic Padmavat, which tells of the siege by Alauddin Khilji, who sought to capture Queen Padmini, wife of Rana Ratan Singh.
UNESCO Recognition:
- In 2013, the fort was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site under the “Hill Forts of Rajasthan” category due to its historical importance.
Architectural Features:
- The fort is accessed through seven massive gates (pols), surrounded by thick stone walls and strong ramparts for defense.
Notable structures inside the fort include:
- Vijay Stambh (Victory Tower): Built by Rana Kumbha to commemorate his victory over Malwa. It stands 9 stories tall, featuring intricate carvings.
- Kirti Stambh (Tower of Fame): Dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras and adorned with Jain sculptures.