TOne Academy

Monthly Current Affairs April 2025

Cities Coalition for Circularity

Context          

  • India recently launched the Cities Coalition for Circularity C-3 a multi-national alliance fostering collaboration knowledge-sharing and public-private partnerships to advance circular economy principles in urban development.
  • This initiative was introduced at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific held in Jaipur.

 

Key Highlights of the Event

  • Pro-Planet People P3 Approach the Prime Minister reaffirmed India’s commitment to sustainability through Reduce Reuse Recycle 3R principles
  • CITIIS 2.0 City Investments to Innovate Integrate and Sustain
  • MoU signed for urban sustainability projects worth 1800 crore
  • Benefits 18 cities across 14 states serving as model urban projects

 

Background Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum

  • Established in 2009 to promote sustainable waste management and circular economy in the Asia-Pacific region.
  • Hanoi 3R Declaration 2013-2023 Outlined 33 voluntary goals for transitioning to a resource-efficient and circular economy.
  • Global Plastic Treaty Negotiations The forum actively works toward international policies on plastic waste management.
  • Cities Coalition for Circularity C-3

 

Objective


C-3 supports urban centers in integrating circular economy principles into urban planning waste management and resource optimization

 

Key Focus Areas

  • Waste Reduction Promoting segregation composting and upcycling
  • Resource Efficiency Encouraging reuse and shared material use
  • Sustainable Infrastructure Implementing eco-friendly construction and urban design

 

 

Significance of C-3 for Urban Sustainability

  • Climate Action Reduces waste and emissions combating climate change
  • Economic Growth Creates new business opportunities in recycling and waste management, Resilient Cities Reduces reliance on finite resources strengthening urban resilience
  • Job Creation Expands employment in green sectors like sustainable construction and
  • Renewable energy
  • Improved Quality of Life Enhances public health and urban environments

 

Global and Indian Context

  • Internationally Cities like Amsterdam Copenhagen and Tokyo have successfully adopted circular economy strategies under the C-3 framework
  • In India Circularity is gaining traction through Swachh Bharat Mission promoting waste segregation and recycling
  • Smart Cities Mission integrating sustainability into urban planning
    Extended Producer Responsibility EPR holding companies accountable for waste management
  • GOBAR-Dhan Scheme covering 67.8 percent of districts supporting bio-waste management

 

Challenges in Implementing Circular Economy in Cities

  • Low Awareness and Technical Expertise
  • High Initial Investment Costs
  • Resistance from Businesses and Consumers
  • Weak Policy Support and Implementation

 

Way Forward

  • Policy Enforcement Implement mandatory circular economy regulations
  • Investment in R and D Develop sustainable materials and innovative recycling technologies
  • Public Awareness Campaigns Educate citizens on circular living practices
    Strengthen Public-Private Partnerships Scale up circular economy initiatives through collaboration
  • C-3 marks a major step in India’s urban sustainability journey driving resource efficiency economic resilience and environmental sustainability in Indian cities and beyond

 

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Cities Coalition for Circularity (C-3):

  1. It was launched at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific.
  2. The initiative focuses on urban sustainability through a linear economy approach.
  3. It promotes the adoption of circular economy principles in urban planning, waste management, and resource optimization.
  4. The initiative is led by the World Bank in collaboration with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Which of the statements given above are correct?                
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • C-3 was launched at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific.
  • It focuses on a circular economy approach, not a linear one.
  • The initiative is driven by the Government of India, not the World Bank or UNEP

Swavalambini

The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), in collaboration with NITI Aayog, has launched Swavalambini, a structured initiative aimed at fostering women entrepreneurship across Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).

 

About Swavalambini

  • The programme is designed to cultivate an entrepreneurial mindset among young women and equip them with the necessary resources, skills, and mentorship to build and scale their ventures.
  • It follows a stage-wise approach, ensuring structured guidance from business ideation to venture expansion.

 

Key Features of Swavalambini

  1. Faculty Development Programme (FDP)
  • Aimed at training faculty members from participating Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).
  • Involves intensive five-day training sessions to enable faculty to mentor aspiring women entrepreneurs.
  1. Mentorship and Networking
  • Once participants develop their business plans, they are provided with mentorship from industry experts and successful entrepreneurs.
  • The programme also facilitates:
  • Access to funding opportunities through government schemes and private investors.
  • Networking opportunities with established business leaders and professionals to enhance entrepreneurial success.
  1. Women Entrepreneurship Development Programme (EDP)
  • A comprehensive initiative that provides an in-depth understanding of:
  • Business Planning – Strategies for market entry and scalability.
  • Leadership and Decision-Making Skills – Enhancing managerial capabilities.
  • Financial Literacy and Investment Strategies – Understanding capital allocation and risk management.
  • Market Research and Competitive Analysis – Equipping entrepreneurs with insights for a data-driven approach to business.

With reference to the Swavalambini Programme, consider the following statements:

  1. Swavalambini is a joint initiative of MSDE and NITI Aayog aimed at women entrepreneurship.
  2. The programme primarily focuses on providing direct financial assistance to women entrepreneurs for their startups.
  3. It includes a Faculty Development Programme (FDP) that trains educators from Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. Swavalambini is a collaborative effort between MSDE and NITI Aayog, aimed at boosting women entrepreneurship.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The programme does not provide direct financial aid but facilitates access to funding through various government and private schemes.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The Faculty Development Programme (FDP) is a crucial component, training faculty members from HEIs to mentor women entrepreneurs.

 

Cabinet Nod To Revised Waqf Bill (2024)

Context:

  • The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister of India, has approved the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 with key recommendations from the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC).
  • This bill aims to strengthen the regulation, administration, and transparency of Waqf properties while addressing long-standing disputes and inefficiencies in their management.

 

Background: Waqf & Its Legal Framework

  • The Waqf Act, 1995, governs the administration of Waqf properties, which are charitable endowments made by Muslims for religious, educational, or welfare purposes.
  • The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, introduces reforms to enhance efficiency, prevent encroachment, and improve governance of these properties.

 

Key Amendments in the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024

  1. Strengthening Regulation of Waqf Properties
  • Introduces a stricter legal framework to prevent encroachment and misuse of Waqf lands.
  • Empowers state authorities to regulate Waqf assets with more clarity.
  1. Administrative Overhaul
  • Assigns the functions of the Survey Commissioner to the District Collector or an officer not below the rank of Deputy Collector for conducting Waqf property surveys.
  • Aims to expedite the identification and legal recognition of Waqf lands.
  1. Enhanced Government Oversight
  • Expands central and state government roles in monitoring Waqf Boards.
  • Could introduce provisions for better coordination and auditing mechanisms.
  1. Transparency & Digital Records
  • Mandates compulsory digitization of Waqf properties.
  • Aims to curb corruption and mismanagement through real-time digital tracking.

 

Key Changes Recommended by the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC)

 

  1. Inclusion of Women & OBC Representation

Mandates two Muslim women members in:

  • State Waqf Boards (Section 14)
  • Central Waqf Council (Section 9)
  • Includes one OBC Muslim representative in State Waqf Boards for broader community representation.
  1. Separate Waqf Boards for Specific Communities
  • State governments may establish separate Waqf Boards for:
  • Aghakhani community
  • Bohra community
  • Aims to address community-specific governance issues.
  1. Protection of Women’s Inheritance Rights
  • Ensures that in family Waqfs (Waqf Alal Aulad), women receive their rightful inheritance share.
  • A waqif (donor) can dedicate property only after ensuring female heirs’ legal entitlement.
  1. Dispute Resolution Mechanism
  • District Collectors will adjudicate disputes on whether a property is Waqf or belongs to the government.
  • Designed to reduce prolonged legal battles and streamline resolution.
  1. Technology Integration
  • All Waqf properties must be uploaded onto a central digital portal within six months.
  • Enhances accountability, monitoring, and accessibility of Waqf records.

 

Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) – Key Aspects

  • Set up by Parliament for detailed scrutiny of specific legislation.
  • Composed of members from both Houses, including ruling and opposition parties.
  • Dissolved upon completion of its mandate.

 

Potential Concerns Regarding the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024

  1. Autonomy of State Waqf Boards

Risk of centralization – may reduce state-level autonomy over Waqf property management.

  1. Legal & Constitutional Challenges

Possible judicial review if amendments contradict property laws or religious rights.

May raise questions on compensation for landowners affected by Waqf claims.

  1. Concerns from Minority Communities

Changes may be seen as reducing community control over Waqf assets.

Could trigger opposition from religious groups and political debates.

  1. Bureaucratic Control vs. Efficiency

While reforms aim to enhance governance, increased bureaucracy could slow down decision-making.

 

Understanding Waqf & Its Governance Structure

Definition of Waqf

  • Under Islamic law, Waqf refers to property dedicated solely for religious or charitable use.
  • Cannot be sold, inherited, or repurposed once designated as Waqf.

 

Central Waqf Council (CWC)

  • Established in 1964 under the Ministry of Minority Affairs (formerly under the Waqf Act, 1954).
  • Advisory & supervisory body for Waqf management.
  • Chairperson: Union Minister for Waqf.
  • Members: Not exceeding 20, appointed by the Government of India.

 

State Waqf Boards – Powers & Functions

    • As per Section 40 of the Waqf Act, 1995, State Waqf Boards can:
    • Determine whether a property is Waqf or not.
    • Identify if a Waqf belongs to Sunni or Shia traditions.

 With reference to the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, consider the following statements:

  1. It mandates the inclusion of two Muslim women in the State Waqf Boards and Central Waqf Council.
  2. The bill establishes a separate national Waqf Board for Sunni and Shia Muslims.
  3. The bill empowers District Collectors to adjudicate disputes regarding whether a property is Waqf or belongs to the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?           

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. The JPC recommended the inclusion of two Muslim women in State Waqf Boards and the Central Waqf Council.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The bill does not establish a separate national Waqf Board for Sunnis and Shias, but allows state-specific Waqf Boards for Aghakhani and Bohra communities.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The bill grants District Collectors authority to decide Waqf-related disputes.

 

Challenges Ahead of Women Panchayat Members in India

Introduction

  • The Ministry of Panchayati Raj has recently identified key reasons why male relatives of elected women representatives (EWRs) often act as proxies, undermining their autonomy in governance.
  • Despite constitutional provisions for women’s representation, several socio-political and structural challenges persist.

 

Women’s Participation in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)

  • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, marked a watershed moment in India’s governance by mandating one-third reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
  • Over time, several states extended this reservation to 50%, leading to the election of over 1.45 million women representatives at the grassroots level.

 

Key Challenges Faced by Women Panchayat Members

  1. Patriarchal Mindset and ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’
  • Many male family members (husbands, fathers, brothers) act as de facto decision-makers, reducing elected women to mere figureheads.
  • This practice, known as ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’, is particularly prevalent in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Bihar.
  1. Lack of Political Training and Awareness
  • Many EWRs lack knowledge of governance structures, policy-making, and financial planning.
  • This makes them dependent on male counterparts or bureaucrats for decision-making.
  1. Resistance from Bureaucracy and Male Counterparts
  • Bureaucratic bias often results in officials not taking women leaders seriously.
  • Delays in fund allocation and policy implementation weaken women-led governance.
  1. Financial Dependence and Economic Disempowerment
  • Economic dependence on male family members restricts women’s ability to act independently in politics.
  • Limited access to financial resources and micro-credit schemes further constrains their decision-making power.
  1. Gender-Based Violence and Intimidation
  • Women leaders face harassment, verbal abuse, and physical threats from opposing male politicians or dominant caste groups.
  • In extreme cases, women are coerced into resigning due to social pressure or violence.
  1. Dual Burden of Work and Household Responsibilities
  • Women leaders struggle to balance political responsibilities with domestic duties such as childcare and agricultural work.
  • Societal norms prioritize household responsibilities, limiting women’s engagement in governance.
  1. Social and Caste-Based Discrimination
  • Women from marginalized communities (Dalits, Adivasis, and OBCs) face intersectional discrimination in political spaces.
  • This is particularly severe in states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Haryana.

 

Benefits of Strengthening Women’s Leadership in PRIs

  1. Improved Governance and Policy Implementation

Example: In Kudumbashree (Kerala), empowered women leaders played a critical role in poverty alleviation and welfare schemes.

  1. Gender-Responsive Policies and Better Representation

Example: In Nagaland, women-led Panchayats focused on reducing gender-based violence and improving maternal health services.

  1. Economic Empowerment and Financial Independence

Example: In Bihar, EWRs successfully implemented micro-loan schemes, boosting rural women’s entrepreneurship.

  1. Reduction in ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’

Example: In Rajasthan, capacity-building programs helped reduce male dominance in Panchayat decision-making.

 

Key Government Initiatives for Women in PRIs

  1. National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) – SHG Linkages
  • Promotes financial independence and leadership among rural women through Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
  1. Mahila Sabhas (Women’s Gram Sabha Meetings)
  • Held before general Gram Sabha meetings to prioritize women’s issues related to health, education, and safety.
  1. Panchayat Mahila Evam Yuva Shakti Abhiyan (PMEYSA)
  • Focuses on capacity-building for elected women representatives, enhancing decision-making and leadership skills.
  1. Mission Shakti (2022)
  • Comprises Sambal (safety & security) and Samarthya (economic empowerment) schemes to strengthen women’s participation in governance.
  1. Women’s Leadership Development Programs
  • Government and NGOs conduct training and mentorship programs to empower women in governance.

 

Way Forward: Strengthening Women’s Political Participation

  1. Capacity-Building and Leadership Training
  • Expanding Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) to ensure every EWR receives governance training.
  1. Strict Implementation of Laws Against Proxy Representation
  • Enforcing legal provisions to prevent male relatives from controlling elected women.
  • Conducting awareness campaigns to educate women about their rights.
  1. Financial Empowerment and Direct Access to Resources
  • Women leaders should have direct control over Panchayat funds without bureaucratic hurdles.
  • Expanding microfinance and economic initiatives to enhance women’s independence.
  1. Extending Women’s Reservation Beyond PRIs
  • While PRIs have 33-50% reservation, similar provisions should be implemented at legislative levels.
  • The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023, which mandates one-third reservation in Lok Sabha & State Assemblies, must be implemented effectively post-delimitation.
  1. Strengthening Women’s Support Networks
  • Expanding the National Federation of Elected Women Representatives (NFEWR) across all states.
  1. Ensuring Safety and Protection for Women Leaders
  • Strict legal measures against harassment, violence, and political intimidation.
  • Establishing fast-track courts for cases related to violence against women in politics.

 

Conclusion

  • Despite remarkable progress in women’s political participation, systemic barriers continue to limit their effectiveness in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
  • Addressing these challenges requires a multi-dimensional strategy involving legal enforcement, capacity-building, financial empowerment, and social transformation.
  • By empowering elected women representatives and ensuring their full participation in governance, India can move toward gender equality and inclusive development.

 

 With reference to the ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’ in India, consider the following statements:

  • It refers to the practice where male relatives exercise de facto control over elected women representatives in PRIs.
  • The phenomenon is legally prohibited under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
  • This practice is most commonly observed in urban municipal corporations rather than rural governance structures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?           
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. ‘Sarpanch Pati Syndrome’ is a well-documented issue where male relatives, especially husbands, exercise real power while women hold the official position.
  • Statement 2 is correct. While the 73rd Amendment mandates one-third (now 50% in many states) reservation for women, it does not explicitly mention this issue. However, proxy representation violates constitutional principles of effective representation.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The issue is primarily seen in rural Panchayat Raj Institutions (PRIs), not urban local bodies.

 

Article 136 of the Constitution

  • Vice-president Jagdeep Dhankhar, speaking at a conference on arbitration, raised concerns about the misuse of Article 136 of the Constitution.
  • Article 136 grants the Supreme Court the discretionary power to grant special leave to appeal against any judgment, decree, or order issued by any court or tribunal in India.
  • This provision enables the Supreme Court to hear appeals even when no other legal provision guarantees an automatic right of appeal.
  • It applies to both civil and criminal cases, but the Supreme Court is not obligated to accept every appeal filed under this article.

Consider the following statements regarding Article 136:

  1. It allows the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal against decisions of any court or tribunal in India.
  2. It applies exclusively to constitutional and civil cases.
  3. The Supreme Court is obligated to entertain every petition filed under Article 136.
  4. It serves as an extraordinary jurisdiction rather than a regular appellate mechanism.

Which of the statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

 

Answer:(b)
Explanation:

  • Article 136 grants the Supreme Court discretionary power to hear appeals from any court or tribunal.
  • However, it applies to both civil and criminal matters (not just constitutional and civil cases), and the Supreme Court is not obligated to accept all petitions under this provision.
  • It functions as an extraordinary power rather than a routine appellate mechanism.

 

Punjab’s Success with AIF Scheme

  • Punjab has emerged as the leading state in executing the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme, having fully utilized its allocated ₹4,713 crore and subsequently securing an additional ₹2,337 crore from the central government.
  • This proactive financial deployment underscores Punjab’s commitment to strengthening agricultural infrastructure and minimizing post-harvest losses.

 

Understanding the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)

  • Launched in July 2020, the AIF is a medium to long-term financing initiative aimed at facilitating post-harvest agricultural infrastructure development. Its primary objectives include:
  • Reduction of post-harvest losses by bolstering storage and processing capabilities.
  • Enhancement of rural agrarian infrastructure to improve efficiency and market access.
  • Financial empowerment of stakeholders through concessional credit and interest subvention.

 

Project Eligibility and Expansion

  • Initially, the AIF prioritized primary post-harvest management
  • However, it has now been expanded to support secondary-level integrated processing.

 

 

Key focus areas include:

  • Upgrading facilities for grading, waxing, and packaging of agricultural produce.
  • Encouraging value-added processing such as juice extraction and jam production.
  • Establishing cold chains and warehouses to enhance storage capabilities.

 

Eligible Beneficiaries Under AIF

The AIF scheme is accessible to a diverse range of stakeholders, ensuring a broad-based impact. Eligible applicants include:

  • Individual farmers and agripreneurs
  • Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies (PACS)
  • Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs)
  • Start-ups and agribusiness enterprises
  • Public-Private Partnerships (PPP) projects

This inclusive approach maximizes the reach and effectiveness of the scheme.

 

Punjab’s Exemplary Performance Under AIF

  • As of February 2025, Punjab has sanctioned 21,740 projects, the highest among all Indian states.
  • This milestone was achieved over a year ahead of the March 2026 deadline.
  • Other leading states, such as Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, are also actively participating, but Punjab remains at the forefront in terms of project approvals and fund utilization.

 

Spectrum of Projects Funded

The AIF has financed a wide array of agricultural infrastructure projects, demonstrating its adaptability and relevance across sectors. Some notable categories include:

  • Cashew processing units
  • Oil extraction and refining facilities
  • Flour mills and food processing plants
  • Cold storage and warehouse units
  • Solar-powered agricultural infrastructure

 

Financial Framework and Benefits

The financial structure of the AIF is designed to provide affordable credit access with the following features:

  • Interest subvention of 3% on eligible loans.
  • Maximum interest rate capped at 9% for loans up to ₹2 crore.
  • Flexible repayment period of up to 7 years.
  • Integration with other state and central subsidies, enhancing financial feasibility for stakeholders.

 

Socio-Economic Impact on Farmers and Rural Development

  • Approximately 71% of AIF beneficiaries are individual farmers, ensuring that the scheme significantly influences grassroots agricultural communities. Moreover:
  • 67% of sanctioned projects have costs below ₹25 lakh, signifying a strong focus on small-scale, farmer-led initiatives.
  • The emphasis on localized agricultural infrastructure supports employment generation and economic upliftment of rural areas.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF):

  1. The AIF was launched in July 2020 to provide long-term financing for agricultural infrastructure projects.
  2. It focuses on both pre-harvest and post-harvest agricultural infrastructure development.
  3. The fund offers an interest subvention of 3% on eligible loans.
  4. The maximum interest rate under the scheme is capped at 7% for loans up to ₹2 crore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The AIF was launched in July 2020 to provide financial support for developing agricultural infrastructure.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The AIF only supports post-harvest infrastructure such as cold storage, warehouses, and processing units. It does not focus on pre-harvest activities like irrigation or seed development.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The scheme offers a 3% interest subvention to beneficiaries, reducing the financial burden on them.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The maximum interest rate under AIF is capped at 9%, not 7%, for loans up to ₹2 crore.

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan

 

  • The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) is a flagship social security initiative launched by the Government of India in the Interim Budget of 2019.
  • The scheme is strategically designed to offer a guaranteed pension to unorganised sector workers, a category that constitutes a significant portion of India’s workforce yet remains largely excluded from formal pension systems.

 

Significance of PM-SYM in India’s Socio-Economic Context

  • The unorganised sector is the backbone of the Indian economy, engaging workers in occupations such as street vending, domestic work, construction labor, and agricultural activities.
  • This sector contributes approximately 50% to India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP). By the end of 2024, around 51 crore unorganised workers had registered on the e-Shram portal, highlighting the pressing need for robust social security interventions.

 

Key Features of the PM-SYM Scheme

  • Guaranteed Pension: Provides a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month post-retirement, after the age of 60.
  • Government Contribution: The government matches the worker’s contribution on a 1:1 basis, enhancing affordability and financial sustainability.
  • Voluntary Participation: Workers self-select their contribution level, making the scheme flexible and inclusive.
  • Family Pension Provision: In case of the subscriber’s demise, the spouse receives 50% of the pension amount as a family pension.
  • Exit Provisions: Allows premature withdrawal under specified conditions, ensuring adaptability to changing financial circumstances.
  • Simplified Enrolment Process: Workers can enroll through Common Service Centres (CSCs) or the Maandhan portal, reducing administrative hurdles.
  • Fund Management: The scheme is administered by the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), ensuring long-term financial viability and trustworthiness.

 

Eligibility and Exclusion Criteria

To ensure targeted implementation, PM-SYM applies the following eligibility conditions:

  • Eligibility Conditions:
  • Age Bracket: Applicants must be between 18 and 40 years old.
  • Income Ceiling: Monthly earnings should not exceed ₹15,000.
  • Employment Type: Only those engaged in unorganised sector jobs can apply.

 

Exclusion Criteria:

  • Individuals covered under Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), or the National Pension System (NPS).
  • Income taxpayers are ineligible.
  • Workers already benefiting from other government pension schemes cannot enroll.

 

Administrative and Institutional Framework: The Ministry of Labour and Employment is the nodal agency responsible for administering PM-SYM. It works in collaboration with:

  • LIC (for pension disbursal and fund management).
  • Common Service Centres (CSCs) (for on-ground enrolment and facilitation).
  • State and district-level authorities (for awareness campaigns and grievance redressal).

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. The scheme was introduced in 2019 to provide social security to unorganised sector workers.
  2. PM-SYM offers a guaranteed pension of ₹3,000 per month post-retirement.
  3. Government contributions are fixed at 50% of the total pension corpus, regardless of worker participation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: PM-SYM was launched in 2019 to provide a pension scheme for unorganised sector workers.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It guarantees a fixed pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The government does NOT contribute a fixed 50% of the total corpus; rather, it matches the worker’s individual contribution (1:1 ratio).

6 Years of POSHAN Abhiyan

  1. Context: Launched in 2018, POSHAN Abhiyaan has completed seven years of implementation, marking a significant milestone in India’s commitment to eliminating malnutrition and anemia.

    Objectives of POSHAN Abhiyaan: The initiative focuses on a multi-pronged approach to address malnutrition and maternal health, with key objectives:

    • Reduction of stunting among children (0-6 years).
    • Mitigation of under-nutrition (prevalence of underweight children, 0-6 years).
    • Lowering anemia prevalence among women and adolescent girls (15-49 years).
    • Reduction of low birth weight (LBW) through enhanced maternal and child healthcare services.
    • Strategic Pillars of POSHAN Abhiyaan

     

    Access to Quality Services:

    • Strengthening maternal and child health services through flagship programs:
    • Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS)
    • National Health Mission (NHM)
    • Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
    • Special focus on the first 1,000 days of life, critical for early childhood development.

    Cross-Sectoral Convergence:

    • Integration with various national programs for a holistic approach:
    • Swachh Bharat Mission (sanitation and hygiene)
    • National Drinking Water Mission (safe drinking water access)

     

    Leveraging Technology:

    • Adoption of digital tools, including the Poshan Tracker application, for real-time monitoring and intervention.

     

    Jan Andolan (People’s Movement):

    • Community-led initiatives to raise awareness and encourage behavioral shifts in nutrition and maternal health practices.
    • Mission Saksham Anganwadi & POSHAN 2.0

     

    Launched in 2021, integrating multiple nutrition-focused programs under a unified framework, including:

    • Supplementary Nutrition Programme (SNP)
    • POSHAN Abhiyaan
    • Strengthened Anganwadi services, emphasizing:
    • Infrastructure development
    • Nutritional support
    • Capacity-building of frontline workers

    Funding Pattern:

    • For States & UTs with Legislature: 60:40 (Centre: State)
    • For Northeastern & Himalayan States: 90:10 (Centre: State)

     

    Conclusion:

    • POSHAN Abhiyaan remains a cornerstone initiative in India’s battle against malnutrition, integrating policy, technology, and community engagement to foster a healthier future for children and women.

Consider the following statements regarding POSHAN Abhiyaan:

  1. It was launched in 2018 with the aim of addressing malnutrition among children and women.
  2. It exclusively focuses on providing nutritional support to children below five years of age.
  3. The initiative leverages digital tools like the Poshan Tracker for real-time monitoring.
  4. It is implemented solely by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • POSHAN Abhiyaan is a multi-sectoral initiative that integrates efforts from different ministries, including the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
  • It does not focus exclusively on children below five years but also addresses adolescent girls and maternal nutrition.

Surat Food Security Saturation Campaign

                                        

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Surat Food Security Saturation Campaign Programme in Limbayat, Surat, reinforcing the government’s commitment to ensuring food security for the underprivileged.

  • The initiative, aimed at benefiting over 2.3 lakh people, underscores Surat’s collective spirit in supporting the marginalized.

 

Objectives of the Campaign:

  • The campaign is designed to expand the reach of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), ensuring that no eligible individual is left out.
  • Over 2.5 lakh new beneficiaries have been identified, including elderly individuals and differently-abled persons.
  • The initiative moves beyond political appeasement and focuses on fair and inclusive food distribution.
  • Beneficiaries will receive free rations and nutritious food, helping combat hunger and malnutrition.

 

Government Initiatives for Food Security:

 

  • The government has implemented several schemes to enhance food security across India: Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY) – Launched during COVID-19 to provide free food grains to the poor.

 

  • PM Poshan Scheme – Ensures nutritious meals for school children, improving their health and learning outcomes.

 

  • Saksham Anganwadi Program – Focuses on maternal and child nutrition, enhancing early childhood development.

 

  • PM Matru Vandana Yojana – Provides financial aid to pregnant women, promoting maternal and infant health.

 

Emphasis on Nutrition and Hygiene: Eliminating malnutrition and anaemia is a government priority. Surat has set an example in hygiene and cleanliness, complementing the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan. The Har Ghar Jal campaign ensures clean drinking water, improving public health and sanitation.

 

Financial Inclusion and Support for the Poor: To empower the underprivileged, the government has introduced key financial initiatives: One Nation, One Ration Card (ONORC) – Allows beneficiaries to access rations from anywhere in India, ensuring food security for migrants. Mudra Yojana – Provides collateral-free loans to small businesses and entrepreneurs. PM SVANidhi Yojana – Offers financial support to street vendors, enabling economic self-reliance.

 

Strengthening the Middle Class:

 The government recognizes the middle class as a pillar of economic growth. Recent tax relief measures allow middle-class families to retain more income. New tax slabs support financial stability and encourage investment and savings.

 

Surat’s Economic Growth and Infrastructure Development:

 Surat is a major hub for textiles, chemicals, and MSMEs. To boost economic activity, the government has invested in MSME-friendly loan schemes, enabling business expansion. Infrastructure projects such as the Surat Metro and the new airport terminal improve connectivity and quality of life.

 

Women Empowerment Initiatives: Women’s empowerment remains a key focus of the government. Women are encouraged to share their success stories, inspiring greater participation in economic and social development. Special events and programs celebrate women’s contributions across various sectors.

The Surat Food Security Saturation Campaign is a significant milestone in ensuring that every citizen has access to essential nutrition and financial support, fostering growth, inclusivity, and empowerment.

Consider the following statements regarding the Surat Food Security Saturation Campaign:

  1. The campaign aims to strengthen the implementation of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) by including newly identified beneficiaries.
  2. It focuses primarily on providing subsidized food grains to beneficiaries in Surat.
  3. The initiative has identified over 5 lakh new beneficiaries, including the elderly and differently-abled individuals.
  4. The campaign extends beyond food security, incorporating elements of nutrition, hygiene, and financial inclusion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer: (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: The campaign aims to expand the coverage of NFSA, ensuring that no eligible person is left out.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: Beneficiaries receive free rations and nutritious food, not just subsidized grains.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: Over 5 lakh new beneficiaries have been identified under the campaign.
  • Statement 4 – Correct: The initiative integrates nutrition, hygiene (Swachh Bharat Abhiyan), and financial inclusion.

 

Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission

  • The Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) is a flagship initiative of the Government of India, aimed at modernizing and enhancing the livestock and dairy sector.
  • With an additional allocation of ₹1,000 crore, the total budget for RGM now stands at ₹3,400 crore for the 15th Finance Commission cycle (2021-22 to 2025-26).
  • The revised mission focuses on boosting milk production, improving cattle productivity, and supporting dairy farmers through targeted interventions.

 

Key Components of the Revised RGM

  1. Heifer Rearing Centres
  • Provides one-time financial assistance covering 35% of capital costs.
  • Aims to establish 30 rearing facilities to accommodate 15,000 heifers.
  • Ensures the availability of high-quality female calves to improve dairy productivity.
  1. High Genetic Merit (HGM) IVF Heifers
  • Farmers purchasing HGM IVF heifers receive a 3% interest subvention on loans.
  • Loans are facilitated through milk unions and financial institutions to promote access to superior breeds.

 

Ongoing Activities and Enhancements

  • The revised mission continues several critical initiatives from the original RGM, including:
  • Strengthening semen stations and expanding Artificial Insemination (AI) coverage.
  • Accelerating breed improvement through the use of sex-sorted semen and advanced reproductive technologies.
  • Skill development and farmer awareness programs to enhance knowledge and best practices in livestock management.

Impact on Milk Production and Productivity

  • Since the inception of RGM, India has witnessed a 63.55% increase in milk production over the past decade. Key improvements include:
  • Milk availability per capita rose from 307 grams/day (2013-14) to 471 grams/day (2023-24).
  • Dairy productivity surged by 26.34% within the same period, benefiting both small and large-scale farmers.
  • Nationwide Artificial Insemination Programme (NAIP)

 

To enhance breed quality and accessibility, the NAIP provides:

  • Free Artificial Insemination (AI) services in 605 districts, focusing on areas with AI coverage below 50%.
  • Over 8.39 crore animals have been inseminated, benefiting 5.21 crore farmers across India.
  • Technological Innovations in Livestock Breeding

 

The RGM incorporates cutting-edge advancements to improve livestock genetics and productivity, including:

  • Establishment of 22 In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) labs for advanced breeding.

 

Development of genomic chips:

  • Gau Chip for indigenous cattle breeds.
  • Mahish Chip for buffalo breeds.
  • Indigenous development of Gau Sort technology for producing sex-sorted semen, ensuring higher birth rates of female calves for dairy farming.
  • Emphasis on Indigenous Breeds and Farmer Livelihoods

The Revised RGM prioritizes the scientific conservation and genetic improvement of indigenous bovine breeds, fostering a sustainable and self-reliant dairy sector.

 

Key outcomes include:

  • Systematic bull production programs to enhance breed purity.
  • Expanded use of IVF and genomic technologies to increase productivity.
  • Improved economic conditions for over 8.5 crore farmers engaged in dairying, particularly small and marginal farmers.
  • By integrating modern scientific techniques with traditional livestock practices, the Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission is playing a crucial role in strengthening India’s dairy industry, ensuring higher productivity, enhanced farmer incomes, and sustainable livestock management.

With reference to the Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM), consider the following statements:

  1. It provides capital assistance of 50% for establishing Heifer Rearing Centres.
  2. It offers an interest subvention on loans for purchasing High Genetic Merit (HGM) IVF heifers.
  3. The mission aims to increase milk production but does not focus on indigenous bovine breeds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:

  • The mission provides 35% capital assistance, not 50%, for establishing Heifer Rearing Centres.
  • It does offer a 3% interest subvention on loans for purchasing HGM IVF heifers.
  • A major focus of RGM is the conservation and development of indigenous bovine breeds, making statement 3 incorrect.

SwaYaan initiative

  • The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), in collaboration with the Drone Federation of India (DFI), has launched the National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research (NIDAR) under the SwaYaan initiative.
  • This initiative aims to bolster capacity building in Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS) by fostering applied research and entrepreneurship in drone technology.
  • The event, held at Electronics Niketan, witnessed participation from key government officials, industry leaders, and students across India through video conferencing.

 

Launch and Key Highlights

  • The challenge was officially inaugurated by Shri S. Krishnan, Secretary, MeitY, who unveiled the NIDAR concept video, launched the website and registration portal, and released the official rulebook and poster.
  • Addressing the attendees, Shri Krishnan underscored the transformative role of drones in sectors such as agriculture, disaster management, logistics, healthcare, and infrastructure, emphasizing the need to scale the NIDAR initiative to contribute to India’s goal of becoming a global drone hub by 2030.
  • T. G. Sitharam, Chairman, AICTE, highlighted the necessity of integrating the NIDAR challenge into engineering curricula across the country.
  • Stressing the importance of collaboration between academia, startups, and industry, he called for innovative engagement in drone technology research and development.

 

Objectives and Focus Areas of NIDAR

  • The NIDAR challenge aims to inspire India’s student and research community to develop collaborative autonomous drones to address real-world challenges in two key domains.
  • Disaster Management – Scout and Deliver Drones.
  • Autonomous drones for scouting disaster-affected areas.
    Assisting survivors through communication and parcel delivery.
  • Precision Agriculture – Scan and Spray Drones.
  • Drones for crop health monitoring.
    Precision-based pesticide and nutrient delivery.

 

Support, Incentives, and Participation

  • The challenge offers a prize pool of INR 40 Lakhs, along with startup incubation opportunities, cloud computing credits, software support, and internship placements with India’s leading drone companies.
  • Over 100 student teams from higher education institutions are expected to participate, showcasing innovative solutions to challenges in agriculture and disaster response.
  • The competition will be conducted in multiple phases, including technology presentation, business case development, and final operational demonstration.
  • This comprehensive evaluation will assess the technical skills, problem-solving abilities, teamwork, and entrepreneurial acumen of participants, preparing them for leadership roles in emerging technology domains.

 

Role of Drone Federation of India (DFI)

  • As India’s premier industry body representing over 550 drone companies and 5500 drone pilots, the Drone Federation of India (DFI) will play a crucial role in mentoring student teams by providing industry exposure and guiding them through the innovation process.

 

Significance of NIDAR in India’s Drone Ecosystem

  • The launch of NIDAR represents a strategic milestone in advancing India’s drone research, development, and commercialization.
  • It reinforces the Government of India’s efforts to promote entrepreneurship in academia while bridging the gap between technological innovation and real-world applications.

 

About SwaYaan Initiative

  • The SwaYaan initiative, approved by MeitY in July 2022, focuses on capacity building in Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS) through formal and non-formal educational programs.
  • Its goal is to train 42,560 individuals and develop a skilled workforce in drone technology.

 

Implementation Model and Key Areas

  • The initiative follows a hub-and-spoke model, involving 30 premier institutions, including IISc Bangalore, IITs, IIITs, NITs, CDAC, and NIELIT.
  • It is structured around five key research themes, Drone Electronics, GNC Algorithms and Simulation, Aeromechanics, Drone Applications, and Allied UAS Technologies.
  • To date, over 14,000 individuals have been trained under SwaYaan.

 

Notable Achievements

  • Launch of M.Tech in UAS Engineering at IIT Kanpur.
  • Introduction of minor degree programs in drone technology.
  • Successful execution of multiple bootcamps and workshops.
  • The program actively engages industry partners through innovation challenges and industry meets, reinforcing the critical link between academic training and industry requirements in drone technology.

 

Conclusion

  • The NIDAR challenge, under the SwaYaan initiative, is set to be a game-changer for India’s drone industry, fostering cutting-edge research, skill development, and entrepreneurship.
  • By encouraging technological innovation in drone applications, the initiative is poised to strengthen India’s position as a global leader in unmanned aerial systems.

Which of the following statements regarding the NIDAR challenge is/are correct?

  1. It is launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation in collaboration with the Drone Federation of India (DFI).
  2. The challenge provides incentives such as startup incubation, cloud computing credits, and software support.
  3. The competition includes multiple evaluation phases such as Technology Presentation, Business Case Development, and Final Operational Demonstration.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because NIDAR is launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct as the challenge offers startup incubation, cloud computing credits, and software support, along with a rigorous multi-phase evaluation process.

 

Swadesh Darshan Scheme

Context

  • The Public Accounts Committee (PAC), chaired by C. Venugopal, has raised concerns over the poor execution of the Swadesh Darshan scheme by the Ministry of Tourism.
  • The observations were based on a report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
  • Despite the Ministry’s claims that most sanctioned projects were completed, the PAC identified significant discrepancies in project implementation.

Swadesh Darshan Scheme

  • Launched: 2014-15, as a flagship scheme under the Ministry of Tourism.
  • Revamped: As Swadesh Darshan 2.0, with a focus on sustainable and responsible tourism, adopting a tourist-centric

 

Theme-Based Tourist Circuits:

  • Spiritual Circuits (e.g., Char Dham Yatra, Buddhist Circuit)
  • Cultural Circuits (e.g., North East Circuit, Tribal Circuit)
  • Heritage Circuits
  • Wildlife Circuits

 

Coastal Circuits

Funding: The Ministry of Tourism provides financial support to States and Union Territories for circuit development.

 

Key Issues Identified by PAC

Lapses in Planning: No feasibility studies were conducted before launching projects.

Financial Mismanagement:

  • Budget overruns due to inadequate planning.
  • Approvals granted without Detailed Project Reports (DPRs).

Weak Monitoring:

  • No structured mechanism for project evaluation.
  • Delays and incomplete projects despite claims of completion.

Discrepancy in Completion Claims:

  • The Ministry claimed 75 out of 76 projects were completed.
  • However, PAC found that key projects like the Kanwaria Route in Bihar, Tribal Circuit in Telangana, and Sree Narayana Guru Ashram in Kerala were either incomplete or non-functional.

 

Recommendations & Way Forward

  • The Ministry of Tourism has been directed to physically inspect all projects and submit a detailed report within three weeks.

 

The Ministry must provide data on:

  • The scheme’s impact on employment generation.
  • Changes in tourist footfall, as key indicators of the scheme’s success.

 

About the Public Accounts Committee (PAC)

  • Constitutional Status
  • Not a constitutional body.
  • Formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.

 

Composition

  • 22 Members:
  • 15 from Lok Sabha
  • 7 from Rajya Sabha
  • Elected annually by Parliament.
  • Chairperson: Appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, typically from the opposition party.

 

Functions

  • Examines audit reports submitted by the CAG of India.
  • Scrutinizes public expenditure to prevent extravagance and irregularities.
  • Ensures accountability of the Executive to the Legislature.
  • Works alongside CAG to uphold fiscal discipline and transparency.

 

With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
  2. The Chairperson of the PAC is always from the ruling party.
  3. PAC is responsible for examining the reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
  4. The PAC can take suo-motu cognizance of financial irregularities and initiate investigations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: PAC is not a constitutional body; it is formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chairperson is usually from the opposition party, not the ruling party.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The PAC examines audit reports of CAG and scrutinizes public expenditure.

Statement 4 is incorrect: PAC cannot take suo-motu cognizance; it works based on reports submitted by the CAG.

Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act, 2005

Context

 

Over 30 civil society organizations have urged the Union government to safeguard the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, amid concerns about potential restrictions imposed by the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023.

 

Concerns Raised

  • Activists caution against fully implementing amendments that may weaken the RTI Act under the DPDP Act.
  • Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act now broadly prohibits disclosing personal information, even when it serves the public interest.
  • The government justifies the change by citing the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) case, which recognized privacy as a fundamental right.

 

Challenges Posed by the Amendment

  • Restricting access to information may hinder social audits and make it difficult to uncover corruption or misuse of public funds.
  • RTI requests have been instrumental in verifying government programs, such as food ration distribution and welfare schemes.
  • Activists argue that the original RTI framework already balanced privacy with transparency, rejecting claims that the changes align with the Supreme Court’s privacy ruling.
  • Right to Information Act, 2005

 

Objectives and Scope

  • Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in governance by granting citizens the right to access information from public authorities.
  • Applicable to government departments, ministries, and organizations substantially funded by the government.

 

Key Provisions

  • Information Access: Citizens can request government records, documents, and other relevant data.
  • Exemptions: Information related to national security, confidentiality, and ongoing investigations is excluded.
  • Response Time: Public authorities must respond within 30 days, extendable to 45 days in specific cases.
  • Penalties: Officials withholding information without valid reasons or providing false details may face penalties.

 

Significance of the RTI Act

  • Empowering Citizens: Enables individuals to seek information, ensuring government transparency and accountability.
  • Preventing Corruption: RTI has exposed fund mismanagement in schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
  • Promoting Good Governance: Enhances trust in government by fostering openness in decision-making.
  • Facilitating Social Audits: NGOs and activists use RTI to verify government service delivery, such as the Public Distribution System (PDS).
  • Ensuring Public Access to Records: RTI requests help uncover inefficiencies and corruption in government contracts.
  • Strengthening Democracy: Encourages citizen participation in governance and policymaking.

 

Criticism and Challenges

  • Administrative Burden: High volumes of RTI requests strain public authorities, diverting resources from primary duties.
  • Misuse of RTI: Some requests are used for harassment or personal/political agendas.
  • Delays in Processing: Authorities struggle to meet response deadlines, leading to frustration among applicants.
  • Lack of Training and Infrastructure: Many government offices lack the expertise and resources for effective RTI implementation.
  • Ambiguity in Exemptions: Vaguely defined exemptions create loopholes for withholding crucial public information.

 

Way Forward

  • Parliament should define “personal information” and “public interest” more precisely.
  • Personal data disclosure should be permitted when it serves a greater public good, such as exposing corruption or verifying the misuse of funds.
  • Any amendments to the RTI Act should involve consultations with multiple stakeholders, including RTI activists, legal experts, and data protection specialists.
  • The government must balance privacy rights with the need for transparency to ensure democratic accountability.
  • The RTI Act remains a cornerstone of democracy, empowering citizens and ensuring government accountability. Its preservation is crucial for upholding transparency, reducing corruption, and promoting good governance.

 

With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements:

  1. The RTI Act applies only to government departments and ministries but not to organizations that receive substantial government funding.
  2. The Act allows disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest.
  3. The government can reject an RTI request if the information sought affects national security or ongoing criminal investigations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The RTI Act not only applies to government departments and ministries but also covers organizations that receive substantial funding from the government (such as NGOs and public-private partnerships).
  • Statement 2 is correct: The RTI Act permits disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest, but the recent amendment under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023 has created hurdles in this regard.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Act exempts disclosure of information that affects national security, foreign relations, or ongoing investigations under Section 8(1).

 

Sub-categorisation of SCs in Andhra Pradesh

The Andhra Pradesh Cabinet approved the one-member commission’s recommendations on the sub-categorisation of SCs to ensure equitable distribution of reservation benefits.

  • The demand for sub-categorisation has existed for over 30 years, with previous efforts including the Justice Ramachandra Rao Commission (1996).
  • Understanding Sub-Categorisation of SCs
  • Sub-categorisation divides the SC category into smaller sub-groups to ensure a fair distribution of reservation benefits in education, employment, and affirmative action.

Historical Context & Supreme Court Rulings

  • In 1975, Punjab issued a notification giving first preference in SC reservations to Balmiki and Mazhabi Sikh communities, which was challenged in 2004 after a similar Andhra Pradesh law was struck down in E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004).
  • The Supreme Court in E.V. Chinnaiah ruled that SCs and STs form a single, indivisible class under Article 341/342 and that states cannot sub-classify or create internal quotas within SC/ST reservations.
  • In 2020, the Supreme Court reconsidered E.V. Chinnaiah, acknowledging “unequals within the list of SCs” and citing Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta (2018), which extended the “creamy layer” concept to SCs.
  • In 2024, the Supreme Court ruled that sub-classification within SCs and STs is allowed, clarifying that Article 341 does not prevent sub-classification but only limits the President’s power to add or exclude SC groups.

 

Arguments in Favour of Sub-Categorisation

  • Some SC communities remain underrepresented despite reservation, justifying separate quotas within SC/ST categories.
  • The SC category includes groups with vastly different socio-economic conditions, requiring sub-classification to address disparities.
  • Article 14 (Right to Equality) allows sub-classification to ensure substantive equality among SC/ST groups.
  • A caste census could provide accurate data to assess representation and correct inequities in reservation distribution.

 

Arguments Against Sub-Categorisation

  • Sub-categorisation may be politically misused to alter quotas based on vote-bank politics rather than social justice.
  • It may violate constitutional intent, as the President’s list of SCs can only be changed by Parliament.

 

Conclusion & Way Forward

  • States now have legal backing to sub-categorise SCs but must ensure transparency, data-driven policy-making, and judicial oversight to prevent misuse.
  • Sub-categorisation must be based on quantifiable and demonstrable data rather than political motives to ensure equitable distribution of benefits.
  • Excluding the “creamy layer” within SC/STs from reservation benefits could help ensure that affirmative action reaches the most disadvantaged groups.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes (SCs) in India:

  1. The Supreme Court in E.V. Chinnaiah (2004) ruled that States have the power to sub-categorise SCs for ensuring equitable reservation benefits.
  2. The 2024 Supreme Court ruling clarified that Article 341 does not prevent sub-classification within SCs and STs.
  3. Sub-categorisation aims to provide a separate quota within SC reservations for communities that remain underrepresented.
  4. The power to include or exclude a community from the SC list rests solely with the State Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because in V. Chinnaiah (2004), the Supreme Court held that SCs form a single, indivisible class and States cannot create sub-classifications.
  • Statement 2 is correct as the 2024 Supreme Court ruling stated that Article 341 does not prevent sub-classification but only limits the President’s power to add or remove SC groups.
  • Statement 3 is correct because the purpose of sub-categorisation is to ensure that the most disadvantaged communities within SCs receive a fair share of reservation benefits.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect as only the President, in consultation with Parliament, has the authority to include or exclude a group from the SC list under Article 341.

 

Madras High Court on the NIRF Ranking

Context

  • The Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court has temporarily restrained the Ministry of Education and the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) from publishing the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2025.

 

About NIRF:

  • Launched in 2015 by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) under the Ministry of Education.
  • It annually ranks higher education institutions in India across various categories.
  • Institutions submit data on parameters such as student and staff strength, salaries, graduation index, placements, and research funding via the NIRF portal.
  • Significance of NIRF
  • Informed Decision-Making – Assists students in selecting institutions based on performance and ranking across disciplines.
  • Quality Assessment – Establishes a standardized benchmark for evaluating higher education institutions.
  • Multi-Dimensional Evaluation – Uses a broad set of criteria to assess institutional performance.
  • Encourages Competition – Motivates institutions to enhance academic and research standards.
  • Policy Planning – Provides data-driven insights for policymakers to improve the education sector.

 

Criticism and Challenges

  • Ranking Disparities – The methodology may not adequately capture qualitative aspects of education.
  • Over-Reliance on Quantitative Data – Heavy emphasis on numerical indicators like placements and salaries can overshadow holistic academic excellence.
  • Institutional Bias – Well-established institutions may have an advantage over emerging ones due to historical reputation and resources.
  • Self-Reported Data – Institutions upload their own data, raising concerns about accuracy and potential manipulation.
  • Limited International Benchmarking – The framework does not fully align with global ranking systems like QS World Rankings and Times Higher Education Rankings.
  • The ongoing legal developments highlight concerns regarding transparency, accuracy, and methodology in institutional rankings. The outcome of the court’s decision could influence future ranking policies in India.

 

   

 

With reference to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), consider the following statements:

  1. It is administered by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) under the University Grants Commission (UGC).
  2. The ranking methodology primarily relies on self-reported data submitted by institutions.
  3. NIRF rankings are internationally recognized and directly influence global rankings such as QS and Times Higher Education Rankings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: NIRF is administered by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) but it functions under the Ministry of Education, not the UGC.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Institutions self-report data on various parameters such as student strength, placements, and research output, raising concerns over transparency and data manipulation.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: NIRF rankings are not internationally recognized and do not influence global rankings like QS and Times Higher Education Rankings, which use different methodologies.

 

Eklavya Schools

Recent Developments

  • A parliamentary panel on social justice has urged the Union government to expedite the centralization process of Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS).

 

About EMRS

  • Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) are a network of government-run institutions established to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribe (ST) students residing in remote and rural areas.

 

Key Features

 

  • Targeted Coverage: Every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons will have an EMRS.
  • Expansion Plan: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs aims to set up 728 EMRSs across India by 2026.
  • Establishment: Introduced in 1997-98 by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
  • Curriculum: Follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), covering education from the elementary level to Class 12.

 

Facilities Provided

 

  • Fully Residential Schooling: Boarding and lodging facilities.
  • Free Education: Includes uniforms, textbooks, and essential learning materials.
  • Holistic Development: Sports, cultural activities, and vocational skill training to enhance employability.

 

Funding Mechanism

  • The Ministry of Tribal Affairs funds EMRSs through grants allocated under Article 275(1) of the Indian Constitution, ensuring financial support for their establishment and operation.

Consider the following statements regarding Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS):

  1. EMRSs were introduced under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to enhance tribal education.
  2. These schools are fully funded by the Ministry of Education under the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.
  3. Every block with more than 50% Scheduled Tribe (ST) population and at least 20,000 tribal persons is eligible for an EMRS.
  4. The curriculum of EMRS follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

 

Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: EMRS was introduced in 1997-98 under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not under NEP 2020.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The schools are funded by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the Ministry of Education, and the funds come under Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The criteria for establishing an EMRS include 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons in a block.
  • Statement 4 is correct: EMRS follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF) for education.

Kerala Became First State To Establish Senior Citizens Commission

Kerala has made history by becoming the first state in India to establish a Senior Citizens Commission with the passage of the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Bill, 2025.

  • This groundbreaking initiative reflects the state’s commitment to safeguarding the rights, welfare, and dignity of elderly citizens.
  • The commission will serve as a statutory body dedicated to addressing the needs of senior citizens while also acting as an advisory panel for policy formulation and implementation.

 

What is the Senior Citizens Commission?

  • A statutory body established under the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Act, 2025.
  • The first commission of its kind in India, focusing exclusively on elderly welfare.
  • Functions as an advisory authority for state policies concerning senior citizens.

Objectives of the Commission

  • Ensure the protection, welfare, and rehabilitation of elderly individuals.
  • Safeguard the rights and dignity of senior citizens.
  • Encourage the active participation of elderly individuals in societal development.
  • Promote inclusive policies to integrate senior citizens into various sectors.

 

Key Features and Functions

  • Policy Advisory: Develops and recommends policies for the welfare and empowerment of senior citizens.
  • Grievance Redressal: Addresses complaints related to neglect, abuse, financial exploitation, and social exclusion.
  • Skill Utilization: Encourages senior citizens to contribute their knowledge, skills, and experience to society.
  • Legal Support: Provides legal assistance, particularly in cases of elder abuse, property disputes, and financial exploitation.
  • Awareness Campaigns: Conducts public awareness programs to educate people about the rights of senior citizens and the responsibilities of families and institutions.
  • Regular Reports: Submits periodic recommendations to the state government for necessary policy updates and improvements.

With the establishment of this commission, Kerala has set a precedent for other states to prioritize elderly welfare and create a more inclusive, supportive, and dignified environment for senior citizens.

With reference to the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the first statutory body in India dedicated to senior citizens’ welfare.
  2. The commission has the power to issue legally binding directives on cases of elder abuse.
  3. It functions as both an advisory and grievance redressal body for elderly-related policies.
  4. The establishment of this commission was mandated under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Kerala is the first Indian state to establish a statutory Senior Citizens Commission.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The commission does not have judicial powers to issue legally binding directives but can recommend legal action.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The commission serves as an advisory and grievance redressal
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: It was established under state legislation (Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Act, 2025), not under the 2007 national act.

Pay Hike for MPs

Context:

  • The Central Government has notified a 24% increase in the salaries of Members of Parliament (MPs), effective from April 1, 2023. This marks the first revision since April 2018.

 

Details of the Pay Hike:

  • The revision has been implemented under the Salary, Allowances, and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, in accordance with the Cost Inflation Index specified in the Income Tax Act of 1961.
  • The monthly salary of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members has been raised from ₹1,00,000 to ₹1,24,000.
  • The daily allowance has been increased from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500.
  • Pension for former MPs has been raised from ₹25,000 to ₹31,000 per month.
  • MPs also receive rent-free housing in New Delhi during their tenure.

 

Structure of the Parliament:

  • Rajya Sabha (Council of States):
  • Comprises a maximum of 250 members:
  • 238 members represent States and Union Territories.
  • 12 members are nominated by the President for their expertise in fields such as literature, science, art, and social service.
  • Permanent House: It is not subject to dissolution; however, one-third of its members retire every two years, with newly elected members replacing them.
  • Each Rajya Sabha member serves a six-year term.
  • Lok Sabha (House of the People):
  • Members are directly elected through Universal Adult Suffrage.
  • The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 550 members:
  • 530 members represent States.
  • 20 members represent Union Territories.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent salary hike for Members of Parliament (MPs) in India:

  1. The increase in salaries has been implemented under the Parliamentary Pay Commission, which revises MPs’ salaries every five years.
  2. The hike is determined based on the Cost Inflation Index under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
  3. The pension for former MPs has been increased to ₹31,000 per month.
  4. The revised salary structure applies only to Lok Sabha members and not Rajya Sabha members.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3, and 4 only
(D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no Parliamentary Pay Commission. Instead, salaries are revised under the Salary, Allowances, and Pension of Members of Parliament Act.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The increase is linked to the Cost Inflation Index under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The pension for former MPs has been raised from ₹25,000 to ₹31,000 per month.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The hike applies to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members.

Success of Jan Aushadhi Kendras with PACS

Overview

  • The Government of India has enabled Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) to establish and operate Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendras (PMBJK) under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
  • This initiative, led by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, seeks to expand access to affordable medicines in rural areas.

 

Significance of PACS in Rural Healthcare

  • With a vast rural network covering over 13 crore small and marginal farmers, PACS are well-positioned to leverage their existing infrastructure, including land, buildings, and storage facilities, to establish Jan Aushadhi Kendras.
  • These Kendras will enhance healthcare access in underserved regions, ensuring the availability of quality and affordable medicines.
  • The existing trust and rapport that PACS hold within rural communities further contribute to the success of this initiative.

 

Financial Incentives for PACS-Operated Jan Aushadhi Kendras

  • PACS-run Kendras will receive an incentive of 20% of their monthly purchases from the Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI), subject to a maximum of ₹20,000 per month, based on stock conditions.
  • Kendra operators will earn a 20% margin on the Maximum Retail Price (MRP) (excluding taxes) for each medicine sold.
  • In addition to generic medicines, these Kendras can also sell allied medical products, similar to conventional pharmacies, ensuring financial sustainability and profitability.

 

Alignment with National Health Goals

  • This initiative is in line with the National Health Policy, which aims to enhance equitable access to quality healthcare. By integrating PACS and Jan Aushadhi Kendras, the government seeks to:
  • Ensure availability of affordable medicines in remote areas.
  • Reduce medical expenses for small and marginal farmers, allowing them to focus on agricultural investments.
  • Generate employment and provide additional revenue streams at the PACS level.

 

Conclusion

  • With its extensive rural reach, PACS is set to play a pivotal role in expanding affordable healthcare access across India. The initiative will strengthen rural healthcare infrastructure, support economic empowerment of farmers, and reduce the burden of medical expenses, thereby contributing to both public health and rural development goals.
  • This was stated by the Minister of Cooperation, Shri Amit Shah, in a written reply to a question in the Rajya Sabha.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the integration of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) with Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendras (PMBJK):

  1. PACS can utilize their existing infrastructure, such as land, buildings, and storage facilities, to establish and operate Jan Aushadhi Kendras.
  2. PACS-operated Kendras receive an incentive of 30% of their monthly purchases from Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI), subject to a ceiling of ₹20,000 per month.
  3. These Kendras are allowed to sell allied medical products in addition to generic medicines.
  4. The initiative aligns with the National Health Policy’s goal of equitable access to quality healthcare.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct – PACS can utilize their existing infrastructure to establish Jan Aushadhi Kendras, making healthcare more accessible in rural areas.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – The incentive is 20% of monthly purchases from PMBI, not 30%.
  • Statement 3 is correct – Jan Aushadhi Kendras can sell allied medical products, similar to conventional chemist shops.
  • Statement 4 is correct – The initiative supports the National Health Policy’s objective of equitable healthcare access.

 

Multiple Reforms to Enhance Safety and Efficiency in Railway Operations

Indian Railways is undergoing continuous reforms to improve train operations, passenger experience, and network expansion.

  • Several key initiatives have been undertaken to expedite project approvals, enhance safety, and modernize railway infrastructure:

 

Key Reforms and Initiatives:

 

  1. Gati Shakti Directorate/Units
  • The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (NMP), launched in October 2021, aims to revolutionize infrastructure planning and execution.
  • Indian Railways has established a multi-disciplinary Gati Shakti Directorate at the national level and Gati Shakti Units in Zonal Railways.
  • These initiatives ensure faster project approvals by integrating inputs from all stakeholders and infrastructure ministries.

 

  1. Enhanced Sanction Powers for GMs and DRMs
  • To accelerate project execution, General Managers (GMs) and Divisional Railway Managers (DRMs) have been granted enhanced financial powers for sanctioning projects.
  1. Streamlined Contract Management
  • Full powers have been delegated to General Managers for finalizing tenders.
  • Implementation of Works Contract Management System (IRWCMS) and Contractor’s e-MB ensures transparency and efficiency in contract management and billing.
  1. Kavach: Automatic Train Protection System
  • Kavach, India’s indigenous National Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system, has been implemented in mission mode to enhance train safety.
  1. Elimination of Level Crossings
  • All unmanned level crossings on broad-gauge tracks have been eliminated.
  • A phased plan is in place to replace manned level crossings with Road Over Bridges (RoBs) and Road Under Bridges (RUBs) to improve safety.
  1. Station Redevelopment – Amrit Bharat Station Scheme
  • The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme focuses on providing world-class passenger amenities and improving operational efficiency.
  • 1,337 stations have been taken up for redevelopment under this initiative.
  1. Modern Trains for Enhanced Passenger Experience
  • Introduction of state-of-the-art trains, including:
  • Vande Bharat Trains
  • Amrit Bharat Trains
  • Namo Bharat Rapid Rail
  1. Bharat Gaurav Trains
  • Theme-based tourist circuit trains, launched to showcase India’s rich cultural heritage and historical sites.
  • Operated in collaboration with tourism professionals and service providers.
  1. Digital Transactions at Stations and Trains
  • Expansion of digital payment facilities for services like ticketing and catering.
  1. Freight Transportation Reforms
  • To increase freight revenue, Indian Railways has introduced:
  • Freight rebates and discounts for assured businesses
  • Concessions on short-distance transport
  • Mini rake loadings and goods shed development
  • General Purpose Wagon Investment Scheme (GPWIS)
  • Business Development Portal
  1. Gati Shakti Cargo Terminals (GCTs)
  • Launched to fast-track approvals and simplify cargo terminal setup.
  • 95 GCTs have been commissioned so far.
  1. Railway-India Post Integration for Parcel Services
  • A joint initiative between Indian Railways and India Post for seamless parcel delivery.
  • Combines first-mile and last-mile connectivity by India Post with station-to-station rail transport.
  1. Coal Chain Coordination Group
  • Formed to coordinate coal transportation among:
  • Coal companies
  • Mines (captive and commercial)
  • Ports, power plants, and industries
  • Indian Railways
  1. Annual Recruitment Calendar
  • Indian Railways has introduced an Annual Recruitment Calendar to:
  • Minimize uncertainty and waiting time for job aspirants
  • Ensure timely filling of vacancies
  1. Railway Land Leasing Policy
  • A long-term land leasing policy has been introduced under PM Gati Shakti to facilitate integrated infrastructure planning and development.
  1. Introduction of Rolling Blocks
  • Rolling Blocks were introduced in 2023 via Gazette Notification.
  • This allows pre-scheduled maintenance, repairs, and asset replacement up to 52 weeks in advance for systematic infrastructure upgrades.
  • These comprehensive reforms, as outlined by Union Minister of Railways, Information & Broadcasting, and Electronics & IT, Shri Ashwini Vaishnaw, signify a major leap towards modernizing Indian Railways, enhancing safety, and boosting operational efficiency.

The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (NMP), launched in 2021, aims to integrate infrastructure projects across sectors. Which of the following statements regarding Gati Shakti’s role in Indian Railways is/are correct?

  1. It ensures multi-modal connectivity by synchronizing railway infrastructure development with roads, ports, and logistics hubs.
  2. Gati Shakti allows Indian Railways to directly sanction railway projects without requiring inter-ministerial approvals.
  3. The initiative mandates Project DPRs to be prepared in consultation with stakeholders, leading to expedited approvals.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B) 1 and 3 only

 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Gati Shakti focuses on multi-modal connectivity, aligning railway infrastructure with highways, ports, and airports for seamless logistics integration.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: While Gati Shakti expedites approvals, Indian Railways still requires inter-ministerial coordination, but the process has been made more efficient.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Detailed Project Reports (DPRs) are prepared with inputs from multiple stakeholders, ensuring feasibility and alignment with national infrastructure goals.

 

Amrit Sarovar Scheme

 

Launched in April 2022, Mission Amrit Sarovar aimed to construct or rejuvenate 75 Amrit Sarovars (ponds) in each district, targeting a total of 50,000 across the country. Each Sarovar was designed to have a pondage area of approximately 1 acre (except in hilly terrain) with a water holding capacity of 10,000 cubic meters.

  • As of March 20, 2025, more than 68,000 Amrit Sarovars have been completed across various states and Union Territories, significantly addressing water scarcity and enhancing surface and groundwater availability. This initiative underscores the Government’s commitment to long-term environmental sustainability and community welfare.

 

Implementation and Funding:

  • The initiative has been executed through convergence with multiple schemes, including:
  • Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)
  • 15th Finance Commission Grants
  • Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana (PMKSY) sub-schemes like:
  • Watershed Development Component
  • Har Khet Ko Pani
  • State Government Schemes
  • Public Contributions such as crowdfunding and Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) funds

 

Key Provisions for Public Participation:

  • Laying of Foundation Stone: To be led by a freedom fighter, martyr’s family member, or a Padma awardee. If unavailable, the eldest member of the Gram Panchayat will do the honors.
  • Donations & Voluntary Work: Citizens can contribute by donating construction material, benches, or offering Shram Daan (voluntary labor).
  • Beautification Efforts: Villagers can mobilize crowdfunding or CSR funds for aesthetic enhancements.
  • National Celebrations: On Independence Day & Republic Day, the Tricolour is hoisted at each Sarovar site, with national events being celebrated.
  • Utilization for Economic Activities: Encouragement of irrigation, fisheries, and water chestnut cultivation, with user groups managing water structures.

 

Sustainability and Maintenance:

  • Formation of User Groups: Drawn largely from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) for efficient upkeep and management.
  • Silt Removal: Conducted voluntarily post-monsoon to maintain Sarovar efficiency.
  • Plantation & Green Initiatives: Ongoing afforestation and ecological conservation around Sarovars.

 

State-Wise Progress (As of March 20, 2025):

  • The initiative has been implemented successfully across various States and Union Territories, with notable achievements in:
  • Uttar Pradesh: 16,630 Sarovars completed (highest in the country)
  • Madhya Pradesh: 5,839
  • Karnataka: 4,056
  • Maharashtra: 3,055
  • Rajasthan: 3,138
  • Total Amrit Sarovars completed nationwide: 68,842

 

Conclusion:

  • Mission Amrit Sarovar has played a pivotal role in addressing water challenges and ensuring sustainable water management across the country.
  • With Phase II emphasizing community participation, climate resilience, and environmental conservation, the initiative is set to make a lasting impact on India’s water security and rural development.

With reference to Mission Amrit Sarovar, consider the following statements:

  1. The initiative was launched under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to conserve wetlands.
  2. Each Amrit Sarovar is designed to have a pondage area of about 1 acre with a water holding capacity of approximately 10,000 cubic meters, except in hilly terrains.
  3. The initiative relies exclusively on central government funding, with no provision for state or private sector involvement.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Mission Amrit Sarovar was launched under the Ministry of Rural Development, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Each Amrit Sarovar is designed to have a pondage area of about 1 acre and a water holding capacity of 10,000 cubic meters, except in hilly terrains where this may vary.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The initiative is implemented through convergence with various schemes (MGNREGS, PMKSY, Finance Commission grants, and state schemes), public crowdfunding, and CSR contributions.

 

Ministry of Rural Development and United Nations Children’s Fund YuWaah Collaborate to Empower Rural Women and Youth

                                     

The Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) and United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) YuWaah have entered into a three-year partnership aimed at empowering rural women and youth across India.

  • A Statement of Intent (SOI) was signed to facilitate employment, entrepreneurship, and skill development, thereby increasing female labor force participation in rural areas.

 

Key Highlights of the Partnership:

  • Strengthening Livelihood Opportunities: Women from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) will be connected to jobs, self-employment, and entrepreneurial ventures.

 

Digital Infrastructure Development:

  • Computer Didi Centers and Didi ki Dukan will be set up in five pilot blocks across Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan.
  • Upon successful implementation, the initiative has the potential to scale up to benefit 35 lakh women across 7,000+ blocks.

 

Youth-Centric Initiatives:

  • Youth Hub: A digital aggregator platform for job opportunities, skilling, and volunteering.
  • Lakhpati Didi Model: A scalable initiative to promote women entrepreneurship and create thousands of successful rural women entrepreneurs.

 

Leadership Perspectives:

  • Shri T.K. Anil Kumar, Additional Secretary, MoRD, emphasized that the collaboration aligns with the Rural Prosperity and Resilience Programme, announced in Budget 2025-26.
  • He highlighted that one-third of the 10 crore SHG members are youth, making them central to this initiative.
  • Sharada Thapalia, Deputy Representative (Operations), UNICEF India, acknowledged MoRD’s 10 crore-strong SHG network as a transformative social infrastructure for rural empowerment.

 

Future Outlook:

  • The partnership aims to drive economic self-reliance among rural women and youth while leveraging technology for scalable impact. The signing ceremony was attended by Smriti Sharan (Joint Secretary, MoRD), Dr. Monika (Deputy Secretary, MoRD), and representatives from UNICEF YuWaah and MoRD.
  • This initiative marks a significant step towards rural economic transformation, fostering resilience and prosperity through skill-building, employment, and entrepreneurship.

 

The Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) has signed a Statement of Intent (SoI) with UNICEF YuWaah for a three-year partnership to empower rural women and youth. Which of the following objectives are correct regarding this partnership?

  1. Connecting SHG women with employment, self-employment, and entrepreneurship.
  2. Strengthening digital infrastructure through initiatives like Computer Didi Centers and Didi ki Dukan.
  3. Creating exclusive skilling programs only for male youth in rural areas.
  4. Establishing Youth Hub, a digital platform for job aggregation, skilling, and volunteering.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The initiative aims to connect SHG women to job opportunities and self-employment ventures.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The establishment of Computer Didi Centers and Didi ki Dukan is part of the digital infrastructure enhancement in five pilot states.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The initiative is not exclusive to male youth but rather focuses on empowering both rural women and youth.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The Youth Hub is a job aggregation and skilling platform aimed at improving employment prospects.

RAPID APPROVAL OF HOUSES UNDER PM-JANMAN

The Government has implemented real-time monitoring and accountability measures by transitioning sanctioning mechanisms from the Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti Portal to the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Portal.

  • This initiative aims to streamline the provision of pucca houses to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) households under PM JANMAN, a program spearheaded by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).
  • To facilitate implementation, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA), in collaboration with State Governments/UT Administrations, conducted a habitation-level data collection exercise using the PM Gati Shakti mobile application.
  • This data helped estimate the PVTG population and assess infrastructure gaps, including housing shortages. The gathered information is cross-verified by relevant Ministries and State Departments before approval.

  

Under this system:

  • PMAY-G houses are sanctioned via the AwaasSoft portal in alignment with established norms.
  • Once approved, data is updated and integrated into PM Gati Shakti, ensuring efficient monitoring of sanctions against identified gaps.
  • Implementation and evidence-based monitoring of PMAY-G are executed through an end-to-end transaction-based e-governance model using AwaasSoft and the AwaasApp.
  • Key functions, including beneficiary identification, fund release, installment tracking, and completion reporting, are managed digitally.
  • Additionally, the physical and financial progress of PMAY-G is publicly accessible through various reports on AwaasSoft.

 

Grievance Redressal Mechanism

  • A structured grievance redressal system operates at multiple levels—Gram Panchayat, Block, District, and State. Complaints from Members of Parliament, State Assemblies, or the general public (including those received via CPGRAMS) are addressed by the State Government to ensure necessary corrective actions.
  • This information was provided by Shri Durgadas Uikey, Minister of State for Tribal Affairs, in response to an unstarred question (No: 3019) in the Rajya Sabha.

Consider the following statements regarding the transition of sanctioning mechanisms in housing schemes:

  1. The shift from the Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti Portal to the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Portal is aimed at improving real-time monitoring and accountability in the sanctioning of housing schemes.
  2. PM JANMAN is implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA), whereas housing provisions under the scheme are sanctioned by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).
  3. The AwaasSoft portal functions exclusively as a data collection tool and does not facilitate real-time transactions or beneficiary tracking.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The transition from PM Gati Shakti Portal to Pradhan Mantri Awaas Portal aims to enhance real-time monitoring and accountability in housing sanctioning.
  • Statement 2 is correct: PM JANMAN is indeed implemented by MoTA, but housing provisions are sanctioned under MoRD through PMAY-G.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: AwaasSoft is not just a data collection tool; it is an end-to-end e-governance platform that facilitates real-time tracking, fund disbursement, and beneficiary verification.

 

PM-WANI Scheme

The Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PM-WANI) framework is a key initiative aimed at accelerating the expansion of internet services through public Wi-Fi hotspots across the country.

  • This initiative aligns with the broader vision of Digital India, fostering increased connectivity and enabling a range of socio-economic benefits.
  • Under PM-WANI, Public Data Offices (PDOs) are responsible for establishing, operating, and maintaining WANI-compliant Wi-Fi hotspots based on their techno-commercial considerations.
  • These PDOs must collaborate with a Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA) to facilitate seamless internet services for users.

 

 

  • As of March 20, 2025, a total of 2,78,439 PM-WANI Wi-Fi hotspots have been deployed across India, significantly enhancing public access to the internet.
  • Furthermore, PM-WANI-compliant Wi-Fi hardware is readily available in the market. The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) has also contributed by supplying PM-WANI-compliant Wi-Fi hardware through its Transfer of Technology (ToT) partners.
  • This information was shared by Pemmasani Chandra Sekhar, Minister of State for Communications and Rural Development, in a written response to a question in the Lok Sabha.

Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PM-WANI) framework:

  1. PM-WANI aims to provide broadband internet connectivity only in rural and backward areas of India.
  2. Under PM-WANI, Public Data Offices (PDOs) can provide internet services independently without any intermediary.
  3. The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) is responsible for supplying PM-WANI-compliant Wi-Fi hardware.
  4. PM-WANI requires individuals to obtain a government license before establishing a public Wi-Fi hotspot.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (B) 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: PM-WANI aims to enhance internet access across both rural and urban areas, not just rural regions.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: PDOs must collaborate with a Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA) to provide internet services.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) supplies PM-WANI-compliant Wi-Fi hardware through Transfer of Technology (ToT) partners.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Individuals or entities do not require a government license to set up public Wi-Fi hotspots under PM-WANI, making the initiative highly accessible and scalable.

PM-SHRI Scheme

  • A Parliamentary Standing Committee has urged the Education Ministry to release over ₹4,000 crore in pending Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) funds for Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and West Bengal.
  • The funds have been withheld due to these st ates not signing the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the PM SHRI scheme.
  • The panel emphasized that SSA predates PM SHRI and plays a crucial role in enforcing the Right to Education (RTE) Act.                  

 

Understanding the PM SHRI Scheme

  • PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched under NEP 2020 to develop 14,500 model schools with a focus on experiential and inquiry-driven learning, 21st-century skill development, eco-friendly infrastructure such as green buildings, water conservation, and waste recycling, and competency-based assessments instead of rote learning.

 

Key Features of PM SHRI Schools

  • Modern infrastructure includes well-equipped labs, libraries, and art rooms. Digital integration ensures smart classrooms and advanced learning tools.
  • A holistic learning approach emphasizes play-based and flexible teaching methods. A quality assessment mechanism ensures regular evaluations under the School Quality Assessment Framework (SQAF).
  • Schools are selected through a challenge-based process where they must meet performance criteria.
  • The scheme has a budget allocation of ₹27,360 crore for five years from 2022-23 to 2026-27, with ₹18,128 crore provided by the central government.

 

What is Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)

  • SSA is a centrally sponsored scheme designed to ensure universal access to quality education from pre-primary to higher secondary levels.
  • It supports state governments in implementing the Right to Education (RTE) Act, which guarantees free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14 years.

 

Key Focus Areas of SSA

  • School infrastructure development includes the construction of classrooms, libraries, and sanitation facilities.
  • Teacher training and recruitment aim to enhance teaching quality. The program seeks to improve learning outcomes through curriculum reforms and remedial education.
  • Inclusive education initiatives provide support for disadvantaged groups.
  • The Parliamentary Panel’s recommendation highlights the critical role of SSA in strengthening India’s education system and ensuring uninterrupted learning opportunities for students.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA):

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at ensuring universal access to quality education from pre-primary to higher secondary levels.
  2. The scheme was launched under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
  3. SSA is primarily focused on the development of school infrastructure and does not address teacher training or learning outcomes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: SSA was launched before NEP 2020 and focuses on multiple aspects of education, including infrastructure, teacher training, and learning outcomes. Statement 2 is incorrect because SSA predates NEP 2020. Statement 3 is incorrect because SSA includes teacher training and learning enhancement measures.

Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)

The opposition has raised concerns over inadequate implementation of maternity benefits mandated under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, attributing it to insufficient budgetary allocation.

  

 

About Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)

  • PMMVY is a maternity benefit program aligned with the provisions of the NFSA, 2013. Since 2022, it has been implemented under Mission Shakti, an umbrella scheme aimed at women’s empowerment.

 

Eligibility

  • The scheme primarily targets socially, economically disadvantaged, and marginalized women.

 

Benefits

  • Financial Assistance: Provides ₹5,000 to pregnant and lactating women to support maternal health and nutrition.
  • Supplementary Support: Additional benefits under Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) raise the total maternity assistance to approximately ₹6,000.
  • Nutritional Support: Pregnant and lactating mothers receive free meals through Anganwadi centers during pregnancy and up to six months postpartum to meet essential dietary requirements.

 

Mission Shakti and Second Child Benefits

  • Under Mission Shakti, a maternity benefit of ₹6,000 is provided for the second child, but only if the child is a girl, to encourage positive social attitudes towards female children.

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY):

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented under the provisions of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013.
  2. The scheme provides financial assistance for the first two live births, irrespective of gender.
  3. PMMVY was subsumed under Mission Shakti in 2022 to streamline maternity benefits and women’s empowerment initiatives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: PMMVY is implemented under NFSA, 2013, making maternity benefits a legal entitlement.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme provides benefits only for the first live birth, except under Mission Shakti, where ₹6,000 is given for the second child only if it is a girl.
  • Statement 3 is correct: PMMVY was integrated into Mission Shakti in 2022 to enhance efficiency in women-centric welfare schemes.

 

Betting and Gambling are State Subjects

Context

  • Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw has reiterated that betting and gambling fall under the jurisdiction of State governments.
  • Between 2022 and 2025, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has issued 1,410 blocking directives for websites associated with online betting, gambling, and gaming.

 

Regulatory Framework

Finance Act, 2023

  • Imposes a 30% income tax on net winnings from online gaming, effective from the assessment year 2024-25.
  • Ensures tax compliance for online gaming earnings.

Goods and Services Tax (GST) Regulations

  • 28% GST applied to online gaming transactions from October 1, 2023.
  • Online gaming platforms must register under the Simplified Registration Scheme of the IGST Act.
  • The GST Intelligence Headquarters has the authority to direct the blocking of unregistered platforms violating the IGST Act.

 

 

State Jurisdiction Over Betting and Gambling

  • Betting and gambling fall under the State List of the Constitution.
  • States are responsible for the prevention, investigation, and prosecution of offenses related to betting and gambling.
  • The Central Government provides advisories and financial assistance to states for capacity building in enforcement.

 

Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

  • Introduces legal penalties for unauthorized betting and gambling, with imprisonment ranging from 1 to 7 years along with monetary fines.

 

Other Initiatives

  • Ministry of Education has issued advisories for parents and teachers to address the risks of online gaming addiction.
  • Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has implemented guidelines for advertisements related to online gaming, mandating disclaimers on financial risks and addiction potential.

Regarding the taxation of online gaming in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Finance Act, 2023 introduced a 30% income tax on net winnings from online gaming, effective from the assessment year 2023-24.
  2. A uniform GST rate of 18% applies to all forms of online gaming transactions, effective from October 1, 2023.
  3. Online gaming platforms must register under the Simplified Registration Scheme of the IGST Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • The 30% income tax on net winnings applies from the assessment year 2024-25, not 2023-24.
  • A 28% GST, not 18%, is imposed on online gaming from October 1, 2023.
  • Online gaming platforms must register under the Simplified Registration Scheme of the IGST Act to ensure tax compliance.

India Pitch for UNSC Reforms

India Calls for UNSC Reform to Ensure Lasting Peace

 

Security of Peacekeepers

UN peacekeepers today face a multitude of threats, including non-state actors, armed groups, and terrorists. India emphasizes the need for enhanced safety measures and security protocols for peacekeepers. Additionally, India advocates for accountability and justice in cases of crimes committed against peacekeeping forces.

 

Modernization of Peacekeeping Operations

  • Recognizing the evolving nature of peacekeeping, India calls for the integration of advanced surveillance, communication, and data analytics in peacekeeping missions. India’s Centre for UN Peacekeeping (CUNPK) offers specialized training programs to equip peacekeepers with modern tools and strategies to meet contemporary challenges effectively.

 

Funding for Peacekeeping Missions

India underscores the need for well-funded peacekeeping missions. The resources allocated to these missions should be commensurate with their mandates to ensure effective execution and operational success.

Inclusion in Mandate Formation

India advocates for the inclusion of troop-contributing countries in the process of formulating mandates. This approach will enable better adaptation of peacekeeping operations to new realities and ensure that the strategies align with ground-level challenges.

 

About the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)

The UNSC is one of the principal organs of the United Nations, established in 1945 under the UN Charter to maintain international peace and security. It comprises 15 member states, including five permanent members with veto power—China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States—along with ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms. The UNSC headquarters is located in New York City.

 

Need for UNSC Reforms

Current Composition and Representation

The present composition of the UNSC is marked by under-representation and lack of adequate representation of key global regions.

 

Inability to Address Conflicts

The current structure of the Council has proven ineffective in addressing significant global conflicts, thereby undermining its credibility and primary mandate of upholding international peace and security.

 

Changing Global Order

Since its inception in 1945, the world order has undergone significant transformations. These new geopolitical realities must be reflected in the permanent membership of the UNSC.

 

Issue of Veto Power

Only the five permanent members hold veto power, often using it to stall resolutions addressing global crises, such as those in Ukraine and Gaza. The ten non-permanent members, despite being part of the Council, lack veto authority, limiting their influence in decision-making.

 

Legitimacy Concerns

The concentration of power among the five permanent members creates a perception of inequity, diminishing the legitimacy and effectiveness of the UNSC in addressing contemporary security challenges.

 

Why India Deserves Permanent Membership in the UNSC

Demographic and Global Representation

India accounts for approximately 18% of the world’s population, making its inclusion in global decision-making bodies like the UNSC a matter of proportional representation.

 

Economic Strength

India is one of the world’s largest economies, with a significant impact on global stability and development. Its economic contributions align with the UNSC’s objectives of maintaining international peace and security.

 

Commitment to Peacekeeping

India has consistently been one of the largest contributors to UN peacekeeping missions, demonstrating its strong commitment to global peace and security.

Geopolitical Influence

India’s strategic location in South Asia and the Indo-Pacific region positions it as a crucial player in addressing global security challenges such as terrorism, climate change, and maritime security.

 

Advocacy for Democratic Values

As the world’s largest democracy, India upholds values of pluralism, tolerance, and inclusivity, which align with the core principles of the UN.

 

Global Support

India enjoys extensive support from numerous UN member states, including influential nations across different regions, underscoring its potential contribution to strengthening the UNSC’s role in global crisis management.

 

Challenges in Implementing UNSC Reforms

Veto Power of Permanent Members

  • Any proposed reforms require the approval of all five permanent members, who are often reluctant to support changes that might reduce their influence.

 

Geopolitical and Regional Rivalries

  • Regional tensions and geopolitical rivalries further complicate efforts to bring about UNSC reforms.

Complexity of the Reform Process

Reforming the UNSC necessitates an amendment to the UN Charter, which requires a complex and lengthy process involving ratification by a significant number of member states.

 

Opposition from China

China, as a permanent UNSC member, continues to oppose India’s bid for permanent membership, hindering India’s inclusion in the Council.

 

Way Forward

Both permanent and non-permanent membership should reflect the present-day global landscape rather than the post-World War II order. Reforms in the UNSC are imperative to maintain its relevance, legitimacy, and effectiveness in addressing contemporary security challenges. However, achieving consensus among UN member states remains a formidable and ongoing process.

Consider the following arguments against the UNSC’s current veto power structure:

  1. It enables any one of the P5 members to block international consensus.
  2. It has been used to shield countries from international scrutiny over human rights violations.
  3. It allows non-permanent members to influence decisions through alliances with P5 nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: The veto power enables P5 members to block resolutions, even if the majority supports them (statement 1 is correct). It has been used to prevent action against allies accused of human rights violations (statement 2 is correct). However, non-permanent members do not have veto power and cannot directly influence decisions (statement 3 is incorrect).

Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)

Context

A Parliamentary Standing Committee has urged the Ministry of Education to resolve the ongoing dispute with West Bengal, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu regarding the non-release of over ₹4,000 crore under the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA).

                                        

Key Issue

  • The dispute arises from Tamil Nadu’s refusal to implement the three-language formula under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and its decision not to sign the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the PM-SHRI schools
  • As a result, SSA funds have been withheld, affecting the state’s education initiatives.

 

About Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)

  • Implemented by the Department of School Education and Literacy, SSA is a centrally sponsored scheme designed to provide holistic education from pre-primary to Class XII, in alignment with NEP 2020.
  • The scheme focuses on ensuring quality, equitable, and inclusive education, catering to students from diverse backgrounds, multilingual needs, and varying academic abilities.

 

Key Features of SSA

Financial Assistance to States and UTs

  • Free uniforms and textbooks for elementary students.
  • Reimbursement under the Right to Education (RTE) Act.
  • Special training programs and bilingual teaching materials for out-of-school children.

 

Infrastructure Development

  • Construction of school buildings, additional classrooms, and hostels.
  • Strengthening of teacher education and ICT-based learning interventions.

 

Inclusive Education Initiatives

  • Establishment and upgradation of schools and hostels in tribal and border areas.
  • Support for marginalized communities to ensure universal access to education.
  • The resolution of this funding dispute remains crucial for the effective implementation of SSA, ensuring that educational resources reach students without disruption.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA):

  1. It is a centrally funded scheme implemented solely by the Ministry of Finance.
  2. SSA covers education from pre-primary to higher secondary level, aligning with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
  3. The scheme provides financial support to States and UTs for the reimbursement of expenses under the Right to Education (RTE) Act.
  4. Tamil Nadu’s refusal to sign the MoU for PM SHRI schools has led to the withholding of SSA funds.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b) 2, 3, and 4 only                                             

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: SSA is a centrally sponsored scheme, not fully funded by the Centre. It is implemented by the Department of School Education and Literacy, under the Ministry of Education, not the Ministry of Finance.

Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct: SSA ensures education from pre-primary to higher secondary level, provides financial support for RTE reimbursement, and has faced funding issues due to Tamil Nadu’s refusal to sign the PM SHRI MoU.

Rajneet Kohli Appointed as Executive Director of Foods at HUL

Key Appointment

  • Rajneet Kohli to assume role at Hindustan Unilever (HUL) from April 7, 2025
  • Succeeds Shiva Krishnamurthy, who is stepping down for an external opportunity

 

Professional Background

  • Former CEO & Executive Director at Britannia Industries (until March 14, 2025)
  • Brings 30 years of experience in consumer and retail sectors
  • Previously worked with Asian Paints, Coca-Cola, Jubilant FoodWorks, and Britannia

 

HUL’s Foods & Refreshment Business

  • Includes brands like Kissan, Bru, Knorr, Brooke Bond, Horlicks, Lipton, and Hellmann’s
  • Contributed ₹15,292 crore in revenue (FY24), 25% of HUL’s total turnover

 

Kohli’s Impact at Britannia

  • Strengthened Britannia’s leadership in the food and bakery segment
  • Led product innovation and digital transformation
  • Recent Leadership Changes at HUL
  • Rohit Jawa – MD & CEO (since June 2023)
  • Harman Dhillon – Executive Director, Beauty & Well-being (2023)
  • Arun Neelakantan – Executive Director, Customer Development (June 2024)
  • Kohli’s leadership is expected to further accelerate HUL’s growth in the foods and refreshment segment

With reference to corporate leadership transitions in FMCG companies, consider the following statements:

  1. Rajneet Kohli’s appointment as Executive Director – Foods & Refreshment at HUL marks his first leadership role in the FMCG sector.
  2. The Foods & Refreshment segment contributes over one-third of Hindustan Unilever’s total revenue.
  3. Kohli’s prior experience includes leadership roles in multinational corporations across multiple consumer-driven industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Rajneet Kohli has previously held leadership roles in Britannia, Coca-Cola, Jubilant FoodWorks, and Asian Paints, making this not his first leadership role in the FMCG sector.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Foods & Refreshment segment contributed ₹15,292 crore in FY24, which is 25% of HUL’s total revenue, not over one-third.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Kohli has extensive experience across multiple consumer sectors, including food, beverages, paints, and quick-service restaurants.

Cabinet Approves 2% Hike in DA for Government Employees

 

Key Highlights:

  • Increase in DA/DR: Raised from 53% to 55% of Basic Pay/Pension.
  • Effective Date: January 1, 2025.

 

Beneficiaries:

  • Central Government Employees:66 lakh.
  • Pensioners:55 lakh.

 

Financial Impact:

  • Estimated additional burden on the exchequer: ₹6,614.04 crore per annum.

 

Background:

  • DA is revised twice a year (January and July), based on the All India Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (AICPI-IW).
  • Last revision: July 2024, when DA increased from 50% to 53%.
  • Calculation follows the 7th Central Pay Commission’s

 

Purpose of DA/DR:

  • Designed to offset inflation and preserve the purchasing power of government employees.
  • Increasing speculation about the 8th Pay Commission has heightened interest in DA revisions.

 

With reference to the recent increase in Dearness Allowance (DA) and Dearness Relief (DR) by the Union Government, consider the following statements:

  1. The DA hike is determined solely based on the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) to account for inflationary trends.
  2. The increase in DA is applicable only to central government employees and does not extend to pensioners.
  3. The 7th Central Pay Commission provides the formula for DA calculation, which is revised twice a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The DA hike is based on the All India Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (AICPI-IW), not the Wholesale Price Index (WPI). The AICPI-IW reflects the cost of living and inflation experienced by government employees.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: DA is applicable to both government employees and pensioners, in the form of DA for serving employees and Dearness Relief (DR) for pensioners.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The 7th Central Pay Commission provides the formula for DA revision, which is revised biannually (January and July) based on AICPI-IW.

Panel Recommends Framework for Direct Recruitment in CBI

Key Recommendations

Independent Recruitment Framework:

  • Currently, many posts are filled through deputation from various organizations.
  • The committee suggests an independent recruitment system for CBI.
  • Recruitment could be conducted via SSC, UPSC, or a dedicated CBI examination.
  • Lateral entry should be introduced for experts in cybercrime, forensics, financial fraud, and legal fields.
  • Deputation should be limited to senior posts only.
  • CBI should develop an in-house expertise team to reduce reliance on external specialists.

 

State Consent for Investigations:

  • The committee recommends a new law allowing CBI to investigate cases related to national security and integrity without requiring state government consent.
  • The law should include safeguards to maintain neutrality and prevent undue influence.

 

Permanent Cadre Establishment:

  • CBI should create a permanent cadre with structured career growth.
  • This would provide stability and reduce dependency on officers from other agencies.
  • Challenges Faced by CBI

 

Lack of Autonomy & Operational Constraints:

  • CBI operates under the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, which limits its independence.
  • Investigations require state government consent, leading to frequent delays and political hurdles.
  • Eight states have withdrawn general consent, restricting CBI’s jurisdiction.

 

Manpower Shortages:

  • Nearly 16% of sanctioned positions remain vacant, affecting investigations.

 

Dependence on Deputation:

  • CBI struggles to fill posts below inspector rank due to a shortage of suitable state police officers.

 

About the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

  • Established: 1963, based on the Santhanam Committee’s recommendations on corruption prevention.
  • Ministry: Operates under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions.

Jurisdiction:

  • Requires state government consent for investigations unless covered under general consent.

 

Leadership:

  • The CBI Director is appointed for a fixed two-year tenure based on recommendations from a three-member Appointment Committee.
  • The committee’s recommendations aim to enhance CBI’s independence, efficiency, and expertise, ensuring it remains a robust investigative agency.

 

Regarding the recruitment process in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements:

  1. The majority of CBI personnel are recruited independently through a dedicated CBI examination.
  2. Deputation from other government agencies remains the primary mode of filling key posts in CBI.
  3. The Parliamentary Committee has recommended lateral entry for specialists in cybercrime, forensics, and financial fraud.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: CBI does not have an independent recruitment system; most of its positions are filled through deputation from other agencies such as state police and paramilitary forces.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Deputation remains the predominant method of recruitment for CBI personnel.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Parliamentary Committee has recommended lateral entry for specialists in cybercrime, financial fraud, and forensics to enhance expertise.

10th Anniversary of Sagarmala Programme

Sagarmala 2.0

  • Building upon the original program, Sagarmala 2.0 focuses on:
  • Strengthening stakeholder collaboration for better project execution.
  • Enhancing port-led industrial clusters to boost economic output.
  • Expanding coastal shipping, inland waterways, and logistics hubs.

Sagarmala Startup Innovation Initiative (S2I2)

  • Launched on March 19, 2025, the Sagarmala Startup Innovation Initiative aims to foster innovation and entrepreneurship in India’s maritime sector.

 

Key Focus Areas:

  • Green Shipping – Promoting sustainable and eco-friendly maritime solutions.
  • Smart Ports – Integrating artificial intelligence, automation, and digitalization in port operations.
  • Maritime Logistics – Improving supply chain efficiency.
  • Shipbuilding Technology – Advancing indigenous ship design and manufacturing.
  • Sustainable Coastal Development – Ensuring environmental responsibility.
  • The initiative follows the guiding principle of Research, Innovation, Startups, and Entrepreneurship.

Challenges and Roadblocks

Despite its progress, the Sagarmala Programme faces several challenges:

  • Investment and Budgetary Constraints – Delays in funding allocation hinder timely project completion.
  • Land Acquisition and Environmental Concerns – Legal and ecological complexities slow infrastructure development.
  • Stakeholder Coordination Issues – Effective implementation requires seamless cooperation among central and state governments, port authorities, and private investors.
  • Connectivity Gaps – Limited last-mile connectivity between ports and industrial hubs reduces efficiency.
  • Community and Social Impact – Port expansions lead to the displacement of fishing communities, affecting their livelihoods.

 

Way Forward: Strengthening India’s Maritime Future

  • Enhancing Inter-Agency Coordination – Strengthening collaboration across government and private sectors for better execution.
  • Sustainable and Green Ports – Developing environmentally friendly ports with a focus on renewable energy and emissions reduction.
  • Improving Port-Hinterland Connectivity – Investing in multi-modal transport networks to optimize cargo movement.
  • Boosting Indigenous Shipbuilding and Recycling – Strengthening Make in India initiatives in maritime infrastructure and vessel manufacturing.

By addressing these challenges, the Sagarmala Programme will play a critical role in transforming India into a global maritime leader by 2047.

With reference to the Sagarmala Programme, consider the following statements:

  1. The programme aims to enhance India’s maritime logistics efficiency primarily by expanding port-led infrastructure rather than promoting coastal shipping.
  2. The Sagarmala Programme is aligned with the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, which envisions India among the top five shipbuilding nations globally.
  3. The Sagarmala Development Company Limited (SDCL) was established to execute all port-related projects directly under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Sagarmala Programme focuses on shifting from infrastructure-heavy transport models to efficient coastal shipping and inland waterway networks, rather than solely relying on port-led expansion.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The programme aligns with the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, which aims to position India among the top five shipbuilding nations.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Sagarmala Development Company Limited (SDCL) was created to provide financial support to project Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) but does not execute projects directly under the ministry.

Free Movement Regime between India and Myanmar

 

 

Background

  • In 2024, the Union Home Minister announced the decision to abolish the Free Movement Regime (FMR) along the Myanmar border. However, no substantial progress has been made in implementing this decision.

 

Understanding the Free Movement Regime (FMR)

  • The Free Movement Regime (FMR) is a bilateral arrangement between India and Myanmar that permits border communities to cross into each other’s territory without a visa.
  • Established in 1968, FMR was introduced due to deep familial and ethnic ties shared by tribes living along the border.
  • Initially, the regime allowed movement up to 40 km inside the other country’s territory.
  • However, in 2004, this limit was reduced to 16 km, followed by additional regulatory measures introduced in 2016.

 

Rationale Behind Scrapping FMR

Internal Security Concerns

  • Myanmar’s ongoing instability, along with the presence of armed groups, has led to an increase in unauthorized migration, creating security challenges for India.

 

Drug Trafficking

  • Myanmar is part of the infamous Golden Triangle, one of the world’s major hubs for illicit drug production and smuggling. The porous border facilitates the influx of narcotics into India, exacerbating drug-related problems in the Northeast.

 

Insurgent Activities

  • Several insurgent groups operate from across the border in Myanmar, using dense forests as a safe haven. The existing FMR enables their movement and logistical support, posing a threat to India’s internal security.

 

Influx of Refugees

  • Escalating violence in Myanmar has led to an increased flow of refugees into India, particularly affecting Manipur and Mizoram. This has resulted in social, economic, and administrative challenges for Indian states.

China’s Expanding Influence

  • Following the 2021 military coup in Myanmar, the country has become increasingly dependent on China, which provides diplomatic and economic support. While Myanmar previously sought to diversify its international partnerships, its growing reliance on China raises strategic concerns for India.

India-Myanmar Relations: A Strategic Overview

 

Geographical Proximity

  • India and Myanmar share both a land and maritime boundary in the Bay of Bengal.
  • Four northeastern Indian states—Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram—share borders with Myanmar.

Historical and Cultural Linkages

  • India and Myanmar share centuries-old historical, religious, and cultural connections, with influences from Buddhism, Hinduism, and ancient trade routes shaping bilateral interactions.
  • India and Myanmar signed the Treaty of Friendship in 1951, laying the foundation for their diplomatic relations.

 

Geopolitical Significance

  • Myanmar’s strategic location makes it a vital bridge between South Asia and Southeast Asia.
  • India’s Act East Policy and Neighborhood First Policy emphasize strengthening ties with Myanmar to enhance regional connectivity and economic cooperation.

 

Economic and Trade Relations

  • Bilateral trade between India and Myanmar reached USD 1.50 billion in 2023-24.

 

Trade is conducted under:

  • ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA)
  • India’s Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) scheme

 

Security Cooperation

  • India and Myanmar collaborate on border security, counterinsurgency operations, and intelligence sharing.
  • Joint patrolling and military operations have been conducted to counter insurgent groups operating across the border.

Connectivity and Infrastructure Initiatives

  • India is actively involved in major connectivity projects to enhance trade and infrastructure development:
  • Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project (KMMTTP) – A key initiative to improve connectivity between India’s northeastern states and Myanmar via maritime and land routes.
  • India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway – A crucial project aimed at bolstering economic integration between the three countries.
  • Sittwe Port in Myanmar’s Rakhine State – A strategically significant port under KMMTTP, providing India an alternative trade route bypassing the congested Siliguri Corridor.

Developmental Assistance

  • India has extended assistance in multiple sectors, including healthcare, education, skill development, and infrastructure.
  • India and Myanmar collaborate under multilateral frameworks such as BIMSTEC and Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC).

Way Forward

Regulated Border Management

  • India must develop a structured mechanism to monitor cross-border movement while balancing security and humanitarian considerations.
  • Deploying advanced surveillance technologies and strengthening border infrastructure will be crucial.

Public Awareness and Stakeholder Consultation

  • It is imperative for the Indian government to educate local communities and stakeholders about the implications of FMR and its potential removal.
  • Consultation with northeastern state governments and indigenous communities will help in formulating an inclusive border policy.

Sustainable Refugee Policy

  • India needs a well-defined refugee policy to manage the influx of displaced individuals from Myanmar while ensuring national security.
  • International collaboration with organizations like UNHCR can aid in managing refugee challenges.

Strategic Engagement with Myanmar

  • India must continue engaging diplomatically with Myanmar’s ruling establishment to safeguard strategic and economic interests.
  • Diversifying Myanmar’s external partnerships beyond China will be essential for regional stability.

Enhanced Economic and Security Cooperation

  • Expanding bilateral trade and connectivity projects will strengthen India’s position in Myanmar.
  • Joint counter-insurgency operations and intelligence sharing should be intensified to tackle security threats.

Conclusion

  • Given the uncertain political landscape in Myanmar, India must adopt a balanced approach—tightening border security while maintaining people-to-people ties.
  • The government should take local communities into confidence, formulate a phased strategy for managing border movement, and enhance cooperation with Myanmar to protect national and regional interests.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Myanmar border and security cooperation:

  1. India and Myanmar have conducted joint military operations to target insurgent groups operating along the border.
  2. The Indo-Myanmar Border Agreement allows the Indian military to cross into Myanmar’s territory in pursuit of insurgents without prior permission.
  3. Myanmar is part of both the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct : India and Myanmar have conducted joint military operations such as Operation Sunrise (2019) to neutralize insurgent camps along the border.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect : While India has conducted “hot pursuit” strikes against insurgents inside Myanmar (e.g., 2015 strike against NSCN-K militants), such actions require bilateral cooperation and prior coordination, as Myanmar does not permit unilateral military action.
  • Statement 3 is correct : Myanmar is a member of both BIMSTEC and ASEAN, playing a strategic role in regional cooperation.

 

Wage Hike of MGNREGS

 

Recent Developments

  • The Union government has announced an increase in wages under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), ranging from 2% to 7% for the financial year 2025-26.

 

Key Highlights of Wage Revisions

  • The wage hike varies between ₹7 to ₹26 across different states.
  • States with the lowest increase (₹7): Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, and Telangana.
  • Haryana recorded the highest wage increase (₹26), making it the first state to reach ₹400 per day under MGNREGS.

 

Understanding MGNREGA

Objective & Scope

  • Demand-driven wage employment program, where resource allocation from the Centre to states is based on actual employment demand.
  • Guarantees 100 days of wage employment per year to rural households whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work.

 

Types of Work Covered

  • MGNREGA includes 266 categories of work, primarily focused on:
  • Agriculture and allied activities
  • Natural resource management (water conservation, afforestation, soil erosion control)
  • Rural infrastructure development (roads, irrigation projects, flood control structures)

 

Wage Calculation Mechanism

  • Wages under MGNREGA are linked to the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) to ensure adjustments for inflation in rural areas.
  • In FY 2024-25, Goa recorded the highest wage hike (56%), whereas Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand had the lowest (3.04%).

 

Budgetary Allocation & Financial Trends

  • MGNREGA’s budget has seen a significant rise from ₹11,300 crore in 2006-07 to ₹86,000 crore in FY 2024-25.
  • A record ₹1,11,000 crore was allocated in FY 2020-21 to address economic distress caused by COVID-19.

 

Women’s Participation & Digital Reforms

  • Women’s participation in MGNREGA has grown from 48% in FY 2013-14 to over 58% in FY 2024-25, reflecting greater financial inclusion.
  • Introduction of digital payment systems has improved efficiency and transparency:
  • Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS): Ensures targeted wage disbursal, covering 49% of active workers.
  • National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS): Prevents fraudulent attendance and enhances accountability.
  • National Electronic Fund Management System (NeFMS): Enables 100% electronic wage disbursement under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), making MGNREGA the largest DBT-based scheme in India.

Conclusion

  • The recent wage hike under MGNREGS reflects the government’s commitment to strengthening rural employment, ensuring inflation-linked wage adjustments, and enhancing transparency through digital governance.
  • However, challenges such as funding delays, timely wage payments, and worksite monitoring need continuous policy attention for improved effectiveness.

 

With reference to the implementation of MGNREGA, consider the following statements:

  1. Every rural household in India is entitled to 100 days of guaranteed wage employment per individual per year under MGNREGA.
  2. The payment of wages under MGNREGA must be completed within 15 days from the date of work completion, failing which the government is liable to pay compensation.
  3. The National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS) has been introduced to digitally capture attendance at MGNREGA worksites to reduce fraudulent claims.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect → MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of wage employment per household, not per individual. The scheme provides work for adult members of a rural household willing to do unskilled manual labor.
  • Statement 2 is correct → As per Section 3 of the MGNREGA Act, 2005, wages must be paid within 15 days of work completion. If delayed, the government is liable to pay compensation as per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
  • Statement 3 is correct → The National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS) was introduced in 2021 to ensure real-time digital attendance recording, reducing fake beneficiaries and improving transparency.

Sansad Bhashini Initiative

With reference to the ‘Sansad Bhashini’ initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a joint initiative of the Lok Sabha Secretariat and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
  2. The initiative solely focuses on translating parliamentary documents into Hindi and English.
  3. It incorporates AI-driven chatbots to assist Members of Parliament in retrieving legislative information.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Lok Sabha Secretariat and MeitY have collaborated to implement Sansad Bhashini to enhance multilingual accessibility in parliamentary operations.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The initiative does not restrict translations to only Hindi and English but supports multiple languages to promote inclusivity.

Statement 3 is correct: AI-powered chatbots assist MPs and officials in retrieving procedural rules and legislative documents.

 

With reference to the implementation of MGNREGA, consider the following statements:

  1. Every rural household in India is entitled to 100 days of guaranteed wage employment per individual per year under MGNREGA.
  2. The payment of wages under MGNREGA must be completed within 15 days from the date of work completion, failing which the government is liable to pay compensation.
  3. The National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS) has been introduced to digitally capture attendance at MGNREGA worksites to reduce fraudulent claims.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect → MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of wage employment per household, not per individual. The scheme provides work for adult members of a rural household willing to do unskilled manual labor.
  • Statement 2 is correct → As per Section 3 of the MGNREGA Act, 2005, wages must be paid within 15 days of work completion. If delayed, the government is liable to pay compensation as per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
  • Statement 3 is correct → The National Mobile Monitoring System (NMMS) was introduced in 2021 to ensure real-time digital attendance recording, reducing fake beneficiaries and improving transparency.

PM Internship Scheme

  • PM Internship Scheme: Bridging Youth with Industry Experience.
  • Union Minister Nirmala Sitharaman recently launched a dedicated mobile application for the Prime Minister Internship Scheme, encouraging more companies to participate in this transformative initiative.

 

About the PM Internship Scheme

  • The PM Internship Scheme is a flagship initiative by the Government of India, designed to equip young individuals with industry exposure and practical experience.
  • It focuses on skill development and employment generation, ensuring that youth from economically weaker sections gain valuable insights into real-world professional environments.

 

Key Features of the Scheme

  • Target Beneficiaries: Young individuals aged 21-24 years from low-income households.
  • Internship Duration: 12 months in India’s top 500 companies.
  • Pilot Phase: Aims to benefit 25 lakh youth.
  • Long-Term Goal: Envisions facilitating internships for one crore young individuals over five years.

 

Sector Coverage: Spans 24 industries, including:

  • Oil & Gas
  • Energy
  • Travel & Hospitality
  • Automotive
  • Banking & Financial Services
  • Eligibility Criteria

 

Scheme sets the following Eligibility conditions:
 

Educational Qualifications:

  • Passed 10th, 12th, ITI, Polytechnic, or Diploma courses.
  • Fresh graduates from non-premier institutions.

 Economic & Family Background:

  • Belong to a household with an annual income of ₹8 lakh or less (2023-24).
  • No family member should hold a government job.

 Exclusions:

  • Students from IITs, IIMs, National Law Universities (NLUs).
  • Individuals holding professional degrees like CA, MBA, MBBS, etc.

Vision & Impact

  • This initiative aligns with the government’s broader strategy to bridge the gap between academic learning and professional expertise.
  • By focusing on skill enhancement and employment readiness, it paves the way for greater socio-economic mobility among India’s youth.

With reference to the Prime Minister Internship Scheme (PM Internship Scheme), consider the following statements:

  1. The scheme is open to all young individuals between the ages of 21-30 years.
  2. It offers internships in only government enterprises to enhance youth participation in public administration.
  3. The scheme specifically excludes students from IITs, IIMs, and National Law Universities to ensure inclusivity for underrepresented groups.
  4. The long-term goal of the scheme is to facilitate internships for 5 crore youth over five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (c) 3 only
 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme targets youth aged 21-24 years, not 21-30 years.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Internships are available in both public and private enterprises, covering 24 industries, including energy, automotive, and financial services.

Statement 3 is correct: To promote inclusivity, students from IITs, IIMs, National Law Universities, and professional courses like CA, MBA, MBBS are excluded.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The scheme’s five-year goal is to facilitate internships for 1 crore youth, not 5 crore.

 

Prime Minister’s Young Authors Mentorship Scheme (YUVA) Scheme

Overview

  • The Ministry of Education (MoE) and the National Book Trust (NBT) of India have launched the third edition of the Prime Minister’s Young Authors Mentorship Scheme (PM-YUVA 3.0).
  • This initiative aims to identify and nurture young literary talent in India, providing mentorship to aspiring writers under the age of 30.

 

Previous Editions of the YUVA Scheme YUVA 1.0 (May 2021)

  • Launched during the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations to commemorate 75 years of India’s independence.
  • The central theme focused on the National Movement of India, highlighting unsung heroes, lesser-known facts, and various aspects of the freedom struggle.
  • YUVA 2.0 (October 2022)
  • Expanded upon the objectives of YUVA 1.0, shifting its theme to Democracy.
  • The focus was on nurturing young writers who could explore India’s democratic values, traditions, and governance structures.

 

PM-YUVA 3.0: Objectives and Themes

 

  • Building on the success of its predecessors, YUVA 3.0 continues the government’s mission to foster literary talent and promote a vibrant reading and writing culture.
  • It seeks to provide mentorship and structured guidance to young authors to help them develop their creative writing skills.

 

 

 

  • The scheme emphasizes three core themes:
  • Contribution of the Indian Diaspora in Nation Building
  • Indian Knowledge System
  • The Makers of Modern India (1950-2025)

 

Significance of the YUVA Scheme

  • Encourages young authors to explore various dimensions of India’s history, culture, and future aspirations.
  • Provides a platform for youth to express their perspectives on India’s contributions in different fields, both ancient and contemporary.
  • Aligns with the vision of Ek Bharat, Shreshtha Bharat, promoting the documentation and dissemination of India’s rich cultural heritage and intellectual traditions.
  • Through this initiative, the government continues to emphasize nation-building through literary excellence, empowering young minds to contribute meaningfully to India’s intellectual and cultural landscape.

 

With reference to the Prime Minister’s Young Authors Mentorship Scheme (PM-YUVA 3.0), consider the following statements:

  1. The scheme is jointly implemented by the Ministry of Education (MoE) and the National Book Trust (NBT) of India.
  2. It exclusively focuses on themes related to the Indian Freedom Struggle.
  3. PM-YUVA 3.0 aims to mentor young authors under the age of 30.
  4. The scheme aligns with the vision of Ek Bharat, Shreshtha Bharat.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Education (MoE) and the National Book Trust (NBT) of India.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the first edition (YUVA 1.0) focused on the Indian freedom struggle, PM-YUVA 3.0 includes themes such as Indian Knowledge System, the Contribution of the Indian Diaspora in Nation Building, and the Makers of Modern India (1950-2025).

Statement 3 is correct. The scheme is designed for young authors under 30 years of age.

Statement 4 is correct. The scheme aligns with Ek Bharat, Shreshtha Bharat by fostering a deeper understanding of India’s cultural and intellectual traditions.

Samarth Incubation Programme

  • The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT), an autonomous Telecom R&D centre under the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Government of India, has launched the ‘Samarth’ incubation programme to support emerging startups in the telecom sector.

Objectives:

  • Foster innovation in telecom software, cybersecurity, 5G and 6G technologies, artificial intelligence (AI), Internet of Things (IoT), and quantum technologies.
  • Promote sustainable and scalable business models by providing access to advanced resources.
  • Bridge the gap between ideation and commercialization for startups.

 

Key Features:

  • Implementation Partner: Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) has been selected to execute the programme.
  • Mode of Delivery: Hybrid mode with both online and offline engagement.

 

Cohort Structure:

  • Each program will accommodate 18 startups, with a total of 36 startups across two cohorts (each lasting six months).
  • Eligibility: Open to DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) recognized startups.

Support for Startups:

  • A grant of up to ₹5 lakh per selected startup.
  • Six months of office space at the C-DoT campus.
  • Access to C-DoT lab facilities.
  • Mentorship from C-DoT technical leaders and industry experts.

 

Future Prospects: Startups demonstrating significant progress may receive further opportunities under the C-DoT Collaborative Research Program.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Samarth’ Incubation Programme launched by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT):

  1. It is an initiative to support startups specifically in 5G and 6G technologies, without extending to other domains like cybersecurity or AI.
  2. The programme is being implemented in collaboration with Software Technology Parks of India (STPI).
  3. Only startups that have been recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) are eligible for the programme.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Samarth Incubation Programme supports startups not only in 5G and 6G technologies but also in cybersecurity, AI, IoT, and quantum technologies.

Statement 2 is correct: The Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) is the implementation partner for the programme.

Statement 3 is correct: Only DPIIT-recognized startups are eligible for the incubation support.

Modified Ethanol Interest Subvention Scheme

                                       

    • The Government of India has introduced a modified Ethanol Interest Subvention Scheme to enhance the operational viability of Cooperative Sugar Mills (CSMs).
    • This initiative enables these mills to upgrade their existing sugarcane-based ethanol plants into multi-feedstock facilities, allowing the use of grains such as maize and damaged food grains (DFG) alongside sugarcane.
    • The objective is to ensure year-round production, improve efficiency, and strengthen the ethanol industry.
    • Ethanol Production in India: Ethanol production in India primarily depends on sugarcane, but its crushing period lasts only 4-5 months annually, limiting production capacity. To address this, the government is promoting the diversification of feedstock’s to ensure consistent ethanol output. The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme targets a 20% ethanol blend with petrol by 2025, reducing reliance on fossil fuels and enhancing energy security.
    • Modified Ethanol Interest Subvention Scheme: The scheme offers financial assistance in the form of an interest subvention of 6% per annum or 50% of the bank interest rate, whichever is lower. This support is applicable for loans provided by banks or financial institutions over five years, including a one-year moratorium. By easing financial constraints, the initiative encourages CSMs to expand their ethanol production beyond sugarcane-based operations.
    • Benefits of Multi-Feedstock Conversion: The shift to multi-feedstock plants provides several advantages:
    • Year-Round Production: Using grains and agricultural residues ensures continuous ethanol output, even outside the sugarcane season.
    • Improved Efficiency: Diversified raw materials enhance the mills’ operational flexibility and financial sustainability.
    • Economic Growth: Supporting local grain production reduces dependence on sugarcane, strengthening the agricultural economy.
    • Impact on Ethanol Production Targets: India has set ambitious ethanol production targets under the EBP Programme. As of February 2025, the blending rate reached 19.6%, indicating significant progress toward the 20% goal. Enhanced production capabilities from CSMs are expected to play a key role in meeting this target.
    • Future Prospects for Cooperative Sugar Mills: The modified scheme provides a transformative opportunity for CSMs.
    • By embracing a multi-feedstock approach, these mills can ensure long-term sustainability while contributing to India’s renewable energy goals.
    • Additionally, leveraging locally available grains promotes self-sufficiency and strengthens the rural economy.
    • This strategic shift marks a crucial step in making ethanol production more resilient and efficient in the coming years.

Consider the following statements regarding the Ethanol Interest Subvention Scheme:

  1. It provides an interest subvention of 6% per annum or 50% of the bank interest rate, whichever is lower.
  2. The scheme allows Cooperative Sugar Mills (CSMs) to upgrade their sugarcane-based ethanol plants into multi-feedstock facilities.
  3. The financial support under this scheme is provided for a period of ten years, including a two-year moratorium.
  4. It aims to facilitate year-round ethanol production by diversifying the feedstock to include maize and damaged food grains (DFG).

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: The scheme provides an interest subvention of 6% per annum or 50% of the bank interest rate, whichever is lower.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: It allows CSMs to upgrade their sugarcane-based ethanol plants into multi-feedstock facilities.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: The financial assistance is provided for five years, including a one-year moratorium, not ten years with a two-year moratorium.

Statement 4 – Correct: The scheme encourages the use of maize and damaged food grains (DFG) for ethanol production

Indian Ports Bill 2025

Syllabus:Polity

  • Recently, the Indian Ports Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha by Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal.
  • This legislation seeks to amend the Indian Ports Act of 1908, with the goal of modernising port operations in India and aligning them with international norms and environmental standards.
  • It aims to address emerging challenges in the port sector and promote planned development.

 

Historical Context

  • The Indian Ports Act of 1908 was enacted to consolidate laws related to ports, port charges, and the powers of both central and state governments.
  • It also outlined safety provisions, conservation efforts, and the appointment of port officials.
  • However, with the evolving dynamics of global trade and port operations, the original legislation is now considered outdated.

 

 

Objectives of the Bill

The Indian Ports Bill seeks to modernise the legal framework governing ports with several key objectives:

  • Pollution control and addressing environmental concerns.
  • Ensuring compliance with international maritime obligations.
  • Facilitating integrated port development.
  • Enhancing the ease of doing business within the port sector.

 

Key Provisions in the Bill

  • The bill introduces several critical provisions, including:
  • Empowerment of state maritime boards for improved governance.
  • Creation of the Maritime State Development Council to ensure coordinated development.
  • Mechanisms for efficient dispute resolution in port operations.
  • A stronger focus on disaster management and emergency response at ports.

 

Reactions from Coastal States

The introduction of the bill has generated controversy, particularly among coastal states. There are concerns over the centralisation of power, with many states fearing that their control over non-major ports could be undermined. Tamil Nadu’s Chief Minister and other leaders have voiced strong opposition, arguing that the bill diminishes state control and local governance.

 

Parliamentary Scrutiny and Amendments

The bill has been closely examined in Parliament, where members have raised concerns regarding its impact on state powers. The government has clarified that it considered state perspectives during the drafting process. The earlier version of the bill faced significant backlash, prompting a more conciliatory approach in the current draft.

 

Environmental and Safety Considerations

A major aspect of the bill is its emphasis on environmental sustainability. It includes provisions for pollution control and safety measures at ports, aiming to bring India’s port operations in line with global standards. Given the increasing volume of traffic and the expansion of port infrastructure, these measures are crucial for protecting marine ecosystems and ensuring safe, sustainable port operations.

7Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian Ports Bill, 2025:

  1. The Indian Ports Bill aims to replace the Indian Ports Act of 1908, which is considered outdated due to the evolving dynamics of global trade.
  2. The bill proposes the centralisation of power, particularly in relation to state maritime boards, which has raised concerns among coastal states.
  3. The creation of the Maritime State Development Council under the bill is intended to facilitate coordinated development and better governance in the port sector.
  4. The bill does not focus on environmental sustainability and pollution control, as the primary concern is to promote ease of doing business.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Ports Bill seeks to replace the outdated Indian Ports Act of 1908 and modernise port operations to align them with international norms and environmental standards, considering the evolving dynamics of global trade and port operations.

Statement 2 is correct: The bill has generated concerns regarding the centralisation of power, particularly the empowerment of state maritime boards, which some coastal states fear may undermine their control over non-major ports. This has led to opposition from several coastal state leaders.

Statement 3 is correct: The Maritime State Development Council has been created under the bill to ensure coordinated development and better governance across the port sector, promoting planned and integrated development.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The bill places significant emphasis on environmental sustainability, pollution control, and safety measures at ports, aiming to align India’s port operations with global environmental standards. Therefore, it is not solely focused on the ease of doing business.

 

Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024

Syllabus: Polity

  • The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024 has recently been passed by the Lok Sabha, marking a significant update to India’s maritime laws.
  • This new legislation replaces the Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925, which had become outdated.
  • The Bill is part of a broader initiative to phase out colonial-era laws and streamline maritime regulations in India.
  • It is also aimed at fostering a more business-friendly environment in the shipping sector.

 

 

Objectives

  • The Bill’s primary objective is to modernize maritime law in India. It provides clear definitions of the rights, duties, liabilities, and immunities of carriers transporting goods by sea. Simplifying and clarifying existing provisions is expected to enhance compliance, improve operational efficiency, and foster a smoother functioning of the maritime industry.

 

Compliance with International Standards

The legislation is aligned with the International Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules of Law Relating to Bills of Lading—commonly known as the Hague Rules. By adhering to these internationally recognized standards, India’s maritime law is brought into line with global practices, improving the credibility of India’s shipping sector in the international trade arena.

 

Empowerment of the Union Government

The Bill provides the Union government with the authority to issue directions related to maritime trade. It also allows for amendments to the rules governing bills of lading. This flexibility is crucial for adapting to the evolving dynamics of global trade and ensuring effective regulation of the shipping industry.

 

Impact on the Shipping Industry

With clear and updated regulations, the Bill is expected to foster a more favorable environment for maritime business. It aims to enhance operational efficiency, reduce legal uncertainties, and simplify processes, thus promoting a more robust and competitive shipping sector.

Consider the following statements regarding the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024:

  1. The Bill replaces the Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925, and aims to modernize maritime law in India.
  2. The legislation aligns India’s maritime law with the Hague Rules, enhancing its compatibility with international standards.
  3. The Bill empowers the Union government to issue directions related to maritime trade and amend rules governing bills of lading.
  4. The primary aim of the Bill is to enhance India’s export competitiveness by imposing stricter regulations on maritime businesses.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024, replaces the Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925, which had become outdated. The new Bill is part of a broader effort to modernize maritime law and phase out colonial-era regulations.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bill aligns India’s maritime law with the International Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules of Law Relating to Bills of Lading (Hague Rules). This brings India’s legal framework in line with global maritime standards, which is critical for enhancing India’s position in international trade.

Statement 3 is correct: The Bill empowers the Union government to issue directions concerning maritime trade and amend the rules related to bills of lading. This flexibility allows for adaptive regulation in response to global trade dynamics.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While the Bill aims to foster a business-friendly environment, its primary goal is not to impose stricter regulations but to modernize and simplify existing maritime laws. It is focused on enhancing efficiency, legal clarity, and operational competitiveness, not restricting businesses.

Poverty Estimation in India

Overview:

  • A study by economists Surjit S Bhalla and Karan Bhasin highlights a significant decline in poverty and inequality in India over the past decade. The findings are based on government household expenditure data from 2022-23 and 2023-24.

 

Key Findings

  • Poverty Reduction: The poverty rate at the $3.65 PPP threshold has dropped from 52% in 2011-12 to 15.1% in 2023-24, while extreme poverty (below $1.90 PPP) is now under 1%.
  • Consumption Growth: The greatest improvements have been observed in the bottom three deciles of the population, reflecting record increases in consumption.
  • Declining Inequality: The Gini coefficient, a measure of income inequality, has decreased from 37.5 in 2011-12 to 29.1 in 2023-24, indicating a more equitable distribution of resources.
  • Global Comparison: Among large, fast-growing economies, India’s reduction in inequality stands out. Only Bhutan and the Dominican Republic have demonstrated better performance, albeit with smaller populations.
  • Need for a New Poverty Line: Existing poverty lines are outdated. The study suggests adopting a benchmark based on the bottom 33rd percentile or relative poverty measures similar to those used in Europe.
  • Official Poverty Estimates: NITI Aayog has not yet revised poverty estimates, which were last set by the Tendulkar and Rangarajan committees.

 

Poverty Line Estimation in India

  • Tendulkar Committee (2009): Defined the poverty line based on monthly per capita expenditure—₹33 per day in urban areas and ₹27 per day in rural areas. The national poverty threshold for 2011-12 was ₹816 per capita per month for rural areas and ₹1,000 for urban areas.
  • Rangarajan Committee (2014): Suggested higher thresholds—₹47 per day in urban areas and ₹30 per day in rural areas—but the government did not adopt this methodology, continuing to use the Tendulkar poverty line.
  • International Benchmark: The World Bank defines extreme poverty as living on less than $2.15 per day, adjusted for inflation and price differences across countries.

 

Challenges in India’s Poverty Measurement

  • Inadequate Thresholds: Current poverty lines—₹965 per month in urban areas and ₹781 in rural areas—are considered too low to reflect essential living standards.
  • Outdated Methodology: The approach relies on calorie intake rather than modern consumption patterns and living costs.
  • Limited Consideration of Essential Needs: The poverty line does not adequately account for increasing private expenditures on health, education, and housing.
  • State-Level Disparities: A uniform poverty line across states does not consider variations in the cost of living, leading to inaccurate assessments.
  • Lack of Periodic Updates: The official poverty line has not been revised to align with inflation and changing economic conditions, reducing its relevance.

 

Recommendations for Improvement

  • Regular Revisions: Update the poverty line periodically to reflect inflation and evolving consumption patterns.
  • Broader Criteria: Expand the definition of poverty to include essential non-food expenditures such as healthcare, education, and housing.
  • Regional Adjustments: Implement state-specific poverty lines to better account for regional cost-of-living variations.
  • Modernized Approach: Shift from outdated calorie-based metrics to holistic indicators that consider nutrition, well-being, and overall living standards.

A revised and comprehensive approach to poverty measurement will ensure that social welfare policies are more effective and inclusive, addressing the actual needs of India’s population.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the recent study on poverty and inequality in India:

  1. The study indicates that India’s extreme poverty (below $1.90 PPP) is currently estimated to be around 5%.
  2. The Gini coefficient has increased from 29.1 in 2011-12 to 37.5 in 2023-24, reflecting rising inequality.
  3. The study suggests a new poverty benchmark based on the bottom 33rd percentile of the population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

  1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The study finds that extreme poverty (below $1.90 PPP) is now under 1%, not 5%.
  2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gini coefficient has actually decreased from 37.5 in 2011-12 to 29.1 in 2023-24, indicating a reduction in inequality.

Statement 3 is correct: The study suggests a new poverty line based on the bottom 33rd percentile, recognizing the outdated nature of existing poverty lines.

National Waterways (Construction of Jetties / Terminals) Regulations, 2025

The Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways (MoPSW) has introduced a new set of regulations, formulated by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), aimed at streamlining the development and operation of India’s inland waterways network.

 

Key Highlights of the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025

  • These regulations are designed to enhance private sector participation in the development of inland waterway terminals.
  • Any entity, including private players, seeking to develop or operate an inland waterway terminal must obtain a No Objection Certificate (NoC) from IWAI.
  • The regulations apply to both new and existing terminals, covering both permanent and temporary
  • Permanent terminals can be operated for their entire lifetime by the developer.
  • Temporary terminals will be granted an initial five-year operational term, with an option for extensions.
  • Developers and operators bear full responsibility for technical design, construction, and ensuring adequate access to the terminal, aligning with their business objectives.

 

Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI): A Brief Overview

  • Established: 1986 under the Inland Waterways Authority of India Act, 1985.
  • Primary Role: Development, maintenance, and regulation of National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016.
  • Headquarters: Noida, Uttar Pradesh.

 

Significance of Inland Waterways

  • Reducing Logistics Costs
  • India’s logistics costs account for 14% of GDP, significantly higher than the global average of 8-10%.
  • Enhancing waterway infrastructure will help bring these costs down, making trade more competitive.
  • Decongestion of Transport Networks
  • Shifting cargo movement to inland waterways will ease congestion on road and rail networks, reducing traffic bottlenecks.
  • Eco-Friendly Mode of Transport
  • Lower fuel consumption and reduced emissions make inland waterways a more sustainable transport solution.
  • This aligns with India’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and climate action commitments.
  • Economic Growth & Trade Expansion
  • The volume of cargo transported via National Waterways has increased from 18 million tonnes to 133 million tonnes in FY 2023-24.
  • Improved inland waterway infrastructure will boost trade, especially in regions near National Waterways.

 

Government Initiatives for Inland Waterways Development

  1. Jalvahak Scheme
  • Provides direct incentives to cargo owners using inland waterways for distances exceeding 300 km.
  • Offers reimbursement of up to 35% of total operating costs incurred during cargo transportation.
  1. Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP)
  • Aims to develop National Waterway-1 (NW-1) with modern infrastructure and terminals.
  1. Sagarmala Project
  • Focuses on the integration of inland waterways with coastal shipping and major ports.
  1. Freight Village Development
  • Establishes logistics hubs near key waterways to enhance multimodal transport connectivity.

 

Conclusion

 

The National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025 represent a significant policy shift aimed at boosting private sector participation, reducing logistics costs, and promoting eco-friendly cargo transport. With the rapid digitization of waterway operations and strong government policy support, these reforms will play a crucial role in making India’s inland waterways a viable and competitive transport network.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025:

  1. Private players are required to obtain a license from the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) to develop inland waterway terminals.
  2. Permanent terminals are granted operational rights for a maximum of 20 years.
  3. Temporary terminals are granted an initial operational period of five years, with a possibility of extension.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (C) 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Private players need to obtain a No Objection Certificate (NoC) from IWAI, not a license from MoPSW.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Permanent terminals can be operated for their entire lifetime without a fixed limit like 20 years.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Temporary terminals are granted an initial five-year term with an option for extension.

Impact of GeM on India’s Economy

  • The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has transformed public procurement in India, benefiting both government buyers and small businesses.

 

What is GeM?

  • The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is an online platform established for public procurement in India.
  • Launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, its goal is to improve transparency, efficiency, and speed in government procurement processes.
  • Objective
    GeM’s primary objective is to create an open and transparent procurement platform for government buyers.

 

Core Principles of GeM

  • The platform is based on several key principles, ensuring streamlined, fair, and effective procurement.

 

Key Features of GeM

SWAYATT: This initiative aims to enhance ease of doing business by providing direct market linkages for startups, women entrepreneurs, Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs), Self Help Groups (SHGs), and youth to participate in public procurement.

 

Startup Runway 2.0: This feature offers startups a chance to showcase their innovative products and services to government buyers, facilitating their engagement in public procurement.

 

Dedicated Marketplace for Startups: GeM has created a specific marketplace category for startups, allowing them to list products and services, regardless of their DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) certification.

 

Womaniya: This initiative highlights products made by women entrepreneurs and women self-help groups (WSHGs), empowering women-led businesses in the procurement process.

 

Collaboration with MSMEs: GeM works closely with stakeholders from the MSME sector, with a particular focus on promoting entrepreneurs from Scheduled Caste (SC) and Scheduled Tribe (ST) communities.

 

SARAS Collection: The SARAS Collection showcases a curated range of handcrafted goods, including handicrafts, handloom textiles, office décor, and personal care products, all sourced from SHGs across India.

 

Impact of GeM

  • Cost Savings: By promoting competitive pricing, GeM has contributed to significant reductions in procurement costs for the government.
  • Wider Market Access: The platform has opened up opportunities for vendors from all corners of the country, including rural areas, to participate in government procurement.
  • Boost to MSMEs & Startups: Around 50% of GeM orders come from MSMEs, supporting the growth of small businesses and fostering a more inclusive economy.

 

  • Conclusion
    GeM’s strategic initiatives have greatly contributed to improving the ease of doing business and boosting participation in government procurement. As it continues to evolve, GeM remains dedicated to its vision of creating a sustainable, transparent, and competitive marketplace, advancing India’s progress toward inclusive and effective public procurement practices.

 

 

The Womaniya initiative on Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is primarily aimed at:

  1. A) Enabling direct procurement of goods and services exclusively from women entrepreneurs without competitive bidding.
  2. B) Establishing a dedicated procurement quota for women-led enterprises across all government departments.
  3. C) Facilitating the showcasing and procurement of products crafted by women entrepreneurs and Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to enhance their market access.
    D) Offering subsidized loans and financial incentives to women entrepreneurs participating in public procurement.

Answer: C

 

Explanation:

  • The Womaniya initiative under the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is designed to promote the participation of women entrepreneurs and women-led SHGs by facilitating the listing and procurement of their products and services on the platform.
  • This initiative aims to bridge the gender gap in public procurement but does not involve exclusive tenders, mandatory procurement quotas, or financial grants.
  • The focus is on market linkage and visibility rather than providing direct financial support or bypassing competitive processes.
  • This question tests the aspirant’s ability to grasp the nuanced objectives of government initiatives and distinguish between affirmative action policies and preferential financial assistance—a common area of confusion in public policy.

 

India’s Path to a High-Income Economy

  • A recent World Bank report titled “Becoming a High-Income Economy in a Generation” highlights that India needs an average annual growth rate of 7.8% over the next 22 years to achieve high-income country (HIC) status by 2047.
  • The report emphasizes the need for ambitious reforms and their effective implementation to meet this goal.

 

Key Highlights of the Report

  • India’s Economic Growth Journey
  • India’s share in the global economy has doubled from 6% in 2000 to 3.4% in 2023, making it the 5th largest economy.
  • Before the pandemic, India’s economy grew at an average annual rate of 6.7%, second only to China among major economies.
  • Target: High-Income Status by 2047
  • Current Status: India is classified as a lower-middle-income country, with a GNI per capita of USD 2,540 (2023).
  • Goal: To reach HIC status, India’s GNI per capita must increase 8 times by 2047.
  • In 2023, the World Bank classified high-income countries as those with a GNI per capita above USD 14,005, while upper-middle-income nations fall between USD 4,516 – 14,005.

 

Growth Scenarios for India

 

Scenario

Growth Rate (Real GDP)

Outcome

Slow Reforms

Below 6%

India remains upper-middle income, falling short of HIC status.

Business as Usual

6.6%

India improves but does not reach high-income status.

Accelerated Reforms

7.8%

India achieves high-income status by 2047.

 

  • Only a few countries—Chile, Romania, Poland, Czech Republic, and Slovakia—have transitioned to high-income status within 20 years. In contrast, Brazil, Mexico, and Turkey remain stuck in the upper-middle-income category, making India’s goal ambitious yet achievable.
  • Challenges to Achieving High-Income Status

 

Declining Investment Rate

  • Investment-to-GDP ratio peaked at 8% in 2008 but has fallen to 27.5% in 2024.
  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Challenges
  • India’s FDI-to-GDP ratio is 6%, much lower than Vietnam (5%) and China (3.1%).
  • Low Labor Force Participation
  • India’s Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is 55% (2023), lower than China (65.8%).
  • Female Labor Force Participation (FLFP) has risen to 7% in 2023-24, but remains below the global benchmark of over 50%.

 

Challenges in Job Creation

  • 45% of India’s workforce is still in agriculture, a sector with low productivity (disguised unemployment).
  • The share of manufacturing in total employment is just 11%, and modern market services account for only 7%—far lower than East Asian economies.
  • 73% of India’s workforce is in informal jobs (compared to 7% in other emerging economies).

 

 

Declining Trade Openness

  • Exports and imports account for 46% of GDP (2023), down from 56% in 2012.
  • High tariffs and non-tariff barriers restrict trade expansion.
  • Weak Integration into Global Value Chains (GVCs)
  • While India has made gains in mobile phone exports, its overall manufacturing sector lags behind other economies.
  • Services sector (IT & BPO) remains strong, but manufacturing needs significant improvements.
  • Key Reforms Needed to Achieve HIC Status

 

Boosting Investment

  • Increase investment rate from 33.5% to 40% of GDP by 2035.
  • Strengthen financial sector regulations to improve credit flow.
  • Enhance MSME access to formal credit.
  • Improve bankruptcy resolution and bad debt recovery mechanisms.

 

Creating More and Better Jobs

  • Raise labor force participation to match economies like Vietnam (73%) and the Philippines (60%).
  • Encourage private sector investment in job-rich sectors like agro-processing, hospitality, transportation, and care economy.
  • Expand skilled workforce and improve access to finance.
  • Strengthen modern manufacturing and high-value services.
  • Boosting Global Trade Competitiveness
  • Invest in export-oriented sectors and integrate into GVCs.
  • Formalizing the Workforce
  • Simplify labor laws to reduce informal employment and promote better wage conditions.
  • Strengthening Human Capital and Innovation
  • Improve secondary school enrollment and vocational training to meet industry demands.
  • Expand R&D investments in Artificial Intelligence (AI), Biotechnology, and Clean Energy.
  • Understanding the Middle-Income Trap
  • What is the Middle-Income Trap?
  • A concept introduced by the World Bank (2007), referring to economies that grow rapidly but fail to reach high-income status.
  • It applies to countries with a GNI per capita between USD 1,000 – USD 12,000 (2011 prices).
  • Countries in this trap face challenges such as rising labor costs, weak innovation, income inequality, and overreliance on specific industries.
  • Is India at Risk of Falling into the Middle-Income Trap?
  • Income Inequality: The top 10% of India’s population holds 57% of national income, while the bottom 50% holds just 13%.
  • Tax Structure: High GST and corporate tax cuts disproportionately benefit the wealthy, widening the income gap.
  • Stagnant Wages & Inflation: Declining or stagnant wages, high household debt, and low savings make India vulnerable to this trap.
  • Conclusion
  • India’s goal of becoming a high-income country by 2047 is ambitious but achievable. To meet this target, the country must accelerate reforms in investment, job creation, trade competitiveness, and innovation while addressing income inequality and labor market challenges. Without significant reforms, India risks remaining in the upper-middle-income category, like Brazil, Mexico, and Turkey.

 

Which of the following statements regarding India’s growth trajectory, as per the World Bank report “Becoming a High-Income Economy in a Generation,” is/are correct?

  1. India’s Gross National Income (GNI) per capita must increase by nearly six times by 2047 to achieve high-income country (HIC) status.
  2. Among major economies, India had the fastest economic growth in the two decades before the pandemic.
  3. The “Accelerated Reforms” scenario predicts that India must sustain a GDP growth rate of at least 8% to reach HIC status by 2047.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 1 only
    d) None of the above

 Answer: c) 1 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: India’s GNI per capita must increase nearly 8 times (not six) from USD 2,540 (2023) to cross the USD 14,005 threshold for high-income status.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: India had the second-fastest economic growth before the pandemic, not the fastest. China had the highest growth rate.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The report states that 8% GDP growth is required, not at least 8%.

Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA)

  • The Supreme Court has criticized the functioning of the Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA), remarking that it has become a “rehabilitation centre for former bureaucrats.”
  • The statement reflects concerns over inefficiency, bureaucratic inertia, and lack of enforcement in ensuring transparency and protection for homebuyers.

 

About the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 (RERA)

  • Legislative Domain: While land and colonization fall under the State List (Entry 18 of List II, Schedule VII), real estate regulation was brought under the purview of the Union Parliament to ensure consumer protection and industry transparency.

 

Objective: RERA is a landmark reform in India’s real estate sector, aimed at eliminating project delays, financial mismanagement, and consumer exploitation.

 

Regulatory Mechanism: The Act established State Real Estate Regulatory Authorities (S-RERA) for overseeing registration, compliance, and dispute resolution.

 

Key Provisions of RERA

  1. Establishment of Regulatory Bodies

State Real Estate Regulatory Authority (S-RERA):

  • Mandated to register all real estate projects and maintain a public database for consumer transparency.
  • Ensures developers, homebuyers, and agents adhere to statutory norms.
  • Promotes sustainable and affordable housing by enforcing compliance.

Real Estate Appellate Tribunal:

  • Functions as an adjudicating authority for appeals against RERA decisions.
  • Ensures expeditious dispute resolution in the real estate sector.

 

  1. Financial Safeguards for Homebuyers

Escrow Account Provision:

  • Developers are required to deposit 70% of buyers’ payments in an escrow account, ensuring funds are used exclusively for project construction.

Advance Payment Restriction:

  • Builders cannot collect more than 10% of the total property cost as an advance payment without a legally binding written agreement.

 

  1. Protection Mechanisms for Homebuyers

Carpet Area-Based Pricing:

  • Property prices are determined only on the basis of the net usable floor area (carpet area), eliminating misleading pricing based on the super built-up area.

Mandatory Timely Completion of Projects:

  • Developers must adhere to project timelines, with penalties imposed for any unjustified delays.

Structural Defect Liability:

  • Builders are legally accountable for five years to fix any structural defects in the property post-handover.

 

  1. Penal Provisions & Legal Compliance

Equal Penal Interest:

  • Both developers and homebuyers are subject to equal penal interest for delays in payment or possession.

Stringent Penal Action:

  • Developers face up to 3 years imprisonment for violations.
  • Real estate agents and homebuyers may face up to 1 year imprisonment for non-compliance with tribunal rulings.

The regulation of land and colonization falls under the State List in the Indian Constitution. However, Parliament enacted the RERA Act, 2016. Under which of the following Constitutional provisions was the Act justified?

  1. Article 246 (Seventh Schedule): It allows Parliament to legislate on matters related to interstate trade and commerce that may affect real estate transactions.
  2. Article 254: Parliament can enact laws on a State subject if it believes uniformity is necessary for national economic growth and consumer protection.
  3. Entry 6 of the Union List: It provides Parliament with the authority to regulate “Industries declared by law to be under Union control.”
  4. Doctrine of Repugnancy: If a Central law conflicts with a State law, the Central law prevails under certain conditions.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

  1. a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 1, 2, and 4 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: b) 1, 2, and 4 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 246 and the Seventh Schedule allow Parliament to regulate commercial activities with inter-state implications, justifying RERA’s applicability.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Article 254(2) permits Parliament to legislate on a State subject for national uniformity in consumer protection.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Real estate is not an industry under Entry 6 of the Union List.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Doctrine of Repugnancy ensures that if a State law conflicts with a Central law, the Central law prevails.

Production Linked Incentive Scheme

  • The government has decided not to extend the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme beyond the existing 14 sectors due to underperformance in some areas and delays in incentive payouts.

 

Key Developments

  • Out of the $23 billion allocated, only $1.73 billion (8%) has been disbursed as of October 2024.
  • The scheme has generated $151.93 billion worth of goods—just 37% of the original target.
  • Major firms, including Foxconn, Reliance, and Adani, faced delays, unmet targets, or non-compliance.
  • The government has rejected requests to extend deadlines or include new sectors.
  • About the PLI Scheme
  • Launch: Introduced in 2020 under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry with an outlay of ₹1.97 lakh crore.
  • Sectors Covered: 14 sectors, including Mobile Manufacturing, Pharmaceuticals, Automotive, ACC Battery, Telecom, White Goods, and Solar.

 

 

Objectives:

  • Provide incentives on incremental sales for five years under the Make in India
  • Reduce dependence on foreign imports, particularly from China.
  • Boost employment, particularly in labor-intensive sectors.
  • Increase manufacturing’s share of GDP to 25% by 2025.

 

Incentive Mechanism:

  • 4–6% incentives on incremental sales over a base year.
  • Available to both domestic and foreign companies registered in India.

 

Benefits of the PLI Scheme

  • Electronics Manufacturing: India produced $49 billion worth of mobile phones in FY 2023–24; Apple now manufactures high-end models in India.
  • Pharmaceutical Industry: Exports nearly doubled to $27.85 billion compared to a decade ago.
  • FDI Inflows: Attracted foreign investments and supported India’s ‘China Plus One’ strategy.
  • Strategic Growth: Encouraged production in key sectors like semiconductors and solar modules.

 

Challenges and Concerns

  • Low Incentive Disbursement: Only 8% of allocated funds disbursed despite achieving production targets.
  • Delayed Subsidy Payments: Slow disbursement affects cash flow for participating firms.
  • Unmet Production Targets: Many companies failed to start or expand operations.
  • Bureaucratic Hurdles: Rigid compliance norms and administrative delays hinder implementation.
  • Manufacturing Growth Decline: Manufacturing’s share in GDP dropped from 15.4% (2020) to 14.3% (2024).

Consider the following statements regarding the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme:

  1. The scheme provides incentives based on absolute production rather than incremental sales.
  2. It was launched in 2020 to promote domestic manufacturing and reduce import dependency.
  3. The PLI scheme covers more than 20 sectors, including semiconductors and medical devices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

 

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme provides incentives on incremental sales, not absolute production. Companies must show an increase over the base year’s output to qualify for benefits.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme was launched in 2020 under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry to boost domestic manufacturing and reduce reliance on imports, particularly from China.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme covers 14 sectors, not more than 20. These include electronics, pharmaceuticals, automobiles, telecom, and solar modules, but not semiconductors (which fall under a separate incentive program).

What is Hawala?

  • The use of hawala networks has witnessed a significant rise in recent years, particularly in facilitating illicit activities such as poaching, money laundering, and terrorism financing.
  • Investigations have uncovered that illegal wildlife trafficking rings, especially those involved in tiger poaching in central India, are increasingly exploiting these informal financial systems to conduct their operations.

Understanding Hawala

  • Hawala is an unregulated, informal system of money transfer that enables transactions without the movement of physical cash.
  • It relies on a trust-based network of brokers known as hawaladars, who facilitate financial transfers through verbal or token-based agreements.
  • Despite lacking regulatory oversight, hawala remains widely used due to its speed, simplicity, and anonymity.

 

Mechanism of Hawala Transactions

  • A typical hawala transaction follows a structured but informal process:
  • Deposit & Token Generation: The sender deposits money with a hawaladar in one location.
  • Code Sharing: The sender receives a token, code, or reference, which is communicated to the recipient.
  • Collection of Funds: The recipient presents the token to a hawaladar in their location and collects the funds.
  • This system avoids conventional banking channels, making it attractive for users who seek discreet financial transactions.

 

Who Uses Hawala?

Hawala is utilized by both legitimate and illicit actors:

  • Migrant Workers: Often use hawala to send remittances due to its lower costs and efficiency compared to formal banking systems.
  • Undocumented Individuals: Those without access to official banking prefer hawala for financial transactions.
  • Organized Crime & Terrorist Networks: Drug traffickers, smugglers, and terrorist groups leverage hawala’s anonymity to move illicit funds.
  • Integration of Cryptocurrency into Hawala: With the evolution of financial technology, cryptocurrencies like USDT (Tether) have become an integral part of modern hawala networks.

 

Why USDT?

  • Stablecoin Advantage: Unlike volatile cryptocurrencies, USDT is pegged to the US dollar, making it a stable medium for illicit financial transfers.
  • Bypassing Banking Systems: Transactions occur without relying on traditional financial institutions, enabling cross-border money laundering.
  • Anonymity & Evasion of Scrutiny: Cryptocurrency transactions in crypto-friendly regions allow seamless transfers without regulatory oversight.
  • Legal and Regulatory Implications
  • Although hawala is not inherently illegal, it is increasingly associated with criminal activities, leading to global scrutiny and crackdowns:
  • Anti-Money Laundering (AML) Laws: Many countries have banned hawala transactions due to their role in money laundering and terrorism financing.
  • Regulatory Adaptation: Authorities are enhancing surveillance of cryptocurrency-based hawala transactions to curb illicit financial flows.
  • Continued Evolution: Despite legal restrictions, hawala networks persist, adapting to new technologies such as blockchain and decentralized finance (DeFi).

 

Conclusion

  • Hawala remains a double-edged financial system—serving both legitimate users and criminal enterprises.
  • The rise of cryptocurrency-based hawala transactions presents new challenges for law enforcement agencies.
  • Strengthening regulatory frameworks, increasing financial transparency, and leveraging technological solutions are crucial to mitigating the risks associated with hawala networks.

 

With reference to the “Hawala” system, consider the following statements:

  1. Hawala transactions require the physical movement of cash between different locations.
  2. It operates outside the formal banking system and is largely unregulated.
  3. The term “hawala” is derived from an Arabic word meaning “trust” or “transfer.”
  4. It is only used for illicit financial transactions and has no legitimate applications.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: In a hawala transaction, physical cash is not transferred—instead, funds are settled through informal networks of brokers.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Hawala operates outside the formal banking system, making it difficult for authorities to track.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The term “hawala” originates from Arabic, meaning “trust” or “transfer.”
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: While hawala is often misused for illegal activities, it is also widely used for legitimate purposes, such as migrant remittances.

What is Dx-EDGE Initiative?

Overview

  • India has launched the ‘Digital Excellence for Growth and Enterprise’ (Dx-EDGE) initiative to empower micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) with digital tools and skills. This initiative is a collaborative effort between the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), NITI Aayog, and the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE). It aims to enhance the competitiveness and resilience of MSMEs through

 

Objectives of Dx-EDGE

  • The initiative is designed to future-proof MSMEs by providing access to advanced technologies, digital skills, and innovation. It aligns with India’s vision of Viksit Bharat (Developed India) by ensuring widespread digital adoption across the sector.

 

Key Challenges Faced by MSMEs

  • Despite their critical role in India’s economy, MSMEs face several challenges, including:
  • Limited technology adoption affecting efficiency and productivity.
  • Lack of a skilled workforce to leverage digital tools.
  • Difficulties in obtaining quality certifications, impacting market access.
  • Addressing these challenges is essential for improving operational efficiency and global competitiveness.

 

Public-Private-Academia Partnership (PPAP)

  • Dx-EDGE adopts a Public-Private-Academia Partnership (PPAP) model, integrating expertise from private enterprises, government agencies, and academic institutions. This multi-stakeholder approach is crucial for driving MSMEs’ digital transformation.

 

Establishment of Digital Excellence Centres

  • A key component of Dx-EDGE is the creation of Digital Excellence Centres, which will:
  • Assist MSMEs in formulating digital transformation strategies.
  • Provide training and resources to ensure effective technology adoption.
  • Serve as innovation hubs to bridge knowledge gaps in digitalisation.

 

Role of Education and Skill Development

  • The initiative emphasises workforce upskilling to align with global manufacturing standards. This focus on education and skill development ensures that MSMEs can effectively integrate Industry 4.0 technologies.

 

Future Impact

  • Dx-EDGE is expected to:
  • Enhance MSME competitiveness in domestic and global markets.
  • Drive economic growth by boosting productivity and efficiency.
  • Strengthen India’s digital ecosystem, accelerating the transition to a digitally advanced economy.
  • By fostering digital excellence, this initiative positions India’s MSMEs as key drivers of economic resilience and technological innovation.

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Digital Excellence for Growth and Enterprise’ (Dx-EDGE) initiative:

  1. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of MSME, NITI Aayog, and the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
  2. The initiative focuses solely on providing financial assistance to MSMEs for digital adoption.
  3. Digital Excellence Centres established under Dx-EDGE will play a role in formulating digital transformation strategies for MSMEs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

 Answer: (c) 3 only

 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because the Dx-EDGE initiative is a collaboration between NITI Aayog, CII, and AICTE, not the Ministry of MSME.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect as Dx-EDGE focuses on digital capacity building, innovation, and skill development, rather than just financial assistance.
  • Statement 3 is correct as Digital Excellence Centres will guide MSMEs in identifying tailored digital transformation paths.

India becomes World’s 2nd-largest Exporter of Tea in 2024

 

Overview

  • According to the Indian Tea Board, India has emerged as the second-largest tea exporter globally, surpassing Sri Lanka and trailing only Kenya.

India’s Tea Exports (2024)

  • Total Exports: 255 million kg
  • Growth: Export value surged by 15%, from ₹6,161 crore in 2023 to ₹7,111 crore in 2024
  • Tea Varieties Exported:
  • Black Tea – Dominates exports (96%)
  • Other varieties include regular, green, herbal, masala, and lemon tea

 

Key Factors Driving Growth

  • Increased demand from West Asia, with Iraq now constituting 20% of India’s tea exports
  • Projected Imports by Iraq: Expected to reach 40-50 million kg in FY 2024-25
  • Expansion into over 25 markets, including UAE, Iraq, Iran, Russia, US, and UK
  • Branding efforts and improved tea workers’ welfare have strengthened India’s global position
  • Major Tea-Producing Regions
  • Assam: Assam Valley, Cachar
  • West Bengal: Dooars, Terai, Darjeeling
  • Other notable varieties: Assam, Darjeeling, and Nilgiri teas, recognized for their superior quality

Tea Board of India

  • Established: 1954 under the Tea Act, 1953
  • Purpose: Regulates the Indian tea industry and safeguards the interests of producers

 

Governing Body:

  • Comprises 32 members, including the Chairman and Deputy Chairman, appointed by the Government of India
  • Headquarters: Kolkata
  • Authority: Administers all tea-producing regions across India
  • India’s tea industry continues to flourish, bolstered by strategic market expansion, quality branding, and increased global demand

With reference to India’s tea exports, consider the following statements:

  1. India has overtaken both Sri Lanka and Kenya to become the largest tea exporter in the world.
  2. Iraq has emerged as a key importer of Indian tea, accounting for nearly 20% of India’s total tea exports.
  3. The majority of India’s tea exports comprise green tea due to rising global health consciousness.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: India is the second-largest tea exporter, having surpassed Sri Lanka but not Kenya, which remains the largest.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Iraq has become a major importer, accounting for 20% of India’s tea exports in 2024.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Black tea constitutes 96% of India’s exports, not green tea.

Implementation of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

  • Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
  • Launched: Kharif 2016 season
  • Voluntary: For States/UTs and farmers
  • Objective: Affordable, comprehensive, and technology-driven crop insurance

                       

 

Key Features

Affordable Premiums:

  • 2% for Kharif food & oilseed crops
  • 5% for Rabi food & oilseed crops
  • 5% for annual commercial & horticultural crops
  • Government subsidizes remaining premium

 

Comprehensive Coverage:

  • Covers natural disasters (droughts, floods), pest attacks, disease outbreaks
  • Covers post-harvest losses due to hailstorms, landslides

 

Timely Compensation:

  • Claims processed within two months of harvest

Technology-Driven Implementation:

  • Uses satellite imaging, drones, mobile apps for precise crop loss estimation

 

Post-Harvest Loss Coverage:

  • Covers losses for up to 14 days for crops stored in cut & spread condition

 

                       

 

Did You Know?

  • Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme (RWBCIS) was introduced alongside PMFBY

 

Key Difference:

  • PMFBY: Compensates based on actual crop losses
  • RWBCIS: Provides payouts based on predefined weather parameters (rainfall, temperature, humidity)

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):

  1. The scheme was launched in the Kharif 2016 season and is mandatory for all States and farmers.
  2. The government provides a subsidy on the premium amount to ensure affordability for farmers.
  3. PMFBY covers post-harvest losses for up to 30 days for crops stored in a “cut and spread” condition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: PMFBY was launched in Kharif 2016, but it is voluntary for both States/UTs and farmers since the 2020 revamp.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The government subsidizes the remaining premium after the farmers pay their share.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: PMFBY provides post-harvest loss coverage for up to 14 days, not 30 days. 

3rd Session of India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee held in New Delhi

  • The Third Session of the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee (JTC)was held in New Delhi on 25th-26th March 2025, marking a significant step in reinforcing trade relations between the two nations after a gap of 23 years.
  • Both sides conducted a comprehensive review of bilateral trade and acknowledged that the current trade volume does not fully reflect the economic potential of their partnership.
  • To address this, both countries committed to enhancing, deepening, and diversifying trade relations.
  • A key outcome of the discussions was the proposal to establish an India-Uganda Joint Business Forumto promote direct engagement between business leaders from both nations.

Key Areas of Cooperation

  • India and Uganda identified priority sectors to expand trade and investment, including:
  • Agriculture & Allied Sectors: Coffee, cocoa products, pulses, spices, dairy products, fruits, and vegetables.
  • Minerals & Resources: Rare Earth Elements (REE), mining, petrochemicals, and residual chemical products.
  • Manufacturing & Industrial Growth: Plastic raw materials, essential oils, and allied products.
  • Technology & Infrastructure: Digital infrastructure, banking, MSME growth, solar energy, rural electrification, and electric vehicles.
  • Healthcare & Pharmaceuticals: Strengthening cooperation in health services, traditional medicine, and telemedicine.
  • Both sides also agreed to explore and formalize Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs)in Public Works, Infrastructure Development, Agriculture, Traditional Medicine, and Standardization.
  • Additionally, discussions were held on recognizing the Indian Pharmacopoeiato facilitate pharmaceutical trade.

 

High-Level Participation

  • The Indian delegationwas led by Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce, Shri Ajay Bhadoo, who highlighted the strong economic partnership between the two nations and emphasized opportunities in e-commerce, pharmaceuticals, MSME cluster development, and renewable energy.
  • The Ugandan delegationwas headed by Elly Kamahungye Kafeero, Head of International Political Cooperation Department, Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Uganda, accompanied by Amb. Prof. Joyce Kikafunda Kakuramatsi, Uganda’s High Commissioner to India, and a 28-member delegation representing various ministries and Uganda’s Mission in India.
  • The discussions were conducted in a cordial and cooperative atmosphere, reflecting the strong and amicable relations between India and Uganda.

 

Industrial & Export Insights

  • As part of their visit, the Ugandan delegation toured the Noida SEZ (Special Economic Zone)to gain first-hand insights into India’s industrial and export ecosystem.
  • The deliberations at the 3rd Session of the India-Uganda JTCwere forward-looking, setting the stage for increased trade, investment, and mutual growth between the two nations.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee (JTC) meeting held in March 2025:

  1. The session was held in Kampala, Uganda, to mark the first bilateral trade summit after a gap of 23 years.
  2. A major outcome of the meeting was the proposal to establish an India-Uganda Joint Business Forum.
  3. Discussions included cooperation in agriculture, mining, pharmaceuticals, and digital infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The session was held in New Delhi, India, not Kampala. However, the discussions did include the proposal for an India-Uganda Joint Business Forum and identified key areas of cooperation such as agriculture, mining, pharmaceuticals, and digital infrastructure.

Free Movement Regime between India and Myanmar

Background

  • In 2024, the Union Home Minister announced the decision to abolish the Free Movement Regime (FMR) along the Myanmar border. However, no substantial progress has been made in implementing this decision.

Understanding the Free Movement Regime (FMR)

  • The Free Movement Regime (FMR) is a bilateral arrangement between India and Myanmar that permits border communities to cross into each other’s territory without a visa.
  • Established in 1968, FMR was introduced due to deep familial and ethnic ties shared by tribes living along the border.
  • Initially, the regime allowed movement up to 40 km inside the other country’s territory.
  • However, in 2004, this limit was reduced to 16 km, followed by additional regulatory measures introduced in 2016.

 

Rationale Behind Scrapping FMR

Internal Security Concerns

  • Myanmar’s ongoing instability, along with the presence of armed groups, has led to an increase in unauthorized migration, creating security challenges for India.

 

Drug Trafficking

  • Myanmar is part of the infamous Golden Triangle, one of the world’s major hubs for illicit drug production and smuggling. The porous border facilitates the influx of narcotics into India, exacerbating drug-related problems in the Northeast.

 

Insurgent Activities

  • Several insurgent groups operate from across the border in Myanmar, using dense forests as a safe haven. The existing FMR enables their movement and logistical support, posing a threat to India’s internal security.

 

Influx of Refugees

  • Escalating violence in Myanmar has led to an increased flow of refugees into India, particularly affecting Manipur and Mizoram. This has resulted in social, economic, and administrative challenges for Indian states.

China’s Expanding Influence

  • Following the 2021 military coup in Myanmar, the country has become increasingly dependent on China, which provides diplomatic and economic support. While Myanmar previously sought to diversify its international partnerships, its growing reliance on China raises strategic concerns for India.

 

India-Myanmar Relations: A Strategic Overview

 

Geographical Proximity

  • India and Myanmar share both a land and maritime boundary in the Bay of Bengal.
  • Four northeastern Indian states—Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram—share borders with Myanmar.

 

Historical and Cultural Linkages

  • India and Myanmar share centuries-old historical, religious, and cultural connections, with influences from Buddhism, Hinduism, and ancient trade routes shaping bilateral interactions.
  • India and Myanmar signed the Treaty of Friendship in 1951, laying the foundation for their diplomatic relations.

 

Geopolitical Significance

  • Myanmar’s strategic location makes it a vital bridge between South Asia and Southeast Asia.
  • India’s Act East Policy and Neighborhood First Policy emphasize strengthening ties with Myanmar to enhance regional connectivity and economic cooperation.

 

Economic and Trade Relations

  • Bilateral trade between India and Myanmar reached USD 1.50 billion in 2023-24.

 

Trade is conducted under:

  • ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA)
  • India’s Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) scheme

 

Security Cooperation

  • India and Myanmar collaborate on border security, counterinsurgency operations, and intelligence sharing.
  • Joint patrolling and military operations have been conducted to counter insurgent groups operating across the border.

 

Connectivity and Infrastructure Initiatives

  • India is actively involved in major connectivity projects to enhance trade and infrastructure development:
  • Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project (KMMTTP) – A key initiative to improve connectivity between India’s northeastern states and Myanmar via maritime and land routes.
  • India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway – A crucial project aimed at bolstering economic integration between the three countries.
  • Sittwe Port in Myanmar’s Rakhine State – A strategically significant port under KMMTTP, providing India an alternative trade route bypassing the congested Siliguri Corridor.

Developmental Assistance

  • India has extended assistance in multiple sectors, including healthcare, education, skill development, and infrastructure.
  • India and Myanmar collaborate under multilateral frameworks such as BIMSTEC and Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC).

 

Way Forward

Regulated Border Management

  • India must develop a structured mechanism to monitor cross-border movement while balancing security and humanitarian considerations.
  • Deploying advanced surveillance technologies and strengthening border infrastructure will be crucial.

 

Public Awareness and Stakeholder Consultation

  • It is imperative for the Indian government to educate local communities and stakeholders about the implications of FMR and its potential removal.
  • Consultation with northeastern state governments and indigenous communities will help in formulating an inclusive border policy.

 

Sustainable Refugee Policy

  • India needs a well-defined refugee policy to manage the influx of displaced individuals from Myanmar while ensuring national security.
  • International collaboration with organizations like UNHCR can aid in managing refugee challenges.

 

Strategic Engagement with Myanmar

  • India must continue engaging diplomatically with Myanmar’s ruling establishment to safeguard strategic and economic interests.
  • Diversifying Myanmar’s external partnerships beyond China will be essential for regional stability.

 

Enhanced Economic and Security Cooperation

  • Expanding bilateral trade and connectivity projects will strengthen India’s position in Myanmar.
  • Joint counter-insurgency operations and intelligence sharing should be intensified to tackle security threats.

 

Conclusion

  • Given the uncertain political landscape in Myanmar, India must adopt a balanced approach—tightening border security while maintaining people-to-people ties.
  • The government should take local communities into confidence, formulate a phased strategy for managing border movement, and enhance cooperation with Myanmar to protect national and regional interests.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Myanmar border and security cooperation:

  1. India and Myanmar have conducted joint military operations to target insurgent groups operating along the border.
  2. The Indo-Myanmar Border Agreement allows the Indian military to cross into Myanmar’s territory in pursuit of insurgents without prior permission.
  3. Myanmar is part of both the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct : India and Myanmar have conducted joint military operations such as Operation Sunrise (2019) to neutralize insurgent camps along the border.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect : While India has conducted “hot pursuit” strikes against insurgents inside Myanmar (e.g., 2015 strike against NSCN-K militants), such actions require bilateral cooperation and prior coordination, as Myanmar does not permit unilateral military action.
  • Statement 3 is correct : Myanmar is a member of both BIMSTEC and ASEAN, playing a strategic role in regional cooperation.

 

 

PM’s Visit to Mauritius

  • The Prime Minister of India recently paid a state visit to Mauritius, marking his second visit since 2015. He was the Chief Guest at Mauritius’ National Day Celebrations on March 12.

 

Key Highlights of the Visit

  • Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs): Agreements signed in areas such as civil service training, support for small and medium enterprises (SMEs), blue economy development, combating financial crimes, and local currency settlement for trade.
  • INR-Based Credit Line:India extended an INR 487.6 crore line of credit for replacing water pipelines in Mauritius, the first-ever INR-denominated credit line.
  • White-Shipping Agreement:A maritime security agreement facilitating information exchange between India and Mauritius.
  • Award Conferred:The PM received the Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean, becoming the first Indian recipient of this prestigious award.
  • Vision MAHASAGAR:The PM introduced the Mutual And Holistic Advancement for Security And Growth Across Regions (MAHASAGAR) vision, expanding upon the existing Vision SAGAR framework.

 

 

About Mauritius

Location: A strategically positioned island nation in the western Indian Ocean near India.

Population: Approximately 1.2 million people, with 70% of Indian origin, strengthening historical and cultural ties.

Colonial History: Initially a French colony, later becoming a British possession before gaining independence.

National Day: Celebrated on March 12, coinciding with Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March anniversary.

 

India-Mauritius Bilateral Relations

  • Diplomatic and Economic Ties
  • Established Relations: India and Mauritius established diplomatic ties in 1948 and have since become key partners in the Asian and Indian Ocean regions.

 

Bilateral Trade (2022-2023):

  • Indian Exports to Mauritius: USD 462.69 million
  • Mauritian Exports to India: USD 91.50 million
  • Total Trade Volume: USD 554.19 million
  • Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA): Signed in 1982 to prevent double taxation for investors and businesses.
  • Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA): India’s first trade agreement with an African nation, signed in 2021, promoting trade and investment.
  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): Mauritius is the second-largest source of FDI into India for FY 2023-24, following Singapore.

 

Defence and Strategic Cooperation

Preferred Defence Partner: India supports Mauritius in acquiring defence platforms, capacity building, and conducting joint patrols in the Indian Ocean.

 

Key Defence Agreements:

First Agreement: Transfer of a Dornier aircraft and Advanced Light Helicopter (Dhruv) on lease.

Second Agreement: A USD 100 million Line of Credit (LoC) for defence procurement.

Space Cooperation: An MoU signed in November 2023 for the development of a joint satellite, fostering collaboration in space research.

 

Historical Indian Migration to Mauritius

French Rule (1700s): Indians from Puducherry arrived as artisans and masons.

British Rule (1834–Early 1900s): Around half a million Indian indentured laborers were brought to Mauritius, many of whom settled permanently, shaping its culture and demographics.

 

Development Assistance

  • Infrastructure Projects: India has supported Mauritius in developing the Metro Express project, hospitals, and Agaléga Island infrastructure.
  • Humanitarian Aid: India extended cyclone relief assistance during Cyclone Chido (2023), reinforcing its role as a first responder in the region.

 

Strategic Significance of Mauritius for India

Maritime and Geopolitical Interests

Strategic Location: Mauritius’ position in the Indian Ocean is vital for India’s maritime security and trade routes.

Agaléga Island: Situated 1,100 km north of Mauritius, the island is strategically important for India’s naval operations.

In 2024, India and Mauritius jointly inaugurated an airstrip and jetty projects to strengthen bilateral cooperation.

Countering China’s Influence: Strengthening ties with Mauritius is crucial for India to counter China’s expanding footprint in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

Geopolitical Competition: The Indian Ocean is witnessing increasing competition from China, Europe, the Gulf nations, Russia, Iran, and Turkey.

Economic and Cultural Importance: Cultural and Diaspora Ties: With 70% of the Mauritian population tracing Indian ancestry, strong cultural and familial bonds exist between both nations.

Blue Economy Partnership: Mauritius plays a critical role in India’s blue economy initiatives, particularly in fisheries, maritime resources, and offshore energy exploration.

Indian Ocean Cooperation: Mauritius is an active member of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), promoting regional stability and economic integration.

 

Challenges in India-Mauritius Relations 

Economic and Trade Concerns

Tax Treaty Misuse: The DTAA between India and Mauritius has faced criticism for facilitating money laundering and round-tripping of funds.

Trade Imbalance: Despite strong economic ties, Mauritius has significant trade deficits with India, necessitating trade diversification.

 

Security and Strategic Challenges

Maritime Security: As a key player in the Indo-Pacific strategy, Mauritius’ security concerns align with India’s, yet evolving regional dynamics present new challenges.

 

Growing Chinese Influence:

  • In 2021, China signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with Mauritius, helping China expand its Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) in Africa.
  • This could erode India’s strategic influence in Mauritius.

 

Way Forward

  • Enhanced Defence Cooperation: Strengthening joint training, counterterrorism initiatives, and maritime security collaborations to safeguard regional stability.
  • Economic Diversification: Expanding trade relations beyond traditional areas and exploring emerging sectors for bilateral growth.
  • People-to-People Ties: Promoting cultural exchanges, educational scholarships, and diaspora engagement to reinforce deep-rooted historical bonds.
  • Sustainable Blue Economy Partnership: Leveraging Mauritius’ expertise in ocean resources management to drive mutual economic growth.

 

India and Mauritius share a unique, time-tested partnership, and their evolving cooperation will play a crucial role in shaping regional security, economic integration, and strategic alliances in the Indian Ocean region.

Consider the following statements regarding India-Mauritius relations:

  1. Mauritius is the largest source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India.
  2. India and Mauritius have signed a Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA), which is India’s first trade agreement with an African nation.
  3. India has leased the Agaléga Islands from Mauritius for setting up a strategic naval base.
  4. The White-Shipping Agreement between India and Mauritius facilitates free trade between the two nations without tariff barriers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (c) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – While Mauritius has historically been a major source of FDI into India, Singapore overtook Mauritius as the largest FDI contributor in recent years (FY 2023-24). Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
  • Statement 2 is correct – India and Mauritius signed CECPA in 2021, which is indeed India’s first-ever trade agreement with an African nation. This statement is correct.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect – India has not leased the Agaléga Islands, but developed infrastructure projects there, including an airstrip and a jetty, to enhance maritime security. There is no official declaration of a naval base. This statement is incorrect.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect – The White-Shipping Agreement is not about free trade. It is a technical agreement that allows exchange of maritime security data between India and Mauritius to monitor ship movements and counter threats like piracy and smuggling. This statement is incorrect.Thus, only statement 2 is correct, making (c) 2 only the right answer.

PM Modi Receives Mauritius’ Highest Honour

    • Prime Minister Narendra Modihas been awarded the Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean by Mauritius.
    • This prestigious recognition is the highest civilian honour bestowed by the island nation.
    • Modi is the first Indian to receive this honour, reflecting the deep-rooted historical and diplomatic ties between India and Mauritius.

     

    Significance of the Honour

    • The Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Oceanis the most distinguished civilian award in Mauritius.
    • Since Mauritius became a Republic, this honour has been conferred upon only five foreign dignitaries, including Nelson Mandela.
    • The award symbolizes mutual respect, cooperation, and the strong diplomatic relationshipbetween India and Mauritius.

     

    Modi’s Growing List of International Honours

    This accolade from Mauritius marks Modi’s 21st international award, adding to a series of global recognitions for his leadership and diplomatic initiatives. Some of the notable awards he has received include:

    • Order of Abdulaziz Al Saud(Saudi Arabia, 2016)
    • State Order of Ghazi Amir Amanullah Khan(Afghanistan, 2016)
    • Grand Collar of the State of Palestine(Palestine, 2018)
    • Order of Zayed(UAE, 2019)
    • Order of St. Andrew(Russia, 2019)
    • Order of the Nile(Egypt, 2023)
    • Order of the Druk Gyalpo(Bhutan, 2024)
    • Dominica Award of Honour(Dominica, 2024)

     

    India-Mauritius Relations: A Historical Perspective

    • The ties between India and Mauritiusdate back to the 19th century, when Indian indentured labourers were brought to Mauritius. Over time, these historical connections have evolved into a robust economic, cultural, and strategic partnership.
    • India is one of Mauritius’ largest trading partners.
    • Both countries collaborate extensivelyin fields such as education, healthcare, infrastructure, and security.
    • Mauritius is a key player in India’s diplomatic outreachin the Indian Ocean region, with both nations working closely on maritime security and regional stability.

     

    Conclusion

    • The Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Oceanis a testament to India-Mauritius friendship and underscores Modi’s global leadership. This honour further strengthens bilateral ties and reaffirms India’s role as a key partner in Mauritius’ development.

Which of the following statements about the “Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean” is correct?

(a) It is the highest military honour awarded by Mauritius.
(b) It has been awarded to more than 100 foreign dignitaries since Mauritius became a Republic.
(c) Narendra Modi is the first Indian recipient of this honour.
(d) It is an annual award given to prominent global leaders.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  • The Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Oceanis Mauritius’ highest civilian honour, not a military one. It has been conferred upon only five foreign dignitaries, including Nelson Mandela, since Mauritius became a Republic.
  • Modi is the first Indian to receive this honour.
  • The award is not an annual event but is given selectively to leaders who have significantly contributed to Mauritius’ growth and bilateral  .

 

 

 

 

SpaceX’s Fram2 Mission

Syllabus: Defence

  • SpaceX is preparing to launch the Fram2 mission, which will mark a groundbreaking journey over Earth’s polar regions.
  • This mission, scheduled to conduct several innovative scientific experiments, could pave the way for future space missions, including those to Mars.

Mission Overview:

  • The Fram2 mission is named after a historic Norwegian ship that embarked on Arctic and Antarctic expeditions during the 19th century.
  • The mission will carry four astronauts aboard the SpaceX Crew Dragon capsule, launching atop a Falcon 9 rocket from NASA’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida.

 

Mission Goals:

  • Fram2 will achieve a unique 90-degree circular orbit, which is much steeper than the typical 6-degree orbit used for previous human space missions.

 

Scientific Objectives:

  • X-ray Imaging in Space: The mission will capture the first-ever X-ray images of astronauts in space to study the effects of prolonged spaceflight on the human body.
  • Mushroom Cultivation in Microgravity: The mission will explore growing mushrooms in space as a potential sustainable food source for long-duration space missions, including those destined for Mars.
  • Space Phenomena Exploration: The team will investigate Strong Thermal Emission Velocity Enhancements (STEVE), a mysterious atmospheric light phenomenon seen above Earth’s polar regions.

Public Engagement:

  • SpaceX is encouraging public participation through the Fram2Ham Competition, where amateur radio operators can decode images transmitted from space.
  • This interactive approach offers a unique way for the public to engage with the mission and its scientific discoveries.

 

Historical Significance:

  • Unlike past missions, including the iconic Apollo missions, which did not fly over Earth’s polar regions, Fram2 will provide astronauts with an unprecedented view of Earth’s poles from space, contributing new insights to space exploration.

SpaceX’s Mission Legacy:

  • SpaceX has a history of successful private astronaut missions. To date, it has conducted five missions, including three collaborations with Axiom Space to the International Space Station.
  • Additionally, SpaceX conducted two free-flying missions in Earth orbit: Inspiration4 (2021) and Polaris Dawn.
  • The Fram2 mission will continue SpaceX’s legacy of advancing human spaceflight and space exploration.

With reference to SpaceX’s Fram2 mission, consider the following statements:

  1. The Fram2 mission will conduct scientific experiments aimed at preparing for future human space missions, including those to Mars.
  2. The mission will take astronauts on a 90-degree orbit over Earth’s polar regions, providing an unprecedented perspective of the poles.
  3. One of the key experiments of the mission involves growing mushrooms in space as a potential sustainable food source for long-duration space missions.
  4. The primary public engagement initiative associated with the mission is the Fram2Space Competition, where participants can decode signals transmitted from space.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Fram2 mission focuses on conducting experiments to further humanity’s understanding of space and to prepare for long-duration missions, such as those to Mars.

Statement 2 is correct: The Fram2 mission will take astronauts on a 90-degree orbit over Earth’s polar regions, which is a deviation from the traditional 51.6-degree orbit used in previous crewed missions.

Statement 3 is correct: A key experiment in the Fram2 mission is the cultivation of mushrooms in space, which could become a potential sustainable food source for long-duration space missions, including those heading to Mars.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The public engagement initiative is the Fram2Ham Competition, not the Fram2Space Competition. In this competition, amateur radio operators will decode images transmitted from space, not signals

“Levels and Trends in Child Mortality” Report

Syllabus: Reports

  • The “Levels and Trends in Child Mortality” report, recently released by the United Nations Inter-agency Group for Child Mortality Estimation (UNIGME), highlights the progress in reducing child mortality globally.
  • UNIGME, led by UNICEF, WHO, the World Bank, and the UN Population Division, publishes this report annually using data from 195 countries. 

India’s Key Achievements in Mortality Reduction

  • India has made remarkable strides in reducing child mortality.
  • The country has witnessed a 70% decline in under-five mortality and a 61% reduction in neonatal mortality, positioning India among the global leaders in this area.
  • The decline in stillbirths is equally significant, with a 60.4% decrease, compared to the global average reduction of 37%.
  • India ranks seventh worldwide in terms of the reduction in stillbirths.

Health Infrastructure Improvements

  • The decline in child mortality is largely attributed to improvements in healthcare infrastructure and services.
  • Initiatives like the establishment of maternity waiting homes and newborn care units have significantly improved healthcare access for mothers and infants.
  • Additionally, the government has focused on training skilled birth attendants, including midwives and community health workers, ensuring better care during childbirth.

 

Role of the Ayushman Bharat Scheme

  • The Ayushman Bharat scheme, the world’s largest health insurance program, has played a crucial role in these achievements.
  • Providing nearly US$5500 annual coverage per family, it ensures free deliveries, medications, and diagnostic services for pregnant women and infants, easing financial barriers to healthcare access.

 

Advances in Data Systems and Surveillance

  • India has also enhanced its data systems and digital surveillance to monitor maternal and child health indicators.
  • These improvements in data collection support evidence-based policymaking, helping to identify critical areas for intervention and resource allocation.

Global Context and Ongoing Challenges

  • Despite significant progress, challenges persist.
  • In 2023, an estimated 4.8 million children died before reaching the age of five, with 2.3 million of these deaths occurring among newborns.
  • Many of these deaths are preventable and are linked to unequal access to healthcare, with factors like socio-economic status and living conditions continuing to impact children’s survival rates globally.

With reference to the “Levels and Trends in Child Mortality” report released by the United Nations Inter-agency Group for Child Mortality Estimation (UNIGME), consider the following statements:

  1. India ranks seventh worldwide in terms of the reduction of stillbirths, achieving a 60.4% decrease, which is higher than the global average reduction of 37%.
  2. India has seen a 70% decline in under-five mortality and a 61% reduction in neonatal mortality, placing it among the global leaders in child mortality reduction.
  3. The Ayushman Bharat scheme provides health insurance coverage of US$5500 annually per family, covering all types of healthcare services for pregnant women and infants, irrespective of their socio-economic background.
  4. The reduction in child mortality globally is attributed primarily to improvements in child vaccination coverage and water sanitation initiatives, with healthcare access playing a relatively smaller role.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 only

 

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India ranks seventh in the world for reducing stillbirths, with a significant 60.4% decrease, compared to the global average reduction of 37%. This reflects India’s robust healthcare initiatives targeting maternal and infant health.

Statement 2 is correct: India has seen a 70% decline in under-five mortality and a 61% reduction in neonatal mortality, placing it among the global leaders in reducing child mortality. These figures highlight India’s notable progress in improving child survival rates.

Statement 3 is correct: The Ayushman Bharat scheme offers health insurance coverage of US$5500 annually per family. This scheme ensures free deliveries, medications, and diagnostic services for pregnant women and infants, significantly removing financial barriers to healthcare access for low-income families.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While child vaccination and water sanitation are essential, the primary contributor to the reduction in child mortality has been improvements in healthcare access, particularly skilled birth attendants, maternity waiting homes, and newborn care units. These improvements have ensured better care during childbirth and the immediate postnatal period, contributing significantly to the reduction in mortality.

NSO Releases Energy Statistics India 2025

Syllabus: Reports

  • The National Statistics Office (NSO) of India has released the annual report titled Energy Statistics India 2025, providing crucial data on energy reserves, production, consumption, trade, and capacity.
  • This comprehensive publication covers various energy sources such as coal, petroleum, natural gas, and renewable energy, and is accessible on the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s official website.

Key Highlights of Energy Statistics India 2025:

Energy Supply and Consumption

  • In the fiscal year 2023-24, India witnessed significant growth in energy supply and consumption:
  • Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) grew by 8%, reaching 9,03,158 KToE (Kilo Tonnes of Oil Equivalent), marking a notable increase compared to the previous year.

Renewable Energy Potential

  • India holds substantial potential for renewable energy generation, which was estimated at 21,09,655 Megawatts as of March 31, 2024:
  • Wind power leads this potential, contributing 11,63,856 Megawatts (approximately 55% of the total).
  • Solar energy contributes 7,48,990 Megawatts, and large hydro adds 1,33,410 Megawatts.
  • The majority of this renewable energy potential is concentrated in Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Karnataka.

Installed Capacity

  • The installed capacity for renewable energy generation has experienced impressive growth:
  • From 81,593 Megawatts in March 2015, the installed capacity has surged to 1,98,213 Megawatts by March 2024, reflecting a Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 36%.

 

Electricity Generation Trends

Electricity generation from renewable sources has also risen significantly:

  • In FY 2014-15, gross generation stood at 2,05,608 GWh, and by FY 2023-24, this increased to 3,70,320 GWh, reflecting a CAGR of 6.76%. This shift highlights India’s increasing reliance on cleaner energy sources.

Per-Capita Energy Consumption

  • India’s per-capita energy consumption has shown steady improvement:
  • From 14,682 Mega Joules per person in FY 2014-15, it increased to 18,410 Mega Joules per person in FY 2023-24, marking a CAGR of 2.55%. This growth indicates better access to energy across the population.

Reduction in Transmission and Distribution Losses

  • India has made progress in reducing electricity transmission and distribution losses:
  • Losses have decreased from around 23% in FY 2014-15 to about 17% in FY 2023-24, indicating improvements in infrastructure and efficiency.

Sectoral Energy Consumption

The industrial sector has seen the most significant increase in energy consumption:

  • It grew from 2,42,418 KToE in FY 2014-15 to 3,11,822 KToE in FY 2023-24. Other sectors, including commercial, residential, and agriculture, have also experienced steady growth in energy consumption.
  • This report showcases India’s strides in enhancing energy efficiency, expanding renewable energy capacity, and improving access to energy for its population.

With reference to the Energy Statistics India 2025 report, consider the following statements:

  1. The total primary energy supply (TPES) in India for the fiscal year 2023-24 increased by 7.8%, reaching 9,03,158 KToE.
  2. India’s total renewable energy potential is estimated at 21,09,655 Megawatts as of March 31, 2024, with wind power contributing 55% of this potential.
  3. India’s installed renewable energy capacity grew from 81,593 Megawatts in March 2015 to 1,98,213 Megawatts by March 2024, representing a Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 15.36%.
  4. The industrial sector has shown the highest increase in energy consumption, growing from 2,42,418 KToE in FY 2014-15 to 3,11,822 KToE in FY 2023-24.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: According to the report, India’s Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) grew by 7.8% in the fiscal year 2023-24, reaching a total of 9,03,158 KToE, marking a notable increase compared to the previous year.

Statement 2 is correct: The total renewable energy potential of India as of March 31, 2024, is 21,09,655 Megawatts, with wind power contributing 55% of this total potential.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While India’s renewable energy installed capacity has grown significantly, from 81,593 Megawatts in March 2015 to 1,98,213 Megawatts in March 2024, the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) is 10.36%, not 15.36%.

Statement 4 is correct: The industrial sector has indeed seen the highest increase in energy consumption, growing from 2,42,418 KToE in FY 2014-15 to 3,11,822 KToE in FY 2023-24, showing steady and significant growth.

UNESCO Releases “Education and Nutrition – Learn to Eat Well” Report

Syllabus: Reports

  • During the ‘Nutrition for Growth’ event held by France on March 27-28, 2025, UNESCO released a new report titled “Education and Nutrition: Learn to Eat Well”, urging governments worldwide to improve the nutritional quality of school meals.
  • The report highlights the growing concern that, while nearly half of primary school pupils receive meals, these meals often lack essential nutritional value.
  • The report emphasizes the need for balanced meals and comprehensive food education to support both the health and academic performance of children.

 

 

Current Global Context

  • As of 2024, approximately 47% of primary school students globally receive school meals.
  • However, UNESCO points out that the nutritional quality of these meals is often insufficient. Improving meal quality, the report argues, is crucial for reducing child undernourishment and improving academic outcomes. Studies show that providing nutritious meals can positively impact school enrolment and attendance rates.

Key Findings from the UNESCO Report

The report presents several key findings, including:

  • In 2022, 27% of school meals were not designed with input from nutrition experts.
  • Only 93 out of 187 evaluated countries had any form of legislation related to school food.
  • Just 65% of these countries had regulations in place regarding food sold in school cafeterias and vending machines.

 

Health Implications

  • The lack of proper regulation is concerning, especially given the rise in childhood obesity rates, which have more than doubled since 1990. At the same time, food insecurity continues to be a major issue. UNESCO stresses the importance of schools promoting healthy eating habits rather than contributing to unhealthy diets. This includes focusing on fresh, locally sourced food options rather than processed foods.

 

Successful Initiatives Worldwide

  • The report highlights several successful initiatives aimed at improving the quality of school meals globally:
  • Brazil’s national school feeding programme has successfully limited the use of ultra-processed foods.
  • In China, the introduction of dairy and vegetables has led to significant improvements in nutrient intake, particularly in rural schools.
  • Nigeria’s Home-Grown School Feeding Programme has boosted primary school enrolment by 20%.
  • India’s introduction of fortified organic pearl millet in Maharashtra has contributed to improved cognitive functions in adolescents.

 

Recommendations and Future Actions

  • UNESCO calls on governments and education stakeholders to prioritize fresh produce in school meals and reduce the consumption of sugary and ultra-processed foods.
  • The report also advocates for the inclusion of food education within school curricula to help children make better food choices.
  • Moving forward, UNESCO plans to develop practical tools and training programs to assist governments in effectively integrating nutrition into education systems.

Consider the following statements with respect to UNESCO’s report titled “Education and Nutrition: Learn to Eat Well” released during the ‘Nutrition for Growth’ event in March 2025:

  1. The report emphasizes the importance of improving the nutritional quality of school meals to support both the health and academic performance of children.
  2. Only 27% of school meals globally were designed with input from nutrition experts in 2022.
  3. UNESCO advocates for the reduction of food education within school curricula, emphasizing healthier eating habits through school meals alone.
  4. Countries like Brazil, China, Nigeria, and India have implemented successful initiatives that focus on improving school meal nutrition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The report urges governments to improve the nutritional quality of school meals, highlighting that providing nutritious meals can positively impact children’s health and academic performance.

Statement 2 is correct: According to the UNESCO report, in 2022, only 27% of school meals were designed with input from nutrition experts. This indicates a significant gap in ensuring the nutritional value of school meals globally.

Statement 3 is incorrect: UNESCO advocates for the inclusion of food education within school curricula, not the reduction of it. The report stresses the need for comprehensive food education to help children make better food choices, along with improved quality of school meals.

Statement 4 is correct: The report highlights successful initiatives from countries like Brazil, China, Nigeria, and India, which have effectively improved school meal nutrition and contributed to better health and academic outcomes for children. These include Brazil’s national school feeding program, China’s nutrient improvements in rural schools, Nigeria’s Home-Grown School Feeding Programme, and India’s initiative with fortified pearl millet.

Startup Mahakumbh 2025

  • Scheduled for April 3-5, 2025, at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi, Startup Mahakumbh 2025 is a groundbreaking initiative by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA), designed to empower Scheduled Tribe (ST)
  • The event provides a dynamic platform for tribal innovators to showcase their businesses and connect with industry leaders, investors, and mentors.
  • It coincides with Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, celebrating the 150th birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, a revered tribal leader.

 

Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025

  • As a flagship initiative under MoTA, Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 highlights the significance of tribal entrepreneurship.
  • It encourages inclusive economic growth and fosters self-reliance among tribal communities.
  • The event will feature over 45 startups founded by ST entrepreneurs, with support from esteemed institutions such as IIM Calcutta and IIT Bhilai.
  • These startups are expected to play a crucial role in enhancing the economic and social status of tribal communities.

 

Key Objectives of Startup Mahakumbh 2025

  • Promote Tribal Entrepreneurship and Innovation: Provide ST entrepreneurs with the opportunity to present their innovations to venture capitalists and investors.
  • Facilitate Networking and Mentorship: Create a collaborative environment to help tribal entrepreneurs connect with industry experts, investors, and mentors.
  • Support Atma Nirbhar Bharat: Align with the government’s vision of promoting self-reliance and sustainable economic growth within tribal communities.

 

Strategic Partnerships and Funding

  • MoTA has established strategic partnerships with leading institutions like IIM Calcutta and IIT Delhi, creating a strong ecosystem for tribal entrepreneurs.
  • The government has also set up a Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes, with an initial corpus of ₹50 crore. This fund will specifically support innovation and entrepreneurship among tribal communities.

 

Commitment to Inclusive Growth

  • The initiative underscores the government’s commitment to inclusive growth.
  • Tribal entrepreneurs are key to preserving cultural heritage and contributing to the broader economy.
  • Through this event, MoTA aims to elevate tribal startups to national and global platforms, fostering economic empowerment for tribal communities across India.

With reference to Startup Mahakumbh 2025 and Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. Startup Mahakumbh 2025 is a Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) initiative designed to empower tribal entrepreneurs by providing a platform for networking with industry leaders, investors, and mentors.
  2. Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 is specifically aimed at showcasing startups founded by Scheduled Tribe (ST) entrepreneurs, with the event receiving support from institutions like IIM Calcutta and IIT Bhilai.
  3. The Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes, with an initial corpus of ₹50 crore, is intended to support all types of entrepreneurship, regardless of whether the entrepreneur is from a tribal community.
  4. The event is coinciding with the Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, which marks the 150th birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, emphasizing the cultural and historical significance of the event.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Startup Mahakumbh 2025 is indeed a Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) initiative designed to empower Scheduled Tribe (ST) entrepreneurs by providing them with a platform to network with industry leaders, investors, and mentors. This aligns with the broader goal of promoting tribal entrepreneurship.

Statement 2 is correct: Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 is specifically focused on showcasing startups founded by Scheduled Tribe (ST) entrepreneurs, and it is supported by prestigious institutions such as IIM Calcutta and IIT Bhilai. This ensures strong backing for tribal innovators and their entrepreneurial endeavors.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes is specifically meant to support innovation and entrepreneurship among tribal communities. It is not a general fund for all types of entrepreneurship, but rather one that aims to empower tribal entrepreneurs specifically, as part of the initiative to boost economic self-reliance.

Statement 4 is correct: The Startup Mahakumbh 2025 event coincides with Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, which marks the 150th birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, a prominent tribal leader. The celebration of his birth anniversary ties the event to both cultural and historical significance.

International Women’s Day

Syllabus: GS1/Society

About International Women’s Day (IWD):

  • Celebrated annually on March 8 to honor women’s contributions and advocate for gender equality.

 

Historical Background:

  • Declared as International Women’s Day by Vladimir Lenin in 1922 to recognize women’s role in the 1917 Russian Revolution.
  • Officially recognized by the United Nations in 1977.

 

Themes for 2025:

  • United Nations (UN) Theme: “For All Women and Girls: Rights. Equality. Empowerment.”
  • Official IWD Theme: “Accelerate Action.”

 

2025 Significance:

  • Marks 30 years since the adoption of the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action, a global framework for advancing women’s rights.

 

Legal Framework for Women Empowerment in India:

Constitutional Provisions:

Article 14: Ensures equality before the law.

Article 15: Prohibits discrimination based on sex.

Article 51A(e): Encourages citizens to renounce practices that violate women’s dignity.

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

Article 39: Advocates equal livelihood opportunities and equal pay.

Article 42: Ensures maternity relief.

 

Challenges Faced by Women in India:

  • Gender Discrimination: Social and cultural biases limiting opportunities.
  • Limited Access to Education: Especially in rural areas, restricting future prospects.
  • Economic Inequality: Wage disparity, job limitations, and financial dependence.
  • Safety Concerns: High rates of gender-based violence, harassment, and trafficking.
  • Health & Reproductive Rights: Limited access to quality healthcare and maternal services.
  • Child Marriage: Affects health, education, and independence.
  • Political Underrepresentation: Low participation in decision-making roles.
  • Social Norms & Expectations: Rigid gender roles restricting freedom.
  • Workplace Harassment: Insufficient protective measures.

 

India’s Commitment to International Women’s Rights:

  • India is a signatory to key global treaties and agreements, including:
  • Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)
  • International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR, 1966)
  • Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW, 1979)
  • Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action (1995)
  • United Nations Convention Against Corruption (2003)
  • Agenda 2030 for Sustainable Development

 

Key Achievements in Women Empowerment in India:

  • Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023: Reserves one-third of seats for women in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and Delhi Assembly.
  • National Sex Ratio: Improved to 1020 females per 1000 males (NFHS-5).
  • Maternity Leave: Extended to 26 weeks.
  • Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana:2 crore accounts opened.
  • PM Awas Yojana Gramin: 72% of houses are owned by women.
  • Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR): Reduced to 97 per lakh live births (2018-20) from 130 per lakh (2014-16).
  • Abolition of Triple Talaq: Strengthening legal rights for Muslim women.
  • Women in Armed Forces:
  • Permanent commission granted in 12 Arms and Services.
  • Agniveer recruitment for women in all three defense services.
  • Women in STEM: 43% of STEM graduates in India are women—the highest in the world.

 

Government Initiatives for Women Empowerment:

  • Mission Shakti (2021-2025): Focuses on women’s welfare, safety, and empowerment.
  • Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao: Aims to improve female child survival and education.
  • Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana: Encourages savings for girl children.
  • Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram: Ensures free maternity healthcare.
  • PM Matru Vandana Yojana: Provides financial support for pregnant women.
  • Mission Saksham Anganwadi & Poshan 2.0: Focuses on improving women’s health through better nutrition.
  • WISE-KIRAN (Women in Science & Engineering): Supported 1,962 women scientists (2018-2023).
  • Nari Shakti Puraskar: Recognizes outstanding contributions of women.
  • Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017: Extends paid maternity leave to 26 weeks.

This comprehensive framework ensures a holistic approach to gender equality and women’s empowerment in India.

Consider the following statements regarding International Women’s Day (IWD):

  1. It was first declared as International Women’s Day by the United Nations in 1922.
  2. The year 2025 marks 30 years since the adoption of the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action.
  3. The official United Nations (UN) theme for IWD 2025 is “Accelerate Action.”

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation: Vladimir Lenin, not the UN, declared March 8 as International Women’s Day in 1922.The UN theme for IWD 2025 is “For All Women and Girls: Rights. Equality. Empowerment.”, while “Accelerate Action.” is the official IWD theme.

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