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Weekly Current Affairs 1st April- 7th April 2025

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)

Recent Developments:

  • The latest Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) report, titled ‘Prevention and Mitigation of Vehicular Air Pollution in Delhi,’ has raised critical concerns regarding:
  • Air Quality Monitoring Deficiencies – Inadequate real-time tracking of pollution levels.
  • Vehicular Emissions – Lack of stringent regulatory enforcement to curb pollution from automobiles.
  • Government Accountability – Gaps in policy implementation and administrative oversight in tackling air pollution.

 

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India

  • The CAG of India serves as the guardian of public finances, ensuring financial accountability in government expenditures. It oversees audits of financial transactions at both the central and state levels to uphold transparency and efficiency in governance. 

Constitutional Status and Authority

  • The CAG is a constitutional authority, established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. It plays a pivotal role in maintaining fiscal discipline and ensuring that government spending is in accordance with legal provisions.

 

Key Constitutional Provisions:

  • Article 148 – Outlines the appointment, term, and conditions of service of the CAG.
  • Article 149 – Defines the duties and powers of the CAG in auditing government accounts.
  • Article 150 – Empowers the President to prescribe government accounting standards based on CAG’s advice.
  • Article 151 – Mandates that the CAG’s audit reports be tabled in Parliament and State Legislatures.
  • Article 279 – Assigns the CAG the responsibility of certifying the “net proceeds” of taxes and duties for revenue-sharing between the Centre and States.
  • Sixth Schedule – Requires the CAG to audit the accounts of District and Regional Councils in autonomous tribal areas.

 

Appointment, Tenure, and Removal

  • Appointing Authority: The President of India appoints the CAG through a formal warrant.
  • Term: The CAG serves for six years or until reaching 65 years of age, whichever comes earlier.
  • Resignation: The CAG may resign by submitting a letter to the President of India.
  • Removal Process: The CAG can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge—through impeachment by Parliament requiring a special majority in both Houses.

 

Ensuring Independence of the CAG

To maintain neutrality and prevent executive influence, the CAG enjoys several constitutional safeguards:

  • Security of Tenure: Cannot be removed at the discretion of the executive.
  • Post-Tenure Restrictions: The CAG cannot hold any other government office under the Centre or State governments after retirement.

 

Financial Autonomy:

  • Salary is fixed by Parliament and is equal to that of a Supreme Court judge.
  • Administrative expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring operational independence.

No Executive Control:

  • The CAG does not report to any minister.
  • No minister can represent the CAG in Parliament.

 

Duties and Powers of the CAG

The CAG Act, 1971 (with amendments in 1976, 1984, and 1987) outlines the statutory responsibilities of the CAG:

  1. Audit of Government Expenditure
  • Scrutinizes spending from the Consolidated Fund of India and State Consolidated Funds.
  • Audits revenues, expenditures, loans, and debts of the government.
  1. Oversight of Public Sector Enterprises
  • Audits financial statements of Government-Owned Companies and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
  • Ensures transparency in government transactions and proper utilization of funds.
  1. Certification of Tax Revenues
  • Certifies net proceeds of taxes collected by the government under Article 279.
  • Plays a crucial role in determining tax revenue distribution between the Centre and States.
  1. Parliamentary Accountability
  • Submits audit reports to the President, which are then tabled in Parliament and examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
  • Conducts propriety audits to ensure that government spending is not wasteful or extravagant.

 

CAG in India vs. CAG in the UK

  • Unlike the UK’s Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), who controls fund disbursements, the Indian CAG serves purely as an auditor. It does not exercise direct control over financial transactions, maintaining a clear separation between auditing and expenditure management.

 

CAG’s Role in International Audits

  • The CAG of India is entrusted with auditing the financial transactions of global organizations, reinforcing India’s credibility in financial governance.
  • International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) (2022-2027) – Ensuring financial accountability in nuclear energy governance.
  • Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) (2020-2025) – Overseeing financial audits related to global food security programs.

 

Conclusion

  • The CAG of India is a critical institution in ensuring financial transparency and accountability. With constitutional protections, an independent mandate, and a wide scope of responsibilities, it plays an essential role in upholding democratic governance and preventing fiscal mismanagement.

Would you like additional details on CAG reforms or contemporary challenges faced by the institution?

  1. The independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is ensured by various constitutional and statutory provisions. Which of the following provisions contribute to the CAG’s autonomy?
  2. The CAG cannot be removed from office except in a manner similar to a Supreme Court judge.
  3. The salary and allowances of the CAG are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
  4. The CAG is appointed by the President but must be ratified by the Parliament.
  5. After retirement, the CAG is ineligible for further government office under the Central or State governments.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

 Explanation: The CAG is appointed by the President without requiring parliamentary ratification. However, provisions like security of tenure, financial autonomy, and post-retirement restrictions ensure its independence.

Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025

Syllabus:Polity

  • The Rajya Sabha recently passed the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025, which aims to align India’s legal framework with international conventions on aviation equipment leasing.
  • This legislation seeks to enhance legal security for stakeholders involved in aircraft leasing and financing.

 

About the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025

  • The bill implements provisions of the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment (Cape Town Convention, 2001) and its Protocol on Aircraft Equipment.
  • India became a signatory to these international agreements in 2008.
  • These conventions establish globally recognized legal protections for high-value mobile assets such as aircraft, helicopters, and engines, ensuring uniformity and clarity in the aviation industry.
  • The bill seeks to protect creditors’ rights in aviation leasing by incorporating international best practices into India’s legal system.

Key Features of the Bill

Regulatory Framework:

  • The Central Government is empowered to frame rules for the implementation of the Cape Town Convention and its Protocol.
  • The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is designated as the registry authority for registering and de-registering aircraft.

Creditor Protections and Remedies:

  • Creditors must notify the DGCA before initiating any remedies in case of lease defaults.
  • In cases of default, creditors are entitled to recover aircraft, helicopters, or engines within two months, or within a mutually agreed period.
  • Impact on the Aviation Leasing Industry:
  • By ensuring clear legal protections for lessors and financial institutions, the bill is expected to enhance India’s attractiveness as a hub for aircraft leasing.
  • It will reduce financial risks for leasing companies, leading to greater investment and expansion in India’s aviation sector.

 

Significance of the Bill

  • Improved Investor Confidence: The bill enhances legal certainty for foreign and domestic lessors, encouraging investment in India’s aviation industry.
  • Alignment with Global Standards: By complying with the Cape Town Convention, India strengthens its aviation sector’s global credibility.
  • Enhanced Dispute Resolution: The bill provides a clear, time-bound mechanism for creditors to reclaim aircraft assets, ensuring quicker resolution of disputes.
  • With this legislation, India moves closer to establishing a more secure and transparent framework for aircraft leasing, facilitating growth in its expanding aviation sector.

Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025:

  1. It seeks to strengthen India’s aviation sector by providing globally recognized legal protections for high-value mobile assets.
    2. The bill designates the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as the primary regulatory body for aircraft leasing in India.
    3. It ensures creditors can reclaim leased aircraft within a specific time frame if a default occurs.
    4. India’s compliance with this bill will enhance its credibility as an aircraft leasing hub.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2, and 3 only
(B) 1, 3, and 4 only
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The bill enhances legal security for aircraft, helicopters, and aviation equipment leasing, boosting India’s aviation industry.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), not RBI, is the registry authority responsible for aircraft registration and de-registration.

Statement 3 is correct: The bill provides creditors a two-month window (or a mutually agreed timeframe) to recover assets in case of a lease default.

Statement 4 is correct: Aligning with the Cape Town Convention improves India’s global credibility in aircraft leasing and encourages investment.

Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat initiative

Syllabus: GS2-Polity and Governance

 

  • Context:
    The Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with the Government of Jharkhand, recently organized a national-level event in New Delhi under the initiative ‘Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat’, commemorating the 150th Birth Anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda (celebrated as Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh).

 

About: Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat Initiative

  • Launched on: 26th January 2025
  • By: Department of Panchayati Raj, Government of Jharkhand, supported by the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj
  • Coverage: Over 3,000 villages have participated, pledging to preserve and promote indigenous self-governance systems and cultural practices.

 

Objective:

  • To preserve, revitalize, and transmit the traditional knowledge systems of Scheduled Tribe communities, including:
  • Folk songs and oral traditions
  • Indigenous festivals and rituals
  • Sacred worship practices
  • Customary laws and governance models

 

 

Alignment with the PESA Act, 1996:

  • The initiative aligns with the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), which recognizes and protects the self-governing rights of tribal Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas.
  • It emphasizes the role of customary institutions and community-based governance, ensuring cultural continuity and empowerment of tribal populations.

Consider the following features with respect to the Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat initiative:

  1. It was launched jointly by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Ministry of Culture.
  2. It involves documenting and preserving traditional governance and ritualistic practices in tribal villages.
  3. It aims to empower Gram Sabhas in non-scheduled areas to enforce customary laws.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

 Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It was launched by the Department of Panchayati Raj, Government of Jharkhand, with support from the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, not the Ministries of Tribal Affairs or Culture.
  • Statement 2 is correct: A key aim is to document and preserve traditional governance, rituals, festivals, and cultural heritage of Scheduled Tribes.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The initiative is focused on Scheduled Areas, not non-scheduled areas.

9 Years of Stand-Up India

Syllabus: GS2/ Governance

 

Background: Launched on 5th April 2016, the Stand-Up India Scheme marks nine years of operation as a flagship initiative under the Ministry of Finance, targeting inclusive entrepreneurial growth.

 

Objective:
To promote entrepreneurship among Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women, by facilitating access to institutional credit for greenfield ventures.

 

 

Key Features:

Provides bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore for starting new enterprises in:

  • Manufacturing
  • Services
  • Trading
  • Agriculture-allied activities

Eligibility Criteria:

  • Applicants must be SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs, aged 18 years or above.
  • For non-individual enterprises, at least 51% shareholding and controlling stake must be held by SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs.

 

Focus: The scheme empowers first-time entrepreneurs and encourages economic participation of underrepresented groups, thereby contributing to a more equitable and inclusive economy.

With reference to the Stand-Up India Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It provides bank loans exclusively to women entrepreneurs engaged in the manufacturing sector.
  2. The scheme mandates that in case of a non-individual enterprise, the majority stake must be held by an SC/ST or a woman entrepreneur.
  3. The scheme is applicable only for enterprises located in backward districts as identified by NITI Aayog.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. A) 1 and 2 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 1 and 3 only
    D) 2 and 3 only

Answer: B) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme covers manufacturing, services, trading, and agriculture-allied activities, not just manufacturing.
  • Statement 2 is correct: In non-individual enterprises, at least 51% of the shareholding and control must be with an SC/ST or woman entrepreneur.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no restriction that the enterprise must be in a backward district. The scheme is nationwide.

The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024

Overview of the Amendments

  • The government has reintroduced the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 in Parliament, aiming to reform the Waqf Act, 1995, which governs the management of Waqf properties in India.

 

Major Amendments in the Bill

Elimination of “Waqf by Use” Concept:

  • The Bill removes the long-standing concept of “Waqf by Use,” under which properties continuously used for religious purposes (such as mosques) were automatically considered Waqf.
  • Now, for a property to be recognized as Waqf, official documentation (Waqfnama) is mandatory.

Restructuring the Waqf Property Survey Mechanism:

  • The Survey Commissioner will be replaced by the District Collector or another senior government officer.
  • These officials will now oversee the identification and survey of Waqf properties.

Changes in the Composition of Waqf Boards:

  • The Bill allows for the appointment of non-Muslim Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) and members in state Waqf Boards, a major shift from the current framework.

Application of the Limitation Act, 1963:

  • The Bill deletes Section 107 of the Waqf Act, 1995, making the Limitation Act, 1963, applicable to Waqf properties.
  • This means that if a person unlawfully occupies a Waqf property for over 12 years, they may claim legal ownership through adverse possession.

 

Rationale Behind the Amendments

  • The government argues that the Waqf Act, 1995, has several loopholes, particularly concerning land title disputes and unauthorized occupations.
  • A unified digital registry of Waqf properties will be introduced to improve transparency and minimize legal conflicts.

 

Criticism and Controversies

  • The amendments give the government greater authority to determine whether a property qualifies as Waqf.
  • Instead of the Waqf Tribunal, the District Collector will now decide disputes over Waqf properties. Until the dispute is resolved, such properties will be treated as government-owned.
  • Opposition parties have strongly criticized the Bill, arguing that it dilutes the rights of the Muslim community in managing Waqf properties.

 

Did You Know?

  • Waqf refers to properties dedicated exclusively for religious or charitable purposes under Islamic law. Such properties cannot be sold or repurposed.

In India, the concept of Waqf dates back to the Delhi Sultanate. Sultan Muizuddin Sam Ghaor was among the first to dedicate land for Waqf when he assigned two villages to support the Jama Masjid of Multan, entrusting its management to the Shaikhul Islam.

Consider the following statements regarding the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024:

  1. It removes the concept of Waqf by Use, requiring official documentation for a property to be recognized as Waqf.
  2. The Survey Commissioner is now replaced by the District Collector for overseeing the identification of Waqf properties.
  3. The Bill introduces new exemptions under the Limitation Act, 1963, preventing adverse possession claims over Waqf properties.
  4. It mandates a state-wide digital registry of Waqf properties to enhance transparency and reduce legal disputes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2, and 4 only
(C) 1, 3, and 4 only
(D) 2, 3, and 4 only

 

 Answer: (B) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Bill removes the concept of “Waqf by Use,” meaning even religious properties (e.g., mosques) must have official documentation (Waqfnama) to be recognized.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The District Collector now replaces the Survey Commissioner for Waqf property surveys.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. Instead of exempting Waqf properties from adverse possession, the Bill applies the Limitation Act, 1963, meaning unlawful occupants can claim ownership after 12 years.
  • Statement 4 is correct. A digital registry of Waqf properties will be introduced to ensure transparency and reduce legal conflicts.

Lakhpati Baideo’ Programme

Syllabus:Government Schemes

  • The Assam government has launched the ‘Lakhpati Baideo’ programme, a transformative initiative aimed at empowering women entrepreneurs through financial support and skill training.
  • Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma introduced the scheme, targeting 40 lakh women from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to enhance financial independence and rural entrepreneurship.

 

Objectives of the Lakhpati Baideo Scheme

  • To financially empower women by providing structured monetary support.
  • To promote entrepreneurship among SHG members.
  • To enhance economic self-reliance in rural Assam.
  • Financial Assistance & Implementation Structure
  • The scheme follows a tiered financial assistance model to ensure gradual business growth:
  • Total estimated cost: ₹4,000 crore.
  • E-commerce support: The Assam government will facilitate online platforms for women-led businesses.
  • Business Plan Requirement: Beneficiaries must submit a structured business proposal to access funds, ensuring strategic planning and sustainability.

 

Eligibility Criteria & Population Control Measures

The scheme aligns with Assam’s population control policy by setting eligibility limits based on family size:

  • General & OBC categories: Maximum three
  • SC & ST categories: Maximum four

This initiative integrates economic empowerment with population management, promoting responsible family planning.

 

Additional Support: Health & Education Initiatives

  • Healthcare: Special health camps to offer affordable medical care.
  • Education: Financial aid for students from economically weaker families to support tuition and learning resources.

 

Impact & Future Prospects

The Lakhpati Baideo scheme is expected to revolutionize women’s economic participation in Assam. By fostering entrepreneurship and financial independence, the government aims to:

  • Transform rural economies.
  • Encourage self-reliance among women.
  • Promote sustainable development.

 

This initiative underscores Assam’s commitment to holistic socio-economic progress through women-led growth and self-sufficiency.

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Lakhpati Baideo’ scheme launched by Assam:

  1. It aims to provide financial assistance and training to male and female entrepreneurs from SHGs.
  2. The scheme is structured with a three-tier financial assistance model over three years.
  3. To be eligible, all beneficiaries must submit a business plan.
  4. The scheme is exclusively for women from SC and ST categories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • The scheme is exclusively for women; hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The financial assistance follows a structured three-tier model (₹10,000, ₹25,000, ₹50,000), making Statement 2 correct.
  • Beneficiaries must submit a business plan to access funds, ensuring Statement 3 is correct.
  • The scheme is not limited to SC/ST categories but includes General and OBC women as well, making Statement 4 incorrect.

Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025

Context:

  • NITI Aayog, in collaboration with the Press Information Bureau, has released the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025, evaluating the financial health of Indian states.

 

About FHI 2025:

  • The index measures the fiscal sustainability of states based on key financial indicators.
  • Covers 18 major states that significantly impact India’s GDP, public expenditure, and fiscal stability.

 

Sub-indices include:

  • Quality of Expenditure – Efficiency in public spending.
  • Revenue Mobilization – Effectiveness of tax and non-tax revenue collection.
  • Fiscal Prudence – Adherence to budgetary discipline.
  • Debt Index – The level and management of state debt.
  • Debt Sustainability – The state’s ability to repay its debt without financial distress.
  • Data sourced from the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) for the 2022-23 financial year.

 

Key Findings:

  • Top Performers: Odisha ranks 1st, followed by Chhattisgarh, Goa, Jharkhand, and Gujarat.
  • Public Finance Role: Indian states account for two-thirds of public spending and one-third of total revenue, directly influencing national economic stability.
  • Debt Challenges: West Bengal and Punjab report high debt burdens with worsening debt-to-GSDP ratios, raising concerns over fiscal sustainability.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025:

  1. It is released annually by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  2. The index includes indicators such as Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilization, and Debt Sustainability.
  3. It evaluates all Indian states and Union Territories based on fiscal performance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (b) 2 only

 Explanation:

The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 is released by NITI Aayog and the Press Information Bureau (PIB), not the RBI. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

It assesses states based on sub-indices such as Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilization, Debt Index, and Debt Sustainability, making Statement 2 correct.

The index does not cover all states and UTs; it evaluates only 18 major states, making Statement 3 incorrect.

SC Observations on Disqualification

Syllabus :GS 2/Governance 

 

In News:

  • The Supreme Court of India recently addressed petitions concerning the prolonged delay in disqualification proceedings of 10 Telangana MLAs who defected to the ruling Congress party.

Legal Provisions Governing Disqualification:

  1. Constitutional and Statutory Framework:
  • Article 102 of the Indian Constitution and Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP) Act, 1951 govern the disqualification of sitting legislators.
  • The RP Act, 1951, while listing offenses leading to disqualification, does not specify the authority responsible for declaring a legislator disqualified.
  • Article 103 of the Constitution mandates that the President of India decides on disqualification if a sitting MP is convicted of certain offenses, based on the Election Commission’s advice.
  1. Grounds for Disqualification:

A legislator is disqualified if they:

  • Are convicted of specific offenses and sentenced to at least two years of imprisonment (under Section 8 of the RP Act).
  • Are found guilty of offenses such as promoting enmity, bribery, corruption, and sexual crimes (Section 8 of the RP Act).

Supreme Court’s Key Rulings on Disqualification:

  1. Lily Thomas Case (2013):
  • Struck down Section 8(4) of the RP Act, which previously allowed convicted sitting members a three-month window to appeal before disqualification took effect.
  • The Court ruled that Parliament cannot provide special privileges to sitting members, as both candidates and incumbents must be treated equally under Article 102.
  1. Recent Supreme Court Observations (2024-25):
  • The Speaker cannot indefinitely delay disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) to undermine the law’s purpose.
  • Courts have the power to ensure disqualification petitions are resolved within a reasonable timeframe, although they cannot dictate how the Speaker should decide.
  • The Supreme Court has previously intervened in similar cases to compel Speakers to expedite pending disqualification decisions.

Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule):

  • Introduced in 1985 via the 52nd Constitutional Amendment to address political instability caused by frequent defections of legislators, which often led to government collapses.

Disqualifies legislators who:

  • Voluntarily give up party membership or
  • Vote against their party’s directives (whip) in the legislature.
  • Amendment in 2003:
  • Removed the provision (Paragraph 3) that previously allowed one-third of a party’s members to split and form a separate group.
  • Strengthened the anti-defection law by allowing only mergers approved by two-thirds of the party’s members.

Consider the following statements regarding the disqualification of legislators in India:

  1. Article 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of members of Parliament, whereas Article 191 applies to members of State Legislatures.
  2. The President of India has the final authority to decide on the disqualification of MPs under all circumstances.
  3. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that a Speaker cannot indefinitely delay disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 102 deals with disqualification of MPs, while Article 191 applies to MLAs.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The President decides disqualification only in cases of holding an office of profit, mental unsoundness, insolvency, or foreign citizenship. However, for disqualification under the Representation of the People Act (RP Act) or the Tenth Schedule, the decision is taken by the Election Commission (for criminal convictions) or the Speaker (for defections).

Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court has ruled that Speakers cannot indefinitely delay disqualification proceedings and courts have the power to enforce a timely decision.

Consider the following statements regarding the disqualification of legislators in India:

  1. Article 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of members of Parliament, whereas Article 191 applies to members of State Legislatures.
  2. The President of India has the final authority to decide on the disqualification of MPs under all circumstances.
  3. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that a Speaker cannot indefinitely delay disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 102 deals with disqualification of MPs, while Article 191 applies to MLAs.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The President decides disqualification only in cases of holding an office of profit, mental unsoundness, insolvency, or foreign citizenship. However, for disqualification under the Representation of the People Act (RP Act) or the Tenth Schedule, the decision is taken by the Election Commission (for criminal convictions) or the Speaker (for defections).

Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court has ruled that Speakers cannot indefinitely delay disqualification proceedings and courts have the power to enforce a timely decision.

Government Securities

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy 

 

Context:

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced an infusion of ₹80,000 crore into the financial system through the purchase of government securities, citing the need to address “evolving liquidity conditions.”

 

Understanding Government Securities (G-Secs):

  • Government Securities (G-Secs) are tradeable financial instruments issued by the Central and State Governments to acknowledge their debt obligations.

These securities are classified into:

  • Short-term G-Secs (Treasury Bills): Have maturities of less than one year.
  • Long-term G-Secs (Government Bonds/Dated Securities): Have an original maturity of one year or more.

 

G-Sec Issuance in India:

  • The Central Government issues both Treasury Bills and Bonds/Dated Securities.
  • State Governments issue only Bonds/Dated Securities, referred to as State Development Loans (SDLs).

 

Significance of G-Secs:

  • Risk-Free Investment: G-Secs have virtually zero default risk, making them gilt-edged securities.
  • RBI’s Role: The Reserve Bank of India acts as the debt manager for both the Central and State Governments, managing their borrowing programs and bond issuances.
  • This move by the RBI aims to enhance liquidity in the financial markets and ensure monetary stability.

Consider the following statements regarding Government Securities (G-Secs) in India:

  1. Both the Central and State Governments issue Treasury Bills.
  2. G-Secs are considered risk-free because they are backed by the government’s guarantee.
  3. The Reserve Bank of India acts as the debt manager for the Central Government but not for the State Governments.
  4. State Development Loans (SDLs) are a form of short-term borrowing by State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – Only the Central Government issues Treasury Bills; State Governments cannot issue them.

Statement 2 is correct – G-Secs are considered risk-free because they are backed by the sovereign guarantee of the Government of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect – The RBI acts as the debt manager for both the Central and State Governments.

Statement 4 is incorrect – State Development Loans (SDLs) are long-term bonds issued by State Governments, not short-term instruments.

India’s 10-year Bond Yields Declined

Syllabus: GS3/ Economy

 

Context

India’s benchmark 10-year bond yield fell significantly by nine basis points (bps) to 6.49% year-on-year following the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) decision to purchase ₹80,000 crore worth of government bonds in April.

 

Key Insights

Indian Bond Market Trends

  • The 10-year bond yield has declined 24 bps since March and 62 bps in FY 2024-25, marking its sharpest drop in five years.
  • Banking sector liquidity has improved, further reducing bond yields.
  • Treasury bill cut-offs are nearing 30%, indicating a more liquid financial environment.

 

Understanding Bond Yields

  • Bond Yield: The expected return on investment from a bond, expressed as an annual percentage.

Types of Bond Yields

  • Current Yield = (Annual Coupon Payment) ÷ (Current Market Price of the Bond)
  • Yield to Maturity (YTM) = Total return if held until maturity, including interest payments and capital gain/loss.
  • Yield to Call (YTC) = Yield assuming the bond is redeemed before maturity.
  • Yield to Worst (YTW) = The lowest possible yield if a bond is called or matures early.
  • Bond Yield and Price Relationship
  • Inverse correlation: As bond prices rise, yields fall, and vice versa.
  • Economic Indicator: Bond yields are influenced by interest rates, inflation, and economic conditions, serving as a key indicator of market expectations.

Consider the following statements regarding the Yield to Maturity (YTM) of a bond:

  1. YTM includes both coupon payments and capital gains/losses.
  2. YTM decreases if the bond price rises in the secondary market.
  3. YTM remains unchanged if the bond is held until maturity.

Which of the statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
 Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: YTM accounts for total returns, including periodic coupon payments and any capital gain or loss when the bond matures.

Statement 2 is correct: Since YTM is inversely related to bond price, it declines when bond prices rise.

Statement 3 is incorrect: YTM is calculated based on current market conditions, but it may not remain unchanged even if held until maturity due to external factors like interest rate changes.

 

Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI)

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy 

 

In News

  • Manufacturing activity in India saw a notable improvement in March 2025, with the Seasonally Adjusted Purchasing Managers Index (PMI)rising to 58.1, the highest in eight months, up from 56.3 in February.
  • The increase was mainly driven by a rise in new orders, with the new orders index reaching an eight-month high of 61.5.

 

Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI)

  • The PMI primarily measures the condition of a country’s sectors, including manufacturing, services and overall business activity, through monthly surveys of respondents in different countries. 
  • It is a type of economic indicator which is compiled by agencies such as S&P Global, HSBC and others, using data from major companies representing key global economies. 
  • The index varies between 0 and 100; a reading above 50 is a sign of progress, whereas below 50 shows a decline in the overall production activity.

With reference to the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI), consider the following statements:

  1. PMI is calculated by national governments to assess economic performance.
  2. A PMI value below 50 always indicates an economic recession.
  3. The PMI includes multiple sub-indices such as New Orders, Output, and Employment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (B) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: PMI is compiled by private financial organizations like S&P Global, HSBC, and IHS Markit, not national governments.

Statement 2 is incorrect: A PMI below 50 does not necessarily indicate a recession but signals contraction in business activity. A recession is determined by broader economic indicators like GDP contraction over two consecutive quarters.

Statement 3 is correct: PMI consists of multiple sub-indices, including New Orders, Output, Employment, Supplier Deliveries, and Inventories.

GI Tag for Kannadippaya

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy /S&T

 

In News:

The traditional Kannadippaya has been awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, granting it legal protection, market recognition, and global visibility.

 

About Kannadippaya (“Mirror Mat”):

  • Kannadippaya, meaning “mirror mat”, is a traditional tribal handicraft of Kerala, known for its fine texture and reflective finish.
  • It is woven using the soft inner layers of reed bamboo, primarily from species such as Teinostachyum wightii and Ochlandra spp.
  • The mat possesses distinct thermal properties—warm in winter and cool in summer—making it both functional and environmentally adaptive.
  • The craft is traditionally practiced and preserved by tribal communities such as the Oorali, Mannan, Muthuva, Malayan, and Kadar, across the districts of Idukki, Thrissur, Ernakulam, and Palakkad.

Historically, these mats were offered to kings as symbols of respect and honor by the tribal artisans, reflecting the cultural significance and craftsmanship involved.

Pamban Bridge

Syllabus :GS3/Economy

New Pamban Bridge: A Modern Marvel Rooted in History

 

In the News:

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi is set to inaugurate the new Pamban Bridge, replacing the iconic century-old structure that connected Rameswaram to mainland India.

 

Historical Significance

  • Built in 1914, the original Pamban Bridge was India’s first sea bridge, vital for trade and religious pilgrimage.
  • It stood strong through the 1964 tsunami, which claimed a train but not the bridge.
  • The bridge was later restored by E. Sreedharan with the help of local fishermen — a remarkable feat completed in just 46 days.

 

 

 About the New Bridge

  • Constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), under the Ministry of Railways.
  • India’s first Vertical Lift Railway Sea Bridge, spanning 2.08 km.
  • Features a 72.5-meter lift span, capable of rising 17 meters to allow ship passage.
  • Stands 3 meters taller than the old bridge, designed for semi-high-speed trains (e.g., Vande Bharat) and heavy freight.
  • Built using corrosion-resistant materials for a lifespan of 58 years.

 

Strategic & Cultural Importance

  • Continues the legacy of facilitating trade and pilgrimage, particularly towards Sri Lanka.
  • Offers a future-ready solution to the operational challenges of the old bridge — including corrosion and maintenance.
  • Enhances regional connectivity and supports economic development through modern infrastructure.

With reference to the newly constructed Pamban Railway Bridge in India, consider the following statements:

  1. It is India’s first vertical lift sea bridge designed exclusively for road and rail vehicular traffic.
  2. It is constructed by a Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
  3. The new bridge replaces the original structure built in the colonial era that connected Rameswaram to the mainland.
  4. The lift span of the bridge allows passage of ships up to a height of 17 meters during high tide.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, and 4 only

 

Correct Answer: B. 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect.

The new Pamban Bridge is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge, not designed for road traffic. It is meant exclusively for rail traffic, including semi-high-speed trains like Vande Bharat.

  • Statement 2: Incorrect.

The bridge was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), which is a Navratna PSU under the Ministry of Railways, not under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

  • Statement 3: Correct.

The original Pamban Bridge was built in 1914 during British rule and was a critical link between Rameswaram and the Indian mainland. The new bridge replaces this historic structure.

  • Statement 4: Incorrect.

The lift span of the new bridge can rise to a height of 17 meters, but the reference to “during high tide” is misleading and unnecessary. The bridge’s vertical clearance is based on engineering design, not tidal conditions. 

Ottawa Convention

Syllabus :GS 2/IR

In News

  • Poland, Finland, and the three Baltic states—Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania—have announced their intention to withdraw from the 1997 Ottawa Convention banning anti-personnel landmines, citing escalating security threats from Russia.
  • Withdrawal would allow these states to resume the production, stockpiling, and use of anti-personnel mines.

 

 

About the Ottawa Convention

  • Formal Name: Convention on the Prohibition of the Use, Stockpiling, Production and Transfer of Anti-Personnel Mines and on their Destruction.
  • Adopted: 1997 at a diplomatic conference in Oslo.
  • Opened for Signature: Later in 1997 in Ottawa, Canada.
  • Came into Force: March 1, 1999.
  • Objective: Complete elimination of anti-personnel landmines by prohibiting their use, development, transfer, and stockpiling.

 

Key Achievements

  • Over 40 million stockpiled landmines have been destroyed since the Convention’s enforcement.
  • Substantial reduction in global production and use of anti-personnel mines.
  • Enhanced support for mine victims, including medical care, rehabilitation, and social reintegration.
  • Accelerated mine clearance efforts, improving safety and enabling productive land use in previously contaminated regions.
  • Integrated victim assistance within the broader framework of disability rights and humanitarian aid.

 

Significance

The Ottawa Convention has played a pivotal role in:

  • Advancing humanitarian disarmament efforts.
  • Reducing civilian casualties caused by landmines.
  • Promoting international cooperation on mine clearance, victim assistance, and post-conflict reconstruction.
  • Enhancing global norms against indiscriminate weapons.

Which of the following statements regarding the Ottawa Convention are correct?

  1. It permits the use of anti-tank mines under specific conditions.
  2. It came into force prior to the Convention on Cluster Munitions.
  3. India is a signatory but has not ratified the Convention.
  4. The Convention allows state parties to withdraw after a formal notice of six months.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ottawa Convention bans anti-personnel mines, but it does not cover anti-tank mines—however, it does not permit anti-personnel landmines under any condition.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Ottawa Convention entered into force in 1999, while the Convention on Cluster Munitions was adopted in 2008.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not a signatory to the Ottawa Convention.
  • Statement 4 is correct: A State Party may withdraw from the treaty six months after giving written notice.

150th Assembly of Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU)

Syllabus :GS 2/Governance/IR

 

In News

Lok Sabha Speaker Shri Om Birla is heading the Indian Parliamentary Delegation to the 150th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), being held in Tashkent, Uzbekistan from April 5–9, 2025.

 

 About the 150th IPU Assembly

Theme: “Parliamentary Action for Social Development and Justice”

Focus areas include:

  • Poverty eradication
  • Promotion of decent work
  • Social inclusion
  • Participation of marginalized and vulnerable groups in decision-making processes

 

 Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU): Overview

  • Founded: 1889
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland (with offices in New York & Vienna)
  • Membership: 181 national parliaments + 15 associate members

 

Objectives & Mandate

  • Promote peace, democracy, and sustainable development
  • Strengthen parliamentary diplomacy and cooperation
  • Empower parliaments to address global challenges through dialogue

 

Advocate for:

  • Democratic governance
  • Human rights
  • Gender equality & youth empowerment
  • Climate action
  • Funding
  • Primarily funded by contributions from its member parliaments.

Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU):

  1. It was established as a United Nations organ in the aftermath of World War II.
  2. It has observer status at the United Nations General Assembly.
  3. The IPU’s funding comes predominantly from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The IPU was founded in 1889, long before the UN was established.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The IPU holds observer status in the UN General Assembly.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It is funded mainly by contributions from its member parliaments, not UNDP.

Vibrant Villages Programme-II (VVP-II)

Syllabus: GS3-Infrastructure/Internal Security

 

Context:

  • The Union Cabinet has approved Phase-II of the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) to accelerate development in strategic border areas, reinforcing both internal security and inclusive growth.

 

 About VVP-II

  • Type: Central Sector Scheme (100% funded by Centre)
  • Total Outlay: ₹6,839 crore
  • Implementation Period: Up to FY 2028–29

 

Target Areas

Strategic villages in the following States/UTs:

  • Northeast & Himalayas: Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura
  • Northern Borders: Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Punjab, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh
  • Eastern Borders: Bihar, West Bengal
  • Western Borders: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh

 

Core Objectives

  • Improve living standards and livelihood opportunities in border villages
  • Strengthen national integration and reduce trans-border crime
  • Engage local population as intelligence assets (“eyes and ears”) for border security forces
  • Ensure safe, self-reliant, and vibrant border communities

 

 Key Components

  • Village-level infrastructure development
  • Promotion of cooperatives/SHGs for local value chains
  • Border-specific outreach and strategic engagement
  • SMART classrooms and education infrastructure
  • Development of rural tourism circuits
  • Creation of diverse, sustainable livelihoods

 

 Significance

  • Together with VVP-I, this phase marks a transformational shift in India’s border policy—promoting security through development, resilience, and socio-economic inclusion of remote frontier communities.

With reference to the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP)-II, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at improving border infrastructure and is jointly funded by the Centre and States.
  2. It includes initiatives such as SMART classes, tourism circuit development, and livelihood generation.
  3. Its implementation is restricted only to the Indo-China border regions due to heightened strategic sensitivities.

       Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

 

 Answer: A. 2 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: VVP-II is a Central Sector Scheme, meaning it is 100% Centre-funded, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (which involves cost-sharing with states).
  • Statement 2 is correct: The programme includes diverse development initiatives such as SMART education, tourism circuits, and sustainable livelihoods.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: VVP-II is not limited to Indo-China borders. It covers strategic villages along India’s northern, eastern, and western borders, including states like Punjab, Gujarat, and West Bengal.

African Giant Pouched Rat

Syllabus: GS3/Species in News

 

Context:

  • A giant African pouched rat has set a Guinness World Record by detecting 109 landmines and 15 unexploded ordnance (UXOs) in Cambodia, showcasing its remarkable ability in humanitarian demining operations.

 

 

About the Achievement:

  • The rat earned the world record for most landmines detected by a rodent.
  • Trained to identify chemical compounds in explosives, these rats play a crucial role in post-conflict landmine clearance.
  • Unique Advantage: Due to their light weight, they can safely traverse minefields without triggering the explosives.
  • Efficiency: They can search an area equivalent to a tennis court in 30 minutes, a task that would take a metal detector nearly four days.
  • They are also known for their ability to detect tuberculosis faster than traditional laboratory methods.

 

Landmine Situation in Cambodia:

  • Cambodia remains one of the most landmine-contaminated countries due to prolonged conflicts.
  • Although the initial target was to become mine-free by 2025, this has been extended to 2030 due to financial constraints and the discovery of new minefields.
  • The African Giant Pouched Rat (Cricetomys gambianus) is a large rodent species native to sub-Saharan Africa, typically found in savannas, forests, and agricultural regions. It is omnivorous, feeding on a varied diet that includes fruits, seeds, insects, and occasionally small animals. The species is distinguished by its greyish-brown fur, large ears, and distinctive cheek pouches, which it uses to store food.
  • Noted for its high intelligence, the African Giant Pouched Rat is highly trainable and has been effectively utilized in specialized tasks such as landmine detection and disease diagnosis, including the identification of tuberculosis through scent. Due to its light weight, it can safely detect landmines without triggering them, making it especially valuable in humanitarian demining efforts.
  • The species is classified as “Least Concern” on the IUCN Red List, indicating that it currently faces no significant threat of extinction.

With reference to the African Giant Pouched Rat (Cricetomys gambianus), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is listed as “Vulnerable” on the IUCN Red List due to increasing demand in biomedical research.
  2. It has been successfully trained to detect both landmines and communicable diseases like tuberculosis.
  3. Its use in demining operations is restricted due to its inability to operate in humid tropical climates.
  4. It can survey minefields significantly faster than conventional metal detectors due to its olfactory capabilities and lightweight body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

 

Answer: B) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect:


  • Cricetomys gambianus is currently classified as “Least Concern” by the IUCN, not “Vulnerable”. While it is used in specialized roles, there is no major threat or excessive demand that would warrant a “Vulnerable” status.

Statement 2 – Correct:

  • The rats have been successfully trained to detect landmines by sniffing out chemical compounds used in explosives. They are also known to detect tuberculosis using olfactory sensing, making them useful in medical diagnostics.

 

Statement 3 – Incorrect:

  • These rats are native to sub-Saharan Africa, which includes humid tropical regions, and have demonstrated the ability to work effectively in tropical countries like Cambodia. Hence, their utility is not restricted by climate.

Statement 4 – Correct:

  • Their lightweight body allows them to walk over landmines without setting them off, and they can cover a tennis-court-sized area in about 30 minutes, far faster than a metal detector, which could take days for the same task.

Agasthyamalai landscape

Syllabus: GS3/Environment and Conservation

Context:

  • The Supreme Court of India has directed the Central Empowered Committee (CEC) to conduct a comprehensive survey of the Agasthyamalai landscape to identify non-forestry activities and encroachments.

 

 

Purpose of the Directive:

  • To initiate restoration of degraded forest areas.
  • To protect critical tiger habitats and wildlife sanctuaries in the region.
  • The survey will cover the Periyar Tiger Reserve, Srivilliputhur, Meghamalai, and Thirunelveli sanctuaries.
  • It will include a comparative analysis between current forest cover and historical records to assess forest depletion and degradation.

 

About the Central Empowered Committee (CEC):

  • Established in 2002, reconstituted in 2008, following the landmark T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India case.
  • Functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  • Composition: Member Secretary and three expert members (civil servants) appointed by MoEFCC.
  • Role: Advises the Supreme Court on forest and environmental conservation matters.

 

Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve:

  • Located in the southern Western Ghats, straddling Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • Recognized by UNESCO in 2016 as part of its World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
  • Encompasses Shendurney, Peppara, Neyyar sanctuaries, and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR).
  • Named after sage Agasthya Muni, with a statue at the 1,868m peak — a revered pilgrimage site.
  • Inhabited by the Kani tribes (approx. 30,000 people) across both states.
  • Ecological richness includes over 2,000 species of medicinal plants, many used in Ayurvedic medicine, along with rare fauna and endemic biodiversity.

With reference to the Central Empowered Committee (CEC), consider the following statements:

  1. It was constituted under Article 338A of the Constitution of India.
  2. It functions independently of any central ministry.
  3. It was originally established by a directive of the Supreme Court of India.
  4. Its members are appointed by the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C. 3 only

Explanation:

  • The CEC was established by the Supreme Court in the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India case (2002) — Statement 3 is correct.
  • It functions under the administrative control of MoEFCC, hence not fully independent — Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Article 338A refers to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes — Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Members are appointed by MoEFCC, not the CJI — Statement 4 is incorrect.

Technology and Innovation Report 2025

Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology

Context

  • The 2025 Technology and Innovation Report, titled “Inclusive Artificial Intelligence for Development”, has been released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).

 

Key Highlights of the Report

  • Objective:
    The report aims to provide policy guidance to nations navigating the complexities of Artificial Intelligence (AI), helping them formulate science, technology, and innovation (STI) policies that ensure inclusive and equitable technological advancement.

 

India’s Performance

  • India ranked 10th globally in private sector investments in AI, securing $1.4 billion in 2023.
  • The United States topped the list with $67 billion, followed by China at $7.8 billion.
  • India improved its position on the Readiness for Frontier Technologies Index, rising to 36th in 2024 from 48th in 2022.

 

Concerns Highlighted

  • Concentration of Power: Just 100 companies, predominantly based in the US and China, account for 40% of global private R&D investment, raising concerns over monopolization of AI development.
  • Global Disparity: 118 countries, mostly from the Global South, are absent from international AI governance dialogues.
  • Job Disruption: Up to 40% of global employment could be impacted by AI-driven automation and displacement.

 

Recommendations and Policy Imperatives

Workforce Adaptation:

  • Emphasize reskilling, upskilling, and supporting workers through technological transitions to ensure AI enhances employment rather than replaces it.
  • Three Strategic Leverage Points for Developing Countries:
  • Infrastructure: Invest in affordable internet access and computing power.
  • Data Ecosystems: Develop robust legal frameworks for data collection, sharing, and privacy.
  • Skills Development: Promote digital literacy, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills.

 

Institutional and Global Mechanisms:

  • Establish a shared global AI facility to ensure equitable access to computing resources and tools.
  • Create a public disclosure framework for AI, modeled on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) standards, to promote transparency and accountability in AI deployment.

With reference to India’s performance in the 2025 Technology and Innovation Report, consider the following statements:

  1. India ranked among the top five countries globally in terms of private AI investment in 2023.
  2. India improved its ranking in the Readiness for Frontier Technologies Index between 2022 and 2024.
  3. India’s AI investments were higher than China’s but lower than the US.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:  B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: India ranked 10th, not in the top five.
  • Statement 2 is correct: India’s ranking improved from 48th (2022) to 36th (2024) on the Readiness for Frontier Technologies Index.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India’s AI investments ($1.4 billion) were lower than both the US ($67 billion) and China ($7.8 billion).

Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat initiative

Syllabus: GS2-Polity and Governance

 

  • Context:
    The Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with the Government of Jharkhand, recently organized a national-level event in New Delhi under the initiative ‘Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat’, commemorating the 150th Birth Anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda (celebrated as Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh).

 

About: Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat Initiative

  • Launched on: 26th January 2025
  • By: Department of Panchayati Raj, Government of Jharkhand, supported by the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj
  • Coverage: Over 3,000 villages have participated, pledging to preserve and promote indigenous self-governance systems and cultural practices.

 

Objective:

  • To preserve, revitalize, and transmit the traditional knowledge systems of Scheduled Tribe communities, including:
  • Folk songs and oral traditions
  • Indigenous festivals and rituals
  • Sacred worship practices
  • Customary laws and governance models

 

 

Alignment with the PESA Act, 1996:

  • The initiative aligns with the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), which recognizes and protects the self-governing rights of tribal Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas.
  • It emphasizes the role of customary institutions and community-based governance, ensuring cultural continuity and empowerment of tribal populations.

Consider the following features with respect to the Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat initiative:

  1. It was launched jointly by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Ministry of Culture.
  2. It involves documenting and preserving traditional governance and ritualistic practices in tribal villages.
  3. It aims to empower Gram Sabhas in non-scheduled areas to enforce customary laws.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

 Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It was launched by the Department of Panchayati Raj, Government of Jharkhand, with support from the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, not the Ministries of Tribal Affairs or Culture.
  • Statement 2 is correct: A key aim is to document and preserve traditional governance, rituals, festivals, and cultural heritage of Scheduled Tribes.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The initiative is focused on Scheduled Areas, not non-scheduled areas.

9 Years of Stand-Up India

Syllabus: GS2/ Governance

 

Background: Launched on 5th April 2016, the Stand-Up India Scheme marks nine years of operation as a flagship initiative under the Ministry of Finance, targeting inclusive entrepreneurial growth.

 

Objective:
To promote entrepreneurship among Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women, by facilitating access to institutional credit for greenfield ventures.

 

 

Key Features:

Provides bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore for starting new enterprises in:

  • Manufacturing
  • Services
  • Trading
  • Agriculture-allied activities

Eligibility Criteria:

  • Applicants must be SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs, aged 18 years or above.
  • For non-individual enterprises, at least 51% shareholding and controlling stake must be held by SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs.

 

Focus: The scheme empowers first-time entrepreneurs and encourages economic participation of underrepresented groups, thereby contributing to a more equitable and inclusive economy.

With reference to the Stand-Up India Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It provides bank loans exclusively to women entrepreneurs engaged in the manufacturing sector.
  2. The scheme mandates that in case of a non-individual enterprise, the majority stake must be held by an SC/ST or a woman entrepreneur.
  3. The scheme is applicable only for enterprises located in backward districts as identified by NITI Aayog.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. A) 1 and 2 only
    B) 2 only
    C) 1 and 3 only
    D) 2 and 3 only

Answer: B) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme covers manufacturing, services, trading, and agriculture-allied activities, not just manufacturing.
  • Statement 2 is correct: In non-individual enterprises, at least 51% of the shareholding and control must be with an SC/ST or woman entrepreneur.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no restriction that the enterprise must be in a backward district. The scheme is nationwide.

Agasthyamalai landscape

Syllabus: GS3/Environment and Conservation

Context:

  • The Supreme Court of India has directed the Central Empowered Committee (CEC) to conduct a comprehensive survey of the Agasthyamalai landscape to identify non-forestry activities and encroachments.

 

Purpose of the Directive:

  • To initiate restoration of degraded forest areas.
  • To protect critical tiger habitats and wildlife sanctuaries in the region.
  • The survey will cover the Periyar Tiger Reserve, Srivilliputhur, Meghamalai, and Thirunelveli sanctuaries.
  • It will include a comparative analysis between current forest cover and historical records to assess forest depletion and degradation.

 

About the Central Empowered Committee (CEC):

  • Established in 2002, reconstituted in 2008, following the landmark T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India case.
  • Functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  • Composition: Member Secretary and three expert members (civil servants) appointed by MoEFCC.
  • Role: Advises the Supreme Court on forest and environmental conservation matters.

 

Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve:

  • Located in the southern Western Ghats, straddling Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • Recognized by UNESCO in 2016 as part of its World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
  • Encompasses Shendurney, Peppara, Neyyar sanctuaries, and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR).
  • Named after sage Agasthya Muni, with a statue at the 1,868m peak — a revered pilgrimage site.
  • Inhabited by the Kani tribes (approx. 30,000 people) across both states.
  • Ecological richness includes over 2,000 species of medicinal plants, many used in Ayurvedic medicine, along with rare fauna and endemic biodiversity.

With reference to the Central Empowered Committee (CEC), consider the following statements:

  1. It was constituted under Article 338A of the Constitution of India.
  2. It functions independently of any central ministry.
  3. It was originally established by a directive of the Supreme Court of India.
  4. Its members are appointed by the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C. 3 only

Explanation:

  • The CEC was established by the Supreme Court in the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India case (2002) — Statement 3 is correct.
  • It functions under the administrative control of MoEFCC, hence not fully independent — Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Article 338A refers to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes — Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Members are appointed by MoEFCC, not the CJI — Statement 4 is incorrect.

Fluoride Pollution Crisis in Sonbhadra

Syllabus: GS2/Health

 

Context:

  • Reports indicate severe fluoride poisoning in the groundwater of Sonbhadra district, Uttar Pradesh, with fluoride levels 5 to 6 times higher than the permissible limit.

 

About Fluoride:

  • Naturally occurring, non-biodegradable pollutant found in minerals, soil, water, and air.
  • Also released as a byproduct during the burning of coal bricks.
  • World Health Organization (WHO) limit: Maximum safe fluoride concentration in drinking water is 5 mg/L.

 

Health Impacts:

  • Beneficial in safe doses: Strengthens teeth and bones, preventing decay.
  • Harmful in excess: Leads to dental and skeletal fluorosis, causing joint pain, bone deformities, and stiffness.

 

Environmental Risks:

  • Affects wildlife and ecosystems, disrupting biodiversity and aquatic life.

In the context of groundwater contamination in Sonbhadra, Uttar Pradesh, consider the following statements:

  1. Fluoride contamination in groundwater is exclusively due to industrial discharge.
  2. Excess fluoride intake can lead to skeletal fluorosis but has no impact on dental health.
  3. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends a maximum fluoride concentration of 1.5 mg/L in drinking water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While industrial discharge can contribute to fluoride pollution, natural geological sources and coal brick burning are also major causes of fluoride contamination in groundwater.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Fluoride toxicity causes both skeletal fluorosis (bone deformities and joint stiffness) and dental fluorosis (discoloration and damage to teeth enamel).

Statement 3 is correct: WHO prescribes a maximum safe fluoride level of 1.5 mg/L in drinking water.

World Health Day 2025

Syllabus:Science

Date: April 7, 2025
Theme: Healthy Beginnings, Hopeful Futures

What is World Health Day?

  • World Health Day is observed every year on April 7 to mark the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948.
  • It serves as a global platform to raise awareness about critical public health issues and inspire action from governments, health institutions, and individuals worldwide.
  • Each year, WHO selects a theme that highlights urgent health priorities, promoting collaboration and policy-level engagement across countries.

Theme 2025: Healthy Beginnings, Hopeful Futures

  • This year’s theme focuses on maternal and newborn health, underscoring the importance of starting life with care and safety. The campaign aims to:
  • Reduce preventable maternal and neonatal deaths
  • Improve health outcomes during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postnatal period
  • Promote equitable, quality healthcare for mothers and infants, especially in low-resource areas

 

Core message: A healthy life begins with a safe birth and continuous maternal care.

The Global Urgency

WHO data highlights a pressing crisis in maternal and newborn health:

  • Around 300,000 women die each year from pregnancy-related complications
  • Two million newborns die within their first month of life
  • Two million stillbirths occur annually, many of which are preventable
  • One preventable maternal or infant death happens every seven seconds

 

Current trends show:

  • 80 percent of countries are not on track to meet the 2030 target for reducing maternal mortality
  • 33 percent of countries are expected to miss targets for reducing newborn deaths

Why It Matters

Improving maternal and newborn health is essential for:

  • Lowering infant and maternal mortality rates
  • Building healthier families and communities
  • Strengthening economic development and social stability

Key Strategies to Improve Outcomes

WHO recommends a set of proven interventions to boost maternal and newborn health:

  • Antenatal care: Regular check-ups to identify and manage complications early
  • Nutrition and lifestyle education: Avoiding tobacco and alcohol, encouraging balanced diets
  • Mental health support: Addressing postpartum depression and stress
  • Skilled birth attendance: Ensuring qualified health professionals assist during childbirth
  • Postnatal services: Providing newborn care, breastfeeding support, vaccinations, and maternal recovery

 

Global Call to Action

The 2025 campaign calls on stakeholders to:

  • Integrate maternal and newborn health into national health policies
  • Invest in healthcare infrastructure, especially in underserved regions
  • Raise public awareness through education and media engagement
  • Build partnerships across sectors to improve healthcare access and delivery

 

Conclusion

  • World Health Day 2025 is not just a commemoration—it is a call to action. Ensuring Healthy Beginnings is the first step toward building Hopeful Futures.
  • No woman or child should lose their life to preventable causes. Together, we can create a world where every mother and newborn has the right to a healthy start.

Consider the following statements with reference to maternal and newborn health statistics presented by WHO:

  1. More than 2 million newborns die each year within their first month of life.
  2. Stillbirths are often preventable and number over 2 million annually.
  3. A preventable maternal or infant death occurs every 30 seconds globally.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect. The text specifies that one preventable maternal or infant death occurs every 7 seconds, not 30. Statements 1 and 2 are supported by WHO data cited for the 2025 campaign.

Axiom Mission 4

  • Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla, an Indian Air Force pilot and astronaut, will represent India as the pilot of Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4)—a landmark international private spaceflight mission to the International Space Station (ISS).

 

About Axiom Space Missions

  • Axiom Mission 1 (Ax-1): The first fully private crewed mission to the ISS.
  • Axiom Mission 2 (Ax-2): Included the first Saudi female astronaut.
  • Axiom Mission 3 (Ax-3): Featured the first astronauts from Turkey and the European Space Agency (ESA) on a commercial flight.
  • Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4): Scheduled for 2024, the mission marks India’s debut in a commercial human spaceflight collaboration.

Ax-4 Crew Composition

Commander: Peggy Whitson (Former NASA astronaut)

Pilot: Shubhanshu Shukla (India)

 

Mission Specialists:

  • Sławosz Uznański-Wiśniewski (Poland)
  • Tibor Kapu (Hungary)
  • The crew will spend 14 days aboard the ISS, conducting over 60 scientific experiments in microgravity.

 

ISRO’s Contribution to Ax-4

  • Under this mission, ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) will contribute a suite of microgravity research experiments, focusing on:
  • Human physiology in space: Effects on cognitive functions and visual interaction with digital screens
  • Skeletal muscle changes: Investigating space-induced muscle dysfunction
  • Agricultural biology: Plant growth and seed germination behavior in microgravity.

 

Global Collaboration

  • Ax-4 exemplifies international partnership in space science, with active participation from:
  • India (ISRO)
  • United States (NASA)
  • Europe (ESA support for Poland and Hungary)
  • This cooperation advances our understanding of life sciences in space and strengthens India’s growing presence in human spaceflight research.

 

Significance

  • The mission is a milestone in India’s space journey:
  • It marks India’s first astronaut aboard a commercial international spaceflight.
  • It showcases ISRO’s scientific research on a global platform.
  • It reinforces the value of international collaboration in advancing space-based science and innovation.

With reference to the Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4), consider the following statements:

  1. It is the first human spaceflight mission involving collaboration between ISRO, NASA, and ESA.
  2. The mission will carry out scientific research exclusively in the field of biotechnology.
  3. Ax-4 will be commanded by an Indian astronaut for the first time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None

Answer: A. 1 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Ax-4 brings together ISRO, NASA, and ESA in a shared microgravity research initiative, marking a collaborative milestone.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Research on Ax-4 spans multiple domains, including human health, cognitive science, muscle physiology, and agriculture—not limited to biotechnology.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The mission is commanded by Peggy Whitson, a former NASA astronaut; Shubhanshu Shukla is the pilot, not the commander.

North Sentinel Island

Recent Development:

  • A U.S. citizen has been arrested for illegally entering North Sentinel Island, home to one of the world’s last uncontacted tribes.

 

Geographical Overview:

  • Located in the Bay of Bengal, under the South Andaman administrative district of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, India.
  • Situated approximately 50 km west of Port Blair.
  • Surrounded by coral reefs, making access via sea extremely challenging.
  • Characterized by white-sand beaches, mangrove forests, and dense tropical vegetation.
  • The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake uplifted the island, exposing new coral reefs and increasing its landmass.

 

Sentinelese Tribe – Indigenous Inhabitants:

  • Among the last uncontacted tribes in the world.
  • Maintain complete isolation and display hostility towards outsiders.
  • Follow a hunter-gatherer lifestyle, using bows, arrows, spears, and dugout canoes.
  • Population estimates range between 50–150 individuals.

 

Legal Protection & Governance:

Andaman & Nicobar Islands (Protection of Aboriginal Tribes) Regulation, 1956:

  • Prohibits travel within 5 nautical miles (9 km) of the island.
  • Sentinelese are exempt from prosecution for acts of defensive aggression.

 

Restricted Area Permit (RAP):

Revoked in 2018 for 29 islands, but North Sentinel remains strictly off-limits.

Tourism, filming, fishing, and visits are strictly prohibited to protect the tribe and prevent external disease exposure.

Katchatheevu Island

Recent Developments

  • The Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly has passed a resolution urging the Union government to take steps to reclaim Katchatheevu Island from Sri Lanka.
  • The demand is rooted in concerns over Tamil Nadu fishermen’s traditional fishing rights and the ongoing harassment by the Sri Lankan Navy.

 

 

About Katchatheevu Island

  • Location: Situated in the Palk Strait, between Tamil Nadu, India, and northern Sri Lanka.
  • Geography: A small, uninhabited island spanning approximately 285 acres.
  • Proximity:
  • 5 km south of Delft Island (Sri Lanka).
  • 16 km northeast of Rameswaram (India).

 

Features:

  • Lacks drinking water or permanent infrastructure.
  • Houses a Catholic church dedicated to St. Anthony, a pilgrimage site for both Indian and Sri Lankan fishermen.

Historical Dispute

  • Origins (1921): The dispute over Katchatheevu began between the British colonial administrations of Madras (India) and Ceylon (Sri Lanka).

 

Resolution (1974 & 1976 Agreements):

  • 1974 Agreement: India officially recognized Sri Lanka’s sovereignty over Katchatheevu.
  • 1976 Agreement: Defined maritime boundaries, including the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of both nations.

 

Key Provisions:

  • Indian fishermen could visit Katchatheevu for the annual Anthony’s festival.
  • However, fishing in Sri Lankan waters was strictly prohibited.

 

Strategic & Diplomatic Considerations

  • India’s decision to cede Katchatheevu was influenced by broader diplomatic interests, particularly in maintaining favorable relations with Sri Lanka amidst its growing ties with China.
  • In return, India secured sovereign rights over the Wadge Bank, a region near Kanniyakumari known for its rich marine resources.

 

Government’s Position

  • The Union government has consistently opposed any move to reclaim Katchatheevu, arguing that the 1974 and 1976 agreements settled the dispute.
  • The matter remains pending before the Supreme Court, where the government asserts that no Indian territory was ceded, as Katchatheevu was never under Indian sovereignty post-independence.

 

Conclusion

  • While Tamil Nadu continues to push for the retrieval of Katchatheevu, the Union government maintains that the agreements remain legally binding.
  • The dispute persists, particularly due to concerns over fishermen’s rights and Sri Lankan naval actions in the region.

Consider the following statements regarding the Katchatheevu Island dispute:

  1. The dispute over Katchatheevu began after India’s independence in 1947.
  2. The 1974 Agreement between India and Sri Lanka granted Sri Lankan sovereignty over Katchatheevu, but allowed Indian fishermen to fish in its surrounding waters.
  3. The 1976 Agreement demarcated the maritime boundaries and exclusive economic zones (EEZs) between India and Sri Lanka.
  4. India’s decision to recognize Sri Lankan sovereignty over Katchatheevu was influenced by its strategic interests in securing sovereign rights over the Wadge Bank.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The dispute over Katchatheevu dates back to 1921 during British rule, not post-independence.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The 1974 Agreement did not allow Indian fishermen to fish in Katchatheevu’s surrounding waters; they were only allowed to visit for the St. Anthony’s festival.

Statement 3 is correct: The 1976 Agreement established maritime boundaries and exclusive economic zones (EEZs) between India and Sri Lanka.

Statement 4 is correct: India’s strategic interests included securing Wadge Bank, a marine resource-rich region near Kanniyakumari.

9K33 Osa-AK Missile System

                   

  • The Indian Army’s Air Defence warriors from the White Tiger Division have successfully demonstrated their operational readiness and technical expertise during a recent live missile-firing exercise.
  • The exercise involved the firing of the 9K33 Osa-AK missile system, reaffirming the Army’s capability to counter aerial threats in dynamic combat environments.

9K33 Osa-AK Missile System: An Overview

  • The 9K33 Osa-AK is a Russian-built, highly mobile, low-altitude, short-range tactical surface-to-air missile system. Initially developed in the 1960s and officially inducted by the Soviet Union in 1972, the system continues to serve as a critical air defence asset for multiple nations, including India.
  • In NATO classification, the Osa-AK is designated as “SA-8 Gecko.”
  • It is designed for rapid deployment, capable of engaging low-flying enemy aircraft, helicopters, drones, and cruise missiles.

Key Features of the 9K33 Osa-AK System

All-in-One Combat System

  • The Osa-AK integrates its radar, launcher, and missile control system into a single highly mobile platform.
  • This transporter-erector-launcher and radar (TELAR) setup allows it to independently detect, track, and engage aerial threats without external radar support.

 

Missile Capabilities

  • The system carries six ready-to-fire missiles mounted on the vehicle’s roof.
  • It can engage targets at a maximum range of 12 km with high precision.

Mobility and Deployment

  • The Osa-AK is highly mobile and designed to respond swiftly to evolving battlefield conditions.
  • It has a road range of approximately 500 km, allowing rapid relocation across different theatres of operation.
  • It is fully amphibious and can operate in diverse terrains, including desert, mountainous, and urban landscapes.

Survivability and Protection

  • The vehicle has nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) protection to ensure operational capability in hostile environments.
  • It accommodates a crew of up to five personnel, ensuring efficient command and control.

Strategic Air Defence Role

  • The Osa-AK enhances India’s integrated air defence network by providing a responsive, mobile, and versatile counter-air capability.
  • It is designed to counter modern aerial threats, including low-flying aircraft and unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs).

Operational Significance for India

  • The live missile-firing drill underscores the Indian Army’s commitment to strengthening its air defence capabilities amid evolving security threats.
  • The Osa-AK system’s proven reliability in various conflict zones makes it a crucial asset in India’s military modernization efforts.
  • Its rapid deployment ability ensures effective protection of critical infrastructure and frontline military formations.
  • By successfully conducting this live-fire exercise, the Indian Army has reaffirmed its ability to neutralize airborne threats and maintain a robust defensive posture in modern warfare scenarios.

INS Tarini

 

  • The Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini has successfully arrived in Cape Town, South Africa, marking the fourth and final international stop in its global circumnavigation expedition, Navika Sagar Parikrama II.

 

INSV Tarini: A Symbol of India’s Maritime Prowess

  • Type: Indigenously built, 56-foot sailing vessel
  • Commissioned: February 2017
  • Built by: Aquarius Shipyard Ltd., Goa, under the Make in India initiative

 

Advanced Features:

  • Equipped with a Raymarine navigation suite
  • Satellite communication systems for real-time tracking
  • Emergency steering mechanisms to ensure operational efficiency in extreme conditions

 

Symbolic Significance:

  • Named after the Tara-Tarini hill shrine in Odisha, a revered maritime pilgrimage site for sailors
  • In Sanskrit, ‘Tarini’ translates to both ‘boat’ and ‘saviour’

Navika Sagar Parikrama II: India’s Global Maritime Expedition

  • Flagged off: October 2, 2024, from Goa by Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi, Chief of the Naval Staff
  • Objective: To promote women’s empowerment in ocean sailing and enhance India’s naval presence globally
  • Distance Covered: 23,400 nautical miles (~43,300 km)
  • Oceans Crossed: Three major oceans (Indian, Pacific, Atlantic)

Strategic Route:

  • Fremantle, Australia
  • Lyttelton, New Zealand
  • Port Stanley, Falkland Islands (UK)
  • Cape Town, South Africa (final stop before returning to India)

Which of the following factors make INSV Tarini suitable for extreme maritime expeditions?

  1. It has an advanced Raymarine navigation suite for real-time tracking.
    2. It is equipped with a self-righting hull design to withstand rough seas.
    3. The vessel is powered by a hybrid solar-wind propulsion system to ensure sustainability.
    4. It has emergency steering mechanisms for enhanced operational efficiency.

Select the correct option:

(A) 1, 2, and 4 only
(B) 1, 3, and 4 only
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

 

Explanation:
INSV Tarini is equipped with advanced Raymarine navigation, emergency steering mechanisms, and self-righting hull design, making it highly suitable for global expeditions. However, option (3) is incorrect as the vessel does not use a hybrid solar-wind propulsion system—it relies on traditional sailing techniques.

Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

Syllabus: GS1/ History, Famous Personalities                  

  • Death Anniversary (April 3): A day to honor Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, the visionary founder of the Maratha Empire.

 

Life and Leadership (1630-1680)

  • Birth & Inspiration: Born as Shivaji Bhosale, he championed the cause of Swarajya (self-rule). Influenced by saints like Tukaram, Dnyaneshwar, and Ramdas, he upheld social equality and spiritual awakening.
  • Coronation (1674): Proclaimed king at Raigad Fort, marking the start of the Rajyabhisheka Era.

 

Governance and Military Excellence

Administrative Reforms:

  • Established the Ashta Pradhan Mandal (council of eight ministers) for effective governance.
  • Replaced the Jagirdari system with the Ryotwari system, ensuring direct taxation for better revenue management.

 

Military & Naval Power:

  • Strategically engaged with the Mughals, Bijapur, Golkonda, and European powers.
  • Strengthened India’s maritime defenses by building a formidable naval force to safeguard trade and territorial integrity.

 

Enduring Legacy

  • His name continues to inspire, with landmarks like INS Shivaji and the UNESCO-listed Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak revived the Shivaji Festival in the 1890s, using his legacy to ignite nationalism.
  • The Indian Navy’s new Ensign and Admirals’ shoulder insignia are tributes to his naval prowess and visionary leadership.

Consider the following statements about Shivaji’s relationship with the Mughals:

  1. Shivaji initially served under the Mughal emperor before rebelling.
  2. He signed the Treaty of Purandar (1665) with Raja Jai Singh of Amber.
  3. After escaping from Agra, he launched an aggressive campaign against the Mughals.

Which of the statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
Shivaji never served under the Mughals but had temporary truces with them. The Treaty of Purandar (1665) resulted in Shivaji ceding 23 forts, but after escaping from Agra (1666), he launched a fierce counterattack, re-establishing Maratha power.

North Sentinel Island

 

Recent Development:

  • A U.S. citizen has been arrested for illegally entering North Sentinel Island, home to one of the world’s last uncontacted tribes.

 

Geographical Overview:

  • Located in the Bay of Bengal, under the South Andaman administrative district of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, India.
  • Situated approximately 50 km west of Port Blair.
  • Surrounded by coral reefs, making access via sea extremely challenging.
  • Characterized by white-sand beaches, mangrove forests, and dense tropical vegetation.
  • The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake uplifted the island, exposing new coral reefs and increasing its landmass.

 

Sentinelese Tribe – Indigenous Inhabitants:

  • Among the last uncontacted tribes in the world.
  • Maintain complete isolation and display hostility towards outsiders.
  • Follow a hunter-gatherer lifestyle, using bows, arrows, spears, and dugout canoes.
  • Population estimates range between 50–150 individuals.

 

Legal Protection & Governance:

Andaman & Nicobar Islands (Protection of Aboriginal Tribes) Regulation, 1956:

  • Prohibits travel within 5 nautical miles (9 km) of the island.
  • Sentinelese are exempt from prosecution for acts of defensive aggression.

 

Restricted Area Permit (RAP):

Revoked in 2018 for 29 islands, but North Sentinel remains strictly off-limits.

Tourism, filming, fishing, and visits are strictly prohibited to protect the tribe and prevent external disease exposure.

Consider the following statements regarding North Sentinel Island:

  1. It is administratively part of the Middle Andaman district in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  2. The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake resulted in a reduction of the island’s landmass due to submersion of coastal areas.
  3. The island is surrounded by coral reefs, which act as a natural barrier against external intrusion.
  4. The Sentinelese are known to practice primitive forms of shifting agriculture in addition to hunting and gathering.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: North Sentinel Island falls under the South Andaman administrative district, not Middle Andaman.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2004 earthquake uplifted portions of the island, increasing its landmass rather than reducing it.

Statement 3 is correct: The island is surrounded by coral reefs, making access extremely difficult.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Sentinelese are strictly hunter-gatherers; they do not engage in agriculture.

Katchatheevu Island

Syllabus :GS 1/Places  

Recent Developments

  • The Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly has passed a resolution urging the Union government to take steps to reclaim Katchatheevu Island from Sri Lanka.
  • The demand is rooted in concerns over Tamil Nadu fishermen’s traditional fishing rights and the ongoing harassment by the Sri Lankan Navy.

 

 

About Katchatheevu Island

  • Location: Situated in the Palk Strait, between Tamil Nadu, India, and northern Sri Lanka.
  • Geography: A small, uninhabited island spanning approximately 285 acres.
  • Proximity:
  • 5 km south of Delft Island (Sri Lanka).
  • 16 km northeast of Rameswaram (India).

 

Features:

  • Lacks drinking water or permanent infrastructure.
  • Houses a Catholic church dedicated to St. Anthony, a pilgrimage site for both Indian and Sri Lankan fishermen.

Historical Dispute

  • Origins (1921): The dispute over Katchatheevu began between the British colonial administrations of Madras (India) and Ceylon (Sri Lanka).

 

Resolution (1974 & 1976 Agreements):

  • 1974 Agreement: India officially recognized Sri Lanka’s sovereignty over Katchatheevu.
  • 1976 Agreement: Defined maritime boundaries, including the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of both nations.

 

Key Provisions:

  • Indian fishermen could visit Katchatheevu for the annual Anthony’s festival.
  • However, fishing in Sri Lankan waters was strictly prohibited.

 

Strategic & Diplomatic Considerations

  • India’s decision to cede Katchatheevu was influenced by broader diplomatic interests, particularly in maintaining favorable relations with Sri Lanka amidst its growing ties with China.
  • In return, India secured sovereign rights over the Wadge Bank, a region near Kanniyakumari known for its rich marine resources.

 

Government’s Position

  • The Union government has consistently opposed any move to reclaim Katchatheevu, arguing that the 1974 and 1976 agreements settled the dispute.
  • The matter remains pending before the Supreme Court, where the government asserts that no Indian territory was ceded, as Katchatheevu was never under Indian sovereignty post-independence.

 

Conclusion

  • While Tamil Nadu continues to push for the retrieval of Katchatheevu, the Union government maintains that the agreements remain legally binding.
  • The dispute persists, particularly due to concerns over fishermen’s rights and Sri Lankan naval actions in the region.

Consider the following statements regarding the Katchatheevu Island dispute:

  1. The dispute over Katchatheevu began after India’s independence in 1947.
  2. The 1974 Agreement between India and Sri Lanka granted Sri Lankan sovereignty over Katchatheevu, but allowed Indian fishermen to fish in its surrounding waters.
  3. The 1976 Agreement demarcated the maritime boundaries and exclusive economic zones (EEZs) between India and Sri Lanka.
  4. India’s decision to recognize Sri Lankan sovereignty over Katchatheevu was influenced by its strategic interests in securing sovereign rights over the Wadge Bank.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The dispute over Katchatheevu dates back to 1921 during British rule, not post-independence.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The 1974 Agreement did not allow Indian fishermen to fish in Katchatheevu’s surrounding waters; they were only allowed to visit for the St. Anthony’s festival.

Statement 3 is correct: The 1976 Agreement established maritime boundaries and exclusive economic zones (EEZs) between India and Sri Lanka.

Statement 4 is correct: India’s strategic interests included securing Wadge Bank, a marine resource-rich region near Kanniyakumari.

GI Tag to Chapata Chilli

 

In News:

  • The Warangal Chapata Chilli, popularly known as Tomato Chilli, from Telangana has recently been awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag by the GI Registry.

 

About Warangal Chapata Chilli (Tomato Chilli):

  • Noted for its vibrant red colour and low pungency, making it distinct from other chilli varieties.
  • Widely sought after for its high content of natural colouring agent, specifically paprika oleoresin, used in food and cosmetic industries.

The variety includes three distinct fruit types:

  • Single Patti
  • Double Patti
  • Odalu

With reference to the Warangal Chapata Chilli, recently granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, consider the following statements:

  1. It is primarily cultivated for its high capsaicin content, which contributes to its intense pungency.
  2. The chilli is a significant source of paprika oleoresin, a natural colouring agent used in various industries.
  3. It includes distinct morphological fruit types, namely Single Patti, Double Patti, and Odalu.
  4. Its cultivation is limited to the high-altitude tribal belts of Eastern Ghats in Telangana.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

 Statement 1 — Incorrect:
Warangal Chapata chilli is not known for high capsaicin or pungency. In fact, one of its key traits is its low pungency, which differentiates it from other chilli varieties. Thus, the statement is factually incorrect.

  • Statement 2 — Correct:
    The chilli is in high demand due to the presence of paprika oleoresin, a natural colouring agent used in the food, cosmetic, and pharmaceutical industries. This makes the variety economically significant beyond its culinary usage.
  • Statement 3 — Correct:
    The three distinct fruit types of this chilli variety—Single Patti, Double Patti, and Odalu—refer to the physical/morphological characteristics of the fruit, and are used by cultivators to distinguish between sub-types.
  • Statement 4 — Incorrect:
    The cultivation of Warangal Chapata chilli is not limited to high-altitude tribal belts or the Eastern Ghats. It is mainly cultivated in the plains of Telangana, particularly around Warangal, which is known for its fertile soils and chilli production.

 

Heard and McDonald Islands

 

Context:

Under the so-called “Liberation Day Tariffs”, former U.S. President Donald Trump imposed a baseline 10% tariff on all trading partners. Notably, this list included even the uninhabited Heard and McDonald Islands, owing to their status as an Australian external territory.

About Heard and McDonald Islands:

  • TerritorialStatus:
    Uninhabited volcanic islands under the sovereignty of Australia, included in trade measures due to their territorial classification.
  • Geographic Location:
    Situated in the Southern Indian Ocean, approximately 1,700 km from Antarctica and 4,100 km southwest of mainland Australia.
  • Volcanic Significance:
    Host to the only active sub-Antarctic volcanoes, including Big Ben on Heard Island and the volcano on McDonald Island.
  • Geological Importance:
    Serve as a critical site for studying plate tectonics, oceanic crust formation, glacial dynamics, and climate change impacts.
  • Ecological Uniqueness:
    Among the few remaining pristine ecosystems globally, with no introduced species. The islands support large populations of seabirds and marine mammals.
  • Wildlife Highlights:
    Habitat for several endemic species, including the Heard Island cormorant and an endemic subspecies of sheathbill. Crucial breeding grounds for seals, petrels, penguins, and albatrosses.

 

Conservation Status:

  • Protected under Australia’s Environment Protection and Biodiversity Conservation Act, 1999
  • Recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site
  • Strict legal restrictions against unauthorized activities or environmental disruption

Tipitaka

Syllabus: GS1/ Art & Culture

 

In News

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi was presented with ‘The World Tipitaka: Sajjhaya Phonetic Edition’ by the Prime Minister of Thailand, Paetongtarn Shinawatra, as part of a diplomatic and cultural exchange.

About the Tipiṭaka

  • The Tipiṭaka, meaning “Three Baskets” in Pāli, is the foundational scripture of Theravāda Buddhism, comprising three major divisions of the Buddha’s teachings:
  • Vinaya Piṭaka (Basket of Discipline):
  • Contains rules, procedures, and guidelines for the monastic community (bhikkhus and bhikkhunis).

Emphasizes ethical conduct and communal harmony.

 

Sutta Piṭaka (Basket of Discourses):

  • A collection of the Buddha’s sermons and dialogues with disciples and lay followers.
  • Presents core teachings such as the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path.

 

Abhidhamma Piṭaka (Basket of Higher Doctrine):

  • Philosophical and psychological analysis of the Dhamma.
  • Offers a detailed framework for understanding consciousness and mental phenomena.

Historical Background

  • The Tipiṭaka was compiled orally after the Buddha’s Mahāparinibbāna (passing away) in the 5th century BCE.
  • The first compilation took place at the First Buddhist Council, held in Rajagaha (modern-day Rajgir, Bihar, India) under the patronage of King Ajātasattu.

With reference to the Tipiṭaka, consider the following statements:

  1. The Vinaya Piṭaka primarily addresses metaphysical doctrines in Buddhism.
  2. The Sutta Piṭaka contains the teachings of the Buddha delivered in narrative and dialogue form.
  3. The Abhidhamma Piṭaka was compiled during the lifetime of the Buddha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Vinaya Piṭaka is focused on monastic rules and disciplinary codes, not metaphysics.

Statement 2 is correct: The Sutta Piṭaka contains discourses of the Buddha, often structured as conversations or narratives.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Abhidhamma Piṭaka was compiled after the Buddha’s death, likely starting from the Third Buddhist Council onwards.

African Giant Pouched Rat

Syllabus: GS3/Species in News

 

Context:

  • A giant African pouched rat has set a Guinness World Record by detecting 109 landmines and 15 unexploded ordnance (UXOs) in Cambodia, showcasing its remarkable ability in humanitarian demining operations.

About the Achievement:

  • The rat earned the world record for most landmines detected by a rodent.
  • Trained to identify chemical compounds in explosives, these rats play a crucial role in post-conflict landmine clearance.
  • Unique Advantage: Due to their light weight, they can safely traverse minefields without triggering the explosives.
  • Efficiency: They can search an area equivalent to a tennis court in 30 minutes, a task that would take a metal detector nearly four days.
  • They are also known for their ability to detect tuberculosis faster than traditional laboratory methods.

Landmine Situation in Cambodia:

  • Cambodia remains one of the most landmine-contaminated countries due to prolonged conflicts.
  • Although the initial target was to become mine-free by 2025, this has been extended to 2030 due to financial constraints and the discovery of new minefields.
  • The African Giant Pouched Rat (Cricetomys gambianus) is a large rodent species native to sub-Saharan Africa, typically found in savannas, forests, and agricultural regions. It is omnivorous, feeding on a varied diet that includes fruits, seeds, insects, and occasionally small animals. The species is distinguished by its greyish-brown fur, large ears, and distinctive cheek pouches, which it uses to store food.
  • Noted for its high intelligence, the African Giant Pouched Rat is highly trainable and has been effectively utilized in specialized tasks such as landmine detection and disease diagnosis, including the identification of tuberculosis through scent. Due to its light weight, it can safely detect landmines without triggering them, making it especially valuable in humanitarian demining efforts.
  • The species is classified as “Least Concern” on the IUCN Red List, indicating that it currently faces no significant threat of extinction.

With reference to the African Giant Pouched Rat (Cricetomys gambianus), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is listed as “Vulnerable” on the IUCN Red List due to increasing demand in biomedical research.
  2. It has been successfully trained to detect both landmines and communicable diseases like tuberculosis.
  3. Its use in demining operations is restricted due to its inability to operate in humid tropical climates.
  4. It can survey minefields significantly faster than conventional metal detectors due to its olfactory capabilities and lightweight body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect:

  • Cricetomys gambianus is currently classified as “Least Concern” by the IUCN, not “Vulnerable”. While it is used in specialized roles, there is no major threat or excessive demand that would warrant a “Vulnerable” status.

Statement 2 – Correct:

  • The rats have been successfully trained to detect landmines by sniffing out chemical compounds used in explosives. They are also known to detect tuberculosis using olfactory sensing, making them useful in medical diagnostics.

 

Statement 3 – Incorrect:

  • These rats are native to sub-Saharan Africa, which includes humid tropical regions, and have demonstrated the ability to work effectively in tropical countries like Cambodia. Hence, their utility is not restricted by climate.

Statement 4 – Correct:

  • Their lightweight body allows them to walk over landmines without setting them off, and they can cover a tennis-court-sized area in about 30 minutes, far faster than a metal detector, which could take days for the same task.

President of Chile Visit to India

 

Context:

  • The President of Chile is on a state visit to India, marking 76 years of diplomatic relations between the two nations.

 

Key Discussions:

Trade and Economic Relations:

  • Emphasis on expanding the India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA), which was last updated in 2017.
  • Initiation of negotiations for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) to enhance economic and trade integration.

Mining and Critical Minerals Cooperation:

  • Strengthened collaboration in critical minerals essential for emerging technologies and clean energy.
  • A major bilateral agreement was concluded between CODELCO (Chile’s National Copper Corporation) and Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL).
  • Chile, home to the world’s largest copper reserves, aims to expand its market in India and reduce dependency on China.

 

Antarctic Cooperation:

  • A Letter of Intent was signed to deepen scientific exchanges and Antarctic research collaboration.

About Chile:

Geography:

  • A long, narrow country on the west coast of South America.
  • Coastline: Extends over 6,437 km, but its width is only ~91 km.
  • Cape Horn: The southernmost point of South America, infamous for extreme weather and treacherous seas.

Atacama Desert: The driest desert in the world, located in northern Chile.

 

Geological Features:

  • Chile is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, making it seismically active due to the subduction of the Nazca and Antarctic plates beneath the South American plate.
  • Home to Escondida, the largest copper mine in the world, which contributes over 5% of global copper production.
  • Rich in lithium and other strategic minerals, vital for battery technology and clean energy.
  • This visit marks a strategic milestone in India-Chile relations, fostering economic integration, resource cooperation, and scientific collaboration

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA):

  1. The agreement was first signed in 2006 and expanded in 2017 to include more tariff concessions.
  2. Under the PTA, both countries have agreed to eliminate tariffs on all traded goods over a 10-year period.
  3. Chile is India’s largest trade partner in South America.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

The India-Chile PTA was first signed in 2006 and expanded in 2017, increasing the number of tariff concessions.

However, not all traded goods are duty-free, as PTAs generally cover only selected goods with reduced tariffs (Statement 2 is incorrect).

Chile is India’s largest trade partner in South America, particularly in the mining sector, where India imports copper and other minerals (Statement 3 is correct).

Baku to Belem Roadmap

Syllabus: GS2/ IR

 

In News

  • India has urged BRICS nations to rally behind the ‘Baku to Belém Roadmap’, a strategic climate finance initiative aimed at mobilizing USD 1.3 trillion annually to help developing countries achieve their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).

What is the Baku to Belém Roadmap?

  • Adopted during COP29 (2024), the Baku to Belém Roadmap serves as a framework to guide global climate negotiations and action, focusing on:
  • Establishing a New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) on climate finance post-2025.
  • Enhancing the predictability, adequacy, and accessibility of climate finance for the Global South.
  • Supporting low-carbon and climate-resilient development
  • Facilitating the effective implementation of countries’ NDCs under the Paris Agreement.

Why BRICS Matters in Climate Action

  • The BRICS grouping—Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa, and six recently added members—plays a critical role in shaping global climate outcomes because:
  • They collectively represent 47% of the global population and 36% of the global GDP (PPP).
  • As emerging economies, they face shared developmental challenges and environmental vulnerabilities.
  • Their cooperation is key to ensuring a just, inclusive, and equitable climate transition, especially for the Global South.

Why the Roadmap is Urgent and Significant

  • The $100 billion/year climate finance goal (established in 2009) has consistently fallen short.
  • New assessments indicate that developing countries will require over $1.3 trillion annually by 2030 to fulfill their NDC commitments.
  • The Baku to Belém Roadmap aims to fill this critical finance gap, aligning climate ambition with actual support.

With reference to the ‘Baku to Belém Roadmap’ adopted at COP29, consider the following statements:

  1. It sets a legally binding global cap on carbon emissions for developed countries post-2025.
  2. It proposes the formulation of a New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) on climate finance.
  3. It focuses on enhancing climate resilience in developing countries through increased access to finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: The roadmap does not set legally binding carbon caps; it is a finance-focused framework, not an emissions treaty.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The roadmap includes efforts to establish a New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) on climate finance post-2025.
  • Statement 3 is correct: A core aim is to ensure climate finance accessibility and resilience for developing nations.

Ottawa Convention

Syllabus :GS 2/IR

In News

  • Poland, Finland, and the three Baltic states—Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania—have announced their intention to withdraw from the 1997 Ottawa Convention banning anti-personnel landmines, citing escalating security threats from Russia.
  • Withdrawal would allow these states to resume the production, stockpiling, and use of anti-personnel mines.

 

About the Ottawa Convention

  • Formal Name: Convention on the Prohibition of the Use, Stockpiling, Production and Transfer of Anti-Personnel Mines and on their Destruction.
  • Adopted: 1997 at a diplomatic conference in Oslo.
  • Opened for Signature: Later in 1997 in Ottawa, Canada.
  • Came into Force: March 1, 1999.
  • Objective: Complete elimination of anti-personnel landmines by prohibiting their use, development, transfer, and stockpiling.

 

Key Achievements

  • Over 40 million stockpiled landmines have been destroyed since the Convention’s enforcement.
  • Substantial reduction in global production and use of anti-personnel mines.
  • Enhanced support for mine victims, including medical care, rehabilitation, and social reintegration.
  • Accelerated mine clearance efforts, improving safety and enabling productive land use in previously contaminated regions.
  • Integrated victim assistance within the broader framework of disability rights and humanitarian aid.

Significance

The Ottawa Convention has played a pivotal role in:

  • Advancing humanitarian disarmament efforts.
  • Reducing civilian casualties caused by landmines.
  • Promoting international cooperation on mine clearance, victim assistance, and post-conflict reconstruction.
  • Enhancing global norms against indiscriminate weapons.

Which of the following statements regarding the Ottawa Convention are correct?

  1. It permits the use of anti-tank mines under specific conditions.
  2. It came into force prior to the Convention on Cluster Munitions.
  3. India is a signatory but has not ratified the Convention.
  4. The Convention allows state parties to withdraw after a formal notice of six months.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ottawa Convention bans anti-personnel mines, but it does not cover anti-tank mines—however, it does not permit anti-personnel landmines under any condition.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Ottawa Convention entered into force in 1999, while the Convention on Cluster Munitions was adopted in 2008.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not a signatory to the Ottawa Convention.
  • Statement 4 is correct: A State Party may withdraw from the treaty six months after giving written notice.

150th Assembly of Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU)

 

In News

Lok Sabha Speaker Shri Om Birla is heading the Indian Parliamentary Delegation to the 150th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), being held in Tashkent, Uzbekistan from April 5–9, 2025.

 

 About the 150th IPU Assembly

Theme: “Parliamentary Action for Social Development and Justice”

Focus areas include:

  • Poverty eradication
  • Promotion of decent work
  • Social inclusion
  • Participation of marginalized and vulnerable groups in decision-making processes

 

 Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU): Overview

  • Founded: 1889
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland (with offices in New York & Vienna)
  • Membership: 181 national parliaments + 15 associate members

 

Objectives & Mandate

  • Promote peace, democracy, and sustainable development
  • Strengthen parliamentary diplomacy and cooperation
  • Empower parliaments to address global challenges through dialogue

 

Advocate for:

  • Democratic governance
  • Human rights
  • Gender equality & youth empowerment
  • Climate action
  • Funding
  • Primarily funded by contributions from its member parliaments.

Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU):

  1. It was established as a United Nations organ in the aftermath of World War II.
  2. It has observer status at the United Nations General Assembly.
  3. The IPU’s funding comes predominantly from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The IPU was founded in 1889, long before the UN was established.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The IPU holds observer status in the UN General Assembly.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It is funded mainly by contributions from its member parliaments, not UNDP.

Abel Prize 2025

Syllabus:Awards

 

 

  • The esteemed Abel Prize for mathematics has been awarded to Japanese mathematician Masaki Kashiwara for his groundbreaking contributions to algebraic analysis, representation theory, and sheaf theory.

 

About the Abel Prize

  • The Abel Prize honors exceptional scientific achievements in mathematics.
  • Named after Norwegian mathematician Niels Henrik Abel (1802–1829), who made significant contributions to various mathematical fields in his brief lifetime.
  • Established in 2002 by the Norwegian Parliament to commemorate Abel’s 200th birth anniversary.
  • Administered by the Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters on behalf of the Norwegian government.
  • The awardee is selected by an expert committee, which is appointed by the Academy under the guidance of the International Mathematical Union (IMU) and the European Mathematical Society (EMS).
  • First presented in 2003, the Abel Prize is often regarded as the “Nobel Prize of Mathematics”, given that the Nobel Prizes do not include a category for mathematics.
  • The prize consists of a monetary award of 7.5 million Norwegian kroner (approximately $720,000) and a specially designed glass plaque by Norwegian artist Henrik Haugan.

 

Abel Prize 2025

  • The 2025 Abel Prize has been conferred upon Masaki Kashiwara for his pioneering contributions to algebraic analysis and representation theory, particularly:
  • The development of the theory of D-modules, which revolutionized the study of differential equations and their algebraic properties.
  • The discovery of crystal bases, an innovation that allows complex algebraic calculations to be represented as simpler graphical structures consisting of vertices and edges.
  • His work has not only resolved longstanding mathematical problems but also created new interdisciplinary connections, enabling further advancements in pure and applied mathematics.

Consider the following statements regarding the Abel Prize:

  1. It is awarded annually by the International Mathematical Union (IMU).
  2. The prize was established to recognize outstanding achievements in applied mathematics.
  3. It was first awarded in the year 2002 to commemorate the bicentenary of Niels Henrik Abel’s birth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

  1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Abel Prize is awarded by the Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters, not the International Mathematical Union (IMU). However, IMU and the European Mathematical Society (EMS) advise on the selection process.
  2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Abel Prize recognizes achievements in pure mathematics, not specifically applied mathematics.
  3. Statement 3 is incorrect: Although the prize was established in 2002, the first Abel Prize was awarded in 2003, not 2002.

Vibrant Villages Programme-II (VVP-II)

Syllabus: GS3-Infrastructure/Internal Security 

Context:

  • The Union Cabinet has approved Phase-II of the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) to accelerate development in strategic border areas, reinforcing both internal security and inclusive growth.

 

 About VVP-II

  • Type: Central Sector Scheme (100% funded by Centre)
  • Total Outlay: ₹6,839 crore
  • Implementation Period: Up to FY 2028–29

 

Target Areas

Strategic villages in the following States/UTs:

  • Northeast & Himalayas: Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura
  • Northern Borders: Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Punjab, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh
  • Eastern Borders: Bihar, West Bengal
  • Western Borders: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh

 

Core Objectives

  • Improve living standards and livelihood opportunities in border villages
  • Strengthen national integration and reduce trans-border crime
  • Engage local population as intelligence assets (“eyes and ears”) for border security forces
  • Ensure safe, self-reliant, and vibrant border communities

 

Key Components

  • Village-level infrastructure development
  • Promotion of cooperatives/SHGs for local value chains
  • Border-specific outreach and strategic engagement
  • SMART classrooms and education infrastructure
  • Development of rural tourism circuits
  • Creation of diverse, sustainable livelihoods

 

 Significance

  • Together with VVP-I, this phase marks a transformational shift in India’s border policy—promoting security through development, resilience, and socio-economic inclusion of remote frontier communities.

With reference to the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP)-II, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at improving border infrastructure and is jointly funded by the Centre and States.
  2. It includes initiatives such as SMART classes, tourism circuit development, and livelihood generation.
  3. Its implementation is restricted only to the Indo-China border regions due to heightened strategic sensitivities.

       Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

 Answer: A. 2 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: VVP-II is a Central Sector Scheme, meaning it is 100% Centre-funded, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (which involves cost-sharing with states).
  • Statement 2 is correct: The programme includes diverse development initiatives such as SMART education, tourism circuits, and sustainable livelihoods.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: VVP-II is not limited to Indo-China borders. It covers strategic villages along India’s northern, eastern, and western borders, including states like Punjab, Gujarat, and West Bengal.

India Ranks 36 in Network Readiness Index

Syllabus: Indexes

 

  • India has demonstrated significant advancements in the adoption and integration of frontier technologies, as reflected in its improved ranking on the global Network Readiness Index.
  • According to the 2025 Technology and Innovation Report by UNCTAD, India now ranks 36th out of 170 nations, a notable rise from 48th in 2022.
  • This progress stems from enhancements in ICT deployment, research & development (R&D), industrial capacity, and finance, with a strong emphasis on artificial intelligence (AI) and nanotechnology.
  • The report highlights India as a leading developing nation surpassing expectations, particularly in AI innovation and technology readiness.

 

Key Highlights: 

India’s Global Standing

Rank: 36th on the ‘Readiness for Frontier Technologies’ index (improved from 48th in 2022).

Performance Factors: Assessed based on ICT deployment, human capital, R&D, industrial capacity, and financial access.

 

Human Capital & Technological Growth

  • India, along with Bhutan, Morocco, Moldova, and Timor-Leste, has significantly improved in human capital development, driven by increased schooling years and high-skill employment.
  • Developing nations such as India, China, Brazil, and the Philippines have exceeded expectations in technology readiness, despite lower per capita GDPs.

 

India’s Role in AI Innovation

  • India is a key global player in AI, contributing extensively to AI-related scientific research.
  • The country ranks 2nd globally in the number of GitHub developers (13 million), behind the United States.
  • India is emerging as a significant contributor to Generative AI (GenAI) projects.

 

Private AI Investments

  • India ranks 10th globally in private AI investments, with USD 1.4 billion in 2023, behind China and the United States.

 

AI & Employment Transformation

  • While AI may lead to job displacement, it also holds the potential to create new industries and employment opportunities.
  • The report stresses reskilling and upskilling as critical measures to prepare the workforce for an AI-driven future.

 

Strategic Policy Interventions

The India AI Mission has been launched to strengthen India’s AI ecosystem by:

  • Enhancing AI education and training programs
  • Reducing barriers for AI adoption in smaller cities
  • Promoting AI research and industry collaboration

 

Conclusion

  • India’s advancement in frontier technologies and AI development underscores its growing global influence in innovation and digital transformation.
  • While challenges remain in areas such as ICT readiness and human capital, policy interventions and investments are shaping India into a technological powerhouse.

With reference to India’s performance in the 2025 UNCTAD Technology and Innovation Report, consider the following statements:

  1. India ranks among the top 5 countries globally in ICT deployment, owing to rapid digital infrastructure expansion.
  2. The improvement in India’s human capital index is attributed to both increased average years of schooling and growth in high-skill employment.
  3. India is recognized as one of the top three global contributors to private investment in Artificial Intelligence (AI) in 2023.
  4. The India AI Mission includes efforts to promote AI research, improve training accessibility, and reduce regional imbalances in AI adoption.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: B. 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect

  • India does not rank in the top 5 globally in ICT deployment.
  • In fact, it ranks 99th in terms of ICT readiness, indicating significant scope for improvement in digital infrastructure and access.

 Statement 2 – Correct

  • The report clearly mentions that India’s improvement in human capital stems from increased years of schooling and higher levels of high-skill employment.

 Statement 3 – Incorrect

  • India is ranked 10th globally in terms of private AI investment in 2023 (USD 1.4 billion).
  • The top contributors remain the United States and China, not India.

 Statement 4 – Correct

The India AI Mission includes:

  • Promoting AI research
  • Improving access to AI education and training
  • Reducing barriers for adoption in smaller cities

These align with the goals to build an inclusive AI ecosystem.

“Levels and Trends in Child Mortality” Report

Syllabus: Reports

  • The “Levels and Trends in Child Mortality” report, recently released by the United Nations Inter-agency Group for Child Mortality Estimation (UNIGME), highlights the progress in reducing child mortality globally.
  • UNIGME, led by UNICEF, WHO, the World Bank, and the UN Population Division, publishes this report annually using data from 195 countries.

 

India’s Key Achievements in Mortality Reduction

  • India has made remarkable strides in reducing child mortality.
  • The country has witnessed a 70% decline in under-five mortality and a 61% reduction in neonatal mortality, positioning India among the global leaders in this area.
  • The decline in stillbirths is equally significant, with a 60.4% decrease, compared to the global average reduction of 37%.
  • India ranks seventh worldwide in terms of the reduction in stillbirths.

Health Infrastructure Improvements

  • The decline in child mortality is largely attributed to improvements in healthcare infrastructure and services.
  • Initiatives like the establishment of maternity waiting homes and newborn care units have significantly improved healthcare access for mothers and infants.
  • Additionally, the government has focused on training skilled birth attendants, including midwives and community health workers, ensuring better care during childbirth.

 

 

 

Role of the Ayushman Bharat Scheme

  • The Ayushman Bharat scheme, the world’s largest health insurance program, has played a crucial role in these achievements.
  • Providing nearly US$5500 annual coverage per family, it ensures free deliveries, medications, and diagnostic services for pregnant women and infants, easing financial barriers to healthcare access.

 

Advances in Data Systems and Surveillance

  • India has also enhanced its data systems and digital surveillance to monitor maternal and child health indicators.
  • These improvements in data collection support evidence-based policymaking, helping to identify critical areas for intervention and resource allocation.

Global Context and Ongoing Challenges

  • Despite significant progress, challenges persist.
  • In 2023, an estimated 4.8 million children died before reaching the age of five, with 2.3 million of these deaths occurring among newborns.
  • Many of these deaths are preventable and are linked to unequal access to healthcare, with factors like socio-economic status and living conditions continuing to impact children’s survival rates globally.

With reference to the “Levels and Trends in Child Mortality” report released by the United Nations Inter-agency Group for Child Mortality Estimation (UNIGME), consider the following statements:

  1. India ranks seventh worldwide in terms of the reduction of stillbirths, achieving a 60.4% decrease, which is higher than the global average reduction of 37%.
  2. India has seen a 70% decline in under-five mortality and a 61% reduction in neonatal mortality, placing it among the global leaders in child mortality reduction.
  3. The Ayushman Bharat scheme provides health insurance coverage of US$5500 annually per family, covering all types of healthcare services for pregnant women and infants, irrespective of their socio-economic background.
  4. The reduction in child mortality globally is attributed primarily to improvements in child vaccination coverage and water sanitation initiatives, with healthcare access playing a relatively smaller role.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 only

 

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India ranks seventh in the world for reducing stillbirths, with a significant 60.4% decrease, compared to the global average reduction of 37%. This reflects India’s robust healthcare initiatives targeting maternal and infant health.

Statement 2 is correct: India has seen a 70% decline in under-five mortality and a 61% reduction in neonatal mortality, placing it among the global leaders in reducing child mortality. These figures highlight India’s notable progress in improving child survival rates.

Statement 3 is correct: The Ayushman Bharat scheme offers health insurance coverage of US$5500 annually per family. This scheme ensures free deliveries, medications, and diagnostic services for pregnant women and infants, significantly removing financial barriers to healthcare access for low-income families.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While child vaccination and water sanitation are essential, the primary contributor to the reduction in child mortality has been improvements in healthcare access, particularly skilled birth attendants, maternity waiting homes, and newborn care units. These improvements have ensured better care during childbirth and the immediate postnatal period, contributing significantly to the reduction in mortality.

NSO Releases Energy Statistics India 2025

Syllabus: Reports

  • The National Statistics Office (NSO) of India has released the annual report titled Energy Statistics India 2025, providing crucial data on energy reserves, production, consumption, trade, and capacity.
  • This comprehensive publication covers various energy sources such as coal, petroleum, natural gas, and renewable energy, and is accessible on the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s official website.

Key Highlights of Energy Statistics India 2025:

Energy Supply and Consumption

  • In the fiscal year 2023-24, India witnessed significant growth in energy supply and consumption:
  • Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) grew by 8%, reaching 9,03,158 KToE (Kilo Tonnes of Oil Equivalent), marking a notable increase compared to the previous year.

 

Renewable Energy Potential

  • India holds substantial potential for renewable energy generation, which was estimated at 21,09,655 Megawatts as of March 31, 2024:
  • Wind power leads this potential, contributing 11,63,856 Megawatts (approximately 55% of the total).
  • Solar energy contributes 7,48,990 Megawatts, and large hydro adds 1,33,410 Megawatts.
  • The majority of this renewable energy potential is concentrated in Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Karnataka.

 

Installed Capacity

  • The installed capacity for renewable energy generation has experienced impressive growth:
  • From 81,593 Megawatts in March 2015, the installed capacity has surged to 1,98,213 Megawatts by March 2024, reflecting a Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 36%.

 

Electricity Generation Trends

Electricity generation from renewable sources has also risen significantly:

  • In FY 2014-15, gross generation stood at 2,05,608 GWh, and by FY 2023-24, this increased to 3,70,320 GWh, reflecting a CAGR of 6.76%. This shift highlights India’s increasing reliance on cleaner energy sources.

 

Per-Capita Energy Consumption

  • India’s per-capita energy consumption has shown steady improvement:
  • From 14,682 Mega Joules per person in FY 2014-15, it increased to 18,410 Mega Joules per person in FY 2023-24, marking a CAGR of 2.55%. This growth indicates better access to energy across the population.

 

Reduction in Transmission and Distribution Losses

  • India has made progress in reducing electricity transmission and distribution losses:
  • Losses have decreased from around 23% in FY 2014-15 to about 17% in FY 2023-24, indicating improvements in infrastructure and efficiency.

 

Sectoral Energy Consumption

The industrial sector has seen the most significant increase in energy consumption:

  • It grew from 2,42,418 KToE in FY 2014-15 to 3,11,822 KToE in FY 2023-24. Other sectors, including commercial, residential, and agriculture, have also experienced steady growth in energy consumption.
  • This report showcases India’s strides in enhancing energy efficiency, expanding renewable energy capacity, and improving access to energy for its population.

With reference to the Energy Statistics India 2025 report, consider the following statements:

  1. The total primary energy supply (TPES) in India for the fiscal year 2023-24 increased by 7.8%, reaching 9,03,158 KToE.
  2. India’s total renewable energy potential is estimated at 21,09,655 Megawatts as of March 31, 2024, with wind power contributing 55% of this potential.
  3. India’s installed renewable energy capacity grew from 81,593 Megawatts in March 2015 to 1,98,213 Megawatts by March 2024, representing a Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 15.36%.
  4. The industrial sector has shown the highest increase in energy consumption, growing from 2,42,418 KToE in FY 2014-15 to 3,11,822 KToE in FY 2023-24.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: According to the report, India’s Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) grew by 7.8% in the fiscal year 2023-24, reaching a total of 9,03,158 KToE, marking a notable increase compared to the previous year.

Statement 2 is correct: The total renewable energy potential of India as of March 31, 2024, is 21,09,655 Megawatts, with wind power contributing 55% of this total potential.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While India’s renewable energy installed capacity has grown significantly, from 81,593 Megawatts in March 2015 to 1,98,213 Megawatts in March 2024, the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) is 10.36%, not 15.36%.

Statement 4 is correct: The industrial sector has indeed seen the highest increase in energy consumption, growing from 2,42,418 KToE in FY 2014-15 to 3,11,822 KToE in FY 2023-24, showing steady and significant growth.

Technology and Innovation Report 2025

Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology

Context

  • The 2025 Technology and Innovation Report, titled “Inclusive Artificial Intelligence for Development”, has been released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).

 

Key Highlights of the Report

  • Objective:
    The report aims to provide policy guidance to nations navigating the complexities of Artificial Intelligence (AI), helping them formulate science, technology, and innovation (STI) policies that ensure inclusive and equitable technological advancement.

 

India’s Performance

  • India ranked 10th globally in private sector investments in AI, securing $1.4 billion in 2023.
  • The United States topped the list with $67 billion, followed by China at $7.8 billion.
  • India improved its position on the Readiness for Frontier Technologies Index, rising to 36th in 2024 from 48th in 2022.

 

Concerns Highlighted

  • Concentration of Power: Just 100 companies, predominantly based in the US and China, account for 40% of global private R&D investment, raising concerns over monopolization of AI development.
  • Global Disparity: 118 countries, mostly from the Global South, are absent from international AI governance dialogues.
  • Job Disruption: Up to 40% of global employment could be impacted by AI-driven automation and displacement.

 

Recommendations and Policy Imperatives

Workforce Adaptation:

  • Emphasize reskilling, upskilling, and supporting workers through technological transitions to ensure AI enhances employment rather than replaces it.
  • Three Strategic Leverage Points for Developing Countries:
  • Infrastructure: Invest in affordable internet access and computing power.
  • Data Ecosystems: Develop robust legal frameworks for data collection, sharing, and privacy.
  • Skills Development: Promote digital literacy, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills.

 

Institutional and Global Mechanisms:

  • Establish a shared global AI facility to ensure equitable access to computing resources and tools.
  • Create a public disclosure framework for AI, modeled on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) standards, to promote transparency and accountability in AI deployment.

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