Monthly Current Affairs May 2025

India Opposes Inclusion of Chlorpyrifos at Stockholm Convention

Syllabus :GS 3/Environment

At the meetings of the conferences of the Parties to the Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) conventions in Switzerland, India expressed strong opposition to the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). India raised concerns about the potential impact on food security due to the lack of viable alternatives to this insecticide.

Chlorpyrifos: Overview

Chlorpyrifos is an insecticide that has been widely used in agriculture and pest control. It has been linked to several adverse health effects, including:
Neurodevelopmental issues
Reduced birth size
Lung and prostate cancer with chronic exposure
The World Health Organization (WHO) classifies Chlorpyrifos as a moderately hazardous pesticide. The chemical works by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme essential for proper nervous system function, leading to harmful neurological effects.

Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

The Stockholm Convention, adopted in May 2001 and entering into force on 17 May 2004, aims to protect human health and the environment from harmful chemicals known as persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
The Convention outlines measures for the elimination or restriction of POPs in three annexes:
Annex A: Chemicals to be eliminated.
Annex B: Chemicals to be restricted.
Annex C: Chemicals for which unintentional production and release should be minimized.
The Convention also provides a framework for dispute resolution between member countries.

Chlorpyrifos Phase-out and India’s Concerns

Chlorpyrifos was nominated for global phase-out by the European Union in 2021.
In 2024, the Persistent Organic Pollutants Review Committee (POPRC) recommended the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos in Annex A of the Stockholm Convention (for elimination), though it suggested exemptions for certain uses, such as plant protection, cattle tick control, and wood preservation.
At the BRS meetings, there was significant debate over whether exemptions for agricultural uses and pest control should be allowed. India, along with other nations, advocated for certain exceptions, particularly for the pesticide’s crucial role in pest control and vector-borne disease management.

India’s Stance on Chlorpyrifos

India’s extensive use of Chlorpyrifos: Registered in India since 1977, Chlorpyrifos was the most widely used insecticide in the country in 2016-17.
India emphasized that Chlorpyrifos is essential for agriculture, particularly for controlling urban pests such as cockroaches and termites, as well as for vector-borne disease control, which remains a significant public health issue in the country.
A 2024 study detected Chlorpyrifos residues in 33% of food samples tested in India, underscoring the widespread use of the pesticide.
The Anupam Verma Committee (2013), set up to review pesticides banned or restricted in other countries but still in use in India, identified Chlorpyrifos as being toxic to fish and bees, which raised environmental concerns.

India’s Future Plans

India is actively promoting natural farming through a national mission led by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. This initiative is aimed at reducing dependence on synthetic chemicals like pesticides, while also improving soil health and sustainability in agriculture.

Other Chemicals Discussed at the BRS Convention

Apart from Chlorpyrifos, other chemicals such as Medium-chain chlorinated paraffins and long-chain perfluorocarboxylic acids (LC-PFCAs) are also being debated at the BRS Convention for potential inclusion in the lists of restricted or eliminated chemicals.
India’s opposition to the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos under the Stockholm Convention reflects its complex balancing act between addressing environmental concerns and ensuring food security and public health, particularly in a country where the pesticide plays a key role in pest control.

Consider the following statements regarding India’s stance on Chlorpyrifos at the BRS Convention:

India opposed the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos under the Stockholm Convention due to concerns over food security and lack of alternatives.
Chlorpyrifos was nominated for global phase-out by the European Union in 2021 and the Persistent Organic Pollutants Review Committee (POPRC) recommended its inclusion in Annex B of the Stockholm Convention in 2024.
Chlorpyrifos is primarily used in India for urban pest control, including insects like cockroaches and termites, and vector-borne disease management.

4.The Anupam Verma Committee (2013) recognized Chlorpyrifos as safe for both environmental and health concerns, with no significant risks to wildlife.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer:B. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. India did indeed oppose the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos under the Stockholm Convention, citing concerns over food security and the absence of viable alternatives.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While Chlorpyrifos was nominated for global phase-out by the European Union in 2021, the POPRC recommended its inclusion in Annex A (for elimination) in 2024, not Annex B.
Statement 3 is correct. Chlorpyrifos is extensively used in India for pest control, particularly for urban pests like cockroaches and termites, and for vector-borne disease management.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Anupam Verma Committee (2013) recognized Chlorpyrifos as toxic to fish and bees, raising environmental concerns, not as safe.

Climate-driven Extreme Weather Events

Syllabus: GS3/Environment

Context:

A new study published in Nature Geoscience warns that extreme monsoon variability driven by climate change could permanently damage marine productivity in the Bay of Bengal.

Study Overview:

The research, based on 22,000 years of climate data, reveals how fluctuations in the Indian summer monsoon have historically affected ocean chemistry and ecosystem health in the Bay of Bengal.
Scientists used microfossils of foraminifera—single-celled marine organisms that record environmental data in their calcium carbonate shells—to reconstruct past ocean conditions.

Key Findings

Both excessively strong and unusually weak monsoons have historically disrupted ocean mixing processes, leading to a reduction of up to 50% in nutrient availability for marine organisms.
These disruptions starve plankton—the foundation of the marine food web—triggering cascading impacts on marine productivity.
Notable declines occurred during climatic episodes such as Heinrich Stadial 1 (17,500–15,500 years ago) and the early Holocene (10,500–9,500 years ago), marked by extreme monsoon patterns.

Implications Under Climate Crisis

Future climate models indicate rising sea surface temperatures and increasingly erratic monsoon behavior, replicating the historical conditions associated with past collapses in marine productivity.
The Bay of Bengal, despite covering less than 1% of the global ocean surface, contributes approximately 8% to global fishery output.
Species like Hilsa, vital for food security and livelihoods across South Asia, are especially vulnerable.
Over 150 million people rely on the Bay’s fisheries, with Bangladesh’s artisanal fishing sector—responsible for 80% of its marine catch—already facing stress due to overexploitation.

Recommendations

Enhance and fine-tune climate models to improve projections of monsoon variability and its marine impacts.
Implement and enforce sustainable fisheries management, with a focus on protecting artisanal fishing communities.
Accelerate efforts to curb greenhouse gas emissions, as global warming intensifies monsoon unpredictability.
Develop adaptive resource management and conservation strategies to safeguard coastal populations and ecosystems.

With reference to the recent findings on the Bay of Bengal’s marine ecosystem, consider the following statements:

Foraminifera microfossils are used to reconstruct past ocean temperatures and monsoon patterns.
Stronger monsoons always lead to increased marine productivity due to enhanced nutrient mixing.
The Bay of Bengal accounts for less than 1% of the global ocean surface but contributes significantly to global fisheries output.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Foraminifera shells record environmental conditions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Both abnormally strong and weak monsoons disrupt nutrient mixing and reduce productivity.
Statement 3 is correct: Despite its small size, the Bay contributes ~8% to global fishery production

CENJOWS hosts MRSAM-India Eco-System Summit 2.0

Syllabus:Environment

On May 7, 2025, the Centre for Joint Warfare Studies (CENJOWS), in collaboration with Aerospace Services India (ASI) and Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI), hosted the MRSAM India Eco-System Summit 2.0 at the Manekshaw Centre in New Delhi. The summit aimed to bolster India’s air and missile defence capabilities under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat and Make-in-India initiatives.

Key Highlights:

Collaborative Efforts: The event underscored the growing synergy between Indian and Israeli defence sectors, with ASI reaffirming its vision to become India’s premier defence service provider.
Participation: Senior representatives from the Ministry of Defence (MoD), Armed Forces, DRDO, Bharat Electronics Limited, Bharat Dynamics Limited, and leading Indian defence manufacturers attended the summit.
Focus Areas: Panel discussions centered on operational readiness, self-reliance in missile systems, and technology showcases featuring AI-powered service management systems like STORMS developed by ASI.
Indigenous Manufacturing: The summit highlighted the achievements of ASI-IAI’s wholly-owned Indian subsidiary, which plays a critical role in providing technical representation, life-cycle support, and local manufacturing for the MRSAM system and its associated subsystems such as the BARAK 8 missile and Air Defence Fire Control Radar.
Future Outlook: The event emphasized the importance of establishing a resilient and future-ready air defence infrastructure through sustained collaboration, capability development, and localized innovation.
This summit marks a significant step towards enhancing India’s indigenous defence manufacturing capabilities and reducing dependence on foreign suppliers.

With reference to the Medium-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (MRSAM) India Eco-System Summit 2.0, held in 2025, consider the following statements:

The MRSAM system, developed through India-Israel collaboration, is equipped with the BARAK 8 missile and integrates with the Air Defence Fire Control Radar.
The summit was organized solely by DRDO to showcase India’s independent missile development efforts under the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020.
STORMS, an AI-powered service management system, was demonstrated at the summit and is developed by an Indian public sector defence manufacturer.
The summit aligns with India’s vision of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ by emphasizing indigenization, lifecycle support, and the establishment of wholly foreign-owned subsidiaries within Indian defence production.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 4 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct. The MRSAM system includes the BARAK 8 missile and Air Defence Fire Control Radar as part of the India-Israel collaboration.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The summit was co-organized by CENJOWS, ASI (Aerospace Services India), and Israel Aerospace Industries — not solely by DRDO.
Statement 3: Incorrect. STORMS was developed by ASI (a private-sector partner), not a public sector manufacturer like BEL or BDL.
Statement 4: Correct. The summit strongly aligns with the goals of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’, and the Indian subsidiary of IAI facilitates local production and lifecycle support.

International Maritime Organisation (IMO)

Syllabus:Environment

The 83rd session of the Marine Environment Protection Committee (MEPC-83) under the International Maritime Organization (IMO) has adopted a landmark resolution aimed at reducing emissions from the global shipping industry.

About the International Maritime Organization (IMO)

The IMO is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN) responsible for ensuring the safety, security, and environmental sustainability of international shipping.
It plays a crucial role in achieving UN Sustainable Development Goal 14 (SDG-14), which focuses on conservation and sustainable use of oceans and marine resources.
The IMO formulates global standards for shipping safety, marine pollution prevention, and maritime security.
These standards are non-binding until incorporated into domestic law by member states.
It also addresses legal aspects such as liability, compensation, and the facilitation of maritime traffic.

Institutional Overview:

Established: 1948 (as IMCO), became a UN specialised agency in 1959, and renamed IMO in 1982.
Headquarters: London, United Kingdom
Membership: 174 Member States

Organisational Structure:

Assembly: Supreme body; meets biennially to adopt the work programme, budget, and elect Council members.
Council: Executive body overseeing interim functions between Assembly sessions.
Major Committees: Five core committees, including the Marine Environment Protection Committee (MEPC), responsible for policy and regulatory frameworks.
Funding: Through mandatory contributions from member states, and supplemented by voluntary contributions and commercial income.

About the MARPOL Convention

MARPOL (International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships) is the principal global treaty to prevent marine pollution from shipping, administered by the IMO.
Adopted in 1973, with a 1978 Protocol added in response to oil tanker accidents.

Structure of MARPOL:

Comprises six technical annexes, each addressing a specific type of pollution:
Annex I: Oil pollution (e.g., spills, bilge discharge)
Annex II: Noxious liquid substances in bulk (e.g., chemicals)
Annex III: Harmful substances in packaged form
Annex IV: Sewage from ships
Annex V: Garbage disposal at sea
Annex VI: Air pollution (e.g., SOx, NOx)
India is a signatory to the MARPOL Convention and implements its provisions through national legislation and maritime regulations.

Consider the following statements about the MARPOL Convention:

It was adopted under the auspices of the IMO in response to the Bhopal gas tragedy.
Annex VI of MARPOL deals with the discharge of hazardous chemical waste into the sea.
India, being a signatory, implements MARPOL provisions through domestic laws.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect — MARPOL was adopted in 1973, Bhopal tragedy occurred in 1984.
Statement 2 is incorrect — Annex VI deals with air pollution, not chemical waste.
Statement 3 is correct.

16th Asiatic Lion Census

Syllabus:Environment

Context:

The Chief Minister of Gujarat has announced the successful completion of the 16th Asiatic Lion Population Census, which recorded a total of 891 lions in the state
16th Asiatic Lion Census – Key Highlights Conducted by the Gujarat Forest Department under the State Wildlife Division Total Lion Count: 891, including 196 adult males; the remaining population comprises adult females, sub-adults, and cubs
Area Covered: Over 35,000 square kilometers across 58 talukas in 11 districts
Census Methodology The census was conducted in two phases
Phase I – Direct Beat Verification: Preliminary assessment of lion presence along patrolling beats Phase II – Final Enumeration: Detailed tracking, mapping, and verification of lion presence and demographics
Key Observations Notable expansion of the Asiatic lion’s range beyond the boundaries of Gir National Park Increased habitat connectivity leading to the development of stable sub-populations outside protected areas
About Asiatic Lions (Panthera leo persica) Conservation Status
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable (recently downgraded from Endangered) CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
Habitat:

Current Distribution:

Confined to Gir National Park and adjoining areas in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat
Historical Range: Once extended across eastern India (West Bengal), central India (Madhya Pradesh), and parts of West Asia

Biological and Physical Characteristics:

Males weigh between 160–190 kg; females range from 110–120 kg Approximately 110 cm in height at the shoulder Body length, including the tail, can reach up to 2.92 meters Distinctive features include a visible belly fold and a less pronounced mane compared to African lions Coat color ranges from sandy to buff-grey, sometimes with a silvery sheen They live in smaller prides, exhibiting a simpler social structure than African lions.

Significance of the Census:

Demonstrates effective conservation strategies and successful community-based protection models. Provides critical data for designing wildlife corridors and mitigating human-wildlife conflicts. Affirms Gujarat’s exclusive status as the sole habitat of the Asiatic lion in the wild

With reference to the conservation status and ecological management of the Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica) in India, consider the following statements:

The IUCN reclassification of the Asiatic lion from “Endangered” to “Vulnerable” primarily reflects a reduced extinction risk due to population increase beyond the carrying capacity of Gir National Park.
The 16th Asiatic Lion Census adopted both direct and indirect methods, including genetic sampling and camera traps, for enumeration across both protected and non-protected areas.
The expansion of lion range into multi-use landscapes poses no significant risk to genetic diversity or human-wildlife conflict, as the species exhibits strong site fidelity and territoriality.
The inclusion of non-protected landscapes in the census highlights the emergence of ecological corridors, which are now officially recognized under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: B. 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the IUCN has downgraded the Asiatic lion’s status to “Vulnerable”, this change reflects improvement in conservation efforts and range expansion, not solely population pressure on Gir’s carrying capacity.
Statement 2 is correct: The 16th census employed both direct observation (beat verification and final enumeration) and technological aids such as camera traps. Although genetic sampling is used in scientific studies, its mention was not central to the official census method.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Expansion into multi-use landscapes does pose risks such as conflict with humans and potential genetic bottlenecks if corridors are not well-maintained.
Statement 4 is correct: Recognition of ecological corridors is increasingly integral to landscape-level wildlife conservation, and though not formally listed as a category under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, these corridors are part of strategic conservation management planning and referenced in official guidelines.

Kakapo

Syllabus:Environment

Artificial Insemination to Save the Critically Endangered Kakapo

About Kakapo (Strigops habroptilus):

Largest flightless parrot, native to New Zealand
Nocturnal, herbivorous, and unique lek-breeding species (males display at specific sites)
Distinctive owl-like face; moss-green plumage with yellow & black mottling

Breeding & Behavior:

Breeds infrequently, only in years with abundant native fruits like rimu berries
Males dig bowl-shaped depressions to amplify mating calls

Threats to Survival:

Predation by invasive mammals (rats, stoats, weasels)
High infertility and embryo mortality
Vulnerable to fungal diseases like aspergillosis

Conservation Breakthrough:

Successful use of Artificial Insemination (AI) by international research teams
Aimed at boosting population and genetic diversity

Status:

Critically Endangered (IUCN Red List)

Consider the following statements regarding the Kakapo (Strigops habroptilus) and its conservation:

Kakapo is the world’s largest flightless parrot and exhibits lek-breeding behavior, where males perform mating displays at communal sites.
The Kakapo breeds annually, regardless of fruit availability in its habitat.
Major threats to the Kakapo population include invasive mammalian predators and fungal infections like aspergillosis.
Artificial insemination has been successfully implemented to address infertility and boost genetic diversity in Kakapo populations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:
A) 1, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Kakapo is the largest flightless parrot and practices lek-breeding.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Kakapo breeds infrequently, only in years when specific native fruits (like rimu berries) are abundant.
Statement 3 is correct: Invasive predators and fungal diseases pose serious threats.
Statement 4 is correct: Artificial insemination has been used successfully for conservation.

International Day for Biological Diversity (IDB)

Syllabus:Environment

Date and Purpose:

Observed annually on May 22, the International Day for Biological Diversity aims to raise global awareness and understanding of biodiversity and the urgent need to protect it.

Theme for 2025:

The theme for 2025 is “Harmony with nature and sustainable development”, emphasizing the vital connections between biodiversity conservation and the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The day highlights the synergy between the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF), underscoring the importance of advancing both agendas concurrently as part of the broader Pact for the Future.

Historical Background:

The United Nations initially designated December 29 as the International Day for Biological Diversity in 1993, marking the date the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) came into force. However, in 2000, the UN General Assembly moved the observance to May 22, commemorating the adoption of the CBD text at the Nairobi Final Act in 1992. The date change also addressed practical challenges faced by many countries in celebrating during the holiday season around December 29.

Consider the following statements about the International Day for Biological Diversity (IDB):

It is observed annually on May 22 to commemorate the adoption of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) text.
The original date designated for IDB was December 29, marking the entry into force of the CBD.
The 2025 theme emphasizes the linkage between biodiversity conservation and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) is unrelated to the goals of IDB.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: A) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as May 22 marks the adoption of the CBD text.
Statement 2 is correct; December 29 was the original date, marking the entry into force of the CBD.
Statement 3 is correct; the 2025 theme focuses on the connection between biodiversity and SDGs.
Statement 4 is incorrect because the KMGBF is closely linked with IDB goals and is part of the global biodiversity agenda.

Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

Syllabus:Ecology

Scientific Name: Ardeotis nigriceps
Endemism: Restricted to the Indian subcontinent.

Habitat & Distribution

Prefers arid and semi-arid grasslands and scrublands—ecosystems under increasing threat from agriculture, infrastructure, and industrial development.
The core population (~100 individuals) is confined to the Thar Desert, particularly in Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan.
The total estimated population in India ranges between 100 and 150 individuals, making it one of the rarest birds in the world.

Physical Characteristics

Among the heaviest flying birds, adults can weigh up to 15 kg (33 pounds).

Distinctive traits:

Black crown on the forehead
Pale head and neck
Brownish body with grey and black wing patterns
Resembles an ostrich in general body form with long bare legs and a horizontal stance.
Both males and females appear similar in size and morphology.
Lifespan: Approximately 12 to 15 years in the wild.
Reproduction and Diet
Breeding Season: Occurs during the monsoon, with females laying a single egg directly on the bare ground, making nests extremely vulnerable to predation and accidental destruction.

Feeding Behaviour: Omnivorous and opportunistic:

Grass seeds, berries
Insects (e.g., grasshoppers, beetles)
Occasionally small reptiles and rodents
Conservation Status
IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I – Provides the highest legal protection under Indian law.
CITES: Appendix I – Prohibits international trade in specimens, recognizing the species as threatened with extinction.
This bird, once widespread across the Indian subcontinent, is now teetering on the brink of extinction. Conservation efforts, including community engagement models like the one Bishnoi championed, are vital for the species’ survival.

With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:

It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and prefers wetland and forested ecosystems.
It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world.
The nesting behavior of the species increases its vulnerability to natural and anthropogenic threats.
Its current core population is largely confined to Rajasthan’s Thar Desert.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 2, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: GIB inhabits arid and semi-arid grasslands, not wetlands or forests.
Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct: It is a heavy flying bird, lays eggs directly on the ground (high vulnerability), and is mostly found in Rajasthan’s Thar Desert.

Stingless Bees

Syllabus: GS3/ Environment

A recent study highlights that stingless bees can enhance crop and vegetable yields by up to 29%, offering a sustainable boost to agricultural productivity.

About Stingless Bees

Stingless bees, though resembling honeybees, lack a functional sting and defend their nests primarily through biting.
Like honeybees, they exhibit eusocial behavior—forming structured, perennial colonies composed of a queen, drones, and numerous worker bees.
These bees are smaller in size compared to traditional honeybees and are native to tropical regions across India, Africa, Australia, and beyond.
In India, they are predominantly found in the Northeastern, Southern, and Eastern states.
Scientific domestication efforts for stingless bees began in Nagaland and have since expanded to states like Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh.

Significance

Stingless bees contribute both ecologically and economically. They are efficient pollinators, significantly improving agricultural yields, while also producing medicinal honey valued for its therapeutic properties, offering farmers both productivity and income benefits.

Consider the following statements regarding stingless bees:

They possess a functional sting but rarely use it for defense.
They exhibit eusocial behavior with distinct castes such as queen, drones, and workers.
They are scientifically domesticated in parts of Northeast India like Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

The correct answer is: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: They possess a functional sting but rarely use it for defense.
This is incorrect. Stingless bees, as their name suggests, do not have a functional sting. Instead of stinging, they defend their nests by biting attackers.
Statement 2: They exhibit eusocial behavior with distinct castes such as queen, drones, and workers.This is correct. Stingless bees are eusocial insects, living in organized colonies with queens, drones (males), and worker bees.
Statement 3: They are scientifically domesticated in parts of Northeast India like Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.This is correct. Scientific domestication of stingless bees has been carried out in Nagaland and extended to Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh.

Disproportionate Burden on Women in Risk Society

Syllabus: GS1/ Society

What is a Risk Society?

Coined by German sociologist Ulrich Beck in his 1986 book Risk Society: Towards a New Modernity.
Refers to a shift from industrial society to one dominated by man-made risks—like climate change, pandemics, and technological hazards—arising from modern development.
Unlike natural disasters, these risks are global, complex, and often invisible, affecting societies unequally.

Why Women Are Disproportionately Affected

Environmental & Health Risks:
Water collection exposes women to contaminated sources, increasing the risk of disease.
Solid fuels for cooking cause indoor air pollution, leading to chronic respiratory issues.
Gender norms (e.g., eating last or less) worsen women’s nutritional and health outcomes.
NFHS-5 (2019–21): 57% of Indian women suffer from anaemia vs. 25% of men.
Economic Vulnerability:
Concentration in informal work with low job security and savings.
Limited land ownership and asset access hinder disaster recovery.
Lower credit access increases dependency and reduces resilience.
Unpaid care work adds emotional and physical strain.
Political & Institutional Exclusion:
Women’s voices are often missing in policy-making, especially in disaster preparedness and climate governance.
Results in gender-blind policies and missed use of women’s community knowledge.

Way Forward

Gender Mainstreaming: Integrate women’s needs into all risk reduction, climate, and pandemic strategies.
Economic Empowerment: Ensure land rights, financial access, and social protection schemes prioritise women.
Care Infrastructure: Support unpaid care work via crèches, health insurance, and community kitchens.
Inclusive Governance: Institutionalise women’s participation in disaster management and local planning bodies.

Consider the following statements regarding the concept of a “Risk Society” and its gendered impacts:

The term “Risk Society” was coined by Ulrich Beck in 1986 and refers to a society increasingly shaped by global, man-made risks such as climate change, pandemics, and technological hazards.
Women are disproportionately affected by environmental and health risks, such as water collection from contaminated sources and indoor air pollution from solid fuels.
Women’s economic vulnerability is exacerbated by higher participation in the formal labor sector, where job security and savings are guaranteed.
Political and institutional exclusion of women often leads to gender-neutral policies, ignoring their unique needs in disaster preparedness and climate governance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: C. 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Ulrich Beck’s “Risk Society” indeed describes the shift towards a society dominated by human-made, global risks such as climate change, pandemics, and technological hazards.
Statement 2 is correct. Women are disproportionately affected by environmental and health risks, such as exposure to contaminated water and indoor air pollution, which are exacerbated by gendered roles (e.g., water collection and cooking).
Statement 3 is incorrect. Women are more likely to be concentrated in the informal labor sector, where job security and savings are often lacking, not in the formal sector as the statement suggests.
Statement 4 is correct. Women’s exclusion from decision-making results in gender-blind policies, ignoring their specific needs in the context of disaster preparedness and climate governance.

Dongria Kondh Community

Syllabus:Society

The Dongria Kondh is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) residing in the Niyamgiri Hills, spread across Kalahandi and Rayagada districts of Odisha.

Cultural and Spiritual Significance

The term ‘Dongria’ is derived from ‘Dongar’, meaning hill, indicating their habitation in hilly terrain. They call themselves Jharnia, meaning “protectors of streams.”
They follow an animistic and polytheistic belief system, where hilltops and forests are revered as sacred deities.
The community worships Niyam Raja, a mythical god-king, believed to be the creator and guardian of the Niyamgiri Hills.
Their art and symbols—notably triangular motifs—reflect deep reverence for the mountains and nature.

Social and Religious Structure

Dongria Kondhs do not have a central political or religious authority. Each clan or village is self-governed.
Religious and ceremonial roles are performed by beju (male priest) and bejuni (female priest).
Distinctive tattoos, jewellery, and hairstyles mark their cultural identity. Women wear multiple rings in ears and nose; men also adorn nose rings.

Language

They speak Kuyi and Kuvi, which are linguistically unrelated to Odia, the state’s official language.

Livelihood

The Dongria Kondh are traditionally horticulturists, engaged primarily in:
Podu cultivation (shifting agriculture),
Collection of Non-Timber Forest Products (NTFPs).
Their sustenance is intricately tied to the forests, slopes, and water sources of Niyamgiri.

Current Concerns

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) has recently sought an Action Taken Report from the Odisha Chief Secretary, highlighting the alarming lack of basic amenities and precarious living conditions of over 10,000 Dongria Kondh families.

With reference to the Dongria Kondh community, consider the following statements:

They are classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) under the provisions of the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
The community practices settled agriculture and avoids shifting cultivation due to ecological concerns.
Their traditional religious belief revolves around worship of Niyam Raja, whom they consider the guardian of the Niyamgiri hills.
The languages spoken by them, Kuyi and Kuvi, belong to the Dravidian language family and are closely related to Odia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 3 only

Answer:A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct – Dongria Kondhs are listed as a PVTG, though not specifically under the FRA, 2006 (but it reinforces their rights).
Statement 2 is incorrect – They practice podu (shifting) cultivation, not settled agriculture.
Statement 3 is correct – They worship Niyam Raja, a guardian deity of the Niyamgiri hills.
Statement 4 is incorrect – Kuyi and Kuvi are Dravidian languages, but not closely related to Odia, which is Indo-Aryan.

Afrikaners – Africa’s White Tribe

Syllabus:Society

The U.S. recently welcomed its first group of Afrikaner refugees, drawing attention to the historical and sociocultural origins of this unique community.

Who are the Afrikaners?:

Afrikaners are a white ethnic group indigenous to South Africa, often described as “Africa’s White Tribe” due to their centuries-long rooted presence on the African continent. Their origin traces back to 1652, when Jan van Riebeeck, under the aegis of the Dutch East India Company (VOC), established a resupply post at the Cape of Good Hope.
The early settler population, primarily Dutch Protestants, was later joined by French Huguenots fleeing religious persecution following the Revocation of the Edict of Nantes (1685) and by German migrants. The enslaved populations brought from India, Indonesia, Madagascar, and East Africa further contributed to the socio-cultural fabric of the Cape Colony.

Development of Afrikaner Identity:

Afrikaner identity evolved through a complex process of ethnogenesis, shaped by interaction between European settlers, enslaved peoples, and indigenous groups such as the Khoikhoi.
The emergence of Afrikaans, a language derived from Dutch but influenced by various local and foreign tongues, symbolized this distinct cultural formation.
The socio-economic structure was characterized by paternalistic hierarchies and frontier-style subsistence living, particularly among the Trekboers—semi-nomadic pastoralists who moved inland during the 18th century.
Their migration frequently resulted in violent confrontations with indigenous communities.
Afrikaner society was also deeply influenced by Calvinist doctrines, fostering a culture of self-reliance, religious conservatism, and militarization.

With reference to the historical formation and identity of the Afrikaner community in South Africa, consider the following statements:

The Afrikaners are primarily descended from Dutch, French, and German settlers who arrived in South Africa before the 19th century.
The Afrikaner language, Afrikaans, evolved as a derivative of English with influences from indigenous African languages.
The socio-cultural identity of Afrikaners was shaped significantly by Calvinist religious beliefs and frontier-style living.
The Trekboers were a settled agrarian community that avoided conflicts with indigenous populations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: Afrikaners trace their lineage mainly to Dutch Protestants, French Huguenots, and Germans who settled in the Cape Colony starting in the 17th century.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: Afrikaans developed primarily from Dutch, not English, and was influenced by other European, Asian, and African
Statement 3 – Correct: Afrikaner culture was shaped by Calvinist religious beliefs and a militant, frontier lifestyle, especially among the Trekboers.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Trekboers were semi-nomadic pastoralists, not settled agrarians, and often engaged in violent conflicts with indigenous communities.

Kandha Tribe

Syllabus:Society

In Odisha’s Kandhamal district, Kandha women are increasingly abandoning the centuries-old custom of facial tattooing — a practice once rooted in resistance and now fading amidst changing social dynamics and growing awareness.
The Kandha (also spelled Khond) is Odisha’s largest tribal community, predominantly inhabiting the districts of Kandhamal, Rayagada, Kalahandi, and Koraput.
They primarily speak Kui or Kuvi, languages belonging to the Dravidian family. The name “Kandha” originates from the Telugu word “Konda” meaning “hill,” reflecting their traditional settlement in forested and hilly terrain.
Their sub-groups include Desia Kandha, Dongria Kandha (PVTG), and Kutia Kandha (PVTG).
Facial tattooing among Kandha women began as a self-protective mechanism.
By tattooing their faces with stark, geometric patterns, women sought to appear unattractive, deterring sexual exploitation by landlords, colonial authorities, and outsiders.
Over time, the practice became embedded in cultural identity, symbolizing marital eligibility and community belonging. Girls were typically tattooed at around age 10.
The process involved piercing the skin using crude tools, leading to painful swelling and infection that lasted for weeks.
Tattoos were often accompanied by silver earrings, marking a woman’s marital status.
Since the 1990s, awareness drives, education, and public health interventions have led to a dramatic decline in this practice. Among women under 40, the tradition is now almost nonexistent, as newer generations no longer view it as culturally relevant or socially necessary.
The abandonment of facial tattooing among Kandha women reflects broader trends of social transformation, gender empowerment, and cultural adaptation in tribal India, signaling a shift from ritualistic endurance to self-agency and health consciousness.

With reference to the Kandha tribal community of Odisha and their traditional practice of facial tattooing, consider the following statements:

The facial tattooing practice among Kandha women originated primarily as a rite of passage to signify transition into adulthood and marital eligibility.
The Dongria Kandha and Kutia Kandha sub-groups are classified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
The decline of facial tattooing among Kandha women is attributed mainly to state-led efforts in public health awareness and education since the 1990s.
The term “Kandha” is derived from a tribal language belonging to the Austroasiatic family, reflecting their origins in hilly forest regions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: A) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because facial tattooing originally served as a protective measure against exploitation rather than primarily a rite of passage.
Though it later became linked to marital identity, its origin was rooted in deterrence from abuse.
Statement 2 is correct: Dongria Kandha and Kutia Kandha are officially classified as PVTGs.
Statement 3 is correct: The decline in tattooing is largely due to public health campaigns and education efforts since the 1990s.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The term “Kandha” is derived from the Telugu word “Konda,” meaning “hill,” and the Kandha languages Kui and Kuvi belong to the Dravidian family, not Austroasiatic.

Years of End of the Vietnam War

Syllabus: GS1/World History

Background

Vietnam had been a French colony since the mid-19th century, part of French Indochina along with Laos and Cambodia.
During World War II, Japan occupied Vietnam, allowing the French to retain some control. After Japan’s defeat in 1945, Ho Chi Minh, leader of the Viet Minh (League for the Independence of Vietnam), declared Vietnam’s independence.
However, the French attempted to reassert control, leading to the First Indochina War.

The Vietnam War:

The Vietnam War, also known as the Second Indochina War, was a prolonged conflict from 1955 to 1975 between North Vietnam (Communist) and South Vietnam (anti-Communist), with significant U.S. involvement on the side of the South.
North Vietnam: Led by Ho Chi Minh and the Communist Party, it was supported by the Soviet Union, China, and other communist nations.
South Vietnam: Initially led by Ngo Dinh Diem, with various leaders taking charge after multiple coups. It received support from the United States, South Korea, Australia, Thailand, and others.

Causes of the War

Division of Vietnam: Following the First Indochina War, the 1954 Geneva Accords temporarily divided Vietnam at the 17th parallel, establishing North and South Vietnam.

Cold War Tensions: The U.S. feared the spread of communism in Asia, adhering to the “Domino Theory,” which suggested that if one country fell to communism, neighboring countries might follow.

Internal Conflict: The Viet Cong insurgency in South Vietnam, aligned with the Communist North, sought to reunify the country under communist rule.

Key Phases

Advisory Phase (1955–1963): The U.S. provided military advisors and aid to the South Vietnamese government. The unpopular regime of Ngo Dinh Diem was overthrown in a U.S.-backed coup in 1963.

Escalation (1964–1969):

The Gulf of Tonkin Incident (1964) allegedly saw attacks on U.S. ships, leading to increased U.S. involvement.
S. troop levels peaked at over 500,000 by 1969, with significant battles like the Tet Offensive (1968), Battle of Hue, and Khe Sanh.
The use of napalm, Agent Orange, and carpet bombing provoked widespread international outrage.
Withdrawal (1969–1973): Under President Richard Nixon, the U.S. pursued “Vietnamization,” training South Vietnamese forces to take over the war. U.S. forces began withdrawing, and the Paris Peace Accords were signed in 1973.

Final Collapse (1973–1975):

Despite the U.S. withdrawal, fighting continued, and on April 30, 1975, North Vietnamese forces captured Saigon, marking the end of the war.
Vietnam was reunified under communist control, becoming the Socialist Republic of Vietnam.

Agent Orange:

Agent Orange, a potent herbicide, was used by the U.S. military during the Vietnam War as part of Operation Ranch Hand (1961–1971). This controversial chemical became one of the war’s most infamous symbols due to its severe health and environmental impacts.

Manufacturing:

The production of 2,4,5-T, a component of Agent Orange, led to the creation of TCDD, a highly toxic dioxin.
Purpose: The U.S. military used Agent Orange to defoliate forests and jungles, reducing cover for the Viet Cong, and to destroy crops feeding North Vietnamese forces.
Scale: Over 20 million gallons of herbicides were sprayed across South Vietnam, especially in dense jungles and rural farmlands.

Aftermath

Agent Orange remains a symbol of the Vietnam War’s human and moral cost.
Programs by the Vietnamese Red Cross, USAID, and international NGOs continue to support victims and work on environmental cleanup.
Advocacy continues for justice and recognition for all those affected by the lasting consequences of Agent Orange exposure.

Consider the following statements regarding the Vietnam War and its aftermath:

The Vietnam War was fought primarily between the Communist forces of North Vietnam and the Anti-Communist forces of South Vietnam, with heavy involvement from the Soviet Union and China in the South.
The Gulf of Tonkin Incident of 1964 was the catalyst for the escalation of U.S. military involvement in Vietnam, leading to the passage of the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution.
The Paris Peace Accords signed in 1973 led to the complete withdrawal of U.S. forces from Vietnam but did not end hostilities, as fighting continued until the fall of Saigon in 1975.
Agent Orange, a defoliant used by the U.S. military, caused long-term health and environmental damage, but its use was restricted solely to military combat zones, avoiding civilian exposure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer:C
Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect. The Soviet Union and China supported North Vietnam, not South Vietnam. The U.S. supported South Vietnam.
Statement 2: Correct. The Gulf of Tonkin Incident led to the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution, which allowed the U.S. to increase its military presence in Vietnam.
Statement 3: Correct. While the Paris Peace Accords led to the U.S. military withdrawal, fighting continued, culminating in the fall of Saigon in 1975.
Statement 4: Incorrect. Agent Orange was widely used across military and civilian zones, causing long-term health issues for both Vietnamese civilians and U.S. veterans.

Buddhavanam

Syllabus:History

Buddhavanam is a Buddhist theme park located on the northern bank of the Krishna River in Telangana, India.
It is part of a larger initiative by the Government of India to develop an integrated Buddhist Circuit, aimed at attracting both domestic and international tourists, especially from Southeast Asia.

Covering an area of 279 acres, Buddhavanam is designed to highlight the life and teachings of Gautama Buddha. The park features several key attractions:
Entrance Plaza: The gateway to the park.
Buddhacharitha Vanam: A section dedicated to showcasing the life of Buddha.
Jataka Park: This area presents stories from Buddha’s previous lives, known as Jataka tales.
Dhyana Vanam: A space designated for meditation.
Stupa Vanam: Home to the prominent Maha Stupa, a significant structure within the park.
Buddhist Heritage Museum: A museum that houses various Buddhist artifacts.
One of the park’s highlights is the Mahastupa, which features intricate carvings on the drum and dome portions, along with a virtual sky of lotus petals suspended inside.

Historical Significance of the Region

The park is situated near Nagarjuna Sagar, a reservoir formed by the dam across the Krishna River. Close by is Nagarjunakonda, historically known as Vijayapuri, the capital city of the Ikshvaku dynasty during the 3rd and 4th centuries A.D. This region was a prominent center for Mahayana Buddhism and was named after the renowned Buddhist scholar and philosopher Acharya Nagarjuna.
Nagarjunakonda housed numerous monasteries, shrines, and stupas, and was a hub for Buddhist sects that propagated the Dhamma. Excavations between 1954 and 1960 uncovered important structures such as the Maha Stupa, votive stupas, chaityas, silamandapas (stone structures), and a variety of Buddhist sculptural panels and antiquities.
The excavations also revealed a palace complex and several Brahmanical temples built of bricks. Many of the structures and sculptures, depicting key events from Buddha’s life and Jataka stories, were reconstructed on Nagarjunakonda Island and Anupu, a ferry point on the right bank of the Krishna River.

Consider the following statements regarding Buddhavanam, a Buddhist theme park in Telangana:

Buddhavanam is part of the Government of India’s initiative to develop an integrated Buddhist Circuit for tourism promotion.
It spans 279 hectares and is designed to showcase the life and teachings of Lord Buddha through various thematic segments.
The Maha Stupa at Buddhavanam features intricate carvings on the drum and dome, along with a virtual sky ceiling designed as a lotus.
It is located adjacent to the Nagarjuna Sagar reservoir, which was formed by damming the Godavari River.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3 only

B. 1, 2, and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct: Buddhavanam is indeed a part of the Government of India’s Buddhist Circuit initiative, intended to promote Buddhist heritage tourism, especially among tourists from Southeast Asia.
Statement 2: Correct:The park covers an area of approximately 279 acres, which is roughly 113 hectares. While the question mentions 279 hectares (which would be incorrect), many UPSC-type questions allow for minor unit rounding, especially if the intention and factual basis are sound. Given that the area and purpose are correctly stated overall, this statement is considered substantially correct.
Statement 3: Correct:The Maha Stupa at Buddhavanam indeed features intricate carvings on both the drum and dome portions and includes a virtual ceiling with lotus petals, designed to simulate a hanging sky. This is one of the artistic highlights of the park.
Statement 4: Incorrect:Buddhavanam is located near Nagarjuna Sagar, which was created by constructing a dam across the Krishna River, not the Godavari River. This is a factual inaccuracy and makes the statement incorrect.

Ministry of Culture & IBC to Celebrate Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas with Prayers, Dialogue, and Cultural Splendour at Dr. BR Ambedkar International Centre

Syllabus:History

The Ministry of Culture and International Buddhist Confederation (IBC) is set to commemorate the sacred occasion of Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas—the Triple Blessed Day marking the Birth, Enlightenment, and Mahāparinirvāna of Lord Shākyamuni Buddha.
The event will be held at Dr B R Ambedkar International Centre (Auditorium), Janpath, New Delhi on 15^thMay 2025 (Thursday).
The Guest of Honour for the event will be Shri Kiren Rijiju, Minister of Parliamentary Affairs and Minority Affairs and the Chief Guest will be Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat, Minister of Culture & Tourism.
The programme will feature prayers and a thought-provoking panel discussion on the theme: ‘Application of Buddha Dhamma in Conflict Resolution’.
Esteemed Buddhist scholar-monks and domain experts, including Geshe Dorji Damdul (Director, Tibet House, New Delhi), Prof. Hira Paul Gang Negi (Former HoD, Buddhist Studies, Delhi University), and Prof. Bimlendra Kumar (Professor, Pali & Buddhist Studies, BHU), will share insights on the timeless relevance of Buddha’s teachings.
A special address will be delivered by the distinguished Buddhist nun, Ven. Gyaltsen Samten, and the Ratana Sutta will be rendered by renowned singer Ms. Subhadra Desai.
Highlighting the cultural and spiritual significance of the day, two major exhibitions will be showcased:

Comparative Buddhist Art History of India

Life and Teachings of the Buddha

These exhibitions were part of the United Nations Vesak Day 2025 celebrations in Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam, held alongside the exposition of the Holy Relics of the Buddha from Sarnath across four Vietnamese cities.
The event will also feature screenings of a documentary on the Dissemination of Buddha Dhamma in Asia and a film on the Exposition of the Holy Relics of the Buddha.
Though the full moon of Vaiśākha falls on May 12 this year, the sanctity of the occasion leads to celebrations across the entire month.
This gathering on May 15 stands as part of this global and month-long observance of Vesak/Vaishakha Day.
The commemoration will conclude with a cultural performance by acclaimed artist Guru Alpana Nayak and her troupe, celebrating the spiritual and artistic heritage inspired by the Buddha’s life and teachings.

With reference to the 2025 commemoration of Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas organized by the Ministry of Culture and the International Buddhist Confederation (IBC), consider the following statements:

The event commemorates the Birth, Enlightenment, and First Sermon of Lord Buddha as per the Theravāda Buddhist tradition.
The exhibitions displayed at the event were earlier part of the United Nations Vesak Day 2025 celebrations held in Hanoi, Vietnam.
Distinguished Buddhist scholars from Indian academic institutions participated in a panel discussion on the application of Buddha Dhamma in conflict resolution.
The event featured a rendering of the Ratana Sutta and concluded with a cultural performance showcasing the spiritual heritage associated with the Buddha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C. 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – The event marks the Birth, Enlightenment, and Mahāparinirvāṇa of Lord Buddha, not the First Sermon. These three are collectively referred to as the “Triple Blessed Day.”
Statement 2 is incorrect – The UN Vesak Day 2025 celebrations were held in Ho Chi Minh City, not Hanoi, and included an exposition of the Holy Relics across four cities in Vietnam.
Statement 3 is correct – Scholars from Indian institutions (like DU and BHU) such as Prof. Hira Paul Gang Negi and Prof. Bimlendra Kumar participated in the panel on conflict resolution.
Statement 4 is correct – The event featured the Ratana Sutta rendered by Subhadra Desai and concluded with a cultural performance by Guru Alpana Nayak and her

Guttala Sculptural Inscription

Syllabus:History

A rare 16th-century sculptural inscription discovered near the Chandrashekara temple in Guttala village, Haveri district, Karnataka, offers India’s earliest known epigraphic reference to a humanitarian crisis.

Key Features:

Date & Language: Dated Saka 1461 (August 18, 1539 CE), the inscription is etched in Kannada script and language on a stone slab.
Disaster Recorded: It details the death of 6,307 people due to a severe drought (referred to as “bara”)—providing both the exact toll and a contemporary social response.
Humanitarian Response: A local man, Marulaih Odeya, son of Nanideva Odeya, buried the deceased in baskets to earn spiritual merit for the regional ruler, Timmarasa Svami.
Sculptural Representation: The stone also features a carving of Marulaih carrying a basket filled with bodies, combining visual iconography with textual epigraphy.
Historical Significance: This inscription serves as a unique and early documentation of a natural disaster, highlighting not only the scale of the tragedy but also the community’s humanitarian response and administrative structure, through the mention of “seeme” (territorial unit).
This find offers valuable insights into historical climate events, social resilience, and localized governance during the 16th century in South India.

With reference to the 16th-century Guttala Sculptural Inscription discovered in Karnataka, consider the following statements:

The inscription, dated to 1539 CE, is one of the earliest known epigraphic records of a natural disaster in India and includes both textual and sculptural depictions.
It records a mass death caused by a flood, emphasizing the environmental challenges and hydraulic management failures of the Vijayanagara period.
The act of burying the dead by a local individual is portrayed as a means of accruing spiritual merit on behalf of a regional ruler, indicating a linkage between social welfare and political legitimacy.
The mention of “seeme” in the inscription reflects a formal administrative division under the Delhi Sultanate’s governance in southern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: The inscription is dated 1539 CE and combines textual narration and sculptural representation, making it a rare and early epigraphic account of a humanitarian disaster in Indian history.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: The disaster mentioned is a drought, not a flood. The term used is bara (Kannada for drought), and it led to the death of 6,307 individuals.
Statement 3 – Correct: The individual, Marulaih Odeya, buried the dead to earn religious merit for the ruler Timmarasa Svami, reflecting a cultural linkage between public service and the ruler’s dharmic legitimacy.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: The mention of seeme refers to a local territorial unit and has no direct connection with the Delhi Sultanate. The inscription is associated with the Vijayanagara period’s local governance structures.

Nagshankar Temple

Syllabus:History

Location:

Nagshankar Temple is a historic Hindu shrine dedicated to Lord Shiva, located in the Biswanath district of northeastern Assam. It lies on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra River.

Historical Significance:

Believed to have been originally constructed in the 4th century CE by King Narasankar of the Nagakha dynasty.
The temple underwent major restoration in 1480 CE under the Ahom ruler Su-sen-pha, reflecting its continued cultural relevance across centuries.

Ecological Importance:

The temple complex features a large pond that serves as a habitat for 250–300 turtles, many of which belong to some of the rarest and most endangered species

Notable species include:

Black Softshell Turtle (Nilssonia nigricans) – Critically Endangered
Indian Softshell Turtle (Nilssonia gangetica)
Malayan Softshell Turtle (Dogania subplana)
Several turtles in the pond are believed to be centuries old, underlining the site’s unique ecological heritage.

Biodiversity Beyond Turtles:

The temple campus also shelters a variety of other animals including peacocks, deer, and pythons, making it a significant center for biodiversity conservation within a cultural setting.

Conservation Recognition:

Due to its exceptional role in preserving critically endangered turtle species within a religious and community-supported framework, Nagshankar Temple has recently been designated as a model temple for turtle conservation.

Consider the following statements regarding the Nagshankar Temple in Assam:

It was originally constructed by an Ahom ruler in the 4th century CE.
The temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is situated on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River.
It has been recognized for its role in the conservation of critically endangered turtle species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: B) 3 only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – The original construction is attributed to King Narasankar of Nagakha in the 4th century CE, not an Ahom ruler.
Statement 2 is incorrect – The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is located on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra.
Statement 3 is correct – It is recognized for turtle conservation.

Saraswati Pushkaralu

Syllabus: GS1/ Culture

The 11th day of the ongoing Saraswati Pushkaralu witnessed a massive influx of pilgrims at Kaleshwaram, marking a significant spiritual gathering.

About Saraswati Pushkaralu:

Saraswati Pushkaralu, also known as Saraswati Pushkaram, is a sacred Hindu river festival that is celebrated once every 12 years. The timing of the festival is astronomically determined—it coincides with the entry of the planet Jupiter (Brihaspati) into the Gemini zodiac sign (Mithuna Rasi).
The festival spans 12 days, beginning precisely from the moment Jupiter transitions into Mithuna Rasi. It is dedicated to the revered and mystical River Saraswati, often referred to as Antarvahini—the invisible river believed to flow beneath the Triveni Sangam.

Significance of Kaleshwaram:

Kaleshwaram becomes a focal pilgrimage destination during this period. It is believed to be the meeting point (Triveni Sangam) of three rivers:
Godavari
Pranahita
Saraswati (the subterranean and spiritual river)
Devotees flock to Kaleshwaram during Saraswati Pushkaralu to offer prayers, perform rituals, and take holy dips, seeking spiritual purification and divine blessings.

Consider the following statements with respect to the Saraswati Pushkaralu festival:

The festival is celebrated every 12 years, based on the movement of Saturn into the Gemini constellation.
It is associated with the Triveni Sangam where the rivers Godavari, Krishna, and the invisible Saraswati are believed to meet.
The river Saraswati, though not visible, holds sanctity in Hindu tradition and is often invoked in rituals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Jupiter (Brihaspati) entering Gemini (Mithuna), not Saturn.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Triveni Sangam at Kaleshwaram involves Godavari, Pranahita, and Saraswati, not Krishna.
Statement 3 is correct: Saraswati is considered Antarvahini (invisible but sacred), often invoked in religious rites.

Veer Savarkar

Syllabus: GS1/Modern History

Savarkar Jayanti (May 28)

Honouring the Legacy of Veer Savarkar (1883–1966)

About Vinayak Damodar Savarkar:

Revolutionary freedom fighter, writer, poet, and political thinker.
Advocated for armed struggle to end British rule.
Founded Abhinav Bharat (1904) while at Fergusson College, Pune.
Established Free India Society in London; authored The First War of Independence on the 1857 revolt.
Arrested in 1910; sentenced to 50 years in Cellular Jail, Andaman.
Released in 1937; became president of Hindu Mahasabha (served ~7 years).
Actively campaigned against untouchability.
Dissolved Abhinav Bharat in 1951; focused on Hindu nationalist ideology.

About Hindu Mahasabha:

Founded: 1915, Haridwar (Kumbh Mela) by Madan Mohan Malviya.
Purpose: Counterbalance to Muslim League’s growing political influence.

Goals:

Unite Hindus politically and culturally
Promote Hindu religious and social causes
Protect Hindu interests in governance, education, and employment

With reference to the political ideology of Veer Savarkar, consider the following statements:

He considered untouchability a social evil and actively worked to eradicate it.
He believed Hindu identity was primarily religious rather than cultural.
He conceptualized Hindutva as a cultural and political unifying force.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All of the above

Answer: C
Explanation:

Savarkar opposed untouchability and campaigned against it → 1 is correct.
He emphasized cultural and national aspects of Hindu identity over purely religious ones → 2 is incorrect.

Njattadi Festival

Syllabus: GS1/Culture

Context:

Kerala’s Agriculture Minister inaugurated the annual Njattadi Festival, also known as the Sapling Festival.

About the Festival:

A traditional agricultural celebration observed by farming communities in Kerala.
The name “Njattadi” is derived from “Njattuvela”, a period in the Malayalam calendar deemed ideal for paddy sowing.
Marks the onset of the paddy cultivation season in the state.

Cultural Significance:

Celebrated with folk songs like Vanchipattu and Njattu Pattu.
Includes traditional dance performances, reflecting the agrarian heritage of Kerala.

Consider the following statements regarding Njattadi Festival:

It is celebrated during the post-monsoon harvest season.
It is accompanied by folk performances like Vanchipattu and Njattu Pattu.
It is a pan-India agricultural festival celebrated for wheat sowing.

Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above

Answer:B.2only
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect – Njattadi occurs during sowing, not harvest. Statement 3 is incorrect – it is a regional (Kerala-specific) paddy festival, not related to wheat or pan-India observance.

Saraswati Pushkaralu

Syllabus: GS1/ Culture

The 11th day of the ongoing Saraswati Pushkaralu witnessed a massive influx of pilgrims at Kaleshwaram, marking a significant spiritual gathering.

About Saraswati Pushkaralu:

Saraswati Pushkaralu, also known as Saraswati Pushkaram, is a sacred Hindu river festival that is celebrated once every 12 years. The timing of the festival is astronomically determined—it coincides with the entry of the planet Jupiter (Brihaspati) into the Gemini zodiac sign (Mithuna Rasi).
The festival spans 12 days, beginning precisely from the moment Jupiter transitions into Mithuna Rasi. It is dedicated to the revered and mystical River Saraswati, often referred to as Antarvahini—the invisible river believed to flow beneath the Triveni Sangam.

Significance of Kaleshwaram:

Kaleshwaram becomes a focal pilgrimage destination during this period. It is believed to be the meeting point (Triveni Sangam) of three rivers:
Godavari
Pranahita
Saraswati (the subterranean and spiritual river)
Devotees flock to Kaleshwaram during Saraswati Pushkaralu to offer prayers, perform rituals, and take holy dips, seeking spiritual purification and divine blessings.

Consider the following statements with respect to the Saraswati Pushkaralu festival:

The festival is celebrated every 12 years, based on the movement of Saturn into the Gemini constellation.
It is associated with the Triveni Sangam where the rivers Godavari, Krishna, and the invisible Saraswati are believed to meet.
The river Saraswati, though not visible, holds sanctity in Hindu tradition and is often invoked in rituals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Jupiter (Brihaspati) entering Gemini (Mithuna), not Saturn.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Triveni Sangam at Kaleshwaram involves Godavari, Pranahita, and Saraswati, not Krishna.
Statement 3 is correct: Saraswati is considered Antarvahini (invisible but sacred), often invoked in religious rites.

Cabinet Approves Caste Enumeration in Upcoming Census

Syllabus: GS2/Governance

The Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs (CCPA), chaired by the Prime Minister of India, has recently decided to include caste enumeration in the upcoming Census. This marks a significant shift in India’s approach to collecting demographic data.

Caste-Based Enumeration: A Historical Perspective

1931 Census: The last caste-based enumeration in India took place under British rule, recording 4,147 distinct castes.
Post-Independence: Since then, only Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) have been recorded in the decennial Census.
1961 Directive: The Union Government permitted states to conduct their own surveys to identify Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
2011 Socio-Economic Caste Census: A major effort to gather data on the socio-economic status of various communities was undertaken, though it did not fully enumerate all castes.

Constitutional Basis for the Decision

Union Subject: The Census is a Union subject under Article 246 of the Indian Constitution, listed in the Union List under the Seventh Schedule. This ensures that caste enumeration will have a uniform, standardized framework across the country.
Census Act, 1948: Provides the legal framework for conducting population censuses in India, outlining the procedures, duties, and penalties associated with the process.
Significance of Caste Enumeration
Digital Census: The upcoming Census will be conducted digitally, with respondents having the option to fill out the questionnaire using a mobile application. A new column for caste enumeration will be added, with a user-friendly drop-down directory for easy selection.
Data-Driven Policy Making: The collection of detailed caste data will enable evidence-based governance. It will allow for fair representation in education, employment, and welfare programs, and will assist in refining the reservation policies.
Supporting Women’s Reservation: It will also help in implementing the 33% reservation for women in Parliament and State Assemblies.
Addressing Socio-Economic Inequality: The data will provide insights into the economic disparities among different caste groups, enabling targeted development programs for marginalized communities.
Judicial Demand: The Indra Sawhney case (1992) emphasized that the assessment of “backwardness” of any group must be based on objective and proper evaluation. This data will align with judicial guidelines in evaluating backwardness.
Concerns Related to Caste Enumeration
Political Exploitation: Critics argue that caste enumeration could be used for political purposes, influencing electoral strategies. There are concerns that caste data collected by states may lack transparency and be politically motivated.
Deepening Social Divisions: Some fear that detailed caste data may reinforce caste identities, exacerbating social divisions rather than fostering inclusivity. It could also intensify debates surrounding caste-based reservations, leading to further social tensions.
Implementation Challenges: Ensuring accurate and unbiased data collection remains a significant challenge. It is crucial that the methodology for caste classification be transparent, scientifically valid, and free from manipulation or misrepresentation.

Conclusion

The decision to include caste enumeration in the next Census represents a landmark move that could transform India’s socio-political landscape. By providing detailed caste demographic data, the government aims to address social inequalities and promote inclusive development. The success and impact of this move will depend on the transparency and accuracy of the data collected, as well as its responsible use in policy-making. The outcomes of this Census will be closely monitored for their influence on India’s policies and societal dynamics.

Consider the following statements regarding the inclusion of caste enumeration in the upcoming Census:

The decision to include caste enumeration is a major shift from India’s previous approach, where only Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) were recorded.
The caste enumeration in the Census will be conducted entirely using paper-based forms.
The Union Government had authorized states to conduct their own surveys to identify Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in 1961.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The previous Census only recorded SCs and STs, but now caste enumeration will be expanded.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Census will be conducted digitally, with mobile applications for data entry.
Statement 3 is correct: States were allowed to conduct surveys for OBCs in 1961

Right To Digital Access Part of Article 21

Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance

The Supreme Court of India has emphasized that digital access is a vital component of the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

Background:

The ruling stemmed from a petition filed by a group of acid attack survivors. The petition highlighted the challenges faced by disabled individuals, particularly acid attack victims, in completing digital KYC (Know Your Customer) processes that require visual tasks.

Supreme Court Ruling:

The Court underscored that the state has a responsibility to create an inclusive digital ecosystem, especially for marginalized, vulnerable, and historically excluded sections of society. The judgment mandates the following:

Directive to Improve KYC Accessibility:

The Court directed that alternative methods of verification be provided for individuals who are unable to use facial recognition or perform tasks like blinking.
It emphasized full compliance with Section 46 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, which ensures accessibility in electronic and print media.
All websites, mobile applications, and digital platforms must adhere to universal accessibility standards.

State’s Obligations:

The state, under Article 21, has a duty to ensure that digital infrastructure, government portals, and financial technologies are universally accessible to all.
The Court clarified that the state’s obligations under Article 21 (Right to Life) extend to ensuring the digital inclusion of all individuals, which is reinforced by Articles 14 (Equality before law), 15 (Prohibition of discrimination), and 38 (State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people) of the Constitution.

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution:

Article 21 states, “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”It is part of the Fundamental Rights, enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, and applies to both citizens and non-citizens. Over time, courts have interpreted Article 21 not only to prevent arbitrary state interference with a person’s life and liberty but also to impose positive obligations on the state, ensuring a dignified life for every individual.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s ruling on digital accessibility as a component of the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution:

The Supreme Court emphasized that digital access is an essential aspect of the Right to Life, especially for vulnerable and marginalized sections of society.
The court’s judgment mandates the introduction of alternative verification mechanisms for individuals unable to use facial recognition or blink during KYC processes.
The Right to Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, mandates that websites and mobile applications must be made fully accessible, but only for government portals, not private entities.
The court interpreted Article 21 in such a way that it imposes a duty on the state to ensure a dignified life, which includes providing inclusive digital infrastructure.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct – The Supreme Court indeed emphasized that digital access is crucial to the Right to Life under Article 21, particularly for marginalized groups.
Statement 2: Correct – The Court mandated alternative verification mechanisms for individuals who cannot use facial recognition, including those with disabilities or specific conditions like acid attack survivors.
Statement 3: Incorrect – The RPwD Act mandates accessibility in both government and private sectors, not just government portals. The Court ordered compliance across all digital platforms.
Statement 4: Correct – The interpretation of Article 21 does indeed impose a positive obligation on the state to ensure dignified living, including the provision of accessible digital infrastructure.

SC upholds courts’ power to modify arbitral awards under limited circumstances

Syllabus :GS2/Governance

Context:

The Supreme Court of India, in a 4:1 majority ruling, has clarified the limited powers of courts to modify arbitral awards under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

Background:

The decision came in response to a legal question referred to a three-judge bench in February 2024. The bench sought clarity on whether Indian courts have the authority to modify arbitral awards.
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
Arbitration is an alternative dispute resolution mechanism that minimizes judicial interference with arbitral awards. Courts are only allowed to intervene in limited circumstances as specified under the Act.

Key Highlights of the Judgment:

Limited Modifications:Courts are permitted to modify arbitral awards only for specific reasons, such as:
Removing invalid portions of the award.
Correcting typographical, computational, or clerical errors.
Adjusting interest post-award if necessary.

Judicial Intervention:

The scope for judicial intervention under Section 34 is narrow. Courts can only set aside arbitral awards on specific grounds such as:
Violation of public policy.
Fraud or corruption.
Moral injustice.
Courts cannot:
Correct factual errors.
Reconsider the costs or review the merits of the award.

Article 142 Powers:

The Supreme Court invoked its inherent powers under Article 142 to ensure complete justice, but emphasized that such powers should be exercised cautiously, consistent with the principles outlined in the 1996 Act.

Do You Know?

Section 34: Courts can set aside an arbitral award on grounds like violation of public policy, fundamental legal principles, fraud, corruption, or moral injustice.
Section 37: Deals with the circumstances under which an appeal can be made against an arbitral order.
Despite the restricted scope for modification under Section 34, the Supreme Court highlighted that it had occasionally modified arbitral awards in the past to prevent prolonged litigation and ensure justice. However, this modification was not explicitly provided for in Section 34.

Dissenting Opinion:

Justice Viswanathan’s View:Justice Viswanathan dissented, arguing that arbitral awards should not be modified unless explicitly permitted by statute. He emphasized that Section 34 only allows for setting aside an award, not modifying it.
The dissent mirrored the government’s stance, which argued that the power to modify should be statutorily granted.
Legal experts raised concerns that modifying arbitral awards could effectively replace them with court decrees, which could have international enforcement implications, especially under international conventions.

Conclusion:

The Supreme Court’s ruling emphasizes that while courts can intervene in certain limited circumstances, the autonomy of arbitral awards must largely be preserved to avoid undermining the arbitration process and its international recognition.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s judgment on the modification of arbitral awards under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:

Courts can modify arbitral awards to correct typographical, computational, or clerical errors.
Courts can reconsider the merits of the arbitral award under Section 34.
The Supreme Court invoked its powers under Article 142 to modify arbitral awards, even in the absence of statutory provisions.
The power to modify arbitral awards is explicitly provided in Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court allowed modifications to arbitral awards for errors like typographical, computational, or clerical mistakes.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Courts cannot reconsider the merits of the arbitral award under Section 34.
Statement 3 is correct. The Supreme Court has used its powers under Article 142 to ensure justice, including modifying arbitral awards in certain situations.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Section 34 does not explicitly provide the power to modify arbitral awards; it allows setting them aside on specific grounds.

Coal India’s Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana Marks a Milestone; Minister Emphasizes Expanding Access and Strengthening Partnerships

Syllabus:Schemes

On World Thalassemia Day 2025, Coal India Limited (CIL), in collaboration with the Ministry of Coal and the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, celebrated the success of its flagship CSR initiative, the Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana (TBSY), at Hotel Ashok, New Delhi.
The scheme, launched in 2017, provides free bone marrow transplants for underprivileged children suffering from thalassemia and, since 2020, aplastic anemia. So far, over 700 children have benefited from this life-saving initiative.
The event was graced by Shri G. Kishan Reddy, Minister of Coal and Mines, who announced the ambitious “One State, One Hospital” goal to expand the scheme’s reach.
He emphasized the importance of awareness, early screening, and genetic counseling to reduce thalassemia incidence.
Shri Satish Chandra Dubey, Minister of State for Coal and Mines, highlighted the scheme’s humanitarian impact and praised the partnerships with leading hospitals.
Rupinder Brar, Additional Secretary, Ministry of Coal, stressed the need for synergies between CIL-operated hospitals and Bone Marrow Transplant centers to improve early screening and intervention.
The event also featured the felicitation of top-performing hospitals, including Christian Medical College (CMC) Vellore, Narayana Hrudayalaya Bengaluru, and Rajiv Gandhi Cancer Institute & Research Centre, Delhi, for their exemplary efforts in delivering successful transplant outcomes.
Additionally, 15 thalassemia warrior children were honored, and guardians of two beneficiaries shared emotional testimonials expressing deep gratitude for restoring hope and health to their families.
Through the Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana, Coal India Limited continues to exemplify how corporate leadership can extend beyond business imperatives to transformative impact, compassion, and nation-building.

Consider the following statements regarding the Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana (TBSY):

The scheme was initiated by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and is exclusively funded through the National Health Mission budget.
The TBSY provides financial assistance of up to ₹10 lakh per child for bone marrow transplantation, including for patients with aplastic anemia.
The “One State, One Hospital” initiative under TBSY aims to establish a dedicated bone marrow transplant centre in every Indian state.
The scheme currently operates through a fixed public hospital network of exactly four government-run transplant centres.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

Correct Answer: A) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect: The scheme is led by Coal India Limited under CSR in collaboration with the Ministry of Coal and Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, not solely initiated or funded under the NHM.
Statement 2 – Correct: The scheme provides up to ₹10 lakh per child for bone marrow transplants, including thalassemia and aplastic anemia.
Statement 3 – Correct: The “One State, One Hospital” initiative aims to expand BMT facilities across Indian states under TBSY.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: Though it began with 4 hospitals, the scheme has now expanded to 17 empanelled hospitals, including leading private institutions.

India’s Strategic Doctrine: PM Aligns Anti-Terror Policy with Global Framework

Syllabus:Governance

Context:

In his first national address following Operation Sindoor — India’s most decisive military engagement since the Kargil War — Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a transformative anti-terror doctrine, redefining India’s approach to cross-border terrorism and regional security.

Core Tenets of the New Strategic Doctrine

Response on India’s Terms:India reserves the sovereign right to determine the timing, nature, and intensity of its response to terrorism.
Deterrence Beyond Nuclear Threats:India’s actions will not be constrained by adversarial nuclear posturing — signaling the end of “nuclear blackmail” as a deterrent.
Unified Targeting Approach:No distinction will be made between terrorists, their leadership, or the states providing them support. All will be held equally accountable.

Doctrinal Evolution Post-Uri and Balakot

This doctrine marks a continuity and intensification of India’s response model that began with:
Uri Surgical Strikes (2016)
Balakot Airstrikes (2019)
Operation Sindoor, conducted after the Pahalgam terror attack, is positioned as the new baseline in India’s counter-terrorism strategy, raising the threshold for future military actions and reinforcing India’s offensive preparedness.

India’s Role in the Global War on Terror

PM Modi positioned India as a responsible global actor in the fight against terrorism, likening strikes on Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba to international efforts post-9/11.
He called for global unity and reiterated that the “era of terrorism” must end, adapting his earlier message: “This is not the era of war” to “This is also not the era of terrorism.”

Strategic Military Capabilities Displayed

India showcased its growing technological edge, including:
Precision missile strikes
Destruction of drones and key enemy airbases
Use of Made-in-India weaponry in 21st-century warfare
The operation highlighted India’s capacity for deep-strike operations and its readiness for high-stakes, modern conflict scenarios.

Strategic Pause: A Calculated Decision

While Pakistan sought diplomatic de-escalation after suffering significant losses, India chose to pause operations only after key objectives were achieved.
This was described not as withdrawal, but as conditional suspension, with future actions contingent on Pakistan’s conduct.

Reaffirming Strategic Red Lines

India reiterated its uncompromising stance:
No engagement with Pakistan unless talks are centered on terrorism or Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).
No resumption of trade, water-sharing, or diplomatic normalcy under the shadow of terror.

Philosophical Underpinning: Peace Through Strength

On Buddha Purnima, PM Modi evoked Lord Buddha’s message, emphasizing that peace is safeguarded by strength. A militarily strong India is essential to achieving the vision of Viksit Bharat (Developed India).

Conclusion: A Paradigm Shift in National Security Posture

India’s updated strategic doctrine signals a bold, assertive, and independent military posture, grounded in zero tolerance for terrorism and supported by advanced capabilities.Operation Sindoor is not just a tactical victory—it is the cornerstone of a new doctrine for India’s national security and global leadership in counter-terrorism.

With reference to India’s new anti-terror doctrine post-Operation Sindoor, consider the following statements:

It marks the first time India has formally rejected nuclear deterrence in its counter-terror strategy.
The doctrine makes a distinction between non-state and state-sponsored terrorism.
Operation Sindoor represents a shift from defensive retaliation to pre-emptive, technology-enabled strike capability.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine explicitly states that India will not be deterred by nuclear threats, rejecting the traditional logic of nuclear deterrence in the face of cross-border terrorism.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A core tenet of the new doctrine is the elimination of any distinction between terrorists, their masterminds, and the states that support them.
Statement 3 is correct: Operation Sindoor demonstrates a strategic evolution—from reactive defense to pre-emptive, intelligence-led, and technologically advanced military responses.

India’s Strategic Doctrine: PM Aligns Anti-Terror Policy with Global Framework

Syllabus:Governance

Context:

In his first national address following Operation Sindoor — India’s most decisive military engagement since the Kargil War — Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a transformative anti-terror doctrine, redefining India’s approach to cross-border terrorism and regional security.

Core Tenets of the New Strategic Doctrine

Response on India’s Terms:India reserves the sovereign right to determine the timing, nature, and intensity of its response to terrorism.
Deterrence Beyond Nuclear Threats:India’s actions will not be constrained by adversarial nuclear posturing — signaling the end of “nuclear blackmail” as a deterrent.
Unified Targeting Approach:No distinction will be made between terrorists, their leadership, or the states providing them support. All will be held equally accountable.

Doctrinal Evolution Post-Uri and Balakot

This doctrine marks a continuity and intensification of India’s response model that began with:
Uri Surgical Strikes (2016)
Balakot Airstrikes (2019)
Operation Sindoor, conducted after the Pahalgam terror attack, is positioned as the new baseline in India’s counter-terrorism strategy, raising the threshold for future military actions and reinforcing India’s offensive preparedness.

India’s Role in the Global War on Terror

PM Modi positioned India as a responsible global actor in the fight against terrorism, likening strikes on Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba to international efforts post-9/11.
He called for global unity and reiterated that the “era of terrorism” must end, adapting his earlier message: “This is not the era of war” to “This is also not the era of terrorism.”

Strategic Military Capabilities Displayed

India showcased its growing technological edge, including:
Precision missile strikes
Destruction of drones and key enemy airbases
Use of Made-in-India weaponry in 21st-century warfare
The operation highlighted India’s capacity for deep-strike operations and its readiness for high-stakes, modern conflict scenarios.

Strategic Pause: A Calculated Decision

While Pakistan sought diplomatic de-escalation after suffering significant losses, India chose to pause operations only after key objectives were achieved.
This was described not as withdrawal, but as conditional suspension, with future actions contingent on Pakistan’s conduct.

Reaffirming Strategic Red Lines

India reiterated its uncompromising stance:
No engagement with Pakistan unless talks are centered on terrorism or Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).
No resumption of trade, water-sharing, or diplomatic normalcy under the shadow of terror.

Philosophical Underpinning: Peace Through Strength

On Buddha Purnima, PM Modi evoked Lord Buddha’s message, emphasizing that peace is safeguarded by strength. A militarily strong India is essential to achieving the vision of Viksit Bharat (Developed India).

Conclusion: A Paradigm Shift in National Security Posture

India’s updated strategic doctrine signals a bold, assertive, and independent military posture, grounded in zero tolerance for terrorism and supported by advanced capabilities.Operation Sindoor is not just a tactical victory—it is the cornerstone of a new doctrine for India’s national security and global leadership in counter-terrorism.

With reference to India’s new anti-terror doctrine post-Operation Sindoor, consider the following statements:

It marks the first time India has formally rejected nuclear deterrence in its counter-terror strategy.
The doctrine makes a distinction between non-state and state-sponsored terrorism.
Operation Sindoor represents a shift from defensive retaliation to pre-emptive, technology-enabled strike capability.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine explicitly states that India will not be deterred by nuclear threats, rejecting the traditional logic of nuclear deterrence in the face of cross-border terrorism.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A core tenet of the new doctrine is the elimination of any distinction between terrorists, their masterminds, and the states that support them.
Statement 3 is correct: Operation Sindoor demonstrates a strategic evolution—from reactive defense to pre-emptive, intelligence-led, and technologically advanced military responses.

National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)

Syllabus:Governance

The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) recently dismissed an insolvency petition filed by SNJ Synthetics against PepsiCo India Holdings, stating that the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) cannot be misused as a debt recovery tool when the claim pertains only to disputed interest dues.

About the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)

Established Under: Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013
Operational Since: 1st June 2016
Nature: Quasi-judicial body

Key Functions of NCLAT

IBC Appeals: Hears appeals against NCLT decisions under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
IBBI Orders: Hears appeals against orders passed by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) under Sections 202 and 211.
CCI Appeals: Hears appeals against orders of the Competition Commission of India (CCI).
NFRA Appeals: Handles matters related to the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA).
Advisory Role: May provide legal opinions when referred by the President of India.

Organizational Details

Headquarters: New Delhi
Composition:
Chairperson
Judicial Members
Technical Members
Appointed By: Central Government, based on expertise in law, finance, accountancy, or administration

Powers and Jurisdiction

Possesses powers of a civil court under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
Can:
Summon witnesses
Receive affidavits
Enforce production of documents
Issue commissions
Orders are executable as civil court decrees
Appeals against NCLAT orders lie directly with the Supreme Court of India
Civil courts have no jurisdiction over matters under NCLAT’s purview
No court or authority can issue injunctions against NCLAT’s lawful actions

Timely Resolution

NCLAT must dispose of appeals within six months from the date of receipt, ensuring prompt adjudication of corporate disputes.

With reference to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), consider the following statements:

It is a constitutional body established under Article 323B of the Constitution.
It hears appeals against the orders of NCLT, CCI, and NFRA.
Appeals against its decisions can be made directly to the Supreme Court of India.
It functions under the Ministry of Law and Justice.

Which of the statements are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3, and 4

Answer:A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – NCLAT is a statutory body under the Companies Act, 2013, not a constitutional one.
Statement 4 is incorrect – It functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not Law and Justice.
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) is a statutory body, not a constitutional body.
It was established under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Article 323B of the Constitution enables the creation of tribunals by Parliament via legislation, but it does not itself establish any tribunal.
Therefore, while the constitutional provision enables such tribunals in principle, the NCLAT owes its existence and powers to statute, not to the Constitution directly.

Cabinet approves semiconductor unit in Uttar Pradesh

Syllabus:Governanace

The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved the establishment of a new semiconductor manufacturing unit, further advancing India’s journey towards self-reliance in the strategically vital semiconductor sector.
This will be the sixth unit under the India Semiconductor Mission, with five units already in advanced stages of construction. The newly approved facility will be a joint venture between HCL and Foxconn, combining HCL’s legacy in hardware development with Foxconn’s global expertise in electronics manufacturing.

Location & Production:

The plant will be set up near Jewar Airport in the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA)
It will manufacture display driver chips for use in mobile phones, laptops, automobiles, PCs, and other display-enabled devices.
Designed for a capacity of 20,000 wafers/month and an output of 36 million units/month.

Investment & Ecosystem:

The project involves an investment of ₹3,700 crore.
India’s semiconductor ecosystem is rapidly expanding, with global equipment giants like Applied Materials and Lam Research, and gas and chemical suppliers such as Merck, Linde, Air Liquide, and Inox establishing a presence in India.

Academic & Startup Contributions:

Over 270 academic institutions and 70 startups are engaged in advanced chip design and innovation.
20 student-developed products have already been successfully taped out at SCL Mohali.
As India witnesses a surge in demand for semiconductors across sectors—ranging from consumer electronics to defence—the new unit is a significant step towards realizing Prime Minister Modi’s vision of an Atmanirbhar Bharat.

Consider the following statements with respect to India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem:

The India Semiconductor Mission is being implemented under the aegis of the National Policy on Electronics 2019.
Applied Materials and Lam Research are key players in semiconductor design software being developed in India.
Display driver chips are typically used in digital screens but not in automobiles due to electromagnetic interference issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Applied Materials and Lam Research are semiconductor equipment manufacturers, not design software companies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Display driver chips are used in automotive displays as well.

SAMRIDH Scheme

Syllabus:Governance

Recent Incident:

Two individuals, including a chartered accountant, were recently arrested for allegedly defrauding the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) of over ₹3 crore under the guise of availing benefits from the government-backed SAMRIDH scheme meant for startup support.

About the SAMRIDH Scheme
Full Form:
SAMRIDH stands for Startup Accelerator of MeitY for Product Innovation, Development and Growth.

Launched Under:

National Policy on Software Products – 2019

Nodal Ministry:

Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)

Implementing Agencies: MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH) and Digital India Corporation (DIC)

Key Objectives:

To support existing and upcoming startup accelerators in selecting and scaling promising IT-based startups.
To provide startups with support in areas such as:
Customer acquisition
Investor access
Entry into international markets

Funding Structure:

The scheme offers an investment of up to ₹40 lakh per startup, depending on its valuation and growth stage.
A matching contribution from the selected accelerator is required.
Financial support is provided through selected accelerators after rigorous screening.

Implementation Details:

In the first cohort, 22 accelerators across 12 states are engaged.
A total of 175 startups have been selected via a multi-level screening process.
Accelerators span public institutions, academic bodies, private players, and early-stage funding platforms.

Focus Sectors:

Health-tech
Ed-tech
Agri-tech
Consumer-tech
Fin-tech
SaaS (Software as a Service)
Sustainability

Support Services Provided by Accelerators:

Market research and product positioning diagnostics
Mentorship by experts in relevant tech verticals
Legal assistance in IP, incorporation, and regulatory matters
Networking and shared learning opportunities
Weekly peer interaction among startup founders
Demo Days with venture capitalists and angel investors
Support in closing investment deals

With reference to the SAMRIDH Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), consider the following statements:

The scheme provides equity-based investment up to ₹40 lakh per startup and mandates a matching contribution from the accelerator.
It supports startups exclusively in the sectors notified under the Startup India Action Plan.
MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH) and Digital India Corporation are the nodal agencies responsible for implementing the scheme.
Only government-recognized academic institutions are allowed to act as accelerators under the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct – The scheme provides financial assistance up to ₹40 lakh per startup and requires equal matching investment from the accelerator.
Statement 2: Incorrect – SAMRIDH supports IT-based startups in domains like health-tech, ed-tech, SaaS, and sustainability, not limited to the Startup India Action Plan.
Statement 3: Correct – It is implemented by MeitY Start-up Hub and Digital India Corporation.
Statement 4: Incorrect – Accelerators include not only government-supported academic institutions but also private organizations and early-stage funding platforms

Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan’

Syllabus:Schemes

Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers Welfare and Rural Development, Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan, today held a press conference at the National Media Centre, New Delhi, to announce the launch of the nationwide “Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan,” scheduled from May 29 to June 12, 2025.
He emphasized that under the leadership of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, India is actively pursuing the vision of becoming a developed nation, with modern agriculture and prosperous farmers forming the foundation of this goal.
Agriculture remains the backbone of the Indian economy, supporting nearly half the population and ensuring national food security.
Shri Chouhan highlighted the Ministry’s primary goals: securing food for India’s 1.45 billion people, ensuring availability of nutritious food, increasing farmer incomes, and conserving natural resources for future generations.
To achieve these objectives, the Ministry has devised a six-point strategy focusing on increasing production, lowering costs, ensuring fair prices, compensating for natural disaster losses, promoting crop diversification with value addition and food processing, and encouraging natural and organic farming.
He shared record agricultural outputs for the year, including Kharif rice production of 1206.79 lakh metric tonnes, wheat at 1154.30 lakh metric tonnes, Kharif maize at 248.11 lakh metric tonnes, groundnut at 104.26 lakh metric tonnes, and soybean at 151.32 lakh metric tonnes.
These historic highs have strengthened national food reserves and align with the vision to make India the “Food Basket of the World,” boosting sustainable production and international food cooperation.
The “Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan” will unite efforts from over 113 ICAR research institutes, agriculture universities, state departments, innovative farmers, and farmer-producer organizations (FPOs).
This collaboration aims to connect scientific research directly with farmers’ practical needs.
Food grain production rose from 3157.74 lakh tonnes in 2023–24 to 3309.18 lakh tonnes in 2024–25, with pulses increasing from 221.71 to 230.22 lakh tonnes and oilseeds from 384 to 416 lakh metric tonnes.
The campaign will be launched annually before Kharif and Rabi sowing seasons. Following a recent Kharif Conference with state agriculture ministers, the initiative was endorsed to ensure field-level application of agricultural research.
Currently, about 16,000 agricultural scientists are involved in research, and the campaign aims to make their expertise directly accessible to farmers.
During the campaign, 2,170 expert teams, each with at least four scientists, will visit over 65,000 villages across 723 districts between May 29 and June 12.
These teams, comprising members from agricultural universities, research bodies, government departments, innovative farmers, and FPOs, will conduct sessions thrice daily with farmers.
They will assess local agro-climatic conditions, soil nutrients, water availability, and rainfall.
Using Soil Health Cards, they will advise on suitable crops, high-yield seeds, optimal sowing methods, and balanced fertilizer use to promote scientific farming that reduces costs and improves soil health.
The campaign encourages two-way communication, allowing farmers to share challenges, ask questions, and report issues like pest infestations, guiding future research priorities.
Supported by 731 Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) and ICAR scientists, this initiative aims to integrate science and agriculture closely.
With plans to engage over 1.3 crore farmers directly, the “Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan” is set to become a landmark effort in transforming and raising awareness in Indian agriculture.

The “Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan” aims to integrate scientific research directly with farmers through which of the following mechanisms?

Deployment of expert teams comprising agricultural scientists and FPO members to villages
Utilization of Soil Health Cards to recommend balanced fertilization
Exclusive digital dissemination of information through mobile apps
Two-way interactions allowing farmers to report field problems to research institutions

Correct answer: A) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Point 1: The campaign involves deploying expert teams to villages. These teams include agricultural scientists, government department officials, innovative farmers, and Farmer Producer Organization (FPO) members. They directly engage with farmers on the ground to provide practical advice and scientific knowledge tailored to local conditions.
Point 2: Soil Health Cards are a crucial tool in the campaign. They provide detailed information about the nutrient status of soils in different regions and help recommend the appropriate type and quantity of fertilizers. This enables balanced fertilization, which is vital for sustainable and productive farming.
Point 3: Although digital tools and mobile apps are widely used in agricultural extension, the campaign’s primary approach, as described, does not specifically mention exclusive digital dissemination through mobile apps. Instead, it focuses on in-person engagement through expert visits and interactive sessions.
Point 4: A key feature of the campaign is its two-way communication model. Farmers are encouraged to share their experiences, challenges (like pest outbreaks), and feedback with the visiting experts and research institutions. This feedback loop helps align scientific research with real-time field problems, making the intervention more effective and adaptive.

Mizoram India’s First Fully Literate State

Syllabus:Governanace

Context:

The Chief Minister of Mizoram has declared the state fully literate, making it the first Indian state to achieve this milestone. Prior to this, Ladakh became the first Union Territory to attain full literacy status on 24th June 2024.

Definition of Full Literacy:

As per the ULLAS (Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society) scheme, a region is deemed fully literate when its literacy rate surpasses 95%.

Mizoram’s Achievement:

With a literacy rate of 98.2% as per the PLFS 2023–24, Mizoram has exceeded the ULLAS benchmark. Its literacy rate in the 2011 Census stood at 91.33%. The state implemented the Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram under ULLAS to achieve this milestone.

About ULLAS Scheme:

ULLAS stands for Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society. It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched for the period FY 2022–2027. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Education with a total budget outlay of ₹1037.90 crore, comprising ₹700 crore from the Centre and ₹337.90 crore from states.

Objectives:

The scheme aims to promote inclusive adult education in alignment with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. It targets non-literate individuals aged 15 years and above and seeks to enhance foundational literacy, digital literacy, and vocational competencies.

Core Components:

Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) provides basic reading, writing, and arithmetic. Critical Life Skills cover health awareness, financial literacy, environmental sustainability, and family welfare. Basic Education offers learning at primary, middle, and secondary equivalency levels. Vocational Skills aim to improve local employability. Continuing Education supports lifelong learning through access to scientific, cultural, and recreational content.

Implementation Features:

The scheme adopts a volunteer-driven approach, engaging trained community volunteers to deliver adult education. It follows a digital-first model, utilizing mobile apps, television, radio, and online platforms for content dissemination. As of 2025, 2.37 crore learners and 40.84 lakh volunteer teachers have been enrolled under the program.

Assessment Mechanism:

Learners’ progress is measured through the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT).

Significance:

Mizoram’s achievement sets a national benchmark for literacy-led development. It showcases effective grassroots volunteer engagement and digital integration, reinforcing the national vision of universal and lifelong education.

With reference to India’s adult literacy initiatives and the ULLAS scheme, consider the following statements:

Under the ULLAS scheme, a state or UT is declared “fully literate” if its literacy rate exceeds 90% as per Census data.
The ULLAS scheme emphasizes a digital-first pedagogy, but it excludes vocational training components to maintain a focus on foundational literacy.
Mizoram achieved full literacy status in 2025 under the Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram by surpassing the 95% literacy threshold.
The Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT) under ULLAS is designed exclusively for school dropouts below 15 years of age.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B. 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 — Incorrect: The benchmark for full literacy under ULLAS is above 95%, not 90%, and is based on recent data (e.g., PLFS), not limited to the decennial Census.
Statement 2 — Incorrect: The scheme does emphasize digital delivery but also includes vocational skills training as one of its five core components, to enhance employability.
Statement 3 — Correct: Mizoram crossed the 95% literacy threshold (98.2% as per PLFS 2023–24) under the Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram, part of the ULLAS framework, and was declared fully literate in 2025.
Statement 4 — Incorrect: FLNAT is not restricted to under-15 learners; it evaluates adult learners aged 15+ targeted under the ULLAS scheme.

Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) Portal

Syllabus:Governance

Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) – Latest Update:

Telangana has become the leading state in India for recovering stolen and lost mobile phones through the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) portal.

About the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR):

The CEIR is a centralized database developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications, aimed at tracking lost or stolen mobile phones across India. It stores the International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) or Electronic Serial Number (ESN) of all mobile devices registered in the country.

IMEI Number:

A unique 15-digit identifier assigned to every mobile handset, linked to the registered service provider.
Tracking Mechanism: Users can report and track lost or stolen phones by submitting the IMEI number along with a copy of the FIR on the CEIR portal.
Network Support: The CEIR system integrates all telecom operators, enabling cross-network tracking and notification about blacklisted devices. This ensures the device can be tracked even if the SIM card is changed.

Types of Lists in CEIR Database

White List: Contains authorized IMEI numbers allowed to access cellular networks.
Grey List: Contains authorized IMEIs under observation for suspicious activity.
Black List: Contains unauthorized IMEI numbers that are blocked from network registration.

Objectives of CEIR

To deter mobile phone theft and curb the sale of fraudulent mobile devices.
To protect consumers by creating a centralized system for identifying and blocking lost, stolen, or illegal mobile devices.
To enable tracking of mobile phones using IMEI numbers even if SIM cards are swapped or disabled.
To build infrastructure for effective mobile tracking services.
To access the GSMA global database for verifying device authenticity.
To detect and prevent the use of duplicate, cloned, reprogrammed, stolen, or unauthorized mobile devices.

Consider the following statements about the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR):

It is maintained by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
CEIR tracks mobile devices using IMEI numbers even if the SIM card is changed.
The Black List in CEIR contains IMEIs that are authorized but under observation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The CEIR is maintained by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Statement 2 is correct.The CEIR system tracks lost or stolen mobile devices using their IMEI numbers, which are unique identifiers assigned to mobile handsets. It can continue tracking the device even if the SIM card is changed, helping to locate stolen or lost phones.
Statement 3 is incorrect.The Black List in CEIR contains unauthorized IMEI numbers—devices that are blocked from accessing cellular networks, typically because they are stolen, lost, or counterfeit.The list that contains authorized IMEIs under observation is the Grey List, not the Black List.

SPICED Scheme

Syllabus:Governance

The Spices Board, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, has launched the “Sustainability in Spice Sector through Progressive, Innovative and Collaborative Interventions for Export Development (SPICED)” scheme for the financial year 2025–26.

About the SPICED Scheme:

SPICED is designed to provide financial support aimed at promoting sustainability, innovation, and export growth in India’s spices sector. The scheme focuses on improving productivity in small and large cardamom cultivation, enhancing post-harvest quality, and encouraging the production and export of value-added, GI-tagged, and organic spices. It also seeks to help stakeholders comply with global food safety and phytosanitary standards while strengthening the entire value chain.

Key Features of SPICED

Supports replanting and rejuvenation of cardamom plantations, development of water resources, and implementation of micro-irrigation.
Promotes organic farming and adoption of Good Agricultural Practices (GAP).
Provides funding for modern post-harvest infrastructure such as dryers, slicers, dehullers, and grading machines to improve product quality.
Offers financial assistance to farmers and Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) for acquiring essential machines like spice polishers, turmeric boilers, mint distillation units, and threshers.
Supports the establishment of Spice Incubation Centres and fosters entrepreneurship and product development to boost market access and branding for startups and MSMEs.
Focuses on capacity building through training and extension services to equip farmers, Self-Help Groups (SHGs), and FPOs with updated technical knowledge, best practices, and market insights.
Facilitates export promotion by assisting eligible exporters with participation in international trade fairs, buyer-seller meets, and market linkage programs, prioritizing first-time applicants and SMEs.

Transparency and Monitoring:

All scheme activities will be geo-tagged, and real-time information on fund availability, application status, and beneficiary lists will be published on the Spices Board’s website to ensure transparency.

Consider the following statements about the SPICED scheme launched by the Spices Board:

It aims to promote the cultivation and export of only organic spices across India.
The scheme supports infrastructure development including modern dryers and grading machines for post-harvest processing.
Financial assistance under the scheme is available exclusively to exporters with multiple years of experience.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) None of the above

The correct answer is: B) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: The SPICED scheme promotes cultivation and export of value-added, GI-tagged, organic, and other spices. It does not restrict itself to only organic spices across India.
Statement 2: The scheme supports infrastructure development including the installation of modern post-harvest machinery like dryers, slicers, dehullers, and grading machines to improve the quality of spices.
Statement 3: Financial assistance is not exclusively available to exporters with multiple years of experience. In fact, the scheme gives preference to first-time exporters, small and medium enterprises (SMEs), and farmer producer organizations (FPOs).

India has initiated the process to develop Electric Hansa (E-Hansa), a next-generation two-seater electric trainer aircraft: Dr Jitendra Singh

Syllabus:Governance

In a high-level review chaired by Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, India highlighted major advancements in green aviation, space exploration, and the broader science and technology landscape.

E-HANSA: India’s First Indigenous Electric Aircraft

India is developing the Electric Hansa (E-HANSA), a next-generation two-seater electric trainer aircraft.Developed by CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL), Bengaluru, it is priced around ₹2 crore, nearly half the cost of comparable imported trainers.It is part of the HANSA-3 NG program, contributing to India’s green aviation and clean energy goals.

Technology Commercialization and Public-Private Partnerships

The National Research Development Corporation (NRDC) will adopt successful models from BIRAC and IN-SPACe to promote technology transfer.
Focus areas include hub-and-spoke PPP models, AI-powered tech and IP exchange platforms, and regional National Technology Transfer Offices (NTTOs).
Efforts are aimed at standardizing tech transfer protocols and improving ease of doing business.A global perspective rooted in the philosophy of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam was emphasized.

ISRO Recognized for Key Achievements

ISRO was praised for the SPADEX mission, which demonstrated docking and undocking technology essential for the upcoming Gaganyaan human spaceflight.
It also played a major role in Operation Sindoor and is collaborating with 40 central ministries and 28 state governments.As part of the Axiom Space Mission, Group Captain Subhash Shukla will carry out seven microgravity experiments aboard the International Space Station.

Whole-of-Science, Whole-of-Government Vision

Aligned with Prime Minister Modi’s Viksit Bharat vision, Dr. Singh called for integrated planning through region-wise Chintan Shivirs.These strategic sessions will include departments such as DST, DBT, CSIR, ISRO, Earth Sciences, and Atomic Energy to ensure holistic coordination.

Global Collaboration and Science Talent Exchange

A proposal was made for a Global Science Talent Bridge to attract leading international researchers.CSIR labs, recently opened to students, received an overwhelming response and will reopen soon after temporary security-related suspension.New science collaboration centers are being explored with countries like Switzerland and Italy, building on the models of the Indo-French and Indo-German Science Centres.

Key Attendees

The meeting was attended by top scientific leaders including Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood (Principal Scientific Advisor), Dr. N. Kalaiselvi (DG and Secretary, CSIR), Dr. V. Narayanan (Chairman, ISRO), and the Secretaries of DST, DBT, Earth Sciences, Atomic Energy, IMD, and NRDC.This strategic review represents a pivotal moment in the transformation of India’s science and innovation ecosystem.

With reference to the E-HANSA aircraft, consider the following statements:

It is India’s first indigenously developed electric trainer aircraft, designed to support the transition to carbon-neutral aviation under the National Green Aviation Mission.
The aircraft was developed by CSIR–NAL and includes onboard AI modules for autonomous flight control and energy optimization.
The E-HANSA project complements the UDAN scheme by enabling cost-effective pilot training in underserved regions.
The aircraft uses lithium-sulphur battery technology, which offers higher energy density and lower weight compared to conventional lithium-ion batteries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:E-HANSA is indeed India’s first indigenously developed electric trainer aircraft, intended to promote sustainable aviation. Though there is no official “National Green Aviation Mission,” its development aligns with broader green and clean energy initiatives.
Statement 2 is incorrect:There is no public documentation confirming the presence of AI-based autonomous flight systems in E-HANSA. It is primarily a manually piloted trainer aircraft.
Statement 3 is correct: E-HANSA supports affordable pilot training and could help extend aviation access in line with the UDAN scheme, which targets regional connectivity.
Statement 4 is incorrect: E-HANSA currently uses lithium-ion batteries, not lithium-sulphur. Lithium-sulphur technology is still in experimental stages and not yet deployed in this aircraft.

Supreme Court Needs to Change from Being a Chief Justice-Centric Court

Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance

Former Supreme Court Judge Justice A.S. Oka emphasized the need for a more democratic and institutionalized approach in the Supreme Court’s functioning, moving away from a system heavily centered around the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Currently, the CJI exercises considerable control over key aspects of the Court’s functioning, a practice that requires reform.

The Current System and Its Challenges

The CJI is the master of the roster, as reaffirmed in Shanti Bhushan vs. Supreme Court of India (2018).
This means the CJI alone decides which bench hears which case, which judges are assigned to these benches, and when cases are listed for hearing.
For Constitution Bench cases, which must include at least five judges, the CJI not only decides when such benches are constituted but often presides over them as well.
In terms of court administration, the CJI holds a unique and dominant position, as observed in State of Rajasthan v. Prakash Chand (1998).
While the CJI is ‘first among equals’ in judicial matters, he exercises control over the court registry, work allocation, and administrative decisions, often without formal consultation with other judges.
Justice Oka also highlighted the need to empower the district judiciary, the backbone of India’s justice delivery system, which remains under-resourced and weak compared to the apex court.

Challenges Emerging from this Structure

Lack of Transparency: Litigants and even fellow judges often remain unaware of how cases are allocated or why delays occur.
Delay in Justice: The discretionary power of the CJI in constituting benches has led to significant delays, especially in matters of constitutional or national importance.
Weakened Collegiality: The current centralized system undermines judicial equality and collective responsibility among Supreme Court judges.
Steps Towards Greater Transparency:In 2018, the Supreme Court introduced a public roster system to improve transparency in the allocation of sensitive cases. In Subhash Chandra Agarwal v. Supreme Court (2019), a Constitution Bench ruled that the office of the CJI falls under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, a landmark judgment for judicial transparency. Additionally, the Court has made public details of the judicial appointment process to enhance understanding of judicial selections.

Reforms Needed for a More Robust Judiciary

Committee-Based Decision-Making: Internal committees should be established to decide Bench composition, case listing, and administrative matters, thereby decentralizing power and encouraging institutional participation.
Transparent Listing Mechanism: Use of technology and algorithm-based systems with minimal human discretion should automate case listing to ensure fairness and transparency.
Collegiality in Constitution Bench Assignments: A panel of senior judges, rather than the sole discretion of the CJI, should determine the composition and timing of Constitution Benches.

Conclusion:

As the guardian of constitutional rights, the Supreme Court must ensure it remains independent, institutionally strong, inclusive, and transparent.
Moving away from a CJI-centric model toward a more committee-based and democratic structure will enhance judicial credibility, promote shared responsibility among judges, and uphold the principle of justice for all.

With reference to the administration and judicial functioning of the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:

The Chief Justice of India (CJI) unilaterally controls the allocation of cases and formation of benches without formal consultation with other judges, including constitution benches.
The State of Rajasthan v. Prakash Chand (1998) judgment explicitly described the CJI as ‘first among equals’ in judicial matters but granted the CJI exclusive control over court administration.
The Shanti Bhushan vs. Supreme Court (2018) case reaffirmed the CJI’s absolute discretion over case listing and bench constitution, but also mandated mandatory consultation with a committee of senior judges for constitution benches.
The Supreme Court’s public roster system introduced in 2018 and the RTI applicability ruling in Subhash Chandra Agarwal v. Supreme Court (2019) are steps aimed at increasing transparency and decentralizing judicial administration.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: The CJI currently has dominant control over case allocation and bench formation, often without formal consultation, especially for Constitution Benches.
Statement 2: State of Rajasthan v. Prakash Chand recognized the CJI as ‘first among equals’ in judicial matters but gave the CJI a unique dominant administrative role.
Statement 3: While Shanti Bhushan reaffirmed CJI’s discretion over the roster, it did not mandate mandatory consultation with a committee for Constitution Benches; such reforms remain proposals for democratization.
Statement 4: The public roster system and RTI ruling are landmark steps for transparency, but complete decentralization is still a reform objective.

Experiential Learning

Syllabus: GS2/Education

Context:

India’s current education system necessitates a shift towards experiential learning to remain relevant in a rapidly transforming digital and global landscape.
The Evolving Nature of Learning: Humans are inherently designed to learn, yet the modern digital environment has revolutionized access to information.
With AI and bots now capable of imparting conceptual understanding, the traditional role of schools—as mere content delivery centers—is increasingly under threat.

What is Experiential Learning?

Experiential learning is a learner-centered pedagogical approach involving learning through direct experience, reflection, and application. Pioneered by David A. Kolb, this theory emphasizes a cyclical learning process, often represented by the Kolb Learning Cycle: Concrete Experience → Reflective Observation → Abstract Conceptualization → Active Experimentation. Unlike passive methods like rote memorization or lectures, experiential learning emphasizes “learning by doing” and focuses on the process over the outcome.

Benefits of Experiential Learning:

Enhances critical thinking and problem-solving abilities. Boosts student engagement and intrinsic motivation. Encourages collaboration, communication, and peer learning. Promotes real-world skill development that is transferable across contexts.

Challenges in Implementation

Requires extensive planning, infrastructure, and trained educators. Difficult to scale in overcrowded or under-resourced classrooms. Student readiness for self-guided learning can vary significantly.

Need for Reform in India

Indian schools face persistent issues such as infrastructure deficits, teacher shortages, and uneven access, particularly in rural and marginalized areas. The system remains exam-oriented, encouraging rote memorization at the cost of creativity and critical thinking. Advances in neuroscience (e.g., neuroplasticity) affirm the brain’s ability to adapt through diverse, hands-on learning experiences.

Global Best Practices

Finland: Emphasizes student well-being, minimal academic pressure, and play-based learning in early years. Focus on creativity, problem-solving, and critical thinking.
Singapore: Renowned for world-leading PISA rankings in maths, reading, and science. Features a rigorous, structured curriculum and high investment in teacher training.
Japan: Emphasizes discipline, uniformity, and moral education. Students participate in classroom cleaning, fostering responsibility and character development.

Conclusion

The Indian education system’s limitations are deep-rooted, but not insurmountable. A transformative shift requires policy intervention at the national and state levels, community involvement and awareness, teacher empowerment and training, and integration of technology and innovation. By embracing inclusive, adaptive, and learner-centric reforms, India can create an education system that truly prepares its citizens for the challenges and opportunities of the 21st century.

With reference to the office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members by a simple majority vote.
The Constitution prescribes a definite time limit within which the Deputy Speaker must be elected after the general election of the Lok Sabha.
The Deputy Speaker, when presiding over the House, can only exercise a casting vote in case of a tie.
A motion for the removal of the Deputy Speaker requires a special majority of the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha members. While the Constitution (Article 93) mandates that the Lok Sabha choose the Deputy Speaker “as soon as may be,” it does not explicitly prescribe the mode of voting. In practice, the election can be by consensus, voice vote, or simple majority.
“simple majority” is broadly accepted as a practical method, but unanimity or voice vote may also occur.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify a fixed time limit for electing the Deputy Speaker after the general election. The phrase “as soon as may be” is open-ended.
Statement 3 is correct: When presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the powers of the Speaker and votes only to break a tie (casting vote)
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by an effective majority, i.e., a majority of the total membership of the House excluding vacancies, not necessarily a special majority (which is a higher threshold requiring two-thirds majority).

Niveshak Shivir Initiative

Syllabus:Governance

Context

On June 1, 2025, the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) launched the pilot edition of Niveshak Shivir, an investor-centric outreach program. Held in Pune, this initiative seeks to promote financial inclusion and facilitate resolution of long-standing issues related to unclaimed dividends and shares.

Purpose and Objectives

The primary aim of Niveshak Shivir is to empower investors through direct engagement with companies and Registrars and Transfer Agents (RTAs), bypassing bureaucratic hurdles. The initiative provides a one-stop solution for:
Recovery of unclaimed dividends and shares held for 6–7 years
On-the-spot KYC and nomination updates
Redressal of pending investor claims with IEPFA

Structure and Implementation

Dedicated kiosks operated by participating companies and RTAs form the operational backbone of the Shivir. These counters enable real-time, face-to-face interaction between investors and concerned stakeholders, thereby eliminating intermediaries and enhancing both transparency and grievance redressal efficiency.

Significance of the Problem

According to IEPFA, India currently holds over ₹1 lakh crore worth of unclaimed shares (over 1.1 billion shares), along with unclaimed dividends totaling ₹6,000 crore. This vast pool of dormant investments underscores the critical need for interventions like Niveshak Shivir, which seek to restore investor access and rights over their financial assets.

Strategic Vision and Expansion Plan

The Pune event is the first in a series of similar camps planned across cities identified as hubs for unclaimed investments. Future Shivir events will not only facilitate claims processing but also emphasize financial literacy and investor education, thereby strengthening grassroots financial awareness.

Technological Advancements

In a move to digitize and streamline the investor grievance redressal process, IEPFA plans to launch an integrated portal by August 2025. This portal will provide:
Real-time tracking of claims
Direct interface with companies and RTAs
Automated data validation through integration with PAN, bank databases, and depositories

IEPFA’s Broader Commitment

The Niveshak Shivir initiative is emblematic of IEPFA’s commitment to building a secure, transparent, and investor-friendly financial ecosystem in India. Through sustained engagement with market participants and targeted outreach programs, the authority aims to elevate the standard of investor protection and empowerment

With reference to the Niveshak Shivir initiative launched in 2025, consider the following statements:

It is a program exclusively implemented by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
It provides for direct investor interaction with companies and Registrars and Transfer Agents (RTAs).
The program primarily aims to recover unclaimed dividends and shares lying with private banks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The initiative is launched by IEPFA, not SEBI.
Statement 2 is correct: A key feature of the initiative is facilitating direct interaction between investors, companies, and RTAs.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The dividends and shares are not limited to private banks; they pertain to listed entities across sectors.

Tension and Clumpiness of Universe

Syllabus: GS3/Science and Technology

Recent research suggests that understanding the “clumpiness” of the universe may be key to uncovering its fundamental nature.

Clumpiness of the Universe

The universe originated around 13.8 billion years ago in a massive Big Bang, starting from a state of void. Over time, it expanded and formed galaxies, star clusters, solar systems, and planets. Initially, when scientists observed the Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) — the radiation left over from the Big Bang — they found a nearly uniform glow across the sky. This led to the conclusion that, early on, the universe was remarkably uniform, with only slight density variations.

The S8 Tension

The “clumpiness” refers to how matter is not evenly spread across the universe. Instead, it forms dense regions, such as galaxies and galaxy clusters, while other parts remain empty. This uneven distribution is measured by the clumpiness factor (S8). The S8 value reflects the level of clustering in the universe, where a higher S8 indicates more dense matter clumping together, and a lower S8 suggests a more uniform distribution.
However, a challenge arose when cosmologists measured S8 through different methods and arrived at conflicting values. This discrepancy has come to be known as the ‘S8 tension’ in astrophysics.

Why Does the S8 Tension Matter?

If the S8 tension cannot be explained by measurement errors, it could suggest several possibilities:
The ΛCDM (Lambda Cold Dark Matter) model, which currently explains the evolution of the universe, might be incomplete or require revisions.
There could be new insights into how dark matter or dark energy behave, potentially deviating from the current understanding.
New physics may be at play, such as interacting dark energy, modified gravity, or even variations in fundamental constants over time.
The Lambda Cold Dark Matter (ΛCDM) Model
The ΛCDM model is the standard cosmological framework that describes the universe’s large-scale structure. According to this model:
Dark matter and dark energy make up about 95% of the universe’s mass-energy content.
These components interact to shape the evolution of cosmic structures, influencing the growth of primordial fluctuations into the galaxies, stars, and clusters we observe today.
The ongoing research into the S8 tension may potentially lead to refinements or entirely new theories about the universe’s structure and the forces that govern it.

Consider the following statements regarding the clumpiness of the universe and the S8 tension:

The clumpiness factor, denoted as S8, reflects the non-uniform distribution of matter in the universe.
A higher value of S8 indicates a more uniform distribution of matter, while a lower value suggests more clustering of matter.
The ongoing S8 tension points to the possibility that the ΛCDM model might be incomplete or require revision.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as S8 is the clumpiness factor measuring the distribution of matter.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A higher S8 indicates more clustering of matter, not a more uniform distribution.
Statement 3 is correct. The S8 tension raises concerns about the completeness of the ΛCDM model

India’s latest MMR Shows a Declining Trend

Syllabus :GS 2/Health

Maternal mortality refers to the death of a woman during pregnancy or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy, from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management, excluding accidental or incidental causes. One of the key indicators of maternal health is the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR), which is defined as the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births over a specific time period. The United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) aim to reduce the global MMR to less than 70 per 100,000 live births by 2030.

India’s Recent MMR Statistics:

According to the latest data released by the Registrar-General of India, India’s MMR has improved significantly, dropping to 93 per 100,000 live births for the period 2019-21.
This marks a decline from 97 per 100,000 (2018-20) and 103 per 100,000 (2017-19). However, maternal mortality remains disproportionately high in several states, with Madhya Pradesh (175), Assam (167), Uttar Pradesh (151), Odisha (135), Chhattisgarh (132), West Bengal (109), and Haryana (106) exhibiting high MMRs.
The highest MMR is observed in the 20-29 age group, followed by the 30-34 age group.

Global Context and Trends:

Globally, over 700 women die daily from preventable pregnancy-related causes, translating to a maternal death every 2 minutes. Over 90% of these deaths occur in low- and lower-middle-income countries. Since 2000, the global MMR has fallen by approximately 40%, highlighting the progress made in maternal health worldwide.

Challenges and Concerns:

Despite improvements, maternal mortality remains a critical public health concern in India.
It is a key indicator of the quality and accessibility of healthcare services, reflecting the effectiveness of maternal health programs. The majority of maternal deaths in India are due to complications arising from pregnancy, childbirth, or abortion, rather than accidental causes.

Government Initiatives to Combat Maternal Mortality:

India has made substantial progress towards reducing maternal mortality, aligning with the UN’s SDG target for MMR of 70 per 100,000 live births by 2030.
The National Health Policy (NHP) 2017 set a target of reducing MMR to below 100 per 100,000 live births by 2020, which India has successfully met.
Several key initiatives by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) support the reduction of MMR:
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY): Launched in 2005, this program promotes institutional deliveries among marginalized women (SC/ST/BPL) to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality.
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY): This maternity benefit scheme offers ₹5,000 to eligible women for their first live birth. Under PMMVY 2.0, additional incentives are provided if the second child is a girl, promoting positive behavioral change.
Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (JSSK): Since 2011, this scheme provides free delivery, transportation, medicines, diagnostics, and diets in public healthcare facilities for pregnant women and sick newborns.
Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN): Launched in 2019, it ensures free, respectful, and quality healthcare for all pregnant women and newborns, aiming to eliminate preventable deaths.
Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA): Introduced in 2016, this program provides free antenatal care on the 9th of every month, with a focus on high-risk pregnancies.
The e-PMSMA extension offers individual tracking for high-risk pregnancies and provides financial incentives. As of March 2025, over 9 crore women have benefited from these initiatives.

Conclusion and the Way Forward:

India has made impressive strides in reducing maternal mortality, meeting the NHP target of an MMR below 100 per 100,000 live births by 2020.
However, achieving the SDG target of MMR below 70 by 2030 requires continued efforts.
Strengthening healthcare infrastructure, expanding maternal health programs, and addressing socio-economic barriers will be pivotal to further reducing maternal mortality in the country.
India’s maternal health journey showcases the vital role of comprehensive policies and targeted interventions in improving maternal health outcomes.
Further attention to high-MMR states, ensuring equitable access to healthcare, and continued investments in maternal health programs are essential for continued progress in this area.

Consider the following statements regarding the latest Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) data in India:

The Maternal Mortality Ratio in India decreased from 103 per 100,000 live births (2017–19) to 93 per 100,000 live births (2019–21).
Madhya Pradesh, Assam, and Uttar Pradesh have the highest MMRs in India as per the latest available data.
India has successfully achieved the SDG target for MMR of 70 per 100,000 live births by 2030.
The National Health Policy 2017 set an MMR target of below 100 per 100,000 live births by the year 2020.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Correct: The MMR in India decreased from 103 (2017–19) to 93 (2019–21).
Correct: Madhya Pradesh, Assam, and Uttar Pradesh have among the highest MMRs.
Incorrect: India has not yet achieved the SDG target of an MMR below 70 by 2030; it still needs further progress.
Correct: The National Health Policy (NHP) 2017 set the target for MMR to be below 100 per 100,000 live births by 2020.

Axions and HAYSTAC Experiment

Syllabus:Science and Technology

The latest results from the HAYSTAC experiment, published in Physical Review Letters, represent a major technological milestone in the global search for axions, hypothetical particles that may constitute dark matter. While the experiment did not detect axions, it substantially expanded the parameter space—the range of possible masses and coupling strengths—thereby advancing the precision of dark matter research.

What Are Axions?

Origin: Axions were first proposed in the late 1970s to resolve the Strong CP Problem in Quantum Chromodynamics (QCD)—the unexplained absence of CP violation in strong nuclear interactions.
Mechanism: The axion dynamically adjusts the theta (θ) parameter of QCD to nearly zero, effectively eliminating CP violation in the strong interaction sector.
Dark Matter Role: Beyond their theoretical origins, axions are now considered one of the most compelling cold dark matter (CDM) candidates due to their:
Neutrality (no electromagnetic charge),
Tiny mass,
Extremely weak interactions with ordinary matter and radiation.
Cosmological models suggest that axions, if they exist, could have been non-thermally produced in the early universe, leading to a relic density matching observed dark matter abundance (~85% of all matter).

What is HAYSTAC?

HAYSTAC (Haloscope At Yale Sensitive To Axion Cold dark matter) is a pioneering collaboration among Yale University, UC Berkeley, and Johns Hopkins University aimed at direct axion detection.

Key Features:

Haloscope Design: Developed by physicist Pierre Sikivie, a haloscope uses a microwave cavity placed within a strong magnetic field. It searches for the extremely faint conversion of axions into photons (via the Primakoff effect).
Phase II Achievements:
Conducted the widest frequency scan to date in search of axion signatures.
Introduced quantum squeezing techniques to suppress quantum noise, improving sensitivity in detecting ultra-weak signals.

What is Quantum Squeezing?

Concept: A method from quantum optics that manipulates the Heisenberg uncertainty principle by reducing uncertainty (noise) in one variable (e.g., electric field amplitude) at the cost of increasing it in the conjugate variable (e.g., phase).
Relevance to HAYSTAC: Enhances the signal-to-noise ratio, enabling detection of rare events like axion-photon conversion that would otherwise be buried under quantum fluctuations.
Also Used In: Advanced LIGO, which uses quantum squeezing to detect gravitational waves.

Significance of HAYSTAC

While no axions were detected, HAYSTAC narrowed the theoretical window for axion properties, helping eliminate regions of the parameter space.
Demonstrates quantum-enhanced precision in experimental physics, potentially influencing a broader array of fundamental research areas.

With reference to Axions and the HAYSTAC experiment, consider the following statements:

Axions were originally proposed to explain the observed CP violation in weak interactions within the Standard Model.
HAYSTAC is designed to detect axions by converting them into photons using a strong magnetic field inside a microwave cavity.
Quantum squeezing, used in HAYSTAC, is based on manipulating quantum uncertainty to enhance signal detection in low-noise environments.
The HAYSTAC experiment confirmed axions as the primary constituent of dark matter within the explored parameter range.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect:Axions were proposed to solve the Strong CP problem in Quantum Chromodynamics (QCD), not CP violation in weak interactions. Weak CP violation is explained by the CKM matrix in the Standard Model.
Statement 2 – Correct:The HAYSTAC experiment uses a haloscope to detect axions by observing their conversion to photons in a strong magnetic field—an experimental design based on the Primakoff effect.
Statement 3 – Correct:Quantum squeezing is an advanced quantum optics technique that reduces noise in one observable (like amplitude or phase), improving signal-to-noise ratio—critical in detecting extremely weak signals like axions.
Statement 4 – Incorrect:No axions were detected in the experiment. The parameter space was expanded, but axions were not confirmed within the explored mass range.

Microbial Phosphorus Gatekeeping

Syllabus:Science

A recent study published in Nature Geoscience has provided critical insights into the long-term role of soil microbes in phosphorus (P) cycling, based on a 700,000-year chronosequence from the Cooloola coastal dune system in Queensland’s Cooloola National Park, Australia.

Ecological Significance of Phosphorus

Phosphorus is an indispensable macronutrient essential for:
Energy metabolism (e.g., ATP and ADP cycles),
Cell membrane structure (via phospholipids),
Photosynthetic and genetic functions (key component of DNA, RNA, and nucleotides).
In ancient, highly weathered soils—such as those prevalent in Australia—phosphorus is frequently the most limiting nutrient due to prolonged mineral leaching and degradation. This constraint severely influences ecosystem productivity and succession.

Key Findings of the Study

The research identifies soil microbes, particularly bacteria and fungi, as pivotal actors in regulating phosphorus availability through multiple biochemical strategies. These microbes function as “phosphorus gatekeepers” by controlling the access, retention, and recycling of phosphorus in soil ecosystems.

Microbial Adaptive Mechanisms in Low-P Environments:

Membrane substitution: Replacement of phosphorus-containing phospholipids with non-phosphorus lipids (e.g., sulfolipids or glycolipids) to conserve P.
Lipid storage: Accumulation of phosphorus-free microbial fats, thereby lowering cellular P demand.
Enhanced efficiency: Optimization of metabolic phosphorus-use efficiency, allowing survival under severe nutrient limitations.

Plant–Microbe Interactions in Phosphorus Dynamics

The study underscores a dual relationship between microbes and plants in phosphorus cycling:
Competition: Both microbes and plants directly compete for scarce phosphorus resources.
Facilitation: Microbes simultaneously assist plants by decomposing organic matter and recycling phosphorus, enhancing its long-term availability in the rhizosphere.

Implications

The findings have significant implications for understanding nutrient cycling in nutrient-poor ecosystems, improving soil fertility management, and developing microbial biofertilizer strategies for sustainable agriculture, especially in phosphorus-deficient regions.

Consider the following statements regarding the role of soil microbes in phosphorus cycling, based on a recent study published in Nature Geoscience about the Cooloola coastal dune system in Australia:

Soil microbes, particularly fungi and bacteria, regulate the availability of phosphorus in soil ecosystems by acting as ‘phosphorus gatekeepers’.
In phosphorus-scarce environments, microbes replace phosphorus-containing phospholipids with non-phosphorus lipids to conserve phosphorus.
The study suggests that soil microbes play a role in increasing phosphorus availability to plants by decomposing organic matter and facilitating its recycling.
Phosphorus is not considered a limiting nutrient in ancient and weathered soils due to the continuous replenishment of phosphorus through weathering processes.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as the study identified microbes as key “phosphorus gatekeepers” controlling phosphorus cycling.
Statement 2 is correct as microbes use non-phosphorus lipids to reduce phosphorus demand.
Statement 3 is correct as the study found that microbes help plants by recycling phosphorus.
Statement 4 is incorrect since phosphorus is a limiting nutrient in ancient soils due to depletion through weathering, not continuously replenished.

Ferroelectricity

Syllabus:Science

Researchers at Oak Ridge National Laboratory (ORNL) have developed a groundbreaking technique to visualize the dynamics of domain walls with unprecedented detail.

Fundamentals of Ferroelectricity

Ferroelectricity refers to the ability of certain non-conducting crystals or dielectrics to exhibit spontaneous electric polarization, where the positive and negative charge centers separate, creating a region with a positive charge on one side and a negative charge on the other. This polarization can be reversed by applying an external electric field.
The term “ferroelectric” is inspired by “ferromagnetism,” where magnetic domains spontaneously align. Similarly, in ferroelectrics, electric dipoles spontaneously align within domains. Some well-known examples of ferroelectric materials include barium titanate (BaTiO₃) and Rochelle salt.
Ferroelectric domains are regions where dipoles are aligned, and these domains can be reoriented by applying strong electric fields. The delay in the reorientation of these domains, known as ferroelectric hysteresis, is analogous to the behavior observed in ferromagnetic materials. Ferroelectricity disappears above a critical temperature, known as the Curie Temperature, where thermal motion disrupts dipole alignment.

Domain Walls in Ferroelectrics

Domain walls are the boundaries that separate regions with different polarizations within a ferroelectric material. These walls often exhibit distinct electrical or magnetic properties compared to the domains they separate. For example, some domain walls may become electrically conductive, even though the bulk material is non-conductive, or may display magnetic properties, even if the domain itself is non-magnetic.
These unique characteristics make domain walls promising candidates for use in nanoelectronic components, such as memory devices, sensors, and signal processing systems in low-power electronics.

New Visualization Technique by ORNL

The new technique, named Scanning Oscillator Piezoresponse Force Microscopy (SO-PFM), enables the detection of both slow and rapid movements of domain walls under fluctuating electric fields. Unlike traditional methods, which provide only static snapshots of domain wall positions, SO-PFM offers dynamic visualizations, capturing how domain walls evolve in real-time.
This breakthrough technique uses precision-timed control electronics coupled with atomic force microscopy (AFM) to monitor the real-time movement of domain walls, a capability that was not previously achievable. The new method allows researchers to observe the dynamics of domain walls and measure the energy required to move them, opening new avenues for understanding and harnessing the behavior of ferroelectric materials.

With reference to the recent advancements in ferroelectric domain wall visualization and the fundamental properties of ferroelectrics, consider the following statements:

Ferroelectricity in materials refers to the alignment of electric dipoles in domains, which can be reversed by applying an external electric field, similar to the alignment of magnetic dipoles in ferromagnetic materials.
The newly developed Scanning Oscillator Piezoresponse Force Microscopy (SO-PFM) technique allows for the visualization of static snapshots of domain wall behavior, offering insights into the hysteresis phenomena associated with ferroelectrics.
Ferroelectric domain walls exhibit distinct properties, such as potential conductivity or magnetism, even if the bulk of the material itself is non-conductive or non-magnetic, making them suitable for future nanoelectronic applications.
The Curie Temperature is the critical temperature below which ferroelectric properties vanish due to the disruption of dipole alignment by thermal motion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: C. 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Ferroelectricity refers to the spontaneous alignment of electric dipoles in domains, which can be reversed by applying an external electric field. This is analogous to ferromagnetism.
Statement 2 is incorrect. SO-PFM allows for dynamic visualization of domain wall movements, not just static snapshots, providing insights into real-time dynamics and the energy involved in domain wall movement.
Statement 3 is correct. Ferroelectric domain walls can exhibit unique properties, such as electrical conductivity or magnetism, which are useful for nanoelectronics.
Statement 4 is correct. The Curie Temperature is indeed the temperature above which ferroelectric properties vanish due to thermal agitation disrupting dipole alignment.

Active Galactic Nucleus (AGN)

Syllabus:Science and Technology

Astronomers from the Russian Academy of Sciences have identified 11 new Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs) during an all-sky X-ray survey conducted with the Spektr-RG (SRG) space observatory. The findings emerged from the optical and X-ray analysis of sources listed in the ARTSS1-5 catalog, utilizing the ART-XC telescope onboard SRG.

What are Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs)?

AGNs are extremely luminous, compact regions located at the centers of galaxies. Their high-energy emissions—often exceeding that of the rest of the galaxy—originate primarily from:
Accretion of matter by supermassive black holes, or
Intense star formation activity.
AGNs play a vital role in astrophysics by offering insights into the formation, evolution, and energetic processes of galaxies.

Key Findings:

Redshift Range: All 11 AGNs are located at redshifts between 028 and 0.258, indicating relatively nearby cosmic distances.
X-ray Luminosity: Their luminosities range from 2 × 10³⁹ to 3 × 10⁴¹ erg/s, consistent with known AGN energy profiles.

Classification: Seyfert Galaxies

All AGNs were identified as Seyfert galaxies, a subclass of AGNs known for their bright cores and strong emissions in X-ray and infrared spectra.

Breakdown:

7 AGNs: Seyfert Type 1 (Sy 1) – Broad optical emission lines.
3 AGNs: Seyfert Type 1.9 (Sy 1.9) – Partially broadened emission lines.
1 AGN: Seyfert Type 2 (Sy 2) – Narrow emission lines only.
Seyfert galaxies often resemble normal galaxies in visible light but display powerful radiation signatures due to active supermassive black holes at their centers.

With reference to Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs) and their recent detection by the Spektr-RG (SRG) observatory, consider the following statements:

AGNs are among the most luminous sources in the universe, primarily due to nuclear fusion processes occurring at the galactic core.
The ART-XC telescope aboard Spektr-RG is capable of conducting high-energy X-ray observations used for AGN classification.
Seyfert Type 1 galaxies exhibit only narrow emission lines, while Seyfert Type 2 galaxies show broad emission lines.
All 11 newly detected AGNs lie within redshifts less than 0.3, indicating relatively close proximity in cosmological terms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The luminosity of AGNs arises primarily due to accretion of matter into a supermassive black hole, not from nuclear fusion like in stars.
Statement 2 is correct: The ART-XC telescope is indeed designed for X-ray astronomy and is used in AGN detection and classification.
Statement 3 is incorrect: This reverses the characteristics. Seyfert Type 1 galaxies have broad emission lines, while Type 2 show narrow lines.
Statement 4 is correct: All detected AGNs have redshifts between 0.028 and 0.258, placing them in the nearby universe on a cosmic scale.

Atomiser

Syllabus:Chemistry

Context:

The atomiser—a critical but often underappreciated device—plays a transformative role across industrial, medical, environmental, and safety applications. From aerosol-based therapies to firefighting systems, its utility spans numerous fields.

What is an Atomiser?

An atomiser is a mechanical device designed to break liquids into fine droplets, forming a mist or spray. This transformation enhances the liquid’s spreadability and utility by improving surface coverage and ease of application.

Working Principle:

Atomisers operate on the principle of disintegrating a liquid into droplets using mechanisms such as pressure-drop (forcing liquid through a narrow orifice), turbulence (inducing chaotic flow to fragment the liquid), and external forces (including air pressure or vibration).

Types of Atomisers:

Pressure-swirl Atomisers: Generate a vortex to spray liquid in conical patterns.
Air-assisted Atomisers: Utilize compressed air to shear the liquid into fine mist.
Ultrasonic Atomisers: Employ high-frequency vibrations to produce ultra-fine nano-droplets.
Narrow-channel Atomisers: Use geometric constrictions to produce sprays through pressure and flow manipulation.

Key Features:

Droplet Size: Tuned to application—finer for aerosols, coarser for coatings.
Spray Pattern: Configurable as flat, circular, or conical, depending on use.
Application Angle: Optimized for targeted efficiency.
Relative Span Factor (RSF): A measure of uniformity in droplet size; values closer to 1 indicate higher precision.
Customisability: Adjustable for pressure, flow rate, particle size, and spray geometry.

Applications of Atomisers:

Industry: Fuel injection systems, machinery lubrication, spray drying in pharmaceuticals and food processing.
Agriculture: Efficient pesticide and fertilizer application, precision irrigation in arid and nutrient-poor soils.
Healthcare: Inhalation therapies (e.g., asthma medications), disinfectant and pain-relief sprays.
Disaster Management & Public Safety: Foam-based firefighting systems, aerosol-based sanitation during pandemics.
Domestic and Environmental Use: Household products like deodorants and cleaners, environmental research involving aerosol dispersion modeling.

Conclusion:

The atomiser’s ability to transform liquids into controlled sprays has made it indispensable in a wide range of disciplines. Its adaptability in scale, droplet precision, and pattern makes it a foundational tool in both high-tech industries and everyday applications.

With reference to atomisers and their multidisciplinary applications, consider the following statements:

Ultrasonic atomisers rely on piezoelectric materials to generate high-frequency vibrations capable of producing nano-sized droplets without involving thermal energy.
Relative Span Factor (RSF) is directly proportional to the uniformity of droplet size in spray applications.
In agrochemical delivery, atomisers operating under high pressure with narrow-angle conical sprays are preferred to minimize off-target drift and maximize canopy penetration.
The use of atomisers in climate science is limited to modeling tropospheric water vapor dispersion and has no relevance in aerosol-cloud interaction studies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: Ultrasonic atomisers employ piezoelectric materials to create high-frequency vibrations, generating nano-sized droplets without applying heat. This makes them ideal for delicate applications such as pharmaceutical aerosols and inhalable medications.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: Relative Span Factor (RSF) is a measure of droplet size uniformity. A lower RSF (closer to 1) indicates higher uniformity, meaning the droplets are of similar size. Therefore, RSF is inversely proportional to uniformity, not directly.
Statement 3 – Correct: In agrochemical spraying, narrow-angle conical sprays generated under high pressure enhance canopy penetration while minimizing off-target drift, a critical factor in precision agriculture and environmental protection.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: The use of atomisers in climate science extends well beyond modeling water vapor dispersion. They are vital in aerosol-cloud interaction research, including studies on cloud condensation nuclei, radiative forcing, and precipitation processes, all of which are key to understanding climate dynamics.

WHO Pandemic Agreement

Syllabus:Health

What is it:

A legally binding international treaty under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution. This is only the second such treaty after the 2003 Framework Convention on Tobacco Control.

Aim:

To ensure equitable access to vaccines, diagnostics, and treatments, and to establish a coordinated global response system for future pandemics.

Key Highlights:

Adopted by 124 countries with 11 abstentions.Becomes enforceable after ratification by 60 countries.
WHO cannot enforce national laws; member states retain full sovereignty. The United States withdrew from negotiations under previous administration policies.

Why It’s Needed:

The COVID-19 pandemic exposed critical failures in global cooperation and fairness.
An estimated one million deaths could have been prevented with equitable vaccine distribution.
Disparities widened as wealthier nations secured most vaccine supplies, leaving others behind.
Core Provisions Mandatory sharing of pathogen samples and data. Pharmaceutical companies must provide ten percent of vaccine output free and ten percent at low cost to low-income countries.
Support for local vaccine production through technology transfer.Vaccine allocation based on public health needs rather than geopolitical interests.
Establishment of global supply chains and emergency funding mechanisms.
Countries must guarantee public access to innovations developed with public funds.
Emphasis on the One Health approach connecting human, animal, and environmental health.

Significance:

Strengthens international health cooperation Promotes fair access to life-saving tools Improves pandemic preparedness and early response Protects low- and middle-income countries Maintains balance between national autonomy and global coordination

With reference to the recently adopted WHO-led international pandemic treaty, consider the following statements:

The treaty is the first legally binding international agreement under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution.
Ratification by at least 60 member states is required for the treaty to come into force.
Under its provisions, pharmaceutical companies are obligated to provide 20 percent of vaccine output either free of cost or at low cost to low-income countries.
The treaty establishes enforceable supranational powers for the WHO, superseding national legal frameworks during pandemics.
The treaty mandates a One Health approach, integrating human, animal, and environmental health dimensions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 5 only
B. 2, 3, and 5 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B. 2, 3, and 5 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The treaty is legally binding under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution, but it is not the first such treaty. The Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC), adopted in 2003, was the first. This pandemic treaty is the second.
Statement 2 is correct. The treaty becomes enforceable after ratification by at least 60 countries.
Statement 3 is correct. The treaty mandates that 10 percent of vaccine output be provided free of cost and another 10 percent at an affordable or low cost to low-income countries. Together, this makes up 20 percent, but it is not entirely free or low cost as a single category. The statement’s phrasing is acceptable for a correct answer under UPSC norms.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The WHO does not gain supranational enforcement powers under the treaty. Member states retain full sovereignty, and the WHO cannot override national legal frameworks.
Statement 5 is correct. The treaty emphasizes the One Health approach, which integrates human, animal, and environmental health as part of global pandemic preparedness.
Therefore, the correct statements are 2, 3, and 5.

Liquid Carbon

Syllabus:Chemistry

Overview:

For the first time, scientists have successfully observed the atomic structure of liquid carbon, using advanced techniques involving the DIPOLE 100-X high-power laser and ultrashort X-ray pulses from the European XFEL (X-ray Free Electron Laser) in Germany. This marks a significant milestone in high-energy material science and planetary physics.

What Is Liquid Carbon?

Liquid carbon refers to the transient molten phase of carbon, which exists only under extreme conditions of temperature (~4500°C) and pressure. Under normal circumstances, carbon exists as:
Solid allotropes (e.g., graphite, diamond)
Gaseous compounds (e.g., CO₂)
This liquid phase is crucial for:
Modelling carbon-rich exoplanetary cores
Understanding high-energy astrophysical environments
Investigating material behavior under extreme laser interactions, relevant to nuclear fusion research

Why Is It Challenging to Study?

Unlike many elements, carbon sublimates at normal atmospheric pressure—directly transitioning from solid to gas—making it virtually impossible to study its liquid form in a laboratory. Additionally:
It forms only under intense pressures and temperatures
No conventional containment system can withstand these conditions
The liquid state exists for mere nanoseconds, requiring ultrafast diagnostic tools

Experimental Technique

To overcome these barriers:
The DIPOLE 100-X laser generated shock compression waves, briefly converting solid carbon into liquid
Within a billionth of a second, European XFEL’s X-ray pulses diffracted off the sample’s atoms
The resulting X-ray diffraction patterns revealed the atomic structure
Repeating the experiment at varying intervals enabled a time-resolved sequence or “movie” of the solid-to-liquid transition

Key Discoveries

Structure: Liquid carbon exhibits a tetrahedral configuration—with four nearest atomic neighbors—resembling solid diamond
Validation: The findings confirmed theoretical predictions and provided a precise estimate of carbon’s melting point under high-pressure conditions

Implications

Planetary Science: Enhances understanding of deep planetary interiors, especially carbon-rich exoplanets and early Earth models
Fusion Research: Informs the design of carbon-based materials used in extreme-temperature environments, such as fusion reactors
Fundamental Physics: Contributes to the broader understanding of phase transitions in high-energy-density systems

Which of the following factors make experimental observation of liquid carbon uniquely difficult?

Its liquid phase exists only at extremely high pressure and temperature.
Its rapid vaporization causes interference with optical diagnostics.
Conventional laboratory containers cannot withstand the required experimental conditions.
It has a permanent liquid phase in the upper mantle of the Earth.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct – liquid carbon forms only under extreme conditions.
Statement 2 is plausible due to rapid phase change causing diagnostic challenges.
Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 4 is incorrect—carbon does not exist in a liquid state in the Earth’s mantle due to insufficient pressure-temperature conditions.

Intercrystals

Syllabus:Chemistry

Researchers at Rutgers University–New Brunswick have discovered a new class of materials called intercrystals, which exhibit unique electronic properties with potential applications in future technologies.

What Are Intercrystals?

Intercrystals are formed by stacking two layers of twisted graphene on top of hexagonal boron nitride (h-BN), producing moiré patterns that profoundly influence electron behavior. This design leverages the concept of “twistronics,” where ultrathin atomic layers are slightly rotated to create moiré superlattices. The misalignment between these layers gives rise to new electronic phases not observed in conventional crystals. This discovery builds on the team’s earlier work from 2009, which first demonstrated the unusual electronic properties of twisted graphene.

Structural Properties of Intercrystals

Regular crystals have repeating atomic arrangements with symmetry under certain translations or rotations.
Quasicrystals, identified in 1982, possess ordered but non-repeating atomic structures, challenging classical crystallography.
Intercrystals blend these characteristics by exhibiting non-repeating atomic patterns like quasicrystals, yet preserving some crystalline symmetries. This unique structure creates geometric frustration, enabling the emergence of novel quantum phases.

Unique Electronic Characteristics:

In intercrystals, electronic properties vary significantly even with slight structural changes, a feature uncommon in traditional materials. They exhibit new quantum phenomena, including superconductivity (where electrical resistance drops to zero), magnetism, and other exotic quantum electronic states.

Consider the following statements about intercrystals:

Intercrystals are formed by stacking twisted layers of graphene on hexagonal boron nitride (h-BN), resulting in moiré superlattices that modify electron behavior.
Intercrystals exhibit a completely repeating atomic pattern similar to regular crystals but differ in their electronic properties.
The phenomenon underlying intercrystals, known as twistronics, exploits the relative angular rotation between atomic layers to induce novel quantum phases such as superconductivity and magnetism.
Quasicrystals and intercrystals both display non-repeating atomic arrangements, but only intercrystals retain some crystalline symmetries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct — intercrystals are formed by stacking twisted graphene on h-BN, producing moiré patterns.
Statement 2 is incorrect — intercrystals do not have completely repeating atomic patterns; they exhibit non-repeating patterns like quasicrystals.
Statement 3 is correct — twistronics involves angular rotation between layers to induce novel quantum phases like superconductivity and magnetism.
Statement 4 is correct — both quasicrystals and intercrystals have non-repeating atomic arrangements, but intercrystals preserve certain crystalline symmetries, unlike quasicrystals.

WHO Recognises 4 Nations for Trans Fat Elimination

Syllabus:Health

Context:

The World Health Organization (WHO) has recognized Austria, Norway, Oman, and

Singapore for successfully eliminating industrially produced trans fats from their national food supplies, setting a benchmark in public health policy.

Understanding Trans Fats – Definition: Trans-fatty acids (TFAs) are a type of unsaturated fat.
They occur in two forms: Naturally Occurring Trans Fats: Found in small quantities in red meat and dairy products.
Industrially Produced Trans Fats: Created during hydrogenation, a chemical process that converts liquid vegetable oils into solid fats (e.g., partially hydrogenated oils or PHOs).
Common Sources: Processed & fried foods (biscuits, cakes, vanaspati ghee), baked goods (pies, pastries, prepackaged dough), and cooking fats (shortening, stick margarine).
Health Risks Associated with Trans Fats – Cardiovascular Disease: Increases LDL (bad cholesterol), decreases HDL (good cholesterol), leads to arterial plaque buildup and atherosclerosis, increasing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
Metabolic Disorders: Contributes to obesity due to high energy density (9 kcal/g), and prolonged consumption impairs insulin sensitivity, leading to type 2 diabetes.
Global Burden: WHO (2024) estimates 278,000 deaths annually from trans-fat consumption, accounting for ~7% of cardiovascular-related deaths globally.
Policy Interventions – WHO Global Strategy (2018): Aims to eliminate industrial trans fats globally by 2025, targeting 90% global and 70% regional population coverage with best-practice policies.
India’s Regulatory Framework: FSSAI Regulation (2021) mandates edible oils and fats to contain less than 2% trans fats, effective from January 2022, aligning with WHO guidelines.

Conclusion:

Eliminating industrial trans fats is a critical public health intervention that significantly reduces non-communicable disease burdens.
WHO’s recognition highlights the importance of regulatory enforcement, intergovernmental collaboration, and public engagement in creating a trans-fat-free food environment.

Which of the following statements about industrially produced trans fats is/are correct?

They are formed through the hydrogenation process which converts liquid oils into solid fats.
They occur naturally in small quantities in red meat and dairy products.
Partially hydrogenated oils (PHOs) are a major source of industrial trans fats.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1: “They are formed through the hydrogenation process which converts liquid oils into solid fats. “This is correct. Industrially produced trans fats are primarily created through partial hydrogenation, a chemical process that turns liquid vegetable oils into semi-solid or solid fats.
Statement 2: “They occur naturally in small quantities in red meat and dairy products.”This statement refers to naturally occurring trans fats, not industrially produced ones. Therefore, this is incorrect in the context of industrially produced trans fats.
Statement 3: “Partially hydrogenated oils (PHOs) are a major source of industrial trans fats.”This is correct as a fact, but the question asks which statements about industrially produced trans fats are correct. PHOs are the source of industrial trans fats, so the statement is factually true. However, because the second statement incorrectly attributes natural trans fats to industrially produced trans fats, the combination including statement 2 is invalid.

Niallia tiangongensis

Syllabus:Science

Chinese scientists have identified a new bacterial species, Niallia tiangongensis, onboard the Tiangong Space Station, highlighting the station’s growing role in space-based microbiological and scientific research.

About Tiangong Space Station:

Name Meaning: “Tiangong” translates to Sky Palace.
Operator: Exclusively Chinese-owned and operated.
Orbit: Permanently crewed space station in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
Program Milestone: Represents the third and final phase of China’s Manned Space Program.

Launch Timeline:

Core Module (Tianhe): Launched in April 2021.
Followed earlier prototypes Tiangong-1 and Tiangong-2.

Structure and Capacity:

Modules:

Tianhe (core)
Wentian and Mengtian (science labs)
Future addition: Xuntian space telescope (planned).

Size Comparison:

Tiangong has 3 modules 16 on the ISS.
Roughly 20% the mass of the ISS (Tiangong ≈ 90 tons vs. ISS ≈ 450 tons).

Crew:

Supports 3 astronauts for 6-month missions.
Can host 6 astronauts during crew transitions.

Objectives:

Maintain a long-term orbital presence.
Ensure astronaut health and safety over extended missions.
Enable advanced scientific and technological experiments in microgravity.

Research Capabilities:

Functions as an in-orbit laboratory.
Equipped with 23 internal experiment racks across disciplines such as:
Space life sciences & biotechnology
Microgravity fluid physics & combustion
Space-based materials science
Fundamental physics under microgravity
Supports external, unpressurised experimental platforms for space environment exposure.
This discovery underscores Tiangong’s increasing contribution to global space science, especially in microbiology and biotechnology research in extraterrestrial environments.

With reference to Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD), consider the following statements:

The heritability estimate for ASD, as per contemporary research, exceeds 80%, suggesting a stronger genetic component than environmental triggers.
While ASD typically manifests before the age of three, it is often underdiagnosed in early childhood due to socio-cultural biases and limited clinical infrastructure, especially in developing regions.
The hypothesis linking vaccines to autism originated from a peer-reviewed study that was later substantiated through meta-analyses involving multiple global health agencies.
Though classical Ayurvedic texts by Charaka and Sushruta do not identify ASD per se, their diagnostic frameworks acknowledged neurodevelopmental anomalies under conditions such as “Unmada” and “Apasmara”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: Studies like Tick et al. (JAMA, 2016) have estimated ASD heritability to be as high as 91%, indicating a strong genetic basis.
Statement 2 – Correct: In many countries, especially in resource-limited or culturally stigmatized environments, ASD remains underdiagnosed in early years.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: The vaccine-autism link originated from a fraudulent study by Andrew Wakefield in 1998, which was later retracted. Multiple large-scale studies and reviews (e.g., WHO, CDC, Lancet) have conclusively refuted this hypothesis.
Statement 4 – Correct: While ancient texts did not describe ASD in modern clinical terms, certain conditions like Unmada (mental imbalance) and Apasmara (epileptic-like conditions) may reflect rudimentary recognitions of neurodevelopmental disorders.

Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG)

Syllabus:Science

Latest News:

India has detected one case of the newly emerging COVID-19 variant NB.1.8.1 and four cases of the LF.7 variant, as reported by the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG).

About INSACOG:

The Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) was established in December 2020 by the Government of India. It is a collaborative initiative involving the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), the Council for Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

Structure & Function:

Comprises a network of 54 laboratories across India.
Conducts genomic surveillance of SARS-CoV-2 through sentinel sequencing, coordinated by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) in Delhi.
Integrated with the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP).

Evolving Mandate:

Initially focused on tracking variants among international travellers, INSACOG now emphasizes early detection of variants emerging within India and monitoring unusual epidemiological trends.

Key Objectives:

Early identification of SARS-CoV-2 variants of public health concern through nationwide genomic surveillance.
Detection of variants in special scenarios such as vaccine breakthrough infections, super spreader events, and areas with high morbidity or mortality.
Integration of genomic data with epidemiological insights.
Recommending public health interventions based on surveillance findings.

Significance:

INSACOG’s work helps to uncover links between emerging variants and outbreaks, guiding strategies to interrupt transmission chains and strengthen the nation’s public health response.

With reference to the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG), consider the following statements:

INSACOG was jointly established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Indian Council of Medical Research to study the immunological response of COVID-19 vaccines in high-risk populations.
It functions under the coordination of the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) and focuses exclusively on variants found in international travellers.
One of the key mandates of INSACOG is to integrate genomic surveillance data with epidemiological trends to inform public health interventions.
INSACOG includes over 50 laboratories across India and utilizes sentinel surveillance as part of its genomic monitoring strategy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: INSACOG was established not to study vaccine immunology but to monitor genomic variations in SARS-CoV-2. It was initiated by the Ministry of Health along with DBT, CSIR, and ICMR.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Although it initially focused on international travellers, its mandate has evolved to include domestic variant detection and integration with epidemiological trends.
Statement 3 is correct: INSACOG does integrate genomic data with epidemiological surveillance to guide public health actions.
Statement 4 is correct: INSACOG comprises 54 laboratories and uses sentinel surveillance for tracking genomic variants.

Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG)

Syllabus:Science

Latest News:

India has detected one case of the newly emerging COVID-19 variant NB.1.8.1 and four cases of the LF.7 variant, as reported by the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG).

About INSACOG:

The Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) was established in December 2020 by the Government of India. It is a collaborative initiative involving the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), the Council for Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

Structure & Function:

Comprises a network of 54 laboratories across India.
Conducts genomic surveillance of SARS-CoV-2 through sentinel sequencing, coordinated by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) in Delhi.
Integrated with the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP).

Evolving Mandate:

Initially focused on tracking variants among international travellers, INSACOG now emphasizes early detection of variants emerging within India and monitoring unusual epidemiological trends.

Key Objectives:

Early identification of SARS-CoV-2 variants of public health concern through nationwide genomic surveillance.
Detection of variants in special scenarios such as vaccine breakthrough infections, super spreader events, and areas with high morbidity or mortality.
Integration of genomic data with epidemiological insights.
Recommending public health interventions based on surveillance findings.

Significance:

INSACOG’s work helps to uncover links between emerging variants and outbreaks, guiding strategies to interrupt transmission chains and strengthen the nation’s public health response.

With reference to the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG), consider the following statements:

INSACOG was jointly established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Indian Council of Medical Research to study the immunological response of COVID-19 vaccines in high-risk populations.
It functions under the coordination of the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) and focuses exclusively on variants found in international travellers.
One of the key mandates of INSACOG is to integrate genomic surveillance data with epidemiological trends to inform public health interventions.
INSACOG includes over 50 laboratories across India and utilizes sentinel surveillance as part of its genomic monitoring strategy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: INSACOG was established not to study vaccine immunology but to monitor genomic variations in SARS-CoV-2. It was initiated by the Ministry of Health along with DBT, CSIR, and ICMR.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Although it initially focused on international travellers, its mandate has evolved to include domestic variant detection and integration with epidemiological trends.
Statement 3 is correct: INSACOG does integrate genomic data with epidemiological surveillance to guide public health actions.
Statement 4 is correct: INSACOG comprises 54 laboratories and uses sentinel surveillance for tracking genomic variants.

Coal Sector in India: A Strategic Engine for Sustainable Growth and Global Leadership

Syllabus: GS3/Energy

Importance and Current Status

Coal has been the cornerstone of India’s energy sector, powering industries, electricity generation, and fueling economic growth
India ranks as the world’s 5th largest coal reserve holder and 2nd largest consumer. Despite the rise of renewables, coal remains critical—currently constituting about 47% of India’s installed power capacity, down from 60% in 2014–15.
In FY25, both production and dispatch of coal crossed the 1 billion tonne mark, underscoring its continued significance for energy security and cost-effective power supply.
The sector supports over 5 lakh workers across more than 350 coal mines, contributing substantially to employment and regional economies.

Strategic Significance

Energy Security: Coal generates nearly 47% of India’s electricity, with projections estimating it will still provide about 55% of power by 2030.
Industrial Backbone: The steel industry, reliant on coking coal, is poised to ramp up domestic coking coal production to 140 million tonnes by 2029–30 under the Mission Coking Coal initiative.
Economic Impact: Coal mining contributes over ₹70,000 crore annually via royalties, GST, and District Mineral Foundation funds.
Transport Revenues: Indian Railways derive 49% of their freight revenue from coal transport (FY 2022–23).
CSR and Community Development: Coal Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) invest over ₹600 crore annually in social initiatives including schools, hospitals, and skill centers in mining regions.

Geographical and Geological Profile

Gondwana Coal: About 98% of Indian coal reserves belong to the Gondwana formation, spread across Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, and others.
Major Coalfields: Key coal mining regions include the Damodar Valley (Jharia, Bokaro, Dhanbad), Son Valley (Singrauli), Mahanadi Valley (Korba, Talcher), Godavari and Wardha Valleys (Telangana, Maharashtra).
Coal Types: India’s coal ranges from anthracite (scarce), bituminous (most common, mainly for power), sub-bituminous (higher heating value), to lignite (low grade, used near mines).

Challenges Facing the Sector

Supply Constraints: Domestic production stagnation, transport bottlenecks, and reduced imports have occasionally led to coal shortages and power crises.
Environmental Concerns: Deforestation, air pollution, and carbon emissions pose sustainability challenges. Transition to cleaner coal technologies like gasification remains gradual.
Import Dependency: Despite large reserves, India still imports coal, making it vulnerable to global price volatility.
Infrastructure Bottlenecks: Overreliance on railways for coal transport causes congestion and delays.
Social Issues: Coal mining employs hundreds of thousands but struggles with worker safety, displacement, and inadequate rehabilitation.

Recent Reforms and Innovations

Commercial Coal Mining (2020): Opening coal mining to private players through auctions increased competition, production, and employment.
Coal Mines Special Provisions Act (CMSP Act 2015): Introduced transparent auctions after Supreme Court cancellations of allocations, boosting private participation.
SHAKTI Policy (2025 revision): Enhances flexibility and accessibility in coal allocation to meet rising energy demand.
Single Window E-Auction: Streamlines coal sales, ensuring fair pricing and reducing market distortions.
Revival of Abandoned Mines: Incentivizes private sector reopening of closed mines with a focus on environmental sustainability.
Underground Mining Push: Offers incentives to encourage private investment and advanced mining technologies underground.
Coal Gasification Drive: Targets gasifying 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030 to reduce carbon footprint, backed by fiscal support.
Digital Transformation: Launch of India’s first coal trading exchange, alongside the DigiCoal initiative integrating AI, 5G, drones, and digital twins for safer, efficient mining operations.
Future Vision: Viksit Bharat 2047:India aims to increase per capita electricity consumption from 1.10 MWh to global standards by 2047, supporting the vision of becoming a $35 trillion economy.
Coal will continue to play a pivotal role alongside growing renewable energy capacity, ensuring reliable, affordable, and sustainable energy access to power India’s development journey.

Consider the following statements regarding Medium Enterprises (MEs) in India’s MSME sector:

Medium enterprises constitute less than 1% of registered MSMEs but contribute nearly 40% of MSME exports.
Around 82% of medium enterprises have adopted advanced technologies such as AI and IoT, boosting their global competitiveness.
Medium enterprises generate significantly higher foreign exchange per unit compared to micro and small enterprises.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:Medium enterprises make up just 3% of registered MSMEs but contribute nearly 40% of MSME exports, highlighting their strategic importance in international trade.
Statement 2 – Incorrect:Contrary to the claim, around 82% of medium enterprises have not adopted advanced technologies such as AI, IoT, or digital automation. This lack of tech integration hampers their productivity and global competitiveness.
Statement 3 – Correct:Medium enterprises generate significantly higher foreign exchange per unit (₹95 crore) compared to small (₹8.3 crore) and micro (₹1.39 crore) units.

Mendel’s Work with Laws of Inheritance

Syllabus: GS3/Science and Technology

Context:

A recent international research collaboration has significantly advanced pea genome mapping, offering critical insights for crop improvement and reinforcing the foundations of classical genetics laid by Gregor Mendel.

About the Study:

Published in Nature, the study is a joint effort by the John Innes Centre (JIC) and the Chinese Academy of Agricultural Sciences (CAAS), along with institutions from the UK, USA, France, and China. It connects over 70 agronomic traits with corresponding genomic loci, providing a rich resource for genome-assisted breeding.

Key Contributions:

The team identified numerous genetic markers for each trait, enabling precision breeding to enhance yield, disease resistance, and agronomic performance.
The work revisits and validates several of Mendel’s original seven traits, revealing new genetic diversity and deepening our understanding of inheritance.

Significance:

The findings come amid a global push for sustainable agriculture and plant-based protein sources.
Peas, like other legumes, contribute to environmental sustainability by fixing atmospheric nitrogen, reducing dependence on synthetic fertilizers.
The study facilitates predictive breeding, integrating AI-driven models to identify optimal gene combinations, thereby modernizing traditional breeding techniques.

Mendel’s Historic Contribution:

Gregor Mendel, regarded as the father of genetics, conducted pioneering work on Pisum sativum (pea plant) over 150 years ago. He focused on seven distinct traits, including seed shape and flower color, due to their clear expression and inheritance patterns.

Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance:

Law of Segregation: Each parent contributes one allele for a trait; alleles segregate during gamete formation.
Law of Independent Assortment: Genes for different traits assort independently if located on different chromosomes.
Law of Dominance: In heterozygous conditions, the dominant allele masks the expression of the recessive allele.

Conclusion:

Mendel’s discoveries, initially unrecognized, were rediscovered in 1900 and have since become the cornerstone of classical genetics. This genomic study builds on Mendel’s legacy, demonstrating how modern genetic tools can enhance agricultural sustainability and food security in the 21st century.

Consider the following statements regarding recent research in pea genomics:

The study was a collaboration exclusively between UK and Chinese institutions.
The research connected over 70 agronomic traits with specific genomic loci.
The study holds significance for sustainable agriculture due to the nitrogen-fixing ability of peas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:(b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – The research involved institutions from China, UK, USA, and France, not just China and the UK.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct – The research mapped over 70 traits and promotes sustainability by advancing nitrogen-fixing crop development.

What are TR1 Cells?

Syllabus:ScienceBottom of Form

Recent scientific research has uncovered critical insights into the immune system’s response to malaria, spotlighting a previously underappreciated subset of immune cells known as TR1 cells.
Published in April 2025, the study emphasizes the pivotal role these cells play in orchestrating an effective immune defence against Plasmodium falciparum, the parasite responsible for the most severe form of malaria.
These findings carry profound implications for the development of next-generation vaccines and may reshape strategies for combating other persistent infectious diseases.
The human immune system comprises two principal arms—innate and adaptive immunity. Innate immunity offers immediate, non-specific protection, whereas adaptive immunity generates a targeted response and retains immunological memory, enabling a more robust reaction upon subsequent exposures to the same pathogen.
Within this adaptive framework, CD4+ T-cells are central players, further divided into multiple functional subsets, including helper T-cells that assist in activating B-cells and other immune mechanisms.
The research particularly focused on TR1 cells, a lesser-known subset of CD4+ T-cells, revealing their integral role in malaria immunity.
Conducted in Uganda, a region with endemic malaria transmission, the study examined children with repeated malaria infections.
Despite constituting only a small fraction of the total CD4+ T-cell population, TR1 cells were found to contribute significantly to the immune response.
The research employed cutting-edge methodologies, including single-cell RNA sequencing, enabling precise tracking of T-cell genetic barcodes over time.
This allowed researchers to monitor the expansion, longevity, and memory potential of TR1 cells during and after malaria episodes.
The longitudinal design of the study offered valuable insights into how TR1 cells respond dynamically and specifically to the malaria parasite. A key revelation was that TR1 cells exhibit robust long-term memory and sustain their functionality across successive infections.
Unlike other T-cell subsets, these cells demonstrated expansion upon reinfection, underscoring their specificity and adaptability in recognizing and responding to the pathogen.
The discovery opens new avenues for vaccine development, as targeting TR1 cells could enhance the effectiveness of immune responses elicited by immunization.
Rather than directly targeting the parasite, future vaccines and therapies might instead modulate the immune system by stimulating these highly responsive cells.
Beyond malaria, the insights derived from studying TR1 cells may inform immunological approaches to a broader range of infectious diseases.
The ability of TR1 cells to maintain memory and adaptability across multiple infections makes them a promising target for therapeutic interventions aimed at bolstering host immunity against complex pathogens.

With reference to TR1 cells recently studied in the context of malaria, consider the following statements:

TR1 cells are a subset of CD8+ T-cells that mediate cytotoxic responses in malaria infections.
TR1 cells exhibit immunological memory and expand upon reinfection with Plasmodium falciparum.
The function of TR1 cells was discovered using gene-editing techniques like CRISPR-Cas9.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: TR1 cells are a subset of CD4+ T-cells, not CD8+.
Statement 2 is correct: The study found that TR1 cells exhibit memory and expand on reinfection.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The study used single-cell RNA sequencing, not CRISPR-Cas9.

Sujata Chaturvedi Appointed As A UPSC Board Member

Syllabus:Polity

Sujata Chaturvedi, an experienced civil servant with over three decades of service, has been appointed as a Member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). Her appointment is considered a significant addition to the Commission, bringing extensive expertise in administration, sports, and policy formulation.

Why in the News?

On 1st May 2025, Ms. Sujata Chaturvedi, a 1989-batch IAS officer from the Bihar cadre, took charge as a Member of the UPSC. The oath of office and secrecy was administered by Lt. Gen. Raj Shukla (Retd.), the seniormost Member of the Commission.

Background & Career Highlights:

Batch and Cadre: Chaturvedi is a member of the 1989 batch of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Bihar cadre.
Educational Qualifications: She holds a postgraduate degree in History, an M.Phil in Public Administration, and a Diploma in Russian language. She graduated in English from Nagpur University.

Key Positions Held:

At the State Level (Bihar):
Principal Secretary, Department of Finance
Commercial Tax Commissioner
Secretary, Finance Department
Vice Chairman, Department of Urban Development

At the Central Government:

Secretary, Department of Sports, Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
Additional Secretary, Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)
Regional Deputy Director General, UIDAI

Major Contributions in the Department of Sports:

Successfully hosted significant events like the Khelo India Games, FIDE Chess Olympiad, and FIFA U-17 Women’s World Cup.
Spearheaded the creation of a National Sports Repository System.
Initiated the nationwide mapping of sports facilities.
Played a key role in the enactment of the Anti-Doping Bill, strengthening India’s anti-doping stance.

Language Proficiency:

Chaturvedi is fluent in several languages, including Hindi, English, Urdu, Russian, and Marathi.

Significance of Her UPSC Appointment:

Chaturvedi’s diverse policy experience is expected to bring a new dimension to the UPSC.
Her background in sports administration may offer fresh perspectives, particularly in the youth and development sectors.
She is also expected to enhance the civil services examination system and recruitment policies, contributing significantly to the functioning of the Commission.

Consider the following statements regarding Ms. Sujata Chaturvedi’s appointment as a Member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):

Sujata Chaturvedi is a 1989-batch IAS officer from the Bihar cadre.
She has served as the Secretary of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Chaturvedi was involved in the creation of a National Sports Repository System.
She is fluent in Hindi, English, Urdu, and Russian.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer:D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Ms. Sujata Chaturvedi is a 1989-batch IAS officer from the Bihar cadre.
Statement 2 is correct: She served as the Secretary of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Statement 3 is correct: She played a key role in the creation of a National Sports Repository System.
Statement 4 is correct: She is fluent in Hindi, English, Urdu, Russian, and Marathi.

Cabinet Hikes Sugarcane Price for 2025–26 Season

Syllabus:Polity

Why in the News:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for the 2025–26 sugar season at ₹355 per quintal, ensuring financial stability for sugarcane farmers and workers in the agro-based sugar sector.
Key Highlights: FRP fixed at ₹355/qtl for a basic recovery rate of 10.25%. Premium of ₹3.46/qtl for every 0.1% increase in recovery.
Deduction of ₹3.46/qtl for every 0.1% decrease below 10.25%. Minimum price of ₹329.05/qtl guaranteed for mills with recovery below 9.5%. Estimated cost of production is ₹173/qtl (A2 + FL basis), making the FRP 105.2% above cost.

This represents a 4.41% increase over the 2024–25 FRP.
Beneficiaries: Around 5 crore sugarcane farmers and their dependents, 5 lakh sugar mill workers, and thousands involved in ancillary services such as logistics and labor.
Implementation: Effective from October 1, 2025. Payment Status: For the 2023–24 season, ₹1,11,703 crore (99.92%) of dues have been cleared. For the 2024–25 season (as of April 28, 2025), ₹85,094 crore (87%) has been paid out of ₹97,270 crore.
FRP Determination Basis: The approved FRP is based on recommendations from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and consultations with State Governments and key stakeholders.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for the 2025–26 season:

The FRP of ₹355/qtl is based on a recovery rate of 10.5%.
No deduction is applied to mills with a recovery rate below 9.5%.
The FRP is more than double the estimated cost of production as per A2+FL.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect (recovery rate is 10.25%, not 10.5%).
Statement 2 is correct (no deductions below 9.5%).
Statement 3 is correct (₹355 vs ₹173 ≈ 105.2% above cost).

National Archives Acquires

Syllabus:Polity

The National Archives of India (NAI) has recently acquired the private papers of former President Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, which include a range of personal and official materials such as his lectures, original photographs, Aadhaar card, passport, and other significant documents.

About the National Archives of India (NAI)

Established: 1891 in Calcutta (then Imperial Records Department).
Current Headquarters: New Delhi
Administrative Control: Operates under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
Regional Presence: Offices in Bhopal, and record centres in Bhubaneswar, Jaipur, and Puducherry.
Significance: It is the largest archival repository in South Asia, serving as the custodian of public and private records of enduring value.
Collections: Includes public records, private papers, oriental manuscripts, maps, and microfilms.
Oversight Authority: The Director General of Archives implements the Public Records Act, 1993 and associated rules for management and preservation of government records.

About Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (1931–2015)

Birthplace: Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu
Profession: Renowned aeronautical engineer, scientist, and visionary leader

Major Contributions:

At ISRO: Project Director for SLV-III, which launched India’s first satellite Rohini in 1980.
At DRDO: Led the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) — key projects included Agni, Prithvi, and contributions to India’s nuclear tests (Pokhran-II).
Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India (1999–2001).
Academic Role: Professor at Anna University, deeply involved in inspiring youth.
Presidency: Served as the 11th President of India (2002–2007)

Legacy:

Popularly known as the “Missile Man of India”
Referred to as the “People’s President” for his humility and outreach
Post-presidency, he continued to mentor students and promote education and innovation

Notable Literary Works:

Wings of Fire, India 2020, Ignited Minds, My Journey – works that continue to inspire generations.

Awards & Honours:

Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan, and Bharat Ratna – India’s highest civilian awards.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Archives of India (NAI):

It was originally established in New Delhi in 1891 as the Imperial Records Department.
The NAI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Culture.
The Director General of Archives is responsible for the enforcement of the Public Records Act, 1993.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect — it was established in Calcutta, not New Delhi.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Statement 1: “It was originally established in New Delhi in 1891 as the Imperial Records Department.”
Statement 2: “The NAI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Culture.”
Statement 3: “The Director General of Archives is responsible for the enforcement of the Public Records Act, 1993.”

SC Rules Rohingya Refugees Subject to Foreigners Act

Syllabus:Polity

The Supreme Court has remarked that if the Rohingya refugees are classified as ‘foreigners’ under the Foreigners Act, they will be dealt with according to the law.

Key Details:

Petitioners’ Argument:
The Rohingya refugees are recognized by the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) and should therefore be granted protection under the principle of non-refoulement (which prohibits returning refugees to countries where they face serious threats).
Deporting them back to Myanmar, where they are stateless and allegedly face torture and death, would violate Article 21 (Right to Life) and Article 14 (Right to Equality) of the Indian Constitution.

Government’s and Court’s Position:

India is not a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention, and the Foreigners Act provides the government broad powers to regulate the entry and exit of foreigners.
Article 19(1)(e), which grants the right to reside and settle in India, applies only to Indian citizens, not foreigners or refugees, according to the Supreme Court’s interpretation.
While the Court recognized that Articles 14 and 21 (Right to Equality and Right to Life) apply to all persons in India, it stressed that the right to stay or settle in India does not extend to foreigners or refugees under Indian law.
The matter of whether refugees can stay in India is subject to legal processes under Indian law.

Who Are the Rohingya Refugees?

The Rohingya are a Muslim minority ethnic group originally from the Arakan Kingdom in Myanmar.
They are culturally and religiously distinct from Myanmar’s majority Buddhist population.
Though the Rohingya claim to have lived in Myanmar’s Rakhine State for generations, Myanmar’s successive governments have denied their ties to the country, labeling them as illegal immigrants from Bangladesh.
Since 1982, Myanmar has denied them citizenship, making them the world’s largest stateless population.
The largest exodus of Rohingya refugees began in 2017, with more than 5 lakh fleeing to Bangladesh to escape the brutality of Myanmar’s security forces.
India’s Policy on Refugees:
India has provided refuge to nearly 300,000 refugees in the past, including Tibetans, Chakmas from Bangladesh, and refugees from countries like Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.
However, India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol, and does not have a formal refugee policy or law.
Undocumented foreign nationals in India are governed by laws like the Foreigners Act, 1946, The Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, and The Citizenship Act, 1955.
According to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), foreign nationals entering India without valid documents are considered illegal immigrants.

Reasons for India’s Policy on Refugees:

Resource Strain: Hosting refugees puts pressure on India’s infrastructure, particularly in regions already facing resource shortages.
Social Cohesion: A significant refugee influx can strain the social fabric, potentially leading to tensions with local communities.
Security Concerns: The influx of refugees can raise security issues, including the risk of extremist elements infiltrating and challenges in monitoring border security.
Diplomatic Relations: Hosting refugees can strain diplomatic relations with neighboring countries or countries of origin.
Economic Impact: Refugees may compete for low-skilled jobs, affecting the local labor market, and may not contribute fully to the economy due to the lack of formal employment opportunities.

Way Forward:

India’s approach to refugees is shaped by a tradition of humanitarianism, regional geopolitics, and national security concerns. Though India is not a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol, the country has historically provided refuge to various displaced communities.As global displacement continues to rise, there is a growing need for India to establish a clear and consistent national refugee policy that balances humanitarian obligations with security and demographic concerns.

Consider the following statements regarding the legal and constitutional status of Rohingya refugees in India:

India is a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention and hence, is bound by the principle of non-refoulement under international law.
Articles 14 and 21 of the Indian Constitution apply only to Indian citizens and not to foreign nationals, including refugees.
The Foreigners Act, 1946 provides the Indian government with broad powers to expel undocumented foreign nationals, including refugees.
The Supreme Court has held that the right to settle and reside in India under Article 19(1)(e) does not extend to refugees or other foreign nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect: India is not a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol. Hence, although non-refoulement is a part of customary international law, India is not legally bound under treaty obligations.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: Articles 14 (Right to Equality) and 21 (Right to Life) extend to all persons, not just Indian citizens. This includes refugees and undocumented migrants.
Statement 3 – Correct: The Foreigners Act, 1946 gives the government the power to detect, detain, and deport illegal foreign nationals, including refugees without valid documentation.
Statement 4 – Correct: The Supreme Court has held that Article 19(1)(e) — the right to reside and settle in any part of India — applies only to Indian citizens, and not to foreigners or refugees.

CJI Forwards ‘In-House’ Panel Probe Report To President

Syllabus:Polity

Context:

The Chief Justice of India (CJI), Sanjiv Khanna, has forwarded the report of an in-house committee investigating allegations against a Delhi High Court judge to the President and Prime Minister of India.

In-House Procedure for Investigation:

To address judicial misconduct outside the formal impeachment process, the Supreme Court of India introduced the “in-house procedure” in 1999 for conducting investigations into allegations against judges. The procedure includes the following steps:

Filing Complaints:

Complaints about judicial misconduct can be filed with the CJI, the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court, or the President of India.

Preliminary Inquiry:

The Chief Justice of the High Court in question conducts an initial inquiry, seeking a response from the accused judge and submitting the findings to the CJI.

Fact-Finding Committee:

If the allegations are serious, the CJI appoints a fact-finding committee consisting of two Chief Justices from other High Courts and one High Court judge to conduct a detailed investigation.

Recommendations and Action:

If the committee finds sufficient grounds for the judge’s removal, the CJI may recommend the judge’s resignation. If the judge refuses to resign, the report is forwarded to the President and Prime Minister for further action, which can eventually lead to impeachment.

Judicial Precedents:

Several key judgments have shaped the judicial process for handling allegations against judges:

K Veeraswami v. Union of India (1991):

This landmark case established that no criminal case can be filed against a judge of the High Court or Supreme Court without the prior approval of the Chief Justice of India.

Additional District and Sessions Judge vs. Registrar General, High Court of Madhya Pradesh (2014):

This judgment emphasized that if a judge refuses to resign despite adverse findings from an in-house panel, the report must be forwarded to the constitutional authorities for further action.

Mechanism for Removal of Judges:

The Constitution of India outlines the process for removing judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts under Article 124(4) and Article 217 on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity. The steps involved are as follows:

Initiation of Impeachment:

A motion for the removal of a judge can be introduced in either House of Parliament, requiring a special majority (⅓ of the total membership and ⅓ of the members present and voting).

Presidential Approval:

If the motion is passed by Parliament, the President of India issues an order for the judge’s removal.

Concluding Remarks:

The existing in-house procedure and constitutional safeguards are designed to ensure that allegations of judicial misconduct are examined in a fair and transparent manner, without compromising the independence of the judiciary. This process highlights the strength of India’s legal framework in addressing concerns about judicial conduct while preserving the dignity of the judicial system.

Consider the following statements regarding the in-house procedure for investigating allegations against judges in India:

The in-house procedure for investigating judicial misconduct was adopted by the Supreme Court in 1999 to address such issues outside the formal impeachment process.
A fact-finding committee for investigating serious allegations against a judge must consist of two sitting Supreme Court judges and one Chief Justice from a High Court.
The process for the removal of judges under Articles 124(4) and 217 involves a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
The report of the fact-finding committee, if it recommends the judge’s removal, is forwarded to the President and Prime Minister only if the judge refuses to resign voluntarily.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 3, and 4 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: A) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Correct: The Supreme Court adopted the in-house procedure in 1999 to address judicial misconduct outside the formal impeachment process.
Incorrect: The fact-finding committee consists of two Chief Justices from other High Courts and one High Court judge, not two Supreme Court judges and one Chief Justice of a High Court.
Correct: The process for the removal of judges under Articles 124(4) and 217 requires a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
Correct: If the committee recommends the removal of a judge, the report is forwarded to the President and Prime Minister only if the judge refuses to resign.

Centralised Information Management System (CIMS)

Syllabus:Polity

The Centralised Information Management System (CIMS), developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), is a next-generation data warehouse designed to manage vast volumes of structured and unstructured data. It facilitates data aggregation, analysis, public dissemination, and governance across multiple financial and economic domains.
Recently, RBI mandated that all Regulated Entities (REs) report details of their Digital Lending Apps (DLAs) through the CIMS portal, enhancing regulatory oversight in the digital lending ecosystem.

Key Features of CIMS:

Utilizes advanced technologies to handle Big Data and supports data mining, text analytics, visual analytics, and advanced statistical modeling.
Integrates data from diverse domains such as financial, fiscal, external, corporate, real sectors, and price indices.

Advantages:

Improves efficiency and accuracy of regulatory data reporting by REs.
Enables cloud-based electronic submissions, reducing operational burden on banks and financial institutions.
Enhances the timeliness and quality of data received by RBI.
Facilitates real-time monitoring and early identification of systemic risks in the financial ecosystem.
Strengthens communication channels between the RBI and regulated institutions.
CIMS is a strategic initiative toward modernizing India’s regulatory architecture, supporting informed decision-making and proactive risk management within the financial sector.

With reference to the Centralised Information Management System (CIMS) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consider the following statements:

CIMS enables the RBI to integrate and analyze data exclusively from the financial and monetary sectors.
It allows Regulated Entities (REs) to submit regulatory data using cloud-based infrastructure.
CIMS supports real-time Big Data analytics and advanced statistical modeling to facilitate proactive financial surveillance.
The primary purpose of CIMS is to monitor and regulate external sector transactions such as foreign trade and capital inflows.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: CIMS integrates data from multiple domains including financial, external, fiscal, corporate, real sectors, and price indices, not just financial and monetary sectors.
Statement 2 is correct: CIMS allows cloud-based electronic submission of reports by Regulated Entities.
Statement 3 is correct: It is built to handle Big Data and supports data mining, visual analytics, and advanced modeling to enhance surveillance capabilities.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Monitoring external transactions is only a part of its broad mandate; the system is not primarily designed for that purpose.

Telangana CM launches solar scheme to benefit tribal farmers

Syllabus:Polity

Telangana Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy launched the ‘Indira Saura Giri Jala Vikasam’ scheme at Macharam in Nagarkurnool district on Monday, directing officials to provide solar pumpsets to all eligible Scheduled Tribe farmers in the Achampet constituency within a month.
Accompanied by Deputy Chief Minister Bhatti Vikramarka, the Chief Minister described the scheme as a unique initiative aimed at empowering tribal farmers. The pilot project in Macharam targets tribals whose lands were reportedly taken during the previous BRS regime, with cases filed following protests.
Reddy urged officials to involve women’s self-help groups (SHGs) in establishing solar power plants, enabling them to generate additional revenue. Under the Forest Rights Act, the government has issued land pattas for 6.69 lakh acres, benefiting around 2.3 lakh Scheduled Tribe farmers in the state. The new scheme plans to provide solar-powered borewell irrigation facilities across six lakh acres of tribal land lacking electricity connections.
Highlighting efforts to financially empower women, the Chief Minister noted that Telangana aims to foster women entrepreneurs through initiatives such as awarding projects to women SHGs for generating 1000 MW of solar power and supporting women’s ownership of buses.
Following the launch, the Chief Minister visited his native village Kondareddypalle, where he performed special poojas at the Anjaneya Swamy temple.

Consider the following statements about Telangana’s ‘Indira Saura Giri Jala Vikasam’ scheme:

It aims to provide solar-powered irrigation pumpsets to Scheduled Tribe farmers on lands without electricity connections.
The scheme involves collaboration with women’s self-help groups (SHGs) to set up solar power plants and generate revenue.
It is primarily focused on agricultural land redistribution under the Forest Rights Act.
The scheme exclusively targets lands that were snatched during the previous Telangana Rashtra Samithi (TRS) regime.
It includes awarding projects to women entrepreneurs to generate solar power up to 1000 MW.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 5 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 4 and 5 only
D) All of the above

Answer: A) 1, 2 and 5 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as the scheme provides solar pumpsets for irrigation on tribal lands lacking power connections.
Statement 2 is correct because the scheme involves women’s SHGs in establishing solar power plants for revenue generation.
Statement 3 is incorrect; while the Forest Rights Act pattas have been sanctioned, the scheme itself is about irrigation and solar power, not land redistribution.
Statement 4 is partially true but the scheme is not exclusively limited to lands snatched during the previous regime; it’s broader in scope.
Statement 5 is correct since the scheme supports women SHGs to generate up to 1000 MW solar power.

SC Direction to Take Back Forest Land Illegally Allotted to Private Entities

Syllabus:Polity

Context:

The Supreme Court of India has instructed all States and Union Territories to identify and reclaim forest lands that were unlawfully diverted for non-forest uses, highlighting serious legal violations and ecological damage.

Background:

This directive follows a ruling that declared the allocation of 11.89 hectares of reserved forest land in Kondhwa Budruk, Pune (Maharashtra) as illegal. The land, originally allotted for agricultural use in 1998, was sold to a private builder in 1999. The Chief Justice described this as a textbook case of collusion between political actors, bureaucrats, and builders to exploit valuable forest resources.

Supreme Court Directions:

Formation of Special Investigation Teams (SITs) by Chief Secretaries/Administrators to investigate forest lands under revenue department control.
Reclaim illegally occupied forest land and transfer it to forest departments.
In cases where recovery is not viable due to overriding public interest, recover compensation from beneficiaries and channel funds into forest development.
The entire process is to be completed within one year.

Legal and Environmental Concerns:

Breach of 1996 Supreme Court Order: In N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India, the Court ordered that no non-forest activity can be undertaken on forest land without central approval.
Environmental Degradation: Retention of forest lands by revenue departments has encouraged their misuse for non-forestry purposes, causing deforestation and biodiversity loss.

Constitutional Provisions:

Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 48A): Mandates the State to protect and improve the environment and conserve forests and wildlife.
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A(g)): Calls upon citizens to safeguard the natural environment and show compassion towards living creatures.

Way Forward:

Use of Technology: Implement GIS and remote sensing for precise forest boundary mapping and monitoring.
Institutional Framework: Establish Forest Land Governance Cells at the state level with participation from forest, revenue, and legal authorities.
Community Participation: Engage Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMCs) and local tribal groups in tracking and reporting encroachments.
Regulatory Strengthening: Tighten Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) regulations and ensure meaningful public involvement in forest land diversion decisions.

With reference to the Supreme Court of India’s recent directives on illegal allotment of forest land, consider the following statements:

The Supreme Court has mandated that forest lands under revenue departments must be investigated and reclaimed within a timeline of two years.
The 1996 Supreme Court ruling in N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India prohibits any non-forest activity on forest land without the approval of the Central Government.
Article 51A(g) of the Constitution imposes a fundamental duty on citizens to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests and wildlife.
In cases where reclaiming illegally allotted forest land is not feasible due to public interest, the Court has directed that the land must be handed over permanently to the beneficiary without compensation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct; the Court has directed completion of investigations and reclamation within one year, which is roughly within the timeframe mentioned.
Statement 2 is correct; N. Godavarman Thirumulpad prohibits non-forest use of forest land without Central approval.
Statement 3 is correct; Article 51A(g) states citizens’ duty to protect the environment.
Statement 4 is incorrect; the Court allows cost recovery from beneficiaries if reclamation is not feasible; it does not permit permanent transfer without compensation.

SC Direction to Take Back Forest Land Illegally Allotted to Private Entities

Syllabus:Polity

The Supreme Court of India has directed all States and Union Territories to investigate and reclaim forest lands that have been illegally allotted for non-forest purposes, pointing out serious legal and environmental violations.
This order came while annulling the allotment of 11.89 hectares of reserved forest land in Kondhwa Budruk, Pune, Maharashtra.
The land was originally designated for agriculture in 1998 but was later sold to a private builder in 1999.
The Chief Justice called this a clear example of a political-bureaucratic-builder nexus responsible for the misuse of valuable forest resources.

Supreme Court Directives:

Chief Secretaries and Administrators are to form Special Investigation Teams (SITs) to examine forest lands under the control of revenue departments.
These SITs must work to recover forest lands from private individuals or entities and transfer them back to the respective forest departments.
If reclaiming the land is not possible due to overriding public interest, beneficiaries must pay compensation, which will be used for forest conservation and development.
The entire recovery process is to be completed within one year.

Legal and Environmental Concerns:

The Court highlighted violation of its 1996 verdict in N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India, which prohibits any non-forest activities on forest land without approval from the Central Government.
Continued possession of forest lands by revenue departments has led to non-forestry usage, resulting in loss of green cover and biodiversity.

Constitutional Safeguards:

Article 48A of the Directive Principles of State Policy mandates the State to protect and improve the environment, including forests and wildlife.
Article 51A(g) of the Fundamental Duties requires citizens to protect and enhance the natural environment—forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife—and to show compassion towards living beings.

Way Forward:

Utilize GIS and remote sensing technologies to precisely map forest boundaries and monitor illegal encroachments.
Set up State-level Forest Land Governance Cells including representatives from forest, revenue, and legal departments to coordinate efforts.
Involve Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMCs) and tribal communities in identifying and reporting illegal use or occupation of forest lands.
Enhance Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) procedures by ensuring greater public participation in cases of forest land diversion.

With reference to the Supreme Court of India’s recent directive on illegal forest land allotments, consider the following statements:

The Special Investigation Teams (SITs) tasked with reclaiming forest land must be constituted exclusively by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
The 1996 Supreme Court ruling in N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India prohibits any non-forest activities on forest land without prior approval from the Central Government.
Article 51A(g) of the Indian Constitution imposes a Fundamental Duty on citizens to protect the natural environment including forests and wildlife.
In cases where forest land recovery is infeasible due to public interest, the Supreme Court has mandated cost recovery from beneficiaries to be used for forest conservation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. SITs are to be formed by Chief Secretaries/Administrators of States and UTs, not exclusively by the Ministry of Environment.
Statement 2 is correct. The 1996 ruling prohibits non-forest activities on forest land without Central Government approval.
Statement 3 is correct. Article 51A(g) enjoins citizens to protect and improve the natural environment.
Statement 4 is correct. If reclaiming forest land is not feasible due to overriding public interest, beneficiaries must pay compensation, which must be used for forest conservation.

Orans

Syllabus:Polity

The Rajasthan government has begun the formal process of classifying Oran lands—community-managed sacred groves—as forests, in compliance with the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment on December 18, 2024.
This decision comes under the purview of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, aiming to strengthen the legal protection of these ecologically and culturally significant landscapes.

About Orans:

Definition: Orans are traditional sacred groves preserved by rural communities in Rajasthan, often dedicated to local deities and associated with socio-religious practices.
Ecological Significance: They serve as biodiversity hotspots and support critical ecological functions such as:
Livelihood support through grazing and forest produce.
Water conservation via features like talabs (ponds), nadis (small ponds), open wells, and seasonal streams.
Cultural Role: Annual religious festivals and fairs are organized in these groves, reinforcing community stewardship.
Extent: Rajasthan houses approximately 25,000 orans spread across 6 lakh hectares. Some, like the Bhadariya Mata Oran in Jaisalmer, span over 17,000 hectares.
Conservation Value: Orans are vital habitats for endangered species, notably the Great Indian Bustard (GIB)—India’s most critically endangered bird and the state bird of Rajasthan.

Policy and Legal Developments:

The Rajasthan Forest Policy 2023 classified orans merely as general community lands, which provided limited conservation safeguards.
The Supreme Court’s 2024 judgment recognized orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, enhancing their legal protection against encroachment and ecological degradation.

With reference to the traditional ‘Orans’ of Rajasthan, consider the following statements:

Orans are recognized under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, as Community Reserves notified by State governments.
The Supreme Court’s judgment in December 2024 mandated their classification as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
Orans have no role in the hydrological cycle, as they are primarily cultural and religious spaces.
The Great Indian Bustard, a critically endangered bird species, is found exclusively in protected national parks and not in community lands like Orans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect – Orans are not uniformly notified as Community Reserves under the Wildlife Protection Act, though some may qualify. They are traditionally protected community lands.
Statement 2: Correct – The Supreme Court, in December 2024, recognized Orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
Statement 3: Incorrect – Orans often contain vital water bodies (e.g., Talab, Nadi) and play a significant role in the hydrological cycle and local ecology.
Statement 4: Incorrect – The Great Indian Bustard is indeed found in Orans, which are vital habitats outside formal protected areas.

NITI Aayog

Syllabus:Polity

The 10th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog was recently convened in New Delhi, chaired by the Prime Minister of India, under the overarching theme “Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat @2047”, envisioning a developed India by its centenary year of independence.

About NITI Aayog

Establishment: Constituted in January 2015 via a Union Cabinet resolution, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission.
Nature: It is neither a Constitutional nor a Statutory body; it was formed through executive action, not by law or constitutional amendment.
Role: Serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.

Twin Mandate

Oversee the implementation and monitoring of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) across India.
Promote competitive and cooperative federalism by actively involving States and Union Territories in the national development process.

Organisational Structure

Chairperson: Prime Minister of India
Governing Council:
Comprises Chief Ministers of all States and UTs with legislatures.
Lieutenant Governors of other UTs.
Up to four Union Ministers as ex-officio members, nominated by the Prime Minister.
Vice-Chairperson: Appointed by the Prime Minister.
Full-time members and special invitees (domain experts) as nominated by the Prime Minister.

Regional Councils:

Constituted for fixed terms to address specific regional concerns.
Convened by the Prime Minister, involving Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors of relevant States/UTs.

CEO of NITI Aayog:

Appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure.
Holds the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.

Key Objectives

Inclusive Planning: Emphasis on development at the village level, with special attention to marginalized and vulnerable populations.
Security-Integrated Policy: Incorporate national security concerns into economic planning and policy formulation.
Innovation Ecosystem: Foster a knowledge-driven, innovation-friendly, and entrepreneurial environment conducive to long-term development.
Inter-sectoral Coordination: Serve as a platform for resolving issues that cut across different ministries and sectors, facilitating smoother policy execution.

Which of the following statements about NITI Aayog is/are correct?

NITI Aayog is a constitutional body established through an act of Parliament.
Its Governing Council includes Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories with legislatures.
The Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister.
NITI Aayog is responsible for the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in India.

Select the correct answer:
A) 2, 3 and 4 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer:B
Explanation: The Planning Commission was also an executive body, but the question demands distinguishing features. NITI Aayog is explicitly non-constitutional and non-statutory, created via executive order.

Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs)

Syllabus:Polity

The Department of Financial Services (DFS), under the Ministry of Finance, recently organised a colloquium in New Delhi. It convened Chairpersons of Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) and Presiding Officers of Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) to discuss issues related to debt recovery.

Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs)

Nature & Establishment: DRTs are quasi-judicial bodies constituted under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993.
Primary Role: They adjudicate disputes related to debt recovery by banks and financial institutions, specifically handling loan defaults above ₹20 lakh focused on secured debts.
Other Functions: DRTs also hear Securitisation Applications (SAs) filed under the SARFAESI Act, 2002 by borrowers or aggrieved parties.
Presence: Currently, 39 DRTs operate across India, each led by a Presiding Officer.

Structure and Powers of DRTs

Presiding Officer: Typically a judicial officer eligible to be appointed as a District Judge.
Additional Members: Administrative and technical members may be appointed by the Central Government.
Powers (Section 22(2), Recovery of Debts Act): DRTs can summon and examine witnesses, compel document production, accept evidence on affidavits, review or dismiss applications, conduct ex parte proceedings, and issue commissions for document and witness examination.
Jurisdiction: Territorial jurisdiction defined by the Central Government, limited to debt recovery cases involving banks and financial institutions.

Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs)

Role: DRATs serve as appellate bodies reviewing decisions of DRTs.
Appeals: Aggrieved parties can file appeals against DRT rulings before DRATs.
Presence: There are currently 5 DRATs in India, each led by a Chairperson.
Significance: DRATs provide judicial oversight, ensure consistency in debt recovery rulings, and clarify complex legal issues related to recovery disputes.

Consider the following statements about Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) and Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs):

Debt Recovery Tribunals were established under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, to expedite the resolution of secured loan defaults exceeding ₹20 lakh.
DRTs have the power to conduct ex parte proceedings and issue commissions for the examination of documents and witnesses under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993.
Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) serve as the first appellate authority against the orders of DRTs and are chaired by judicial officers appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
The territorial jurisdiction of each DRT is determined by the Central Government and is limited strictly to cases involving banks and financial institutions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 and 4 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1 and 3 only

Answer: A) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1:DRTs were established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, not under the SARFAESI Act, 2002. SARFAESI Act allows DRTs to hear securitisation applications but does not establish them.
Statement 2:Under Section 22(2) of the Recovery of Debts Act, DRTs possess powers including conducting ex parte proceedings and issuing commissions for witness and document examination.
Statement 3:DRATs are appellate bodies reviewing DRTs’ decisions but their Chairpersons are not appointed by the Chief Justice of India; rather, the appointment is made by the Central Government, often from judicial officers.
Statement 4:The territorial jurisdiction of DRTs is indeed defined by the Central Government and strictly pertains to debt recovery cases involving banks and financial institutions

Orans

Syllabus:Polity

The Rajasthan government has begun the formal process of classifying Oran lands—community-managed sacred groves—as forests, in compliance with the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment on December 18, 2024.
This decision comes under the purview of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, aiming to strengthen the legal protection of these ecologically and culturally significant landscapes.

About Orans:

Definition: Orans are traditional sacred groves preserved by rural communities in Rajasthan, often dedicated to local deities and associated with socio-religious practices.
Ecological Significance: They serve as biodiversity hotspots and support critical ecological functions such as:
Livelihood support through grazing and forest produce.
Water conservation via features like talabs (ponds), nadis (small ponds), open wells, and seasonal streams.
Cultural Role: Annual religious festivals and fairs are organized in these groves, reinforcing community stewardship.
Extent: Rajasthan houses approximately 25,000 orans spread across 6 lakh hectares. Some, like the Bhadariya Mata Oran in Jaisalmer, span over 17,000 hectares.
Conservation Value: Orans are vital habitats for endangered species, notably the Great Indian Bustard (GIB)—India’s most critically endangered bird and the state bird of Rajasthan.

Policy and Legal Developments:

The Rajasthan Forest Policy 2023 classified orans merely as general community lands, which provided limited conservation safeguards.
The Supreme Court’s 2024 judgment recognized orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, enhancing their legal protection against encroachment and ecological degradation.

With reference to the traditional ‘Orans’ of Rajasthan, consider the following statements:

Orans are recognized under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, as Community Reserves notified by State governments.
The Supreme Court’s judgment in December 2024 mandated their classification as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
Orans have no role in the hydrological cycle, as they are primarily cultural and religious spaces.
The Great Indian Bustard, a critically endangered bird species, is found exclusively in protected national parks and not in community lands like Orans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect – Orans are not uniformly notified as Community Reserves under the Wildlife Protection Act, though some may qualify. They are traditionally protected community lands.
Statement 2: Correct – The Supreme Court, in December 2024, recognized Orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
Statement 3: Incorrect – Orans often contain vital water bodies (e.g., Talab, Nadi) and play a significant role in the hydrological cycle and local ecology.
Statement 4: Incorrect – The Great Indian Bustard is indeed found in Orans, which are vital habitats outside formal protected areas.

NITI Aayog Releases Report on “Designing a Policy for MediumEnterprises”

Syllabus:Polity

The MSME sector stands as a vital pillar of India’s economy, contributing approximately 29% to GDP, 40% to exports, and providing employment to over 60% of the workforce.
However, the sector is predominantly composed of micro enterprises, which constitute 97% of registered MSMEs.
Small enterprises represent 2.7%, while medium enterprises make up a mere 0.3%.
Despite their small numbers, medium enterprises are strategically significant, accounting for nearly 40% of MSME exports.

Understanding the Tilt Towards Micro Enterprises

This disproportion is largely due to an overreliance on informal, subsistence-level micro firms and a significant underutilization of the potential of medium enterprises, which have greater capacity to scale, innovate, and integrate into global supply chains.

Challenges Facing Medium Enterprises

Limited Access to Finance: Only 37% of medium enterprises obtain formal loans. Challenges include collateral-heavy lending procedures, inadequate risk assessments, and a lack of dedicated credit facilities.
Technology Deficit: About 82% of medium enterprises have not adopted advanced technologies such as AI, IoT, or digital automation, limiting their productivity and competitiveness on a global scale.
Skill Gaps: Approximately 88% do not benefit from government skill development programs, which are often outdated or inaccessible.
Low Awareness of Government Schemes: Over 90% of medium enterprises are unaware of critical schemes and platforms like RAMP, ZED, or GeM, and even when aware, bureaucratic complexities hinder their utilization.
Heavy Compliance Burden: Multiple inspections from labor, health, and safety authorities increase operational costs and reduce ease of doing business.

Why Medium Enterprises Matter

Forex Earnings: Medium enterprises generate ₹39.95 crore in foreign exchange per unit, significantly higher than small (₹8.3 crore) and micro (₹1.39 crore) units.
Innovation Drivers: They contribute 81% of total MSME R&D expenditure, investing heavily in automation, AI, and process improvements.
Employment Providers: With an average of 89 employees per unit, medium enterprises create substantially more jobs compared to small (19.1) and micro (5.7) units.
Profitability and Scale: Benefiting from economies of scale, superior infrastructure, and investment capacity, medium enterprises achieve higher returns on capital and maintain sustained competitiveness.

Policy Recommendations

Tailored Financial Instruments: Introduce working capital schemes linked to enterprise turnover with expedited approval processes. Launch a ₹5 crore Medium Enterprise credit card at market rates requiring minimal collateral.
Technology Upgradation via Competence Centres: Transform existing technology centres into India ME 4.0 hubs, providing access to Industry 4.0 tools in sectors such as ESDM, pharmaceuticals, and sports goods.
Focused R&D Ecosystem: Implement a three-tier funding model involving expert committees, proposal solicitation, and monitoring. Utilize the Self-Reliant India Fund (SRI) to finance sector-specific innovation initiatives.
Cluster-Based Testing and Certification: Expand the Micro and Small Enterprises – Cluster Development Programme (MSE-CDP) to medium enterprises and establish regional testing labs to ensure quality compliance, particularly for exports.
Customized Skill Development: Develop export-oriented, sector-specific training curricula and integrate medium enterprise modules into existing Entrepreneurship Skill Development Programmes (ESDP) in collaboration with the Ministry of Skill Development.
Centralized Digital Support Portal: Create a dedicated sub-portal for medium enterprises under the Udyam portal featuring scheme discovery, compliance tracking, and market intelligence services.
This comprehensive approach aims to unlock the untapped potential of medium enterprises, enabling them to scale, innovate, and contribute more robustly to India’s economic growth and global trade.

Consider the following statements regarding Medium Enterprises (MEs) in India’s MSME sector:

Medium enterprises constitute less than 1% of registered MSMEs but contribute nearly 40% of MSME exports.
Around 82% of medium enterprises have adopted advanced technologies such as AI and IoT, boosting their global competitiveness.
Medium enterprises generate significantly higher foreign exchange per unit compared to micro and small enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Medium enterprises form only about 0.3% of registered MSMEs but account for nearly 40% of MSME exports, showing their strategic export importance.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Around 82% of medium enterprises do not use advanced technologies like AI and IoT, which hampers their productivity.
Statement 3 is correct: Medium enterprises generate significantly higher foreign exchange (₹39.95 crore per unit) compared to small (₹8.3 crore) and micro (₹1.39 crore) enterprises.

Importance of the Deputy Speaker in Lok Sabha

Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance

The position of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha has remained vacant for over six years, raising significant concerns regarding constitutional compliance and democratic governance.
The Deputy Speaker serves as the second-ranking presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, subordinate only to the Speaker. As per Article 95(1) of the Constitution, the Deputy Speaker performs the functions of the Speaker in their absence or when the post is vacant. In joint sittings of both Houses, the Deputy Speaker presides in the absence of the Speaker.
The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members, as mandated under Article 93. Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha empowers the Speaker to fix the date for the election.
Conventionally, the Deputy Speaker is chosen from the Opposition to maintain representational balance; however, from 1952 to 1969, all four Deputy Speakers were from the ruling party.
Notably, the 17th Lok Sabha (2019–2024) witnessed a complete absence of a Deputy Speaker. When officiating as Speaker, the Deputy Speaker enjoys all powers of the Speaker, including maintaining order and interpreting rules.
He/she cannot vote in the first instance but holds a casting vote in case of a tie. When not presiding, the Deputy Speaker functions as a regular member, retaining the right to speak and vote.
A special privilege conferred upon the Deputy Speaker is that he/she automatically becomes the chairperson of any Parliamentary Committee they are nominated to. The Deputy Speaker can be removed by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by an effective majority, i.e., a majority of the total membership excluding vacant seats.
Such a motion requires a 14-day advance notice. During consideration of the removal motion, the Deputy Speaker cannot preside over the House but may remain present.
The prolonged vacancy of the Deputy Speaker undermines constitutional propriety and parliamentary norms, weakens the balance between the ruling party and Opposition, compromises democratic inclusiveness, and risks legislative paralysis in the absence of the Speaker.
This also reflects the erosion of institutional integrity and neglect of a constitutional office.
The Deputy Speaker’s office is a constitutional mandate, not a discretionary appointment.
Its continued vacancy violates the spirit of the Constitution and democratic principles. Immediate corrective action is essential to uphold parliamentary integrity and restore institutional balance.

With reference to the office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority of the members present and voting in the Lok Sabha.
The Constitution explicitly mandates the time frame within which the Deputy Speaker must be elected.
The Deputy Speaker, when not presiding over the House, retains the right to vote on any question before the House.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only

Answer:D
Explanation:

The Constitution (Article 93) mandates that the House “shall, as soon as may be” choose the Deputy Speaker, but does not specify a time frame (Statement 2 incorrect).
When not presiding, the Deputy Speaker can vote like any ordinary member (Statement 3 correct).
Deputy Speaker is elected by Lok Sabha, typically by consensus or voice vote; not necessarily only by a simple majority (Statement 1 not fully accurate for UPSC level precision).

Top 10 Countries With the Highest Debt-To-GDP in 2025

Syllabus:Economy

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has raised alarm about a surge in global public debt, with projections for 2025 indicating that several countries will see their debt levels exceed those recorded at the peak of the COVID-19 pandemic.
According to the IMF’s Fiscal Monitor Report (April 2025), the global public debt-to-GDP ratio could approach critical levels once again, sparking concerns about the economic and fiscal sustainability of both developing and advanced economies.
In a surprising development, Sudan has surpassed Japan to become the country with the highest debt-to-GDP ratio in the world in 2025, driven by internal conflict and economic instability.
Meanwhile, the debt burdens of major economies like the United States, France, and Canada remain significantly high, reflecting persistent structural deficits and geopolitical challenges.

Background and Context:The COVID-19 pandemic triggered an unprecedented wave of government borrowing as nations scrambled to tackle public health emergencies and implement large-scale stimulus programs. Consequently, global public debt reached 98.9% of GDP in 2020.

Despite subsequent economic recovery, ongoing geopolitical instability—including trade tensions, particularly following recent U.S. tariff declarations—and inflationary pressures have led to a rise in borrowing needs. The IMF warns that global public debt levels could reach 117% of global GDP by 2027 under worst-case conditions and nearly 100% (99.6%) by 2030.

Key Insight: The Top 10 Countries with the Highest Debt-to-GDP Ratio in 2025:

The IMF’s recent findings reveal an alarming composition of the ten countries with the highest public debt in 2025, mostly driven by persistent budget deficits, economic mismanagement, and structural vulnerabilities such as demographic decline or excessive external debt.

Top 10 Countries with the Highest Debt-to-GDP Ratio in 2025:

Rank	Country	General Government Gross Debt (% of GDP)
1	Sudan	252%
2	Japan	234.9%
3	Singapore	174.9%
4	Greece	142.2%
5	Bahrain	141.4%
6	Maldives	140.8%
7	Italy	137.3%
8	United States	122.5%
9	France	116.3%
10	Canada	112.5%

Country Highlights and Analysis:

Sudan: Facing prolonged internal conflict, economic instability, and a loss of oil revenues, Sudan has reached a debt-to-GDP ratio of 252%, the highest globally.
Japan: Despite being a developed and technologically advanced economy, Japan’s public debt stands at 234.9%, due to persistent fiscal deficits, an aging population, and years of low economic growth.
United States and Other Developed Economies: The U.S. ranks 8th, with a debt-to-GDP ratio of 122.5%. This is driven by rising federal deficits, and spending on defense, healthcare, and interest payments. France (116.3%) and Canada (112.5%) also face similar challenges in managing social welfare spending and post-pandemic economic recovery.

Where Do China and India Stand?

Unlike the top 10 indebted nations, China and India have more manageable debt levels:

China: With a debt-to-GDP ratio of 96%, China ranks 21st, reflecting a controlled fiscal expansion model.
India: India ranks 31st, with a debt-to-GDP ratio of 80%. The Indian government aims to reduce this ratio to 50±1% by March 31, 2031, through fiscal consolidation and economic growth.

Future Outlook: Risks and Recovery

The IMF warns that, unless corrective measures are adopted, global public debt could surpass the levels seen during World War II. Key risks include:

Continued geopolitical instability
High interest rates
Sluggish global growth
Elevated inflation and subsidy bills

Even a temporary shock—such as another trade war, a health crisis, or a spike in commodity prices—could accelerate vulnerabilities related to public debt.

Call to Action:

Nations are being urged to adopt credible, medium-term fiscal plans. Key measures include enhancing tax collection efficiency, curbing unproductive subsidies, and investing in growth-driving sectors to prevent the risk of spiraling debt.

Consider the following statements regarding the surge in global public debt as highlighted by the International Monetary Fund (IMF):

Sudan has surpassed Japan to become the country with the highest debt-to-GDP ratio in the world in 2025.
The global public debt-to-GDP ratio is expected to reach 117% by 2027 under worst-case conditions.
The United States has a debt-to-GDP ratio of 122.5%, ranking 8th among the countries with the highest debt-to-GDP ratio.
China and India are among the top 10 countries with the highest debt-to-GDP ratios globally in 2025.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Sudan has indeed surpassed Japan to become the country with the highest debt-to-GDP ratio in the world in 2025.
Statement 2 is correct: The IMF forecasts that global public debt could reach 117% of global GDP by 2027 under worst-case conditions.
Statement 3 is correct: The United States has a debt-to-GDP ratio of 122.5%, ranking 8th among the countries with the highest debt-to-GDP ratio.
Statement 4 is incorrect: China and India, though significant economies, are not in the top 10 countries with the highest debt-to-GDP ratios in 2025. India is ranked 31st, and China is ranked 21st.

Top 10 Wealthiest Families in Asia 2025 Revealed by Bloomberg

Syllabus:Economy

Asia’s Richest Families 2025 – Bloomberg Rankings

Why in the News:Bloomberg has released its 2025 list of the Top 20 Wealthiest Families in Asia, highlighting enduring business legacies and multi-generational wealth. The Ambani family of India leads the list with a wealth of $90.5 billion, reaffirming India’s prominence in the region’s family-owned corporate landscape.

Background / Context: Asia has long been home to powerful family-run conglomerates that continue to influence regional and global markets. Bloomberg’s 2025 list focuses exclusively on dynasties that have passed on wealth across generations, excluding first-generation billionaires. In India, this highlights the resilience and global reach of legacy business houses such as Reliance, Aditya Birla Group, and Bajaj.

Key Information:

Aspect	Details
List Name	Asia’s Richest Families 2025
Released By	Bloomberg
Release Date	January 31, 2025
Geographic Focus	Asia (India, Thailand, Indonesia, etc.)
Special Note	6 Indian families featured in Top 20

Significance:

Highlights inter-generational wealth creation and sustainability
Showcases the economic influence of legacy family businesses
Reflects India’s entrepreneurial tradition and corporate continuity
Offers insight into sectoral dominance by family-led enterprises

Top 10 Wealthiest Families in Asia (2025)

Rank	Family Name	Company	Wealth	Country	Generations
1	Ambani	Reliance Industries	$90.5B	India	3
2	Chearavanont	Charoen Pokphand Group	$42.6B	Thailand	4
3	Hartono	Djarum, Bank Central Asia	$42.2B	Indonesia	3
4	Mistry	Shapoorji Pallonji Group	$37.5B	India	5
5	Kwok	Sun Hung Kai Properties	$35.6B	Hong Kong	3
6	Tsai	Cathay Financial, Fubon Financial	$30.9B	Taiwan	3
7	Jindal	OP Jindal Group	$28.1B	India	3
8	Yoovidhya	TCP Group (Red Bull)	$25.7B	Thailand	2
9	Birla	Aditya Birla Group	$23.0B	India	7
10	Lee	Samsung	$22.7B	South Korea	3

Indian Families in the Top 20 – 2025

Rank (Asia)	Family	Company	Wealth (USD)	Industry	Generations
1	Ambani	Reliance Industries	$90.5B	Conglomerate	3
4	Mistry	Shapoorji Pallonji Group	$37.5B	Conglomerate	5
7	Jindal	OP Jindal Group	$28.1B	Industrial	3
9	Birla	Aditya Birla Group	$23.0B	Conglomerate	7
13	Bajaj	Bajaj Group	$20.1B	Conglomerate	4
18	Hinduja	Hinduja Group	$15.2B	Finance, Property	4

Consider the following statements regarding Bloomberg’s 2025 list of Asia’s Richest Families:

The list includes only first-generation billionaire entrepreneurs.
The Ambani family is the only Indian family in the top 5.
The Birla family, with 7 generations, is the oldest Indian business dynasty in the top 20.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect (Bloomberg excludes first-generation billionaires).
Statement 2 is correct (only Ambani ranks in the top 5 among Indian families).
Statement 3 is correct (Birla is 7 generations strong, the oldest in the Indian list).

Green Municipal Bond (GMB)

Syllabus: GS3/Economy

Ghaziabad has issued India’s first Certified Green Municipal Bond under the Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban, successfully raising ₹150 crore to fund a Tertiary Sewage Treatment Plant (TSTP), marking a significant step toward sustainable urban infrastructure.

About Green Municipal Bonds (GMBs):

A Municipal Bond is a debt instrument issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) or Municipal Corporations to finance infrastructure and public service projects.
A Green Municipal Bond is a sub-category used exclusively for climate-resilient and environmentally sustainable projects, such as renewable energy, water purification, waste management, and sewage and sanitation infrastructure.
Empowered by Article 243W of the Indian Constitution, ULBs are responsible for water supply, sanitation, and waste management, making them eligible to raise such bonds.

Significance of Green Municipal Bonds:

Sustainable development is supported by promoting climate-conscious urban growth and aligning with ESG (Environment, Social, Governance) investing frameworks.
These bonds offer affordable financing through lower-cost, long-term capital, often more economical than commercial loans.
They help diversify the funding base by attracting institutional and international investors, reducing reliance on domestic banking channels.
Additionally, they strengthen urban infrastructure in key sectors such as sewage treatment, clean water supply, and waste disposal.

Key Challenges:

Many ULBs lack the financial expertise, credit ratings, and project readiness necessary to access capital markets.
Regulatory complexity, including lengthy approval mechanisms and a shallow bond market, hinders the widespread adoption of green bonds.
Ensuring transparency in the utilization of funds and accurately assessing environmental impact remains difficult.
Furthermore, there is limited awareness among domestic investors about green finance instruments, which restricts demand.

Way Forward:

Urban Local Bodies must be strengthened through capacity building in financial structuring, ESG compliance, and project appraisal.
Policy support should be provided in the form of tax incentives, risk guarantees, and simplified regulatory frameworks to facilitate green bond issuance.
Establishing independent third-party verification mechanisms for green credentials and impact monitoring is crucial.
Investor outreach must be expanded to include pension funds, insurance companies, and ESG-focused global investors.
Finally, municipal green finance initiatives should be aligned with national programs like AMRUT, the Smart Cities Mission, and the Jal Jeevan Mission to maximize impact and efficiency.

With reference to Green Municipal Bonds (GMBs) in India, consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India explicitly mandates the issuance of municipal bonds under Article 243W.
Green Municipal Bonds can only be issued with prior approval from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
GMBs in India are eligible to finance projects under the Jal Jeevan Mission and AMRUT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 243W entrusts ULBs with functions like water supply and sanitation but does not explicitly mandate the issuance of municipal bonds.
Statement 2 is incorrect: SEBI regulates bonds, but prior approval is not explicitly required for every GMB issuance; municipal corporations may issue them based on existing guidelines.
Statement 3 is correct: GMBs can fund projects aligned with missions like AMRUT and Jal Jeevan Mission.

Insufficient Support for Deep Tech Start-ups in India: Study

Syllabus: GS3/Economy; Employment; Growth & Development

Context: A recent study commissioned by the Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India, and conducted in collaboration with the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), has revealed critical structural and operational shortcomings in the support extended to deep technology (deep tech) start-ups by publicly funded R&D institutions in India.

About Deep Tech Start-ups:Deep tech start-ups are rooted in advanced scientific discoveries and engineering innovations, encompassing domains such as artificial intelligence, quantum computing, space technology, biotechnology, and advanced materials.Unlike traditional start-ups—which often rely on business model innovations in sectors like e-commerce, SaaS, or consumer services—deep tech ventures are characterized by:

Prolonged R&D cycles
Higher capital intensity and risk
Strong dependence on foundational science and engineering breakthroughs

Key Findings of the Study:

Limited Incubation Support:

Only 25% of publicly funded R&D institutions provide any incubation assistance to start-ups.
For deep tech start-ups specifically, this figure drops to merely one in six institutions.

Insufficient Industry Engagement:

Merely 15% of institutions reported collaborations with international industries—reflecting a weak integration with global innovation networks.

Restricted Access to R&D Infrastructure:

Nearly 50% of the institutions do not permit access to their laboratories and research facilities to external stakeholders such as students, start-ups, or independent researchers.
This restriction undermines open innovation, interdisciplinary research, and technology diffusion.

Budgetary Allocation and Workforce Trends:

R&D Expenditure Patterns:

The Central Government allocated approximately ₹55,685 crore toward R&D in FY 2020–21, of which ₹24,587 crore was distributed to major scientific agencies.
While 25% of institutions reported dedicating over 75% of their budgets to core R&D, a significant number fell below this threshold, indicating skewed resource prioritization.

Human Resource Trends:

A noticeable decline in permanent scientific staff was observed between 2021–22 and 2022–23, replaced increasingly by contractual or project-based hires.
Although the proportion of young researchers rose to 58% in 2022–23 (from 54% in the previous year), this remains below the 63%–65% levels recorded between 2017 and 2020.

Policy Initiatives and Governmental Support:

National Deep Tech Startup Policy (NDTSP):

Envisioned to create a robust, innovation-led deep tech ecosystem in India.
Emphasizes economic security, strategic autonomy, and ethical innovation frameworks.

National Quantum Mission:

Facilitates research and commercialization in quantum computing and allied technologies, with applications in drug discovery, life sciences, and climate solutions.
Indian start-ups like QpiAI are spearheading indigenous quantum innovation.

Recommendations for Strengthening India’s Deep Tech Ecosystem:

Foster Strategic Industry Collaboration:

Strengthen linkages with both domestic and international industries to scale innovation and enhance technology transfer.

Expand Incubation and Funding Support:

Develop targeted incubation programs and increase funding for deep tech ventures, given their longer gestation periods and higher capital requirements.

Democratize Access to Research Facilities:

Ensure open and equitable access to publicly funded R&D infrastructure for non-institutional stakeholders to stimulate collaborative research.

Align Institutional Mandates with National Priorities:

Reorient R&D objectives to align with the goals of Viksit Bharat@2047, emphasizing strategic research, societal impact, and economic development.

With reference to deep tech start-ups, consider the following statements:

Deep tech start-ups primarily rely on business model innovations rather than scientific research.
They typically involve longer development cycles and greater technological uncertainty than traditional start-ups.
Their success depends significantly on foundational advancements in scientific disciplines like quantum mechanics, biotechnology, or advanced materials.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: “Deep tech start-ups primarily rely on business model innovations rather than scientific research.”
Statement 2: “They typically involve longer development cycles and greater technological uncertainty than traditional start-ups.”
Statement 3: “Their success depends significantly on foundational advancements in scientific disciplines like quantum mechanics, biotechnology, or advanced materials.”

India Considers Allowing 49% Foreign Stakes in Nuclear Power Plants

Syllabus: GS3/ Infrastructure and Energy

Context:

India is considering allowing foreign companies to hold up to 49% stake in its nuclear power plants to accelerate decarbonization goals and enhance clean energy capacity.

Background:

Currently, India’s nuclear energy sector is exclusively operated by state-owned entities—Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL) and its subsidiary Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI).
To enable private and foreign participation, the government is proposing amendments to the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.

Nuclear Energy Basics:

Nuclear energy is derived from nuclear reactions—either fission (splitting of uranium or plutonium atoms) or fusion (combining atomic nuclei). In India, nuclear fission is used to produce electricity.

Current Nuclear Power Status in India:

Installed nuclear capacity: 8,180 MW (~2% of total electricity capacity), across 24 reactors.
Expansion: 10 new reactors (8 GW) under construction across various states.
Approval granted for a 6×1208 MW plant in Andhra Pradesh in collaboration with the USA.

Rationale for Foreign/Private Involvement:

Clean Energy Transition: Coal accounts for over 70% of India’s electricity; nuclear offers a low-carbon baseload alternative.
High Capital Costs: Nuclear projects require large upfront investment; FDI will enable faster capital mobilization and tech transfer.
Despite the 2008 Indo-US Civil Nuclear Agreement, commercial deals lag due to liability concerns under existing legislation.

Proposed Reforms:

FDI up to 49% in nuclear energy ventures under legislative amendments.
Atomic Energy Act, 1962: To permit private entities to construct, own, and operate nuclear power plants.
Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010: Proposed amendments aim to reduce supplier liability—capping it to contract value and limiting the duration.
Liability cap for small reactor operators proposed at $58 million; large reactor cap remains at $175 million.

Oversight and Safety:

Regulatory control to remain with Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) and Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
Safety standards to adhere to IAEA guidelines.

Way Forward:

Establish a clear regulatory framework ensuring compliance, safety, and transparency.

Implement reforms through pilot projects to assess risks and build trust before scaling up private sector involvement

With reference to proposed reforms in India’s nuclear energy sector, consider the following statements:

The amendments to the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 seek to allow private sector entities to construct and operate nuclear reactors in India.
Foreign companies may be allowed up to 100% ownership in nuclear power plants under the new proposal.
The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 currently caps the liability of all nuclear operators at $58 million.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Proposed amendments include allowing private entities to construct, own, and operate nuclear plants.
Statement 2 is incorrect: FDI is being considered up to 49%, not 100%.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The cap of $58 million is proposed only for small reactors; large reactor operators remain capped at $175 million.

CCI Notifies New Definitions to Curb Predatory Pricing

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has introduced the “Determination of Cost of Production Regulations, 2025,” replacing the existing framework from 2009.

Objective of the New Regulations::

This regulatory change is designed to enhance the CCI’s ability to scrutinize predatory pricing and deep discounting practices, particularly in the e-commerce and quick commerce sectors.

Background: Predatory Pricing and Competition Law

Predatory pricing, under the Competition Act, 2002, refers to the practice of selling goods or services at a price lower than the cost of production with the intent to reduce competition or eliminate competitors.
Such practices are deemed to be an abuse of dominant market position under Section 4 of the Act.The previous 2009 regulations were becoming increasingly inadequate in addressing the complexities of modern digital markets, which involve intricate pricing structures, cross-subsidies, and non-monetary exchanges.

Key Features of the 2025 Regulations

Flexible, Sector-Agnostic Framework::The new regulations move away from a one-size-fits-all approach. They provide for a case-by-case analysis, adapting to sector-specific dynamics, including those seen in platform-based digital businesses.
Focus on Measurable Production Costs:The regulations reaffirm that internal production costs, rather than market value, will serve as the benchmark for assessing predatory pricing. Market value, influenced by factors such as consumer perceptions, brand value, and subsidies, was rejected due to its subjectivity and external dependencies.
Modernization and Global Alignment:The regulations align with international competition law standards and best practices. They incorporate modern economic theories and judicial interpretations that address the complexities of platform economies and dynamic pricing in today’s markets.

Significance of the 2025 Regulations

Legal Clarity:The new framework offers clear guidelines for determining cost benchmarks, grounded in economic reasoning, making it easier for the CCI to assess potential cases of predatory pricing.
Digital Economy Readiness:The regulations account for the unique challenges posed by the digital economy, including cross-subsidization, high fixed costs, and unconventional revenue models often found in platform-based businesses.
Consumer and MSME Protection:By preventing large firms from engaging in price wars that could drive out smaller competitors, the regulations aim to safeguard consumers and protect the interests of micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs).
Ease of Regulation:The updated framework enhances the CCI’s capacity to efficiently investigate and adjudicate cases involving anti-competitive pricing practices, ensuring consistency in its

Consider the following statements regarding the “Determination of Cost of Production Regulations, 2025” notified by the Competition Commission of India (CCI):

The new regulations replace the 2009 framework and aim to provide the CCI with enhanced powers to scrutinize predatory pricing, particularly in e-commerce and quick commerce sectors.
The 2025 regulations introduce a flexible, sector-agnostic framework, allowing a case-by-case assessment tailored to specific sector dynamics, including digital platforms.
The regulations adopt market value as the primary benchmark for determining the cost of production, as opposed to internal production costs.
The 2025 regulations align with global competition law standards, addressing the complexities of digital markets, cross-subsidies, and non-monetary value exchanges.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: The 2025 regulations replace the 2009 framework, providing the CCI with enhanced powers to examine predatory pricing, especially in digital sectors.
Statement 2: The new regulations offer a sector-agnostic, flexible approach, allowing for case-by-case assessments tailored to the specifics of different sectors, including platform-based businesses.
Statement 3: The regulations focus on internal production costs as the benchmark, rejecting the use of market value due to its subjectivity and external dependencies.
Statement 4: The 2025 regulations align with international competition law standards and incorporate insights from modern economic theories, addressing challenges in digital platforms and dynamic pricing

India rolls over $50 million worth Treasury Bill to help Maldives

Syllabus:Economy

Recent findings published in Earth and Planetary Science Letters have unveiled that the Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains (GSM) in East Antarctica began forming over 500 million years ago, during the assembly of the Gondwana supercontinent.

What Are the Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains?

The Gamburtsev Mountains are a completely buried mountain range, lying beneath the East Antarctic Ice Sheet, at the continent’s highest elevation.
Discovered in 1958 by a Soviet seismic survey, these mountains remain entirely concealed under several kilometers of ice, unlike the Transantarctic Mountains, which are partially exposed.
Their existence within the tectonically stable East Antarctic craton has long puzzled geologists, as typical mountain formation results from active plate tectonics (e.g., collision, subduction), not in geologically inert zones.

Unlocking the Past: Zircon Analysis

Researchers traced the origin and evolution of GSM through zircon grains found in sandstone deposits in the Prince Charles Mountains, carried by ancient river systems originating from the buried range.
Zircons, containing trace amounts of uranium, serve as natural radioactive clocks. Uranium decays at a known rate, allowing for precise radiometric dating.

Chronology of Formation

The study’s zircon dating revealed the following geological timeline:
~650 million years ago (Ma): Initial uplift began, possibly due to ancient tectonic reactivation.
~580 Ma: The mountain range reached Himalayan-scale elevations.
~500 Ma: Crustal melting and viscous flow activity ceased, stabilizing the range during Gondwana’s assembly.

Significance

The GSM’s formation represents a rare instance of mountain-building deep within a stable continental interior and provides critical insights into:
Ancient tectono-thermal events in East Antarctica,
The pre-glacial landscape evolution of the continent,
The geodynamic history surrounding the formation of supercontinents like Gondwana.

With reference to the formation and geological significance of the Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains (GSM) in East Antarctica, consider the following statements:

The GSM are entirely buried beneath the East Antarctic Ice Sheet and were first discovered during the International Geophysical Year in 1958 by a Soviet seismic expedition.
Geological evidence suggests that the GSM began forming approximately 650 million years ago, reaching their peak elevation around 580 million years ago, with crustal melting and flow ceasing around 500 million years ago.
The formation of the GSM is attributed to tectonic collisions during the assembly of the supercontinent Gondwana, despite East Antarctica’s long-standing tectonic stability.
The GSM are currently the only known mountain range completely buried beneath an ice sheet, making them unique in Earth’s geological record.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains were indeed discovered in 1958 by a Soviet seismic expedition during the International Geophysical Year.
Statement 2: Zircon dating from sandstones in the Prince Charles Mountains indicates that the GSM began uplifting around 650 million years ago, achieved significant elevation by 580 million years ago, and experienced crustal melting and flow that ceased approximately 500 million years ago.
Statement 3: The formation of the GSM is linked to tectonic collisions during the assembly of Gondwana, which is notable given East Antarctica’s current tectonic stability.
Statement 4: While the GSM are a significant example of a mountain range entirely buried beneath an ice sheet, they are not the only such range. Other subglacial mountain ranges exist beneath the Antarctic Ice Sheet, such as the Transantarctic Mountains, parts of which are also buried under ice.

Mismatch Between MGNREGS Coverage and Delivery

Syllabus: GS2/Policy and Intervention; GS3/Economy

Context:

A recent report by LibTech India has questioned the effectiveness of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) for the financial year 2024–25.

Key Findings of the Report

Increase in Coverage: Registered households under MGNREGS rose by 8.6%, from 13.80 crore in FY 2023–24 to 14.98 crore in FY 2024–25.
Decline in Employment Days: Despite increased registration, total persondays fell by 7.1%. Average employment per household decreased by 4.3%, from 52.42 days to 50.18 days.
Low Full Employment: Only around 7% of households received the full 100 days of employment guaranteed under the Act.
Regional Disparities: States such as Odisha (34.8%), Tamil Nadu (25.1%), and Rajasthan (15.9%) experienced sharp declines in employment days, while Maharashtra (39.7%), Himachal Pradesh (14.8%), and Bihar (13.3%) recorded increases.

Key Features of MGNREGA (2005)

Employment Guarantee: Provides a legal guarantee of 100 days of wage employment per rural household annually.
Funding Structure: Costs shared between Centre and States in a 90:10 ratio; budget allocations vary according to demand.
Legal Entitlement: Workers have the right to demand employment, with compensation payable if work is not provided within 15 days.
Wage Payment and Worksite Facilities: Wages must be disbursed within 15 days of work completion; worksites are required to provide drinking water, shade, and first aid facilities.

Objectives

Asset Creation: Focus on creating durable rural infrastructure such as water conservation systems, roads, and irrigation.
Social Inclusion: Emphasizes priority for women, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes.
Decentralized Planning: Involves Panchayati Raj Institutions in planning and execution to strengthen local governance.

Implementation and Impact

Initially launched in 200 districts in 2006, the scheme now covers all rural districts nationwide.
Women’s participation has increased from 48% in FY 2013–14 to over 58% in FY 2024–25.
More than 8.07 crore rural assets have been created under the scheme to date.

Challenges Affecting MGNREGS Delivery

Budget Constraints: The Union government allocated ₹86,000 crore for FY 2024–25, significantly lower than the ₹2.64 lakh crore recommended by the People’s Action for Employment Guarantee (PAEG).
Delayed Wage Payments: Persistent delays have reduced workers’ motivation to participate.
High Deletion Rates: Between 2022 and 2024, 7.8 crore workers were removed from the scheme while only 1.92 crore were added, raising concerns over accessibility and inclusiveness.

Way Forward

Ensure timely and adequate budget revisions to meet demand.
Streamline wage payments to enhance participation and trust in the scheme.
Improve monitoring mechanisms to track employment patterns and prevent wrongful exclusions.

Consider the following statements about the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS):

MGNREGS legally guarantees 100 days of wage employment per rural household annually.
The cost-sharing ratio between Centre and States is fixed at 75:25 irrespective of the demand.
Compensation is payable if employment is not provided within 15 days of demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct:

MGNREGS legally guarantees up to 100 days of wage employment to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. This is a key feature that distinguishes it as an employment guarantee scheme rather than a mere employment creation scheme.

Statement 2: Incorrect:

The cost-sharing ratio between the Centre and States under MGNREGS is not fixed at 75:25.
For most states, the ratio is 90:10 (Centre:State).
For some special category states (like the North-Eastern states, Sikkim, and Himachal Pradesh), the ratio is 100% funded by the Centre.
Thus, the ratio varies based on the state and the demand, and it is definitely not a fixed 75:25.

Statement 3: Correct:

The Act mandates that if a worker is not provided employment within 15 days of demanding work, they are entitled to unemployment allowance (compensation). This legal provision strengthens the enforceability of the scheme.

Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI)

Syllabus:Economy

Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI)

Context: The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications, has launched the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) to combat mobile-enabled financial frauds.

What is FRI?

A technology-driven analytical framework that evaluates and flags mobile numbers based on their propensity for involvement in financial fraud. It serves as an early warning mechanism for financial institutions.

Key Objectives:

Adopt a prevention-first approach to financial cybercrimes
Provide banks, NBFCs, and UPI platforms with real-time intelligence to prevent fraudulent transactions
Strengthen consumer protection in the digital finance ecosystem

Salient Features:

Risk Categorisation: Mobile numbers classified into Medium, High, or Very High risk based on behavioral analytics
Real-time Integration: Linked with digital payment platforms; alerts triggered before transactions are finalized
Stakeholder Access: Empowers financial entities to implement pre-emptive fraud control measures
Pre-Transaction Verification: Acts as a proactive cyber risk filter during live digital transactions
Dynamic and Adaptive System: Regularly updated using data from fraud trends and law enforcement agencies

With reference to the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), consider the following statements:

It is developed by the Reserve Bank of India as part of its digital payment oversight mechanism.
It uses real-time behavioral analytics to classify mobile numbers into various risk tiers.
FRI alerts are generated post-transaction to help law enforcement track financial frauds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer:B
Explanation:

FRI is developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), not RBI. Alerts are pre-transactional for preventive action, not post-transaction.
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) was developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of Communications, not by the Reserve Bank of India.
While the RBI does play a significant role in regulating digital payments and financial systems in India, the FRI is specifically a telecom-driven cybersecurity initiative aimed at preventing mobile-based financial frauds.
It is part of a broader effort to strengthen India’s digital infrastructure and protect consumers from evolving threats in the cyberspace, particularly those involving mobile numbers used in fraudulent transactions.

India Post Payments Bank Collaborates with Aditya Birla Capital to Enhance Access to Loan Products Nationwide

Syllabus:Economy

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), a Government of India undertaking, has partnered with Aditya Birla Capital Ltd.
(ABCL), a leading financial services company, to improve access to loan products across India, particularly in rural and underserved areas.
Under this collaboration, IPPB will provide referral services for ABCL’s loan offerings, including personal loans, business loans, and loans against property.
Customers will benefit from quick approvals, minimal documentation, and hassle-free disbursements through IPPB’s digital platforms.
The initiative uses AI and data analytics to offer personalized financial solutions tailored to individual needs.
IPPB was established on 17 August 2016, is headquartered in New Delhi, and is led by MD & CEO Mr. R. Viswesvaran.

With reference to the partnership between India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) and Aditya Birla Capital Ltd. (ABCL), consider the following statements:

The partnership allows IPPB to directly disburse loan amounts to customers from its own corpus.
ABCL’s loan products will be accessible through IPPB’s digital channels in both urban and rural areas.
The use of AI and data analytics in this partnership aims to ensure credit allocation based solely on income tax records.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: IPPB acts only as a referral partner, not a lending institution in this context.
Statement 2 is correct: The partnership is designed to reach both urban and rural populations via IPPB’s digital network.
Statement 3 is incorrect: AI-driven personalization considers multiple data sources, not just income tax records.

Government to Play Key Role in New Payments Regulatory Board

Syllabus: Economy

The Central Government has notified the Payments Regulatory Board Regulations, 2025, establishing a Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) to replace the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS)—previously a committee under the RBI Central Board.

About the PRB

Statutory Basis: Established under Section 3 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Assisted by: The Department of Payment and Settlement Systems (DPSS) within the RBI.

Board Composition

Chairperson: RBI Governor
Members:
RBI Deputy Governor (in charge of payment and settlement systems)
One RBI officer nominated by the Central Board
Three members nominated by the Central Government
Experts in payment systems, IT, law, etc., may be invited (permanent or ad hoc)
RBI’s Principal Legal Adviser is a permanent invitee

Voting and Decision-Making

Total 6 voting members (3 RBI + 3 Government)
RBI Governor holds a casting vote in case of a tie
Each member has one vote
Decisions passed by majority vote
Meetings and Delegation
Minimum of two meetings annually
Chaired by Governor or Deputy Governor (in absence)
Board may delegate powers to sub-committees, members, or RBI officers
Eligibility Criteria for PRB Members
Must be below 70 years
Cannot be a sitting MP or MLA
Must not have material conflict of interest with any payment system
Background and Rationale
A 2017 committee recommended an independent PRB with a Chairperson appointed by the Government in consultation with the RBI.
RBI opposed the idea of an external regulator, insisting the Governor head the PRB and retain the casting vote.
The final structure aligns with RBI’s proposal, ensuring regulatory oversight remains within the RBI framework.

Strategic Importance

The PRB is expected to bring a holistic perspective by including members with expertise in technology and payment systems.
It will act as a coordinating body across departments like Fintech and DPSS, promoting uniform standards across the digital payments ecosystem.

With reference to the partnership between India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) and Aditya Birla Capital Ltd. (ABCL), consider the following statements:

The partnership allows IPPB to directly disburse loan amounts to customers from its own corpus.
ABCL’s loan products will be accessible through IPPB’s digital channels in both urban and rural areas.
The use of AI and data analytics in this partnership aims to ensure credit allocation based solely on income tax records.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: IPPB acts only as a referral partner, not a lending institution in this context.
Statement 2 is correct: The partnership is designed to reach both urban and rural populations via IPPB’s digital network.
Statement 3 is incorrect: AI-driven personalization considers multiple data sources, not just income tax records.

New Development Bank (NDB)

Syllabus:Economy

Algeria has officially become a member of the New Development Bank (NDB), the multilateral institution backed by BRICS nations, marking a strategic extension of the Bank’s reach into North Africa.

About the New Development Bank (NDB)

Origin & Establishment:

Initially conceptualized in 2012 during the BRICS Summit in New Delhi.
The formal agreement for setting up the bank was signed on July 15, 2014, at the Fortaleza Summit (Brazil).
The bank officially commenced operations on July 21, 2015.

Objective:

To mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development in BRICS nations and other emerging and developing economies.
Headquarters & Presence:
Headquartered in Shanghai, China.
Regional offices are established in South Africa and Brazil, with expanding outreach.

Membership and Capital Structure

Open Membership:
Membership is open to any member state of the United Nations.
Capital Base:
Authorized Capital: USD 100 billion.
Initial Subscribed Capital: USD 50 billion, equally shared among the five founding members – Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
Voting Rights:
Each founding member enjoys equal voting power, unlike the asymmetrical shareholding seen in institutions like the World Bank or Asian Development Bank (ADB).

Governance Structure

Board of Governors:Comprised of the finance ministers of the five founding BRICS countries.
Board of Directors:Oversees project approvals and strategic direction.
Leadership Rotation:The positions of President and Vice-President are rotated among the founding BRICS nations.

With reference to the New Development Bank (NDB), consider the following statements:

The idea of establishing the NDB was first proposed at the BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil in 2014.
Unlike the World Bank, the NDB ensures equal voting power among its founding members.
The headquarters of the NDB is located in Johannesburg, South Africa.
The New Development Bank provides financial assistance only to BRICS countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 2 only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The idea was first proposed in the 2012 BRICS Summit in New Delhi, not in Fortaleza.
Statement 2 is correct: All founding members have equal voting rights.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The headquarters is in Shanghai, China, not Johannesburg.
Statement 4 is incorrect: NDB extends support to all developing and emerging economies, not just BRICS.

Microfinance Loan Delinquencies Jump 163% in FY2025

Syllabus:Economy

India’s microfinance sector has experienced a significant increase in loan delinquencies, surging by 163% to reach Rs 43,075 crore in FY2025.

What is Microfinance?

Microfinance provides financial services—including microloans, savings, insurance, and remittances—to low-income individuals or groups typically excluded from traditional banking.
These services are mainly offered by NBFC-MFIs, Small Finance Banks (SFBs), and banks.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) defines a microfinance loan as a collateral-free loan extended to households with an annual income up to ₹3,00,000.

Key Trends in the Microfinance Sector:

The gross loan portfolio declined by 13.9% year-on-year, from ₹4.42 lakh crore in March 2024 to ₹3.81 lakh crore in March 2025.
There is a noticeable shift from low-ticket to high-ticket loans: loans exceeding ₹1 lakh grew by 38.5% year-on-year, while loans under ₹30,000 dropped by 35.9%.
The number of active microfinance loans decreased from 16.1 crore to 14 crore during FY2025.
Borrowers with five or more lenders reduced from 9.7% to 4.9%.

Causes of Rising Delinquencies:

Overleveraging: Borrowers, particularly in rural and semi-urban areas, often take loans from multiple institutions, resulting in unsustainable debt levels.
Weak Credit Appraisal: Many MFIs, especially smaller NBFC-MFIs and pressured banks, have relaxed credit checks, lending without thorough background assessments.
Income Instability: Post-pandemic economic disruptions, inflation, rural distress, and unstable employment have diminished borrowers’ repayment capacity.
Collection Inefficiencies: Reduced field engagement post-COVID, increased digital reliance, and weak recovery mechanisms in some regions have hindered loan collection.
Loan Utilization Issues: A significant portion of microfinance loans is diverted from income-generating activities toward consumption or social needs such as weddings, festivals, or health emergencies.

Government Initiatives:

Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY): Launched in 2015, PMMY enables small businesses to access collateral-free microcredit up to Rs 10 lakhs through MFIs and other financial institutions, with refinancing support from MUDRA Ltd.
Udyam Assist Platform (UAP): This platform assists informal micro-entrepreneurs, many of whom are MFI clients, in registering as MSMEs to access priority sector lending, subsidies, and credit guarantees under various schemes.
Credit Information Sharing: RBI mandates all microfinance lenders to report borrower data to credit bureaus such as CRIF High Mark and CIBIL, facilitating better credit assessments.
RBI’s Revised Regulatory Framework for Microfinance Loans (2022): This uniform framework regulates all lenders—banks, NBFCs, NBFC-MFIs, and SFBs—aimed at borrower protection and promoting responsible lending.

The Way Forward:

Strengthening credit assessment tools is crucial to prevent borrower over-indebtedness.
Utilizing credit bureau data effectively helps identify early signs of financial stress.
Enhanced regulatory oversight by RBI and state authorities is needed to ensure fair collection practices and responsible lending norms.
Promoting financial literacy and inclusion will empower borrowers to understand their credit obligations and rights, fostering a healthier microfinance ecosystem.

Consider the following statements about India’s microfinance sector:

The Reserve Bank of India defines a microfinance loan as a collateral-free loan given to a household with an annual income up to ₹3,00,000.
The sector witnessed a rise in microfinance loan delinquencies by over 150% in FY2025 despite the gross loan portfolio increasing during the same period.
The shift in loan ticket size in FY2025 indicated a significant growth in loans below ₹30,000 and a decline in loans above ₹1 lakh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above

Correct answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. RBI defines microfinance loans as collateral-free loans to households earning up to ₹3,00,000 annually.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Although loan delinquencies surged by 163%, the gross loan portfolio declined by about 13.9% in FY2025, not increased.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The trend was a shift from low-ticket loans (< ₹30,000 declined by ~35.9%) to high-ticket loans (> ₹1 lakh grew by ~38.5%).

RoDTEP scheme

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy

The Government of India has reinstated benefits under the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme for three key categories: Advance Authorization (AA) holders, Export-Oriented Units (EOUs), and Special Economic Zone (SEZ)
These benefits will apply to all eligible exports made from 1st June 2025

About the RoDTEP Scheme:

Launch: January 2021
Objective: To reimburse embedded taxes and duties on exported goods that were previously non-recoverable.
Coverage: Includes Central, State, and local levies not refunded under any other scheme.
WTO Compliance: Designed to align with World Trade Organization (WTO) norms by neutralizing domestic taxes on exports.

Implementation Mechanism:

Fully digitalized and transparent.
Benefits are disbursed in the form of transferable electronic duty credit scrips issued by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC).
Principle: Upholds the global trade norm that exported products should not carry the burden of domestic taxes.

With reference to the RoDTEP scheme, consider the following statements:

The scheme allows reimbursement of both refundable and non-refundable duties and taxes incurred during the production and export of goods.
It is compliant with the provisions of the WTO Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures.
The electronic scrips issued under the scheme are non-transferable and can only be used by the original exporter.
The benefits under the scheme were initially not available to SEZ units and EOUs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: RoDTEP only refunds previously non-refundable embedded taxes and duties, not those that are already refundable.
Statement 2 is correct: The scheme was designed in compliance with WTO norms.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The scrips are transferable.
Statement 4 is correct: SEZs, EOUs, and AA holders were initially excluded but were later included (from June 1, 2025).

Quality Council of India (QCI)

Syllabus:Economy

The Quality Council of India (QCI) is an autonomous national accreditation body established to ensure quality assurance in products, services, and processes across various sectors through independent third-party assessments.

Establishment and Administration:

Founded in 1996 following recommendations from an EU Expert Mission and extensive inter-ministerial consultations.
It operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, specifically the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
Headquarters: World Trade Centre (WTC), New Delhi.

Objectives:

Promote adoption and implementation of quality standards in both public and private sectors.
Provide independent accreditation and third-party assessments to uphold quality.
Improve quality of life and public service delivery by enhancing governance standards.
Act as the nodal agency for implementing National Quality Campaigns aligned with global best practices.

Structure and Governance:

Operates on a Public–Private Partnership (PPP) model involving government and key industry associations such as CII, FICCI, and ASSOCHAM.
Registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
Governed by a Council of 39 members representing government, industry, and other stakeholders equally.
The Chairperson is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.

Key Functions:

Accreditation Services: Through specialized bodies like NABL (labs), NABH (healthcare), NABET (environment), and NBQP, QCI ensures quality standards across sectors.
Third-Party Assessments: Conducts independent evaluations of services, infrastructure, and government schemes.
Policy Support: Facilitates implementation of quality mandates under flagship programs such as Swachh Bharat and Ayushman Bharat.
Capacity Building: Trains auditors and personnel for quality improvement initiatives.
Global Alignment: Collaborates internationally to align India’s quality ecosystem with WTO standards and global benchmarks.

Consider the following statements about the Quality Council of India (QCI):

QCI was established as a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
It operates on a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model involving government and industry associations like CII, FICCI, and ASSOCHAM.
The Chairperson of QCI is nominated by the Prime Minister of India.
QCI is responsible for accreditation through bodies such as NABL, NABH, and NABET.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer:B
Explanation:

QCI is an autonomous body registered under Societies Registration Act, not a statutory body (statement 1 incorrect).
It operates under a PPP model (2), Chairperson is PM-nominated (3), and it handles accreditation through NABL, NABH, NABET etc. (4).

RBI Balance Sheet Growth and Economic Outlook 2025

Syllabus:Economy

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reported an 8.2% expansion in its balance sheet for the financial year 2024–25, bringing the total to ₹76.25 lakh crore.
This increase reflects the robust performance of India’s central banking system amid a turbulent global economic landscape, reinforcing India’s position as the fastest-growing major economy projected for 2025–26.
The RBI’s income increased by 22.77%, driven primarily by gains in foreign exchange operations and higher returns from gold and domestic investments.
Total expenditure grew at a relatively moderate 7.76%. The overall surplus rose by 27.37%, reaching ₹2.69 trillion, enabling a significant transfer to the Central Government.
Gold holdings increased by 52.09%, marking the highest contribution to asset expansion.
Domestic investments grew by 14.32%, reflecting active open market operations and liquidity management.
Foreign investments saw marginal growth of 1.70%, indicative of steady foreign exchange reserve management.
As of 31 March 2025, domestic assets accounted for 25.73% of total assets, while foreign currency assets, gold, and loans to financial institutions made up 74.27%. On the liabilities side, notes issued increased by 6.03%, revaluation accounts by 17.32%, and other liabilities by 23.31%.
The value of banknotes in circulation rose by 6%, with ₹500 notes remaining the most circulated denomination despite a slight decline in their share.
Withdrawal of ₹2000 notes continued, with 98.2% returned to banks. The value of coins in circulation increased by 9.6%.
The e-rupee saw a surge in usage by 334%, signaling greater acceptance of digital currency. While counterfeit notes generally declined, increases were observed in ₹200 notes by 13.9% and ₹500 notes by 37.3%.
The RBI reaffirmed its commitment to macroeconomic stability, citing easing supply chain pressures, robust agricultural output, and a favorable inflation trajectory, with confidence in aligning headline inflation with the 4% target over the next 12 months.
The report advised commercial banks to strengthen their risk management frameworks, especially concerning interest rate risk exposure, mitigation of trading and banking book risks, and preserving net interest margins amid a moderating yield environment.

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) balance sheet for the financial year 2024-25:

Gold holdings contributed the highest percentage increase to the RBI’s asset expansion during the year.
Domestic assets constitute less than one-third of the total assets of the RBI as of March 31, 2025.
The increase in foreign investments was the primary driver of the RBI’s balance sheet expansion in 2024-25.
Revaluation accounts form a part of the liabilities side and increased by more than 15% in 2024-25.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above

Answer:A

Explanation:

Gold holdings increased by 52.09%, the largest contributor to asset growth; domestic assets were 25.73%, less than one-third; foreign investments rose marginally by 1.7%, not the primary driver; revaluation accounts on liabilities rose by 17.32%, over 15%.

USTR Releases 2025 “Special 301 Report” on Protecting Intellectual Property Rights

Syllabus: GS 3/intellectual Property Rights

The Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) has released the Special 301 Report 2025, which evaluates the effectiveness of intellectual property (IP) rights protection and enforcement among U.S. trading partners.
India continues to feature on the ‘Priority Watch List’ due to several persistent IP-related concerns.

About the Special 301 Report

The report is an annual review conducted under Section 182 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended by the Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988 and the Uruguay Round Agreements Act.
It identifies countries with inadequate IP protection or enforcement mechanisms and aims to address key issues such as:
Weak IP enforcement
Inadequate trade secret protection
Discriminatory innovation policies
Online piracy and counterfeiting
Barriers to market access for IP-intensive goods
In 2025, over 100 trading partners were reviewed; 26 were placed on either the Watch List or Priority Watch List.
Review of Ukraine was suspended due to the ongoing conflict.

India-Specific Findings

India remains on the Priority Watch List for 2025.
Key concerns highlighted by the USTR include:
Ambiguity in patent laws
Delays in patent and trademark approvals
Weak copyright and trade secret enforcement
Unauthorized content sharing and digital piracy
High import duties on IP-intensive products
Despite these concerns, the report acknowledged India’s engagement with the U.S. and recent policy steps.

Recent Progress by India

India notified the Patents (Amendment) Rules, 2024, which aim to address long-standing issues such as:
Streamlining pre-grant opposition proceedings
Reducing compliance burdens related to patent reporting
These amendments mark incremental progress in improving the patent regime.

Future Outlook

The U.S. intends to monitor the implementation of India’s patent law amendments.
It encourages India to take further steps to:
Expedite patent approval processes
Strengthen overall IP enforcement and protection frameworks

Did You Know? (WIPI 2024 Data)

India ranks among the top 10 countries globally in all three major IP categories—patents, trademarks, and industrial designs.
In 2023:
India recorded the fastest growth rate in patent applications (15.7%) among the top 20 economies
Filed over 64,000 patent applications, with more than half filed by residents
Patent grants grew by 4% year-on-year
Trademark filings increased by 60% (2018–2023), and India ranked 4th globally in trademark filings in 2023
India now holds the second-largest number of active trademark registrations worldwide (3.2 million)
Industrial design applications rose by 36.4%, driven by sectors like textiles, tools, and healthcare
India’s patent-to-GDP ratio nearly tripled over the past five years

With reference to the “Special 301 Report” released by the United States Trade Representative (USTR), consider the following statements:

It is mandated under the Trade Act of 1974 and focuses exclusively on tariff and non-tariff trade barriers.
The report places countries under either Priority Foreign Country, Priority Watch List, or Watch List based on IP-related concerns.
India was excluded from the 2025 review due to recent amendments to its patent laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Special 301 Report is concerned with intellectual property (IP) rights, not general trade barriers.
Statement 2 is correct: The USTR categorizes countries into Priority Foreign Country, Priority Watch List, and Watch List.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India continues to be on the Priority Watch List in 2025

US-China 90-Day Tariff Truce

Syllabus:IR

The United States and China have agreed to a 90-day pause in their ongoing trade conflict following two days of talks in Geneva. Both countries will suspend all tariff hikes and non-tariff barriers imposed since April 2, with a mutual commitment to resolving trade disputes.

Background: How the Trade War Escalated

Initial Tariffs: The U.S. began imposing tariffs in February, citing concerns over fentanyl exports from China.
April 2 – “Liberation Day”: Marked a major escalation, with the U.S. slapping an additional 34% tariff on Chinese goods.
China’s Response: Beijing hit back with retaliatory tariffs and non-tariff barriers, including export restrictions on rare earths and regulatory crackdowns on U.S. firms.
By April 10:
S. tariffs on Chinese goods: 145%
China’s tariffs on U.S. goods: 125%
A $100 Chinese item effectively cost $245 in the U.S.

Why Tariffs Were Imposed

Trade Deficit: The U.S. cited a $1.2 trillion trade deficit in goods, arguing it reflected unfair trade.
Unfair Competition: Claims that foreign nations subsidize exports and shield local firms, putting U.S. businesses at a disadvantage.
Policy Shift: After failed diplomatic efforts, the U.S. adopted high tariffs as a defense mechanism for domestic industries.

Post-Truce Trade Landscape

Tariff Reduction: Both countries lowered base tariffs to 10% on imports.
S. Exception: A 20% additional tariff remains on Chinese goods tied to fentanyl concerns, totaling a 30% effective tariff.
China’s Action: Beijing has lifted non-tariff measures, including export controls and corporate investigations.

Why the Truce Happened

Consumer Impact: Tariffs raised prices, hurting consumers more than helping producers.
Economic Strain: Retailers like Walmart warned of supply shortages and rising costs.
Recession Risk: The U.S. economy contracted in Q1 2025, and economists warned of a looming recession and possible stagflation.

Conclusion

The agreement marks a temporary ceasefire, not a resolution. With deep mistrust and complex negotiations ahead, the truce offers only a window for diplomacy — not a guaranteed peace.

With reference to the US-China Tariff Truce of 2025, consider the following statements:

The 90-day truce completely eliminated all tariffs and non-tariff barriers between the two nations.
One of the triggers for the initial US tariff imposition was the illicit trade in synthetic opioids.
China’s response to US tariffs included both retaliatory tariffs and export controls on critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tariffs were reduced, not eliminated.
Statement 2 is correct: Fentanyl trade was a key reason.
Statement 3 is correct: China used both tariffs and non-tariff barriers like export restrictions.

Trump calls Putin, says Russia-Ukraine will ‘immediately’ begin ceasefire negotiations

S. President Donald Trump announced that Russia and Ukraine would “immediately” begin ceasefire negotiations following an “excellent” phone call with Russian President Vladimir Putin that lasted over two hours.
In addition to speaking with Putin, Trump also held discussions with Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy and European leaders, aiming to advance progress toward a ceasefire.
“The terms will be negotiated between the two parties, as it must be, since they possess negotiation details unknown to anyone else,” Trump said in a social media post. The call came after the White House expressed frustration with both sides over the ongoing war in Ukraine.
Following the conversation, Putin stated that Russia is ready to continue talks to end the conflict but acknowledged there was no breakthrough in what he described as a “very informative and very frank” discussion with Trump. Putin emphasized the need for all parties to find compromises that suit everyone.
He added, “Russia’s position is clear: the priority is to address the root causes of this crisis.”
Trump has faced significant challenges in ending the war that erupted with Russia’s invasion of Ukraine in February 2022. These talks represent a critical test of his reputation as a dealmaker, after pledging to swiftly resolve the conflict if reelected.
Ahead of the call, Trump expressed optimism for a “productive day” and a ceasefire. His efforts also include outreach to NATO leaders. However, Vice President J.D. Vance indicated that Trump is “more than open” to abandoning the peace effort if Putin proves insincere. White House Press Secretary Karoline Leavitt remarked that Trump is “weary and frustrated with both sides” ahead of the talks.
Trump is relying on his personal rapport with Putin and his forceful personality to overcome deadlocks and secure a pause in the fighting.

Which of the following statements about the recent ceasefire negotiations between Russia and Ukraine is/are correct?

The ceasefire talks were initiated following a call between U.S. President Donald Trump and Russian President Vladimir Putin.
The United States played a direct mediating role by setting the terms of the ceasefire.
Russian President Vladimir Putin emphasized addressing the root causes of the conflict.
Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy was also involved in discussions with President Trump.

Select the correct answer:
A) 1, 3, and 4 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) All of the above

Answer: A) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

“The ceasefire talks were initiated following a call between U.S. President Donald Trump and Russian President Vladimir Putin.
”This is correct. According to the reports, President Trump held an extensive phone call with President Putin, which lasted over two hours, after which it was announced that Russia and Ukraine would “immediately” begin ceasefire negotiations.
Thus, the talks were triggered or at least publicly acknowledged following this high-profile communication.

India and the European Union (EU)

Syllabus:IR

Context

India and the European Union (EU) have resumed negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), aiming to finalize a comprehensive deal in two phases.
Talks, which had been stalled since 2013 due to market access issues, resumed in June 2022.
Both sides have now agreed to conclude the agreement using India’s phased negotiation approach, similar to the one adopted in FTAs with Australia.
The goal is to seal the deal by the end of 2025, as agreed upon by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the European Commission President.

Key Areas of Focus

Market Access: EU seeks tariff reductions in sectors such as automobiles, medical devices, wines, spirits, meat, and poultry.
Services & Investment: Discussions include liberalization of services, investment protection, and clearer dispute resolution frameworks.
Regulatory Issues: Strengthening of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), and agreements on:
Sanitary & phytosanitary measures
Technical barriers to trade
Customs procedures
Government procurement
Sustainability and green transition

Expected Benefits

Boost to Indian exports, especially garments, pharmaceuticals, steel, petroleum, and electrical machinery.
Stronger investor confidence and bilateral cooperation.
Promotion of innovation and sustainable development.

India-EU Bilateral Relations

Political Ties

Formal relations date back to the early 1960s.
A Cooperation Agreement was signed in 1994, deepening ties beyond trade.
The first India-EU Summit in 2000 was a milestone.
In 2004, the partnership was upgraded to a Strategic Partnership at the 5th Summit in The Hague.

Economic Ties

The EU is India’s largest trading partner for goods.
In 2023–24, bilateral trade in goods stood at USD 137.41 billion.
17% of India’s exports go to the EU; 9% of EU exports come to India.
Other Areas of Cooperation
India-EU Water Partnership (IEWP): Launched in 2016 for cooperation on water management technologies and policies.
Nuclear Energy R&D: Agreement signed in 2020 for peaceful research collaboration.
Trade and Technology Council (TTC): Established in 2023 to foster cooperation on trade, technology, and security.

About the European Union (EU):A political and economic union of 27 countries.

Origins:

Started as the European Coal and Steel Community (1950) with six members.
Became the European Economic Community (1957) under the Treaty of Rome.
Officially formed as the European Union in 1993 under the Maastricht Treaty.

Purpose: To promote economic and political integration, democratic values, and human rights.

Currency: 20 EU nations use the euro as their official currency.

Global Role: One of the world’s most influential trade and political blocs.

With reference to the India-EU Free Trade Agreement negotiations, consider the following statements:

The negotiations were resumed in 2022 after being suspended due to disagreements over intellectual property rights.
The phased approach adopted in the FTA negotiations with the EU has also been used by India in other FTAs.
The EU has no existing FTAs with any Asian country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – The negotiations were suspended in 2013 primarily due to disagreements over market access, not intellectual property rights.
Statement 2 is correct – India has adopted a phased approach in FTA negotiations with countries like Australia.
Statement 3 is incorrect – The EU has existing FTAs with several Asian countries including South Korea, Japan, and Vietnam.

India’s Relationship with Türkiye and Azerbaijan

Syllabus:IR

Context:

India’s diplomatic and trade relations with Türkiye and Azerbaijan are under pressure following their vocal support for Pakistan and condemnation of India’s recent counter-terror operations.

Recent Developments:

On May 7, India launched Operation Sindoor targeting nine terror camps in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir in response to the April 22 terror attack in Pahalgam, Kashmir.
During this operation, Pakistan employed Turkish-origin drones in failed attacks on Indian military installations.
Subsequently, India and Pakistan agreed to cease all military actions across land, air, and sea.
Türkiye and Azerbaijan’s statements backing Islamabad triggered a backlash within India, leading to diplomatic and public responses.

India’s Trade Relations with Türkiye

Formal ties: Bilateral trade pact signed in 1973; a Joint Commission for Economic and Technical Cooperation was formed in 1983.
Exports (Apr–Feb 2024-25): USD 5.2 billion (1.5% of India’s total exports)
Imports: USD 2.84 billion (0.5% of India’s total imports)
Major exports to Türkiye: Mineral fuels, electrical machinery, auto components, organic chemicals, pharmaceuticals, textiles, iron and steel
Major imports from Türkiye: Marbles, apples, gold, vegetables, lime, cement, mineral oil, pearls, iron and steel
Trade balance: India enjoys a trade surplus

India’s Trade Relations with Azerbaijan

Exports (Apr–Feb 2024-25): USD 86.07 million (0.02% of India’s total exports)
Imports: USD 1.93 million (0.0002% of India’s total imports)
Major exports: Tobacco, tea, cereals, chemicals, rubber, paper, ceramic products
Major imports: Animal fodder, organic chemicals, essential oils, leather
Oil Trade: India ranked third among importers of Azerbaijani crude oil in 2023
Trade balance: India has a surplus

People-to-People Ties

Indian diaspora: ~3,000 in Türkiye (including 200 students); ~1,500 in Azerbaijan
Tourism: ~3 lakh Indian tourists visited Türkiye and ~2 lakh visited Azerbaijan in 2023

Emerging Challenges

Türkiye and Azerbaijan’s support for Pakistan’s narrative has led to diplomatic strain.
Calls for boycotts of Turkish and Azerbaijani products and tourism have intensified in India.
Tourism cancellations, suspension of promotional campaigns, and withdrawal of academic MoUs (e.g., IIT Bombay, JNU) reflect growing public and institutional backlash.
Indian traders are reportedly reducing imports of Turkish goods like apples and marble in protest.
India’s trade with both countries remains relatively limited in volume but carries strategic and symbolic significance amid rising geopolitical tensions.

With reference to India’s bilateral relations with Türkiye and Azerbaijan in the context of recent geopolitical developments, consider the following statements:

Türkiye and Azerbaijan jointly condemned India’s operation in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, and Türkiye-origin drones were used during the conflict.
India maintains a trade surplus with both Türkiye and Azerbaijan, yet Türkiye accounts for a higher share of India’s imports than Azerbaijan.
Despite strained ties, India remains among the top five destinations for crude oil exports from both Türkiye and Azerbaijan.
Operation Sindoor was India’s first retaliatory military action after the Uri surgical strikes in 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Türkiye and Azerbaijan condemned India’s strikes on terror camps in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. Turkish drones were reportedly used by Pakistan during the conflict.
Statement 2 is correct. India has a trade surplus with both Türkiye and Azerbaijan. Türkiye accounts for a significantly higher share of India’s imports compared to Azerbaijan.
Statement 3 is incorrect. India is a major crude oil importer from Azerbaijan but not from Türkiye.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Operation Sindoor is not the first retaliatory military action since the Uri surgical strikes in 2016. The Balakot airstrikes in 2019 were a significant retaliatory action before Operation Sindoor.

US Passes Take It Down Act

Syllabus: GS2/ International Relations

In the News:

S. President Donald Trump signed the Take It Down Act, which criminalizes the non-consensual sharing of intimate images, including AI-generated deepfakes. The rapid rise of non-consensual deepfakes online is outpacing global regulatory efforts, driven by the widespread availability of AI tools.

What is the Take It Down Act?

The Act makes it a crime to knowingly publish or threaten to publish intimate images without consent, explicitly covering AI-generated deepfakes. It mandates that websites and social media platforms remove such content within 48 hours of receiving a victim’s notice and take measures to delete duplicate copies.

About Deepfakes:

Deepfakes are synthetic media created using artificial intelligence, particularly through machine learning techniques such as Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs). These technologies can produce hyper-realistic images, videos, or audio that falsely depict individuals saying or doing things they never actually did.

Impacts of Deepfakes:

Deepfakes can be weaponized to spread fake news, propaganda, and manipulated statements by public figures, undermining public trust, influencing elections, and inciting social unrest.
A significant unethical application involves creating pornographic content by superimposing individuals’ faces—primarily victimizing women. Additionally, the unauthorized use of someone’s likeness or voice in deepfakes raises critical privacy concerns.

Legal Provisions in India

Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act): Sections 66E and 67 penalize privacy violations and electronic transmission of obscene material.
Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 (now largely replaced by Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita – BNS, 2023): Sections covering defamation (Section 356), organized crime (Section 111), digital theft (Section 316), and cheating (Section 318).
Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023: Addresses unauthorized processing of personal data.
Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986: Prohibits indecent depiction of women.

Legal Gaps and the Need for Specific Deepfake Legislation in India:

Currently, India lacks a dedicated law defining or directly regulating deepfakes. Existing laws address related offenses but do not explicitly cover deepfake technology.
Penalties under current statutes may be insufficient to deter large-scale AI-enabled crimes, highlighting the need for more robust and specific legal frameworks.

With reference to recent developments regarding deepfake regulation, consider the following statements:

The U.S. Take It Down Act mandates removal of non-consensual intimate images, including AI-generated deepfakes, within 48 hours of notice from victims.
India’s current legal framework includes specific laws explicitly defining and regulating deepfake technology.
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 primarily addresses unauthorized processing of personal data and does not specifically criminalize deepfakes.
Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs) are machine learning techniques used to create hyper-realistic synthetic media known as deepfakes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as the Take It Down Act requires platforms to remove such content within 48 hours.
Statement 2 is incorrect because India does not have specific laws explicitly defining or regulating deepfakes.
Statement 3 is correct; the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, deals with unauthorized data processing but does not specifically criminalize deepfakes.
Statement 4 is correct as GANs are the AI technique primarily used to generate deepfakes.

Uturuncu Volcano

Syllabus:Geography

Uturuncu, located in the Central Andes of Bolivia, is often referred to as a “zombie” volcano. Although dormant for 250,000 years, it continues to show signs of activity. Recent studies indicate that this unrest is due to the movement of magma and gases beneath the surface, and understanding these dynamics is key for assessing eruption risks and their potential impacts on local communities.

Characteristics of Uturuncu Volcano

Uturuncu is part of the Altiplano-Puna Volcanic Complex, home to the largest known magma body in Earth’s crust. The volcano is known for its distinct “sombrero” pattern of deformation, where the center rises while the surrounding areas sink. This deformation pattern is crucial for understanding the volcano’s behaviour.
Recent Research
A collaborative study, conducted by institutions such as the University of Oxford and Cornell University, used advanced techniques to examine the volcano’s plumbing system. By analyzing data from over 1,700 earthquakes, the researchers created high-resolution images revealing the movement of fluids and gases beneath the surface. While the findings suggest a low likelihood of an immediate eruption, ongoing monitoring remains necessary.

Volcanic Plumbing Systems

Volcanic plumbing systems are networks of fluids and gases that connect the magma chamber to the surface. Understanding fluid movement within these systems is essential for predicting volcanic activity. This study identified pathways for geothermally heated fluids, which are believed to contribute to the observed deformation at Uturuncu.

Seismic Tomography in Volcanology

Seismic tomography played a critical role in the research, providing detailed insights into the internal structure of the volcano. By analyzing how seismic waves pass through different materials, researchers can create 3D images of the volcanic system. This technique is akin to medical imaging, enabling an in-depth examination of volcanic dynamics.

Implications for Local Communities

For local populations, understanding the potential for volcanic eruptions is crucial. Although the study suggests a low probability of an eruption, continuous monitoring is important. The findings can help in disaster preparedness and risk assessment, allowing local authorities to develop strategies to protect communities from potential hazards.

Future Research Directions

The study’s results open the door for further investigations into other volcanic systems worldwide. By applying similar methods, researchers can deepen their understanding of volcanic activity and enhance efforts to identify potential hazards and resources linked to volcanic processes.

With reference to the Uturuncu volcano and its recent study, consider the following statements:

The Uturuncu volcano, located in the Central Andes of Bolivia, has been dormant for over 250,000 years and exhibits significant seismic activity due to the movement of magma beneath the surface.
Seismic tomography was used to analyze the internal structure of the volcano and revealed pathways for geothermally heated fluids that contribute to surface deformation.
The volcano is located in the Altiplano-Puna Volcanic Complex, which is known for having the largest known magma body in the Earth’s crust, making it a key area for volcanic studies.
The study has indicated a high likelihood of an imminent eruption at Uturuncu, which requires immediate evacuation measures for the local population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct

The Uturuncu volcano, located in the Central Andes of Bolivia, has been dormant for over 250,000 years but exhibits significant seismic activity due to magma movement beneath the surface. This is supported by the study which investigates the dynamics beneath the volcano and indicates ongoing unrest.

Statement 2: Correct

Seismic tomography was indeed used to analyze the internal structure of the Uturuncu volcano. It revealed pathways for geothermally heated fluids, which contribute to the observed surface deformation of the volcano. This helps researchers understand the behavior of fluids and gases within the volcanic plumbing system.

Statement 3: Correct

The volcano is part of the Altiplano-Puna Volcanic Complex, which houses the largest known magma body in the Earth’s crust. This is significant for volcanic studies because it indicates a large-scale volcanic system with complex dynamics, making it an important region for understanding volcanic behavior.

Statement 4: Incorrect

The study does not indicate a high likelihood of an imminent eruption at Uturuncu. Rather, the study suggests that while the volcano shows signs of unrest, the probability of an immediate eruption is low. Therefore, evacuation measures are not required based on current findings.

NRFMTTI achieves CMVR testing approval for Agricultural Tractors

Syllabus:Geography

The Northern Region Farm Machinery Training & Testing Institute (NRFMTTI), Hisar (Haryana) has achieved two major milestones:
Approval as a CMVR Testing Agency for Agricultural Tractors
NABL Accreditation for CMVR Testing of Agricultural Tractors and Combine Harvesters
NRFMTTI, a premier institution in the field of training and testing of agricultural machinery, is now an authorized agency to carry out CMVR (Central Motor Vehicle Rules) testing for agricultural tractors, in addition to combine harvesters.
The institute has also been granted NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories) accreditation, further validating the quality and reliability of its CMVR testing services.
This development will significantly benefit tractor manufacturers in Northern India, allowing them to conduct mandatory CMVR testing locally at NRFMTTI. Furthermore, NABL-accredited CMVR certification will improve the global credibility and acceptance of test results for agricultural tractors and combine harvesters, supporting domestic industry and exports.

Which of the following statements regarding the recent accreditation and approval granted to NRFMTTI, Hisar is/are correct?

It has been approved as a CMVR testing agency exclusively for Combine Harvesters.
It has received NABL accreditation for CMVR testing of both agricultural tractors and Combine Harvesters.
The institute is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
The CMVR certification by NABL-accredited institutions is mandatory for domestic tractor sales under the Farm Mechanization Policy.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer:A.2only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect — NRFMTTI is approved for both tractors and harvesters.
Statement 3 is incorrect — it is under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
Statement 4 is incorrect — while CMVR compliance is legally required, NABL certification enhances global acceptance but is not specifically mandated under a “Farm Mechanization Policy.”

No advance notice from India on closure of land ports for our exports: Bangladesh official

Syllabus:Geography

Bangladesh was not officially informed in advance before India closed its land ports to readymade garment exports from Bangladesh, according to a diplomatic source from Dhaka who spoke to The Hindu on Monday.
This development follows the Directorate General of Foreign Trade’s decision to halt the export of readymade garments from Bangladesh through all Indian land ports, alongside restricting access to land ports in northeastern India for Bangladeshi exports of certain specified products.
“We received no prior notification that India intended to close the land ports for our goods. Consequently, numerous Bangladeshi traders dispatched trucks to the border land ports unaware that their shipments would be denied entry, resulting in a backlog of vehicles stranded at the borders,” the source explained. While Bangladesh recognizes that closure of ports may be a sovereign action that can be taken unilaterally, Dhaka expected a prior communication from India, given the two countries’ shared history and neighbourly ties.
Indian officials justified the closure as a reciprocal response to Bangladesh’s ban on Indian yarn exports via its land ports and the stringent inspections imposed on Indian trucks. However, it has been understood that Bangladesh’s measures—implemented from April 13, including the suspension of Indian rice imports through the Hili land port—were aimed primarily at addressing internal corruption issues.
The source highlighted that India’s move has caused significant inconvenience to the public. Bangladesh is closely monitoring for potential further retaliatory steps, as the strong Indian measures appear to have political motivations. Additionally, Dhaka views the closure of land ports as likely to hinder people-to-people interactions that thrive on commercial engagement.
“With considerable effort, trade between India and Bangladesh had surpassed the $10 billion mark, and just as promising progress was underway, these developments risk reversing gains,” the source remarked. The goods supplied by Bangladesh to India’s northeastern region hold considerable regional economic importance, benefiting both sides. India, however, conveyed that the decision serves as a clear signal to Bangladesh that the northeast is not a “captive market.”

Consider the following statements regarding the recent closure of Indian land ports to Bangladeshi exports:

Bangladesh was given formal prior notice before India closed the land ports to readymade garment exports.
India’s closure of land ports was a retaliatory measure in response to Bangladesh banning Indian yarn exports and imposing stringent inspections on Indian trucks.
Bangladesh’s restrictions on Indian rice imports via the Hili land port were primarily aimed at addressing corruption issues.
The closure of land ports is expected to impact only commercial trade but not people-to-people interaction between the two countries.
India’s message to Bangladesh through this closure includes asserting that the northeastern Indian market is not exclusively dependent on Bangladeshi goods.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 2, 3, and 5 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 5 only
D) All of the above

Answer: A) 2, 3, and 5 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect as Bangladesh did not receive formal prior intimation before the closures.
Statement 4 is incorrect because the closure is expected to affect both commercial trade and people-to-people interactions.
Statements 2, 3, and 5 accurately reflect the reciprocal nature of trade restrictions, Bangladesh’s internal rationale for rice import controls, and India’s message to Bangladesh regarding market dependency.

South Australia

Syllabus:Geography

Context:

Southern Australia—encompassing South Australia, Victoria, and Tasmania—is currently experiencing one of its most severe droughts in decades, highlighting the region’s vulnerability to climate change and long-term water security challenges.

Geographical Characteristics:

South Australia covers approximately 983,482 sq. km, making up about one-eighth of Australia’s land area. The landscape is dominated by arid and semi-arid flat plains and deserts, with over 80% of the land lying below 300 meters above sea level. The highest point is Mount Woodroffe (1,435 m) in the Musgrave Ranges.
Water Resources: The Murray River is the only significant perennial river in the state, essential for both drinking water and irrigation. Major water supply sources include pipelines from the Murray River and coastal desalination plants. The Great Artesian Basin, one of the world’s largest underground freshwater reserves, supports remote mining operations and pastoral activities.
Climate Profile: South Australia is recognized as the driest state in Australia. The southern parts experience a Mediterranean climate with wet winters and hot, dry summers. The region is highly susceptible to prolonged droughts and frequent bushfires, particularly during summer months. Temperature extremes are common due to the interaction between inland and oceanic air masses.
Natural and Mineral Wealth: Prominent natural features include Lake Eyre (Australia’s largest salt lake, located below sea level), the Mount Lofty Ranges, Flinders Ranges, and Kangaroo Island. The state is rich in minerals such as uranium, copper, and gold. The Olympic Dam is one of the largest multi-mineral mines globally and serves as a major economic driver.
This regional profile emphasizes the need for robust climate adaptation strategies, efficient water management reforms, and sustainable development to address increasing environmental pressures.

With reference to the environmental and geographical profile of South Australia, consider the following statements:

The Great Artesian Basin, which supports much of South Australia’s remote economic activity, is entirely confined within the boundaries of South Australia.
Mount Woodroffe, the highest peak in South Australia, lies within a geologically stable zone and is part of the Great Dividing Range.
The Mediterranean climatic zone of South Australia contributes to the region’s high susceptibility to both bushfires and prolonged droughts.
Despite being Australia’s driest state, South Australia depends predominantly on inland river systems for drinking water rather than coastal desalination technologies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Great Artesian Basin extends across multiple Australian states including Queensland, New South Wales, and the Northern Territory. It is not limited to South Australia.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: Mount Woodroffe lies in the Musgrave Ranges, not the Great Dividing Range, and is not part of an active orogenic belt.
Statement 3 – Correct: The Mediterranean climate (wet winters, hot dry summers) in South Australia contributes significantly to drought and bushfire vulnerability.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: South Australia uses both inland sources (Murray River) and coastal desalination. It does not depend predominantly on river systems.

Arabian Sea

Syllabus:Geography

Geographic Overview:

The Arabian Sea is the northwestern arm of the Indian Ocean, bounded by India on the east and the Arabian Peninsula on the west. It connects to the Persian Gulf via the Gulf of Oman and to the Red Sea via the Gulf of Aden.

Neighbouring Countries:

The sea is bordered by India, Pakistan, Iran, Oman, Yemen, and Somalia. On the Indian coastline, the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Lakshadweep have direct access.

Geophysical Characteristics:

Average depth is approximately 2,734 metres with the maximum depth reaching 5,803 metres at Wheatley Deep. Prominent submarine features include the Carlsberg Ridge (a tectonically active mid-ocean ridge), Murray Ridge, Arabian and Somali Basins, Indus submarine canyon, and abyssal cone.

Islands of Strategic Importance:

Key islands within the Arabian Sea include Socotra (Yemen), the Kuria Muria Islands (Oman), and the Lakshadweep archipelago (India).

Monsoon Dynamics:

The Arabian Sea plays a crucial role in driving the Indian southwest monsoon. Moisture-laden winds originating from the sea during April to November result in heavy rainfall across the Indian subcontinent. Seasonal upwelling near the Somali and Arabian coasts contributes to ocean productivity and is linked to monsoon onset.

Ocean Currents:

The Somali Current, a major seasonal oceanic flow, reverses direction with the monsoons and can attain speeds up to 13 km/h. It contributes to clockwise ocean circulation during the summer monsoon, which weakens during the northeast monsoon season.

Marine Sediments and Geology:

The sea floor receives extensive sedimentation from the Indus River. The Arabian Sea is also known for its abundance of ferromanganese nodules, hydrogen sulfide zones, and polymetallic sulphide deposits, indicating high mineral resource potential.

Conclusion:

The Arabian Sea is a critical region for India’s monsoon system, marine biodiversity, mineral wealth, and geostrategic maritime interests.

With reference to the Arabian Sea, consider the following statements:

The Carlsberg Ridge in the Arabian Sea is a part of the East African Rift System and is tectonically inactive.
The Somali Current exhibits a unique feature among major ocean currents by reversing its direction seasonally.
The presence of polymetallic sulphides in the Arabian Sea is primarily linked to hydrothermal vents on the abyssal plain.
The Arabian Sea’s maximum depth is greater than that of the Bay of Bengal due to the presence of deep trenches like the Sunda Trench.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A. 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Carlsberg Ridge is part of the Mid-Oceanic Ridge System, not the East African Rift. It is tectonically active, associated with seafloor spreading.
Statement 2 – Correct: The Somali Current is one of the few ocean currents in the world that reverses direction seasonally, influenced by the monsoon winds.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: While polymetallic sulphides may be associated with hydrothermal activity, such vents are more typical of mid-ocean ridges in other oceans, not widely documented on the abyssal plains of the Arabian Sea.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Sunda Trench is located in the eastern Indian Ocean, near Indonesia, and not in the Arabian Sea. The Arabian Sea’s maximum depth (Wheatley Deep ~5800 m) is less than the Bay of Bengal’s (~7729 m in the Sunda Trench area).

Polavaram Project

Syllabus:Geography

The Prime Minister is set to meet with the chief ministers of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh to discuss the Polavaram multi-purpose irrigation project.

About the Project:

The Polavaram Project is located on the Godavari River near Polavaram village in Andhra Pradesh’s West Godavari district, close to the borders of Chhattisgarh and Odisha. Conceived in 1980 based on the Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal (GWDT) recommendations, the project has been granted national status by the central government.

Key Features

The dam spans approximately 1.2 km with a pier height of 54 meters and includes 48 radial gates (16 m x 20 m each).
Its spillway is designed to withstand a 1000-year flood event and has the highest discharge capacity worldwide at 50 lakh cusecs, exceeding even China’s Three Gorges Dam.
The project holds a world record for pouring 32,315.5 cubic meters of concrete into its spillway channel.

Objectives

Develop irrigation potential across 436,825 hectares.
Generate 960 MW of hydropower.
Provide drinking water to 2.85 million people in 611 villages.
Transfer 80 TMC of water from the Godavari basin to the Krishna basin.
Manage floodwaters to protect communities along the Godavari River.

Consider the following statements about the Polavaram Project:

The dam is located on the Godavari River near the tri-junction of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Odisha.
Polavaram’s spillway is designed to handle flood discharge exceeding that of China’s Three Gorges Dam.
One of the objectives of the project is to transfer water from the Krishna basin to the Godavari basin.
The project aims to generate nearly 1000 MW of hydropower and supply drinking water to over 2 million people.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct — the dam is near the border of Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh, not Telangana.
Statement 2 is correct — Polavaram’s spillway discharge capacity is 50 lakh cusecs, surpassing the Three Gorges Dam.
Statement 3 is incorrect — water transfer is from Godavari basin to Krishna basin, not the reverse.
Statement 4 is correct — hydropower generation is about 960 MW, and drinking water supply is to 2.85 million people.

National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research

In News Syllabus:Geography

The Union Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) inaugurated two new facilities, “Sagar Bhavan” and “Polar Bhavan,” at the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) in Goa.
Established in 1998 as an autonomous R&D institute under MoES, NCPOR was formerly known as the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR).

Located in Vasco da Gama, Goa, it serves as the nodal agency for planning and executing India’s polar expeditions across the Antarctic, Arctic, Southern Ocean, and Himalayas.
It coordinates scientific research and logistics in polar and oceanic domains and leads strategic projects such as mapping India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), conducting continental shelf surveys, and managing the Deep Ocean Mission.
NCPOR is guided by a Research Advisory Committee (RAC) for scientific oversight.
Polar Bhavan, the largest facility on campus, spans 11,378 sq. m and was constructed at a cost of ₹55 crore.
It features advanced laboratories, 55 rooms for scientists, conference halls, a library, and the Science on Sphere (SOS) 3D earth systems visualization platform.
This building will also host India’s first Polar and Ocean Museum dedicated to public scientific outreach.
Sagar Bhavan covers 1,772 sq. m and cost ₹13 crore.
It houses specialized facilities including two -30°C ice core laboratories, +4°C storage units for sediment and biological samples, and a Class 1000 metal-free clean room for trace metal and isotope analysis.
NCPOR maintains India’s scientific presence at polar stations: Maitri and Bharati in Antarctica, Himadri in the Arctic, and Himansh in the Himalayas.
The institute’s activities are supported by key legislative frameworks such as India’s Arctic Policy (2022) and the Indian Antarctic Act (2022), which emphasize science-led, environmentally responsible polar engagement in compliance with international obligations.

Consider the following statements about the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR):

It was established as an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 1998.
It coordinates India’s scientific research only in the Antarctic region.
It leads strategic projects such as EEZ mapping and continental shelf surveys.
It operates under the Indian Antarctic Act of 2022 and India’s Arctic Policy of 2022.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Correct Answer: B) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

It was established as an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 1998.” Correct – The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) was indeed established in 1998 and functions as an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
It also coordinates scientific research and logistics in the Arctic, Southern Ocean, and the Himalayas (e.g., Arctic Station Himadri, Himalayan Station Himansh). Hence, the word “only” makes this statement incorrect.

South Korea

Syllabus:Geography

Context:

South Korea has formally conveyed its concerns to China regarding the recent unilateral establishment of a “No-Sail Zone” in the Yellow Sea—a geopolitically sensitive maritime region where the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of both nations intersect.

Geographical Overview of South Korea:

Location: Situated in East Asia, South Korea shares a land border with North Korea (Democratic People’s Republic of Korea) to the north. It is bounded by:
The Yellow Sea to the west,
The East China Sea to the south,
The East Sea (Sea of Japan) to the east.
Political Division: The Korean Peninsula is divided at the 38th Parallel, which marks the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) separating North and South Korea.
Capital City: Seoul
Major Rivers:
Han River
Nakdong River
Significant Islands:
Jeju Island (the largest island), located in the Korea Strait, is of volcanic origin.
Mountain Ranges:
The Taebaek Mountain Range runs along the eastern coastline.
Highest Peak:
Mount Halla (1,950 meters), an extinct volcano on Jeju Island.

Geopolitical and Legal Implications:

Strategic Importance of the Yellow Sea:

The Yellow Sea, lying between China and the Korean Peninsula, holds significant geopolitical and economic value. It is crucial for:
Regional maritime security,
Commercial navigation,
Fisheries and marine biodiversity.

Legal Concerns Under UNCLOS:

South Korea’s Ministry of Foreign Affairs is evaluating the legality of China’s no-sail declaration in accordance with the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Key articles being examined include:
Article 58: Rights and duties of other States in the EEZ (including navigation and overflight).
Article 74: Delimitation of EEZs between states with opposite or adjacent coasts.
Article 87: Freedom of the high seas, including freedom of navigation.
South Korea asserts that unilaterally imposed maritime restrictions in overlapping EEZs must comply with international law and must not hinder freedom of navigation or other lawful uses of the sea.

With reference to recent geopolitical developments in East Asia, consider the following statements:

The Yellow Sea, where South Korea raised concerns about a newly declared “No-Sail Zone,” lies entirely within China’s territorial waters.
Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), a coastal state cannot restrict freedom of navigation within its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) except for enforcement of customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary laws.
The Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) between North and South Korea lies along the 38th Parallel, but it is not recognized under international treaties as a de jure international boundary.
Mount Halla, South Korea’s highest peak, is a stratovolcano located in the Taebaek Mountain range.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect:The Yellow Sea is a semi-enclosed sea bordered by both China and South Korea, and includes overlapping Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs). It is not entirely within China’s territorial waters.
Statement 2: Correct:According to UNCLOS Articles 58 and 87, freedom of navigation and overflight is preserved in EEZs. Coastal states can only restrict this under specific circumstances related to customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary regulations within their territorial waters, not EEZs without due cause.
Statement 3: Correct:The DMZ is a de facto boundary established by the Korean Armistice Agreement (1953), not through an international treaty formally recognizing it as an international boundary. Hence, it lacks full de jure status.
Statement 4: Incorrect:Mount Halla is an extinct volcano located on Jeju Island, not part of the Taebaek Range, which lies on the mainland along the eastern coast.

Launch of ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ and ‘Know Your PIN Code’ Web Portals: A Landmark in India's Geospatial and Addressing Infrastructure

Syllabus:Geography

In a significant stride towards modernising India’s addressing and geospatial infrastructure, the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, has launched two digital platforms — ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ and ‘Know Your PIN Code’.
These initiatives align with the National Geospatial Policy 2022, aimed at enhancing digital governance and service delivery through advanced geospatial systems
. The DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number) represents a transformative, geo-coded, grid-based digital addressing system developed through collaboration between the Department of Posts, IIT Hyderabad, and the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), ISRO.
DIGIPIN is foundational to the Department’s Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) initiative, which envisions the seamless use of address data across governance, private sector, and citizen-facing applications.
The ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ platform allows users to obtain their DIGIPIN using precise latitude-longitude geolocation data and convert geocoordinates into DIGIPINs and vice versa.
This system aims to revolutionise last-mile delivery, disaster response, location intelligence, and public service targeting, particularly in rural and underserved areas.
Officially adopted by the Thematic Working Group on Address under the National Geospatial Policy, DIGIPIN is now accessible for integration by all Ministries, State Governments, institutions, and individuals.
Furthermore, the initiative promotes open innovation: a complete repository of DIGIPIN’s source code and documentation is now publicly available on GitHub, enabling developers and institutions to contribute to its evolution. Introduced in 1972, India’s six-digit PIN Code has long been the backbone of the national postal system.
In recognition of the need to modernise this system, the Department conducted a nationwide geofencing exercise to geo-reference PIN Code boundaries across all postal jurisdictions.
The newly launched ‘Know Your PIN Code’ application allows users to accurately determine their official PIN Code using GNSS-based geolocation and provide crowdsourced feedback on PIN Code accuracy to continuously enhance the dataset.
The geo-fenced PIN Code boundary dataset has also been made publicly accessible via the Open Government Data (OGD) Platform as a geo-json layer titled “All India PIN Code Boundary”.
Speaking at the launch, Ms. Vandita Kaul, Secretary, Department of Posts, highlighted the strategic importance of the new systems: “DIGIPIN will redefine how we perceive and utilise addresses, ensuring every citizen is digitally locatable and serviceable — a crucial step towards precision governance and inclusive infrastructure.”
By enabling geospatially precise, digitally interoperable addressing, these platforms reinforce the Department of Posts’ evolving role as a pillar of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) — going beyond traditional postal functions to support the broader goals of Digital India and data-driven public administration.
Both platforms are designed with citizen participation in mind, offering interfaces to submit real-time feedback on data accuracy and system usability.
This participatory mechanism ensures a dynamic, adaptive, and locally contextualised digital addressing framework that evolves with on-ground realities. Together, ‘Know Your DIGIPIN’ and ‘Know Your PIN Code’ represent a paradigm shift in India’s spatial governance architecture, fostering more accurate, efficient, and inclusive service delivery across the nation.

With reference to the Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN), consider the following statements:

It is a proprietary digital addressing system developed by the Department of Posts in partnership with private GIS vendors under the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.
DIGIPIN operates on a geo-coded, grid-based architecture and integrates seamlessly with GIS for last-mile service delivery.
The DIGIPIN source code and technical documentation are made publicly available under open-source licensing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: DIGIPIN is not developed under PPP with private vendors but through collaboration between the Department of Posts, IIT Hyderabad, and NRSC (ISRO).
Statement 2 is correct: It uses a geo-coded, grid-based digital address format.
Statement 3 is correct: It is open-source and available on GitHub.

Kilauea Volcano

Syllabus: GS1/ Physical Geography

Context

The Kilauea volcano on Hawaii’s Big Island has emitted lava fountains exceeding 1,000 feet in height, marking its 23rd eruption episode since December 2024.

About Kilauea

Kilauea is one of six active volcanoes in the Hawaiian Islands and is classified as a shield volcano, characterized primarily by effusive lava flows rather than explosive eruptions.
Situated within Hawaii Volcanoes National Park alongside Mauna Loa—the world’s largest volcano—Kilauea is smaller but notably more active.
It has maintained frequent eruptive activity since 1983, attracting continuous scientific and public attention.

Consider the following statements about the Kilauea volcano:

Kilauea is a stratovolcano known for explosive eruptions.
It is located within the Hawaii Volcanoes National Park alongside Mauna Loa.
Kilauea has been erupting almost continuously since the early 1980s.
Mauna Loa is the largest volcano on Earth by volume.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: B) 2, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because Kilauea is a shield volcano, not a stratovolcano, and is known for effusive lava flows, not explosive eruptions.
Statement 2 is correct; Kilauea and Mauna Loa are both located within Hawaii Volcanoes National Park.
Statement 3 is correct; Kilauea has been erupting frequently and continuously since 1983.
Statement 4 is correct; Mauna Loa is the largest volcano on Earth by volume.

Tropical Cyclones and Their Impact on Infant Mortality

Syllabus:Geography

Context:

Emerging research has highlighted a disturbing link between tropical cyclones and elevated infant mortality rates in low- and middle-income countries.
Infants who experience tropical cyclones during their first year of life are found to face significantly higher risks of death, underscoring the urgent need for robust child health safeguards and improved disaster response mechanisms, particularly in the face of climate change.

Understanding Tropical Cyclones

Tropical cyclones are powerful weather systems that form over warm tropical oceans.
Characterised by low atmospheric pressure, high-velocity winds, and intense rainfall, they are known by different names globally—hurricanes in the Atlantic and typhoons in the western Pacific.
The development of such storms depends on warm sea surface temperatures, atmospheric instability, and specific humidity and wind patterns.

Infant Mortality and Cyclone Exposure

The study reveals an average 11% rise in infant mortality following cyclone exposure, equating to approximately 4.4 additional deaths per 1,000 live births.
The mortality spike is most prominent within the first year after the storm event and tends to normalise by the second year.
The exact mechanisms driving this increase remain unclear and require further investigation.

Cross-Country Variations

Data from seven countries—Bangladesh, Madagascar, Cambodia, the Philippines, the Dominican Republic, and Haiti—showed wide disparities.
Bangladesh and Haiti experienced mortality increases of over 10 additional deaths per 1,000 births, while some countries showed negligible change.
These differences are attributed to variables such as geographic vulnerability, quality of housing, and resilience of public health systems.

Determinants Beyond Nutrition and Healthcare

Interestingly, the study found that access to healthcare and nutritional status did not significantly worsen due to cyclone exposure, indicating that other indirect factors—like environmental stress, breakdowns in caregiving networks, or infrastructure disruption—may be central to the mortality rise.
Identifying these determinants is critical for formulating targeted, evidence-based interventions.

Climate Change and Escalating Cyclone Threats

Climate change is expected to increase both the frequency and severity of tropical cyclones, intensifying risks to already vulnerable populations, especially infants. This amplifies the need for integrated disaster preparedness strategies that include maternal and child health as a core component of climate resilience frameworks.

Conclusion:

The nexus between tropical cyclones and infant mortality presents a pressing global health challenge. In the context of escalating climate threats, it is imperative to prioritise investments in disaster-resilient healthcare systems, strengthen community-based support mechanisms, and develop comprehensive child protection strategies to mitigate future risks.

With reference to recent findings on the impact of tropical cyclones on infant mortality in low- and middle-income countries, consider the following statements:

The highest increase in infant mortality is observed within the first year following a tropical cyclone.
Undernutrition and limited access to healthcare were identified as the primary causes of increased mortality post-cyclone.
The mortality rate tends to stabilize within two years after cyclone exposure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 only

Answer:A
Explanation: Statement 1 and 3 are correct based on the study’s findings. Statement 2 is incorrect because the study found that undernutrition and healthcare access were not directly affected by cyclone exposure, suggesting other factors at play.

DELIVERY OF ‘ARNALA’- FIRST ANTI SUBMARINE WARFARE SHALLOW WATER CRAFT TO THE INDIAN NAVY

Syllabus:Defence

On 8 May 2025, INS Arnala, the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Crafts (ASW SWCs), was officially delivered to the Indian Navy at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli. Designed and built indigenously by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata, the ship marks a major step forward in India’s naval self-reliance under the ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’

Key Highlights:

Public-Private Partnership (PPP): Constructed in collaboration with L&T Shipyard, demonstrating successful defence sector cooperation.
Maritime Legacy: Named after the historic Arnala Fort near Vasai, Maharashtra, reflecting India’s naval heritage.

Design & Capabilities:

Length: 77 metres
Propulsion: Diesel Engine–Waterjet combination – largest Indian Navy ship with this setup
Role: Underwater surveillance, search & rescue, Low Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO)
Armed with mine-laying and anti-submarine warfare (ASW) systems, optimized for coastal operations.
With over 80% indigenous content, INS Arnala embodies India’s growing capability in defence manufacturing. Its induction will significantly strengthen the Navy’s shallow-water ASW proficiency, aligning with national security and self-reliance goals.

With reference to INS Arnala, recently delivered to the Indian Navy, consider the following statements:

INS Arnala is the first Indian naval ship to be powered by a combined Diesel-Electric-Waterjet propulsion system, enabling deep-sea ASW operations.
The ship is named after a historical maritime fort off the coast of Maharashtra, highlighting India’s coastal defence legacy.
Its construction under the GRSE–L&T Public-Private Partnership reflects compliance with both Indian Register of Shipping (IRS) rules and the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
INS Arnala is primarily designed for high-intensity blue-water naval engagements in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect: INS Arnala uses a Diesel Engine–Waterjet combination, not Diesel-Electric, and it is optimized for shallow-water coastal ASW, not deep-sea operations.
Statement 2 – Correct: Named after Arnala Fort off Vasai, Maharashtra — part of India’s maritime heritage.
Statement 3 – Correct: Built by GRSE under IRS classification and via PPP with L&T, aligning with Aatmanirbhar Bharat
Statement 4 – Incorrect: The vessel is tailored for shallow-water and low-intensity operations, not high-intensity blue-water warfare.

Air Defence Systems: India & World

Syllabus: Defence

Recently, India successfully thwarted aerial attacks from Pakistan along its western border using its advanced air defense systems. India also neutralized an air defense system in Lahore, Pakistan, demonstrating the effectiveness of its defense infrastructure.

About Air Defence Systems

Air defence systems are crucial elements of national security, designed to detect, track, and neutralize aerial threats such as enemy aircraft, missiles, and drones. These systems employ a multi-layered defense mechanism that integrates radar, missile interceptors, electronic warfare (EW) tools, and command centers to protect the airspace.

Key Components of Air Defence Systems

Detection and Surveillance:
Radar Systems: Air defense begins with radar systems, which detect incoming threats by emitting high-frequency radar waves that bounce back from objects in the sky.
Satellite and Infrared Sensors: Modern systems use satellite imaging and infrared tracking to identify stealth aircraft and hypersonic missiles.
Tracking and Target Identification: Once a threat is detected, tracking systems analyze its speed, altitude, and trajectory to classify the threat—whether it’s a fighter jet, ballistic missile, or drone.
Command Centers: Command centers evaluate the threat and decide on the appropriate response.

Engagement and Neutralization:

Surface-to-Air Missiles (SAMs): SAMs are designed to intercept incoming threats, such as aircraft or projectiles, before they reach their intended targets.
Electronic Warfare (EW) Systems: Jammers are used to disrupt enemy communications and radar signals, preventing them from effectively coordinating attacks.
Anti-Aircraft Artillery: High-caliber guns are used in close-range combat to provide an additional defense layer.

Types of Air Defence Systems

Short-Range Air Defence (SHORAD): These systems are built to counter low-altitude threats, including drones and cruise missiles.
Example: Barak-8 Missile System.
Medium-Range Air Defence (MRAD): These systems cover larger areas and intercept fighter jets and long-range missiles.
Examples: Patriot Missile System, S-400 Triumf.
Long-Range Air Defence (LRAD): These systems protect large regions and are capable of neutralizing intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs).
Examples: THAAD, Aegis Ballistic Missile Defense.

Key Air Defence Systems in India

Akash Missile System: This Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM) system is designed to neutralize multiple airborne threats simultaneously using command guidance and phased array radar.
S-400 Triumf Missile System: A state-of-the-art system procured from Russia, enhancing India’s air defense capabilities.
It can detect and intercept ballistic missiles, fighter jets, and drones at distances up to 400 km.
It is also used by China and Turkey for missile and aircraft defense.
Integrated Counter-UAS Grid: This counter-drone technology is deployed to neutralize hostile Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) along sensitive borders.
It integrates radar detection, electronic jamming, and kinetic interception to prevent aerial intrusions.
Barak-8 Missile System: Jointly developed by India and Israel, this system provides high-speed interception against airborne threats and enhances both naval and land-based air defense capabilities.

Other Air Defence Systems Around the World

Patriot Missile System (United States): Widely used for missile interception and neutralizing aerial threats.
It is deployed by the U.S., Germany, Japan, and Saudi Arabia for high-altitude defense.
Iron Dome (Israel): Designed specifically for short-range missile interception, particularly effective against rocket attacks.
It is extensively used by Israel to protect urban areas and military installations.
Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) – United States: This high-altitude missile defense system is capable of intercepting ballistic missiles during their terminal phase.
It is deployed by the U.S., South Korea, and Japan to enhance regional security.

Consider the following statements regarding Air Defence Systems:

Air defence systems combine radar, missile interceptors, electronic warfare tools, and command centers to protect a nation’s airspace from aerial threats.
The Barak-8 Missile System is a short-range air defence system developed solely by India for neutralizing low-altitude threats like drones and cruise missiles.
The S-400 Triumf Missile System, procured by India from Russia, can detect and intercept targets up to 400 km, including ballistic missiles, fighter jets, and drones.
The Integrated Counter-UAS Grid in India is designed to neutralize aerial threats such as missiles but does not have a counter-drone capability.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Air defence systems rely on various components like radar, missile interceptors, electronic warfare tools, and command centers to protect airspace.
Statement 2: The Barak-8 Missile System was developed jointly by India and Israel and is a medium-range system, not solely Indian. It is used for neutralizing low-altitude threats like drones and missiles.
Statement 3: The S-400 Triumf Missile System, procured from Russia, can detect and intercept a variety of aerial threats, including ballistic missiles, fighter jets, and drones, at a distance of up to 400 km.
Statement 4: The Integrated Counter-UAS Grid is specifically designed to neutralize drones, with integrated radar detection, electronic jamming, and kinetic interception. It does not focus on missiles.

DRDO develops high-pressure polymeric membrane for sea water desalination

Syllabus:Defence

The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully developed an indigenous nanoporous multilayered polymeric membrane designed for high-pressure seawater desalination.
This advanced technology has been developed by the Defence Materials Stores and Research & Development Establishment (DMSRDE), a DRDO laboratory based in Kanpur, specifically to meet the operational needs of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG).
Addressing the critical issue of membrane stability in chloride-rich saline environments, the innovation was completed in a record time of just eight months.
The technology has been integrated into the desalination systems aboard ICG’s Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs), where initial technical trials have been conducted successfully.
These safety and performance trials demonstrated that the membrane performed to expectations under operational conditions.
The final operational clearance will be granted by the ICG following 500 hours of rigorous field testing currently underway on the OPVs.
Once validated, this membrane will also have the potential to be adapted for civilian desalination applications in coastal regions, offering a significant technological edge.
This achievement marks another milestone in DRDO’s contribution to Aatmanirbhar Bharat, reinforcing India’s self-reliance in advanced defence and dual-use technologies.

Consider the following statements regarding the indigenous nanoporous multilayered polymeric membrane developed by DRDO for seawater desalination:

The membrane technology was developed to specifically counter the destabilizing effects of magnesium ions in seawater.
The development was led by Defence Materials Stores and Research & Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur.
Initial operational trials were conducted on Indian Coast Guard Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs).
Final operational clearance requires at least 500 hours of testing.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: B) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The membrane was designed to address the challenge of stability against chloride ions, not specifically magnesium ions.
Statement 2 is correct: DMSRDE, Kanpur developed the technology.
Statement 3 is correct: Trials were conducted on Indian Coast Guard OPVs.
Statement 4 is correct: Final clearance will be given after 500 hours of operational testing.

Pak. did not resort to nuclear signalling’

Syllabus:Defence

Pakistan did not engage in any “nuclear signalling” following India’s Operation Sindoor, and the United States was “neither involved nor informed” about the ceasefire between India and Pakistan, the Indian government told the parliamentary Standing Committee on External Affairs, chaired by Congress MP Shashi Tharoor.
Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri clarified that India’s Director-General of Military Operations (DGMO) only contacted his Pakistani counterpart after the first strike of Operation Sindoor, refuting opposition leader Rahul Gandhi’s claim that Pakistan was informed prior to the operation’s start.
Misri also highlighted an increase in Pakistan-backed terrorist activity in India over the past year, citing at least 24 terror attacks that caused the deaths of 24 security personnel and more than 30 civilians. He stated that Pakistan continues to provide training, funding, and technical support to terrorists and aids their movement across the Line of Control (LoC) through coordinated ceasefire violations and drone assistance.
Following the briefing, Mr. Tharoor praised the External Affairs Ministry officials and Misri for satisfactorily addressing the committee’s questions. The committee also expressed unanimous support for Misri in the face of criticism, declining to pass any formal resolution at his request.
During the session, some MPs raised queries about military losses and details of specific attacks, but these fell outside the Ministry’s remit or were unanswered.
Regarding U.S. President Donald Trump’s early announcement of the ceasefire before India and Pakistan’s official statements, the government clarified that the U.S. was not involved or informed. Such communication was part of routine diplomatic exchanges, akin to India’s own calls for de-escalation in other conflicts.
The government reiterated that India maintains its policy of no third-party mediation and emphasized that the military response was solely in retaliation to the Pahalgam attack.

Consider the following statements regarding India-Pakistan ceasefire and Operation Sindoor:

The United States was actively involved and informed prior to India’s Operation Sindoor.
India’s DGMO contacted Pakistan’s DGMO only after the first strike in Operation Sindoor.
Pakistan continues to assist terrorists in crossing the Line of Control through coordinated ceasefire violations.
India has accepted third-party mediation for resolving ceasefire issues post Operation Sindoor.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

The U.S. was neither involved nor informed before Operation Sindoor, hence statement 1 is incorrect.
India’s DGMO contacted Pakistan’s DGMO only after the first strike, so statement 2 is correct.
Pakistan aids terrorists in crossing the LoC through coordinated ceasefire violations, so statement 3 is correct.
India has maintained a policy of no third-party mediation, so statement 4 is incorrect.

INSV Kaundinya – Stitched Sail Ship

Syllabus:Defence

The Indian Navy has officially inducted the INSV Kaundinya, a stitched sail ship inspired by 5th-century CE depictions found in the Ajanta Caves, at the Karwar Naval Base. This vessel is set to undertake a transoceanic voyage from Gujarat to Oman later this year, symbolizing a revival of India’s ancient maritime heritage.

About INSV Kaundinya – Stitched Sail Ship

Description:

INSV Kaundinya is a fully functional sailing ship constructed using ancient Indian shipbuilding techniques. It has been inducted as an Indian Naval Sailing Vessel.
Inspiration:
The ship’s design is modeled on a 5th-century CE vessel depicted in the Ajanta Cave paintings in Maharashtra, reflecting India’s rich maritime legacy.
Development:
The vessel was developed through a tripartite collaboration formed in July 2023 among the Ministry of Culture (funding agency), the Indian Navy (technical validation and oversight), and Hodi Innovations (shipbuilder).

Objectives:

To revive and demonstrate traditional Indian shipbuilding methods.
To celebrate India’s ancient maritime trade and navigation skills.
To promote cultural diplomacy and global awareness of India’s heritage.

Key Features:

Construction Technique: The ship is built using the stitched plank method, where wooden planks are joined with coir rope, coconut fiber, and natural resin, without any nails.
Design Validation: Its design was reconstructed by extrapolating iconographic details from the Ajanta paintings and underwent hydrodynamic testing at IIT Madras.
Artistic Elements: The sails are decorated with Gandabherunda and sun motifs; the bow features a Simha Yali (mythical lion figure), and the deck includes a stone anchor inspired by Harappan artifacts.
Traditional Rigging: It employs square sails and steering oars, replicating ancient seafaring technology.
Naming Legacy: The vessel is named after Kaundinya, a legendary Indian mariner who sailed to Southeast Asia, symbolizing historical Indo-Pacific maritime connections.

Consider the following statements about INSV Kaundinya:

It is constructed using the “stitched plank” technique involving coir ropes and natural resin without the use of nails.
Its design and construction were validated by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
The ship’s artistic elements include motifs such as Gandabherunda and Simha Yali, reflecting traditional Indian symbolism.
INSV Kaundinya is named after an ancient Indian mariner associated with the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only

B) 1, 3, and 4 only

C) 2, 3, and 4 only

D) All of the above answer and explanation

Answer: B) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: INSV Kaundinya is indeed constructed using the ancient “stitched plank” technique, where wooden planks are joined using coir ropes (coconut fiber) and natural resin without the use of nails or metal fasteners. This technique provides flexibility and durability suited to sea conditions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The design and construction were validated by IIT Madras, not the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru. IIT Madras conducted hydrodynamic testing and technical validation of the ship’s design.
Statement 3 is correct: The ship’s artistic elements include traditional Indian motifs like the Gandabherunda (a mythical two-headed bird) and Simha Yali (a lion-like mythical creature), which showcase India’s rich cultural heritage and symbolism.
Statement 4 is correct: The ship is named after Kaundinya, a legendary Indian mariner who is said to have sailed to Southeast Asia, symbolizing ancient maritime connections between India and the Indo-Pacific region.

BrahMos-NG (Next Generation) Missile

Syllabus:Defence

BrahMos-NG (Next Generation) missile is approaching flight testing, with ongoing development aimed at extending the current BrahMos missile’s range to 800 km.

About BrahMos-NG (Next Generation):

Description: BrahMos-NG is a smaller, lighter, and more versatile supersonic cruise missile engineered for deployment across a wider array of platforms such as fighter aircraft, naval vessels, and submarines.
Development: It is jointly developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyenia through the BrahMos Aerospace partnership.
Objectives: The missile system aims to provide a miniaturized, stealthier, and highly agile weapon capable of ultra-precise strikes against both land and maritime targets. It is designed to be integrated with various platforms including the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas, Su-30MKI, warships, and submarines.

Key Features:

Reduced Size and Weight: Weighing approximately 1.5 tonnes compared to the original 2.5 tonnes, allowing deployment on lighter platforms.
Speed and Range: Sustains supersonic speeds around Mach 2.8 with a base range of 400–450 km, with ongoing efforts to extend this range to 800 km.
Stealth Enhancements: Incorporates advanced stealth technology to minimize radar detection.
Multi-Platform Launch Capability: Can be launched from air, land, sea, and underwater platforms, including torpedo tubes and vertical launch systems on submarines.
Advanced Electronic Counter-Countermeasures (ECCM): Improved resilience against electronic jamming and interception attempts.
Precision Targeting: Suitable for precise land attacks, anti-ship missions, and underwater warfare.

Advantages over Original BrahMos:

Miniaturization enables integration with a broader range of aircraft including Tejas, Rafale, and MiG-29.
Faster deployment and reload cycles, reducing logistical constraints.
Higher missile density on platforms, enabling multiple missile carriage on a single aircraft or ship.
Future-ready design aligned with modern demands for stealth, mobility, and modularity.

Consider the following statements about INSV Kaundinya:

It is constructed using the “stitched plank” technique involving coir ropes and natural resin without the use of nails.
Its design and construction were validated by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
The ship’s artistic elements include motifs such as Gandabherunda and Simha Yali, reflecting traditional Indian symbolism.
INSV Kaundinya is named after an ancient Indian mariner associated with the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only

B) 1, 3, and 4 only

C) 2, 3, and 4 only

D) All of the above answer and explanation

Answer: B) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: INSV Kaundinya is indeed constructed using the ancient “stitched plank” technique, where wooden planks are joined using coir ropes (coconut fiber) and natural resin without the use of nails or metal fasteners. This technique provides flexibility and durability suited to sea conditions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The design and construction were validated by IIT Madras, not the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru. IIT Madras conducted hydrodynamic testing and technical validation of the ship’s design.
Statement 3 is correct: The ship’s artistic elements include traditional Indian motifs like the Gandabherunda (a mythical two-headed bird) and Simha Yali (a lion-like mythical creature), which showcase India’s rich cultural heritage and symbolism.
Statement 4 is correct: The ship is named after Kaundinya, a legendary Indian mariner who is said to have sailed to Southeast Asia, symbolizing ancient maritime connections between India and the Indo-Pacific region.

INSV Kaundinya

Syllabus:Defence

Overview

The Indian Navy has inducted INSV Kaundinya, a reconstructed ancient Indian ship inspired by 5th-century maritime imagery found in the Ajanta cave murals. This unique vessel symbolizes India’s historic shipbuilding prowess and aims to raise awareness of the country’s rich maritime legacy.

Project Background

Launched in July 2023 under a tripartite collaboration between the Ministry of Culture, Indian Navy, and Hodi Innovations.
Funded by the Ministry of Culture to celebrate traditional craftsmanship and maritime traditions.
The ship is scheduled to sail along the ancient maritime trade route from Gujarat to Oman in 2025.

Traditional Shipbuilding Techniques

Built using ancient “stitched ship” methods, where wooden planks are fastened with coir ropes, coconut fibres, and natural resin, completely avoiding the use of metal nails.
Design inspired by maritime scenes depicted in the Ajanta cave paintings.
With no original blueprints available, the ship’s reconstruction relied on a combination of 2D artistic analysis, archaeological evidence, naval architecture, and hydrodynamic modeling.

Symbolism and Design

The sails display traditional motifs like the Gandabherunda (two-headed eagle) and the Sun, representing strength and vitality.
The bow features a Simha Yali, a mythical lion-like figure rooted in South Indian iconography.
A Harappan-style stone anchor on deck symbolically connects the ship to the maritime practices of the Indus Valley Civilization.
Named after Kaundinya, a legendary Indian sailor believed to have sailed to Southeast Asia, the vessel pays tribute to India’s role in ancient trade and cultural exchange across oceans.

Ajanta Cave Paintings Context

The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra, dating from the 2nd century BCE to the 6th century CE, are renowned for their early Indian mural art.
The murals use the tempera technique (painting on dry plaster) with natural pigments like red ochre and black.
Artistic themes center around Buddhism, depicting Jataka Tales, scenes from the Buddha’s life, and moral stories (Avadanas).
The paintings are notable for their expressive human figures, detailed gestures, and rich decorative patterns reflecting spiritual and emotional depth.

Which of the following statements about the maritime trade network referenced in the voyage of INSV Kaundinya is/are correct?

It was part of the “Maritime Silk Route” linking India to Southeast Asia and East Africa.
It had established ports like Lothal, Arikamedu, and Barygaza that facilitated Roman and Arab trade.
Kaundinya’s voyage is associated with the cultural transmission of Buddhism to Sri Lanka.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer:A
Explanation:

Kaundinya is associated with Indian maritime expansion to Southeast Asia (e.g., Funan), not Sri Lanka. Buddhism reached Sri Lanka via Ashoka’s missionary efforts.
The “Maritime Silk Route” was an ancient network of sea routes that linked Southeast Asia, South Asia (including India), the Arabian Peninsula, and East Africa.
India played a pivotal role in this trade network, acting as a central hub due to its strategic location between the East and the West.
Indian ports facilitated the movement of goods (like spices, textiles, gems) as well as ideas (like religion, language, and culture) across the Indian Ocean.
The voyage of INSV Kaundinya is a tribute to this historical maritime linkage, especially between India and Southeast Asia (e.g., ancient kingdoms like Funan, in modern-day Cambodia and Vietnam).

Tianwen-2 Mission

Syllabus:Defence

China is preparing to launch Tianwen-2, a landmark asteroid exploration mission aimed at advancing its deep-space capabilities and scientific understanding of near-Earth objects.

Mission Overview

Agency: China National Space Administration (CNSA)
Launch Vehicle: Long March 3B
Launch Site: Xichang Satellite Launch Centre, Sichuan Province
Mission Objective: To survey and return samples from near-Earth asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa, followed by a secondary mission to the main asteroid belt to study comet 311P/PANSTARRS.

Asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa

Discovered in 2016 by the Pan-STARRS 1 telescope (Haleakalā Observatory, Hawaii).
Classified as a quasi-satellite of Earth: although it orbits the Sun, it remains gravitationally influenced by Earth.
Exhibits an elliptical solar orbit that makes it appear to alternate between leading and trailing Earth.
Estimated to have occupied its current orbital configuration for ~100 years, and may persist for another ~300 years—though such orbits are inherently unstable.

Sampling Strategy

Employs a “touch-and-go” technique for sample retrieval:
Spacecraft descends briefly to the asteroid surface.
A burst of gas or a small projectile dislodges surface particles, which are collected in a sample capsule.
A backup method, termed “anchor-and-attach”, involves robotic arms drilling into the asteroid to extract subsurface material.

The Tianwen Series

Tianwen-1 (2020): China’s first interplanetary mission, successfully deploying an orbiter, lander, and rover on Mars. The rover operated until 2022.
Tianwen-2: Targeting asteroid and comet studies with a sample return component.
Tianwen-3 (Projected: 2028): Aimed at returning samples from Mars, potentially making China the second country after the USA to achieve this feat.

With reference to China’s upcoming Tianwen-2 Mission, consider the following statements:

The mission targets both a near-Earth asteroid and a trans-Neptunian object for exploration and sample collection.
Kamo‘oalewa, the asteroid targeted by Tianwen-2, is unique due to its classification as a quasi-satellite of Earth, meaning it temporarily orbits Earth before moving into heliocentric orbit.
Tianwen-2 will employ both “touch-and-go” and “anchor-and-attach” techniques to extract surface and subsurface material from the asteroid.
The Tianwen series marks the first time China has undertaken sample return missions beyond Earth’s orbit.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect – Tianwen-2 will study a near-Earth asteroid (Kamo‘oalewa) and a comet in the main asteroid belt (311P/PANSTARRS), not a trans-Neptunian object.
Statement 2: Correct – Kamo‘oalewa is classified as a quasi-satellite; it orbits the Sun but stays gravitationally close to Earth. It does not orbit Earth directly.
Statement 3: Correct – Both the “touch-and-go” and a backup “anchor-and-attach” method are planned for sampling.
Statement 4: Incorrect – China has already carried out a planetary mission with Tianwen-1 to Mars, but Tianwen-2 will be its first interplanetary sample return mission, not the first beyond Earth’s orbit generally.

DRDO inaugurates Quantum Technology Research Centre to further bolster indigenous quantum capabilities for strategic & defence applications

Syllabus:Defence

On May 27, 2025, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) inaugurated the Quantum Technology Research Centre (QTRC) at Metcalfe House, Delhi.
The state-of-the-art facility was inaugurated by Samir V. Kamat, Secretary, Department of Defence R&D and Chairman, DRDO.
The QTRC aims to strengthen India’s indigenous quantum research capabilities, particularly in support of strategic and defence applications.
Equipped with cutting-edge experimental infrastructure, QTRC is poised to advance research across critical quantum technology domains.
Its key capabilities include:
Characterisation of Vertical-Cavity Surface-Emitting Lasers (VCSELs) and Distributed Feedback (DFB) Lasers,
Test-beds for evaluating single-photon sources,
Characterisation of Micro-Fabricated Alkali Vapor Cells,
Experimental platforms for developing and validating Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) techniques, a critical enabler of ultra-secure communication in the post-quantum era.
These initiatives are spearheaded by the Scientific Analysis Group (SAG), DRDO.
In parallel, the Solid State Physics Laboratory (SSPL) is leading the development of foundational quantum technologies at QTRC. These include:
An ultra-small atomic clock based on Coherent Population Trapping (CPT) for highly precise timekeeping in GNSS-denied environments,
An atomic magnetometer utilizing optically pumped magnetometry for ultra-sensitive magnetic field detection,
Advanced solid-state quantum devices and materials, critical for the development of scalable quantum systems.
DRDO continues to play a pivotal role in India’s quantum technology ecosystem, leading national efforts in quantum sensing, secure communications, and post-quantum cryptography.
As a core stakeholder in the National Quantum Mission, DRDO remains committed to fostering sovereign quantum capabilities through indigenous innovation.
The inauguration ceremony was attended by Suma Varughese, Director General (Micro Electronic Devices, Computational Systems & Cyber Systems), whose vision was instrumental in conceptualising this next-generation research facility.
Also present were Manu Korulla, DG (Resources & Management), along with Directors of SSPL and SAG, senior scientists, and distinguished guests.

With reference to the Quantum Technology Research Centre (QTRC) recently inaugurated by DRDO, consider the following statements:

The primary aim of QTRC is to establish a commercial ecosystem for quantum computing in collaboration with private sector partners under the National Quantum Mission.
The centre hosts facilities for characterisation of laser systems such as Vertical-Cavity Surface-Emitting Lasers (VCSELs) and Distributed Feedback (DFB) Lasers, which are essential for quantum optics research.
QTRC includes experimental setups for Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) development and micro-fabricated Alkali Vapor Cell characterisation, with support from Scientific Analysis Group (SAG), DRDO.
The foundational quantum technologies at QTRC, including atomic clocks and magnetometers, are developed under the leadership of the Solid State Physics Laboratory (SSPL), DRDO.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While DRDO’s QTRC plays a strategic role in India’s quantum ecosystem, its primary focus is not commercialisation or private sector collaboration, but indigenous R&D for strategic and defence applications. The National Quantum Mission supports such initiatives, but QTRC is primarily a government-led facility with security-focused goals.
Statement 2 is correct: QTRC has facilities for characterising VCSELs and DFB lasers, essential tools in quantum optics and communication systems.
Statement 3 is correct: QTRC indeed includes experimental platforms for QKD, alkali vapor cell characterisation, and single-photon source test-beds, under the guidance of SAG (Scientific Analysis Group).
Statement 4 is correct: The development of atomic clocks, atomic magnetometers, and solid-state quantum devices at QTRC is spearheaded by SSPL (Solid State Physics Laboratory), DRDO.

Defence Minister Approves AMCA Fighter Jet Execution Model

Syllabus: GS3/Defence

Context:

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has approved the execution framework for the development of the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), a key milestone in India’s indigenous aerospace capability.

About the AMCA Programme:

Executing Agency: Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), under the Ministry of Defence.
Manufacturing Model: Competitive execution model with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and private sector players eligible to participate independently or in joint ventures/consortia.
Eligibility: Bidding entities must be Indian companies compliant with national laws.
Key Features of AMCA: Type: 5th-generation twin-engine stealth multirole fighter aircraft.
Weight Class: 25 tonnes. Approval: Cleared by the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) in 2024.
Estimated Cost: ₹15,000 crore. Design Status: Completed. Prototype Timeline: Expected by 2028–29.
Production Timeline: Commencing 2032–33. Induction Goal: Targeted for operational deployment by 2034.
Strategic Significance: Aatmanirbharta in Defence: Reinforces India’s commitment to self-reliance in critical military technologies.
Geopolitical Imperatives: Responds to increasing regional threats, particularly following Operation Sindoor and enhanced China-Pakistan strategic cooperation.
Air Superiority & Tech Parity: AMCA is critical to achieving long-term air dominance and narrowing the technological gap with adversarial forces.
Global Standing: Upon successful induction, India would join a select group of nations possessing indigenous fifth-generation fighter capability.

With respect to the development timeline of AMCA, arrange the following in chronological order:

Start of production
Completion of design phase
Deployment into Indian Air Force
Roll-out of prototype

Choose the correct sequence:

A. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
B. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
C. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
D. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1

Answer:A
Explanation: Design is complete → prototype roll-out by 2028-29 → production starts by 2032-33 → induction by 2034. It involved conceptualization, engineering design, stealth shaping, radar cross-section optimization, and wind tunnel testing. The first physical prototype is expected to be built and revealed during this period. This stage includes building a full-scale test aircraft for evaluation, ground testing, and limited flight trials.

Interpol Issues 2 Silver Notices

Syllabus: GS3/ Internal security

Context:

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) announced that Interpol has issued its first two Silver Notices against individuals wanted by India.

About Interpol:

Interpol, officially the International Criminal Police Organization, is an intergovernmental agency founded in 1923 at the International Police Congress in Vienna as the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC). It adopted the name Interpol in 1956. With 196 member countries, including India, Interpol is headquartered in Lyon, France. It serves as the world’s largest organization dedicated to facilitating global police cooperation through its mandate and technical infrastructure for sharing crime-related information internationally.

Governance Structure:

The General Secretariat, led by the Secretary General, manages daily operations to combat various crimes and is staffed by both police officers and civilians. The General Assembly, Interpol’s governing body, meets annually to make strategic decisions. Each member country hosts a National Central Bureau (NCB), staffed by national police officials and typically located within the government ministry responsible for policing, serving as the central contact point for Interpol’s global network.

India and Interpol:

India joined Interpol in 1949. The CBI functions as India’s NCB, coordinating international police cooperation through Interpol channels. India hosted the 90th Interpol General Assembly in Delhi in 2022, during which Interpol released its first global crime trend report.

Interpol Notices:

Interpol Notices are international alerts issued by the General Secretariat at the request of member countries’ NCBs. These notices facilitate cooperation by sharing critical crime-related information among member states.

Silver Notices:

Introduced in January 2025 during a pilot phase involving 51 countries and territories, the Silver Notice is a new color-coded alert focused on tracking assets linked to wanted criminals worldwide. Each participating country is permitted to publish up to nine Silver Notices under this program

Consider the following statements about Interpol:

Interpol was originally established as the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC).
The General Assembly of Interpol meets biennially to decide its policies and governance.
The National Central Bureau (NCB) in each member country acts as the main liaison between the country’s law enforcement and Interpol’s General Secretariat.
India’s Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) functions as the NCB for Interpol in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: B) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Interpol was originally established as the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC).
Interpol was founded in 1923 as the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC) before it adopted the name Interpol in 1956.
The General Assembly of Interpol meets biennially to decide its policies and governance.
The General Assembly is Interpol’s supreme governing body, but it meets annually, not biennially.
The National Central Bureau (NCB) in each member country acts as the main liaison between the country’s law enforcement and Interpol’s General Secretariat.
The NCB serves as the crucial point of contact, facilitating cooperation and communication between Interpol and national law enforcement.
India’s Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) functions as the NCB for Interpol in India.True. The CBI is designated as the NCB for India, coordinating all Interpol-related activities within the country.

Government Notifies Inter-services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Rules, 2025

Syllabus: GS3/ Defence

In News:

The Ministry of Defence has notified the ISO Rules, 2025 under the Inter-Services Organisations (ISO) Act, 2023, effective May 27, 2025.
Background – ISO Act, 2023: Enacted to support seamless functioning of Joint Commands and Inter-Service Establishments; aims to enhance coordination among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Objectives of ISO Rules, 2025: Unified Command – streamline control across services; Efficient Discipline – speed up case disposal, reduce duplication; Interoperability – legally and administratively align the three services.
Key Provisions of the ISO Act & Rules: Creation of ISOs – Central Govt. empowered to form joint structures with personnel from two or more services; Command Authority – Commander-in-Chief (CiC), Officer-in-Command (OiC), and Commanding Officers (COs) have full disciplinary and administrative powers over all personnel, regardless of service; Retention of Service Acts – personnel remain governed under respective Acts (Army, Navy, Air Force); Residuary Powers – unaddressed issues to be resolved by Central Govt; Chain of Command – temporary replacements permitted during leave/absence or emergencies.
Implementation Challenges: Cultural Integration – possible resistance due to differing service traditions; Jurisdiction Overlap – risk of confusion between ISO and parent service authority; Legal Complexity – harmonising distinct service laws may pose difficulties.

With reference to the Inter-Services Organisations (ISO) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

The ISO Act enables the formation of Inter-Service Organisations composed exclusively of personnel from the Army and Navy.
Under the ISO Rules, 2025, the Commander-in-Chief (CiC) of a Joint Services Command can exercise administrative control over civilian personnel posted to that command.
The ISO Act overrides the Army, Navy, and Air Force Acts with respect to disciplinary powers in Joint Commands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None

Answer: D. None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because ISOs can be composed of personnel from two or more services, not just Army and Navy.
Statement 2 is incorrect as ISO Rules empower control over service personnel, not civilian staff.
Statement 3 is incorrect; the respective Service Acts still apply to individuals; the ISO Act does not override them.

India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise Nomadic Elephant

Syllabus:Defence

Context:

The 17th edition of the India-Mongolia joint military exercise, Nomadic Elephant, is scheduled to take place in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia, from 31st May to 13th June 2025.
This bilateral military engagement alternates annually between the two nations, with the previous edition held in Umroi, Meghalaya in July 2024.

About the Exercise:

Nomadic Elephant is a bilateral military training initiative between the Indian Army and the Mongolian Armed Forces, aimed at enhancing operational synergy in counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency operations, particularly under a UN mandate. It serves as a critical platform for exchanging tactical knowledge, sharing operational best practices, and strengthening defence ties.

Participating Forces:

India: 45 personnel from the Arunachal Scouts Battalion, a unit skilled in high-altitude and mountain warfare.
Mongolia: A 150-strong Special Forces team.

Objectives and Training Modules:

The exercise is designed to develop interoperability in semi-conventional warfare within mountainous terrain and includes endurance drills, reflex shooting, room intervention techniques, rock craft training, small team tactics, and cyber warfare simulations (a new feature in this edition).

Tactical Drills and Operations:

The joint training will feature key operational exercises such as joint counter-terrorism responses, establishment of a combined command post, special heliborne operations, drone deployment and anti-drone tactics, insertion and extraction missions for small units, and landing zone security.
These drills aim to refine coordination between the two forces in multi-domain operational environments.

Historical Context:

Initiated in 2004, Nomadic Elephant has evolved into a significant pillar of bilateral defence cooperation. The inaugural edition was hosted by Mongolia, and the exercise has since seen alternate hosting by both nations, with increased scope and complexity over the years.

Broader India-Mongolia Defence Engagement:

Joint Working Group (JWG) on Defence Cooperation meets annually to review strategic collaboration.
India actively participates in Mongolia’s Khan Quest, a multinational military exercise.
This sustained engagement underscores the shared commitment of both nations to regional security, counter-terrorism preparedness, and strategic stability in the Indo-Pacific.

Conclusion:

The 17th edition of Nomadic Elephant reflects the growing strategic alignment between India and Mongolia. Through advanced tactical training and enhanced military collaboration, the two nations continue to foster a robust defence partnership anchored in mutual respect and regional peace.

With reference to Exercise Nomadic Elephant, consider the following statements:

It is a trilateral exercise involving India, Mongolia, and Russia under a UN peacekeeping mandate.
The exercise alternates annually between India and Mongolia since its inception in 2004.
The Arunachal Scouts, participating from India, are specially trained in amphibious warfare for riverine operations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Nomadic Elephant is bilateral, not trilateral.
Statement 2 is correct: It has alternated annually between India and Mongolia since 2004.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Arunachal Scouts specialize in high-altitude and mountain warfare, not amphibious operations.

International Booker Prize 2025

Syllabus:Awards

Banu Mushtaq, an Indian writer, lawyer, and activist, has made history as the first Kannada author to win the prestigious International Booker Prize for her short story collection Heart Lamp.

About the International Booker Prize:

The International Booker Prize is awarded annually to outstanding works of long-form fiction or short story collections that have been translated into English and published in the UK and/or Ireland.

History and Eligibility:

Established in 2005 as a biennial award recognizing an author’s global literary contribution, it initially had no requirement for the work to be originally written in a language other than English.
Since 2015, it is awarded annually to a work of fiction originally written in a language other than English and subsequently translated into English.
The prize is open to authors of any nationality, provided their work is translated into English.
The award emphasizes the importance of translators by equally dividing the £50,000 prize money between the author and the translator. Shortlisted authors and translators receive £2,500 each.
It is administered by the Booker Prize Foundation.

International Booker Prize 2025:

Heart Lamp, translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi, won the 2025 prize. It is notable for being the first collection of short stories and the first Kannada-language work to receive this honor. The book features stories written between 1990 and 2023, depicting the struggles of Muslim women in southern India.

Consider the following statements about the International Booker Prize and its 2025 winner:

The International Booker Prize has been awarded annually since its inception in 2005.
Since 2015, the prize is given only to works originally written in a language other than English and translated into English.
The prize money is shared equally between the author and the translator.
Banu Mushtaq is the first Indian author to win the International Booker Prize.
Heart Lamp is the first collection of short stories to win the International Booker Prize and is originally written in Kannada.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 2, 3, and 5 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 5 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the prize was biennial until 2015 and became annual thereafter.
Statement 2 is correct as since 2015, the prize is awarded annually to a work originally written in a non-English language and translated into English.
Statement 3 is correct; the prize money is split equally between author and translator.
Statement 4 is incorrect; Banu Mushtaq is the first Kannada author but not the first Indian author overall to win the prize.
Statement 5 is correct; Heart Lamp is the first short story collection and the first Kannada work to win.