Category: Weekly Current Affairs & Editorials

Polity & Governance International Relations Economy Science and Technology & Defence Environment Indices and Reports Geography Awards Security History & Art and Culture Telangana Becomes First State to Implement SC Sub-Categorisation Syllabus:Polity On April 14, 2025—coinciding with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s birth anniversary—the Government of Telangana issued a historic Government Order (GO) to implement the Telangana Scheduled Castes (Rationalization of Reservations) Act, 2025, making it the first state in India to operationalize sub-categorisation among Scheduled Castes (SCs). This move aims to equitably redistribute the existing 15% SC reservation by dividing 59 SC sub-castes into three groups based on relative backwardness, ensuring targeted affirmative action.   Key Legislative and Legal Timeline Act Passed by Assembly: March 18, 2025 Governor’s Assent: April 8, 2025 GO Issued: April 14, 2025 (Ambedkar Jayanti) SC Judgment Enabling Sub-Categorisation: August 1, 2024 Commission Appointed: October 2024 Commission Head: Justice Shamim Akhtar (Retd.)   Basis for Grouping Population size Literacy and education access Employment rates Financial assistance received Political participation Representations: Over 8,600 received by the commission   Government Justifications Health Minister Damodar Raja Narasimha: “Not a final solution, but a corrective tool for equitable upliftment. Education, skill training, and financial aid are key.” Civil Supplies Minister N. Uttam Kumar Reddy: “No dilution of existing benefits. No creamy layer within SCs. Reservation may rise post-2026 Census (SC population: 17.5%).” Judicial and Commission Backing SC Judgment (Aug 2024): Legally permitted sub-categorisation within SCs Justice Shamim Akhtar Commission: Conducted wide consultations and data-driven analysis   Historical Committees Referenced: Lokur Committee (1965) Justice Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996) Usha Mehra Commission (2007)   Political and Social Reactions CPI MLA K. Sambasiva Reddy: Criticized the Rella community’s classification into Group 3 AIMIM MLA Majid Hussain: Suggested increasing SC reservation to 18% and creating 4 sub-categories Govt Stand: 3-group system strikes balance—2 groups would underrepresent the most backward; 4 would complicate policy Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court judgment dated August 1, 2024, regarding SC sub-categorisation: It declared sub-categorisation within SCs unconstitutional. It laid the legal foundation for Telangana’s move to classify SCs into three groups. It emphasized that sub-categorisation cannot be implemented without Parliament’s approval. Which of the statements is/are correct? A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: BExplanation: The SC upheld the validity of sub-categorisation within SCs by states under Article 15(4) and 16(4), enabling Telangana’s Act. The Supreme Court, in its August 1, 2024 judgment, did not declare sub-categorisation unconstitutional. In fact, it upheld the validity of sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes by individual states under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), provided it is done rationally and based on empirical data. Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act Syllabus: GS2/Governance   New Data Protection Rules and Impact on the RTI Act Recent Development The Union Minister for Information and Technology clarified that personal information required to be disclosed under existing laws will continue to be available under the RTI Act even after the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules are implemented.   Key Changes to the RTI Act Amendment Trigger: The RTI Act will be amended following the notification of DPDP rules. Section 8(1)(j) Update: Now includes a blanket restriction on disclosing personal information, even if public interest is involved. Government’s Stand: Disclosure is still allowed where it is legally mandated. The amendment is justified in light of the 2017 Supreme Court ruling that affirmed the right to privacy as a part of Article 21.   Concerns Raised Reduced Transparency: May hinder access to critical information needed for social audits and exposing corruption or fund misuse. Civil Society View: The amendment undermines the balance between privacy and transparency established in the original Act. Pending Status: The amendment is not yet in effect; civil society groups are urging the government to revise the draft DPDP rules.   Related Reforms and Rules RTI Amendment Act, 2019 Tenure: Reduced tenure of CICs and ICs to 3 years (from 5). Service Conditions: Salaries and terms now set by the Central Government, no longer linked to Election Commissioners. RTI Rules, 2022 Encourages online filing of RTI applications. Streamlined appeal and complaint   RTI Act, 2005 – Overview Purpose To promote transparency and hold public authorities accountable by giving citizens the right to access information.     Scope Covers government bodies and any organization substantially funded by the government.   Key Features 30-day response period (extendable to 45 days in some cases). Penalties for non-compliance or false information. Exemptions include matters affecting national security, confidentiality, or ongoing investigations.   Significance of RTI Empowers citizens and encourages democratic participation. Critical in exposing corruption, e.g., in NREGS and PDS. Facilitates social audits by NGOs and activists. Improves transparency in government contracts and projects.   Challenges Burden on authorities due to high volume of requests. Misuse by individuals for personal vendettas. Delays in processing applications. Inadequate training and infrastructure in public offices. Ambiguous exemptions sometimes used to deny legitimate information.   Way Forward RTI remains a cornerstone for good governance and democratic accountability. The upcoming DPDP Rules must ensure that transparency is not compromised. A careful balance is needed between the right to privacy and the citizen’s right to information. Civil society’s input should be incorporated before finalizing the rules to safeguard the RTI Act’s original intent. Consider the following statements regarding the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019: It fixed the tenure of CIC and ICs at both central and state levels to three years. Salaries of CICs and ICs are now equated with the Chief Election Commissioner. The amendment grants the Central Government power to determine service conditions of Information Commissioners. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer:CExplanation: Statement 2 is incorrect — the amendment removed equivalence with Election Commissioners. Now, the Centre decides their salary and terms. Statement 1 and 3 are correct. UP’s Zero Poverty Scheme to be Named After Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Syllabus:   Scheme   On the occasion

Polity Governance International Relationas Economy Science and Technology Defence Environment Geography Awards Art and Culture Khultabad to be Renamed ‘Ratnapur’ A Cultural Reclamation Move by Maharashtra Government Syllabus:Polity Maharashtra Government Renames Khultabad to Ratnapur as Part of Heritage Restoration Efforts In a significant move to revive historical and cultural heritage predating the Mughal era, the Maharashtra government has announced the official renaming of Khultabad to its ancient name, Ratnapur. The declaration was made on April 8, 2025, by State Social Justice Minister Sanjay Shirsat, as part of an ongoing initiative led by the BJP-Shiv Sena alliance to restore original place names altered during medieval and colonial periods. Key Highlights of the Announcement Official Renaming The historic town of Khultabad, located around 25 km from Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar (formerly Aurangabad), will now officially be known as Ratnapur. The government emphasized that the renaming aims to restore the town’s original identity and is not intended as a politically motivated act. Historical and Cultural Significance Originally named Ratnapur, the town was renamed during the Mughal period. Khultabad is known for its spiritual significance, being home to several Sufi shrines, and is a key site on the Aurangabad–Ellora route. Aurangzeb’s Tomb and Controversy The town houses the tomb of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb, along with the graves of his son Azam Shah and Asaf Jah I, the founder of the Hyderabad Nizam dynasty. Minister Shirsat referred to Aurangzeb as a “tyrant” who persecuted Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj, prompting calls to remove his tomb from the list of protected monuments. The site has become a focal point of historical and ideological debate. Proposed Developments Plans have been proposed to build memorials for Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj in the area. These efforts aim to highlight the legacy of Maratha valour and reinforce regional identity. Political and Cultural Context The renaming of Khultabad follows similar moves: Aurangabad was renamed Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar. Osmanabad was renamed Dharashiv. These name changes are part of a broader cultural campaign to reclaim historical narratives, particularly those tied to the Maratha heritage and pre-colonial Indian civilization. The campaign reflects a larger political strategy by the state’s ruling coalition to assert regional and cultural pride, especially in the context of rising historical revisionism in public discourse. Conclusion The renaming of Khultabad to Ratnapur represents a symbolic act of cultural revival and historical reclamation, embedded within the larger socio-political discourse of heritage, identity, and memory. As the government moves forward with monument construction and heritage reforms, the initiative continues to evoke diverse responses across the political and academic spectrum. With reference to the renaming of Khultabad to Ratnapur, consider the following statements: Khultabad is located in present-day Osmanabad district. The renaming initiative is part of a cultural movement to restore pre-Mughal identities. Aurangzeb’s tomb in Khultabad is classified as a protected monument under ASI. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 only Answer: B. 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Khultabad is in Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar district, not Osmanabad. Statement 2 is correct: The renaming is part of a larger cultural strategy to revive pre-Mughal heritage. Statement 3 is correct: Aurangzeb’s tomb is currently on the list of protected monuments by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), although there are political demands to remove it. First Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) Report Released – Gujarat & Telangana Lead Syllabus:Polity In a landmark initiative to strengthen evidence-based governance at the grassroots level, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj has launched the first-ever Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) baseline report for FY 2022–23. The PAI introduces a robust data-driven framework to assess the developmental performance of over 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats (GPs), enabling targeted planning, enhanced accountability, and the advancement of Localized Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs).   Objectives of the Panchayat Advancement Index Provide a quantitative assessment of Panchayat-level development. Foster data-informed planning and decision-making at the local level. Encourage a competitive and inclusive governance environment among Panchayats   Coverage and Validation Total Gram Panchayats (GPs) considered: 2,55,699 GPs with validated data: 2,16,285 Excluded States/UTs: Meghalaya, Nagaland, Goa, Puducherry, and West Bengal (pending data validation by respective governments) Top Performing States (by Number of Front Runner Panchayats) Gujarat – 346 GPs Telangana – 270 GPs Followed by: Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh   States with Majority in Aspirant Category Bihar Chhattisgarh Andhra Pradesh Assessment Framework Based on 9 Localized Sustainable Development Goal (LSDG) themes Aligned with the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and the National Indicator Framework (NIF) developed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) Includes 435 performance indicators Nine LSDG Themes: Poverty-free and Enhanced Livelihoods Healthy Panchayat Child-Friendly Panchayat Water-Sufficient Panchayat Clean and Green Panchayat Self-Sufficient Infrastructure Socially Secured Panchayat Good Governance Women-Friendly Panchayat Data Collection and Technology Significance of PAI Identifies developmental gaps and priorities at the Panchayat level Facilitates formulation of Strategic Development Plans (SDPs) Promotes a performance-based governance culture Aids in state and national-level policy interventions  With reference to the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI), consider the following statements: It is launched by NITI Aayog to track Gram Panchayat performance on Human Development indicators. It uses the National Indicator Framework developed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. No Gram Panchayat was categorized as an ‘Achiever’ in the first baseline report (FY 2022–23). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: BExplanation: PAI was launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, not NITI Aayog (Statement 1 is incorrect). It does use NIF (Statement 2 correct), and no GP was rated as Achiever (Statement 3 correct). Judicial Cooperation Between India and Nepal Syllabus :GS 2/IR/Governance    About the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU): The Supreme Court of India and the Supreme Court of Nepal have signed an MoU aimed at enhancing judicial cooperation between the two nations. The MoU seeks to promote exchange of information, mutual judicial interactions, and capacity-building

Polity Governance Economy Environment Science and Technology Geography Defence Art and Culture International Relations Awards Security Indices and Reports Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) Recent Developments: The latest Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) report, titled ‘Prevention and Mitigation of Vehicular Air Pollution in Delhi,’ has raised critical concerns regarding: Air Quality Monitoring Deficiencies – Inadequate real-time tracking of pollution levels. Vehicular Emissions – Lack of stringent regulatory enforcement to curb pollution from automobiles. Government Accountability – Gaps in policy implementation and administrative oversight in tackling air pollution.   Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India The CAG of India serves as the guardian of public finances, ensuring financial accountability in government expenditures. It oversees audits of financial transactions at both the central and state levels to uphold transparency and efficiency in governance.  Constitutional Status and Authority The CAG is a constitutional authority, established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. It plays a pivotal role in maintaining fiscal discipline and ensuring that government spending is in accordance with legal provisions.   Key Constitutional Provisions: Article 148 – Outlines the appointment, term, and conditions of service of the CAG. Article 149 – Defines the duties and powers of the CAG in auditing government accounts. Article 150 – Empowers the President to prescribe government accounting standards based on CAG’s advice. Article 151 – Mandates that the CAG’s audit reports be tabled in Parliament and State Legislatures. Article 279 – Assigns the CAG the responsibility of certifying the “net proceeds” of taxes and duties for revenue-sharing between the Centre and States. Sixth Schedule – Requires the CAG to audit the accounts of District and Regional Councils in autonomous tribal areas.   Appointment, Tenure, and Removal Appointing Authority: The President of India appoints the CAG through a formal warrant. Term: The CAG serves for six years or until reaching 65 years of age, whichever comes earlier. Resignation: The CAG may resign by submitting a letter to the President of India. Removal Process: The CAG can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge—through impeachment by Parliament requiring a special majority in both Houses.   Ensuring Independence of the CAG To maintain neutrality and prevent executive influence, the CAG enjoys several constitutional safeguards: Security of Tenure: Cannot be removed at the discretion of the executive. Post-Tenure Restrictions: The CAG cannot hold any other government office under the Centre or State governments after retirement.   Financial Autonomy: Salary is fixed by Parliament and is equal to that of a Supreme Court judge. Administrative expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring operational independence. No Executive Control: The CAG does not report to any minister. No minister can represent the CAG in Parliament.   Duties and Powers of the CAG The CAG Act, 1971 (with amendments in 1976, 1984, and 1987) outlines the statutory responsibilities of the CAG: Audit of Government Expenditure Scrutinizes spending from the Consolidated Fund of India and State Consolidated Funds. Audits revenues, expenditures, loans, and debts of the government. Oversight of Public Sector Enterprises Audits financial statements of Government-Owned Companies and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). Ensures transparency in government transactions and proper utilization of funds. Certification of Tax Revenues Certifies net proceeds of taxes collected by the government under Article 279. Plays a crucial role in determining tax revenue distribution between the Centre and States. Parliamentary Accountability Submits audit reports to the President, which are then tabled in Parliament and examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC). Conducts propriety audits to ensure that government spending is not wasteful or extravagant.   CAG in India vs. CAG in the UK Unlike the UK’s Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), who controls fund disbursements, the Indian CAG serves purely as an auditor. It does not exercise direct control over financial transactions, maintaining a clear separation between auditing and expenditure management.   CAG’s Role in International Audits The CAG of India is entrusted with auditing the financial transactions of global organizations, reinforcing India’s credibility in financial governance. International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) (2022-2027) – Ensuring financial accountability in nuclear energy governance. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) (2020-2025) – Overseeing financial audits related to global food security programs.   Conclusion The CAG of India is a critical institution in ensuring financial transparency and accountability. With constitutional protections, an independent mandate, and a wide scope of responsibilities, it plays an essential role in upholding democratic governance and preventing fiscal mismanagement. Would you like additional details on CAG reforms or contemporary challenges faced by the institution? The independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is ensured by various constitutional and statutory provisions. Which of the following provisions contribute to the CAG’s autonomy? The CAG cannot be removed from office except in a manner similar to a Supreme Court judge. The salary and allowances of the CAG are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. The CAG is appointed by the President but must be ratified by the Parliament. After retirement, the CAG is ineligible for further government office under the Central or State governments. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1, 2, and 4 only(c) 2, 3, and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4  Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only  Explanation: The CAG is appointed by the President without requiring parliamentary ratification. However, provisions like security of tenure, financial autonomy, and post-retirement restrictions ensure its independence. Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025 Syllabus:Polity The Rajya Sabha recently passed the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025, which aims to align India’s legal framework with international conventions on aviation equipment leasing. This legislation seeks to enhance legal security for stakeholders involved in aircraft leasing and financing.   About the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025 The bill implements provisions of the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment (Cape Town Convention, 2001) and its Protocol on Aircraft Equipment. India became a signatory to these international agreements in 2008. These

Governance Environment Economy Science and Technology Geography Defence Art and Culture International Relations Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act, 2005 Context Over 30 civil society organizations have urged the Union government to safeguard the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, amid concerns about potential restrictions imposed by the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023.   Concerns Raised Activists caution against fully implementing amendments that may weaken the RTI Act under the DPDP Act. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act now broadly prohibits disclosing personal information, even when it serves the public interest. The government justifies the change by citing the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India(2017) case, which recognized privacy as a fundamental right.   Challenges Posed by the Amendment Restricting access to information may hinder social audits and make it difficult to uncover corruption or misuse of public funds. RTI requests have been instrumental in verifying government programs, such as food ration distribution and welfare schemes. Activists argue that the original RTI framework already balanced privacy with transparency, rejecting claims that the changes align with the Supreme Court’s privacy ruling. Right to Information Act, 2005   Objectives and Scope Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in governance by granting citizens the right to access information from public authorities. Applicable to government departments, ministries, and organizations substantially funded by the government.   Key Provisions Information Access:Citizens can request government records, documents, and other relevant data. Exemptions:Information related to national security, confidentiality, and ongoing investigations is excluded. Response Time:Public authorities must respond within 30 days, extendable to 45 days in specific cases. Penalties:Officials withholding information without valid reasons or providing false details may face penalties.   Significance of the RTI Act Empowering Citizens: Enables individuals to seek information, ensuring government transparency and accountability. Preventing Corruption: RTI has exposed fund mismanagement in schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS). Promoting Good Governance: Enhances trust in government by fostering openness in decision-making. Facilitating Social Audits: NGOs and activists use RTI to verify government service delivery, such as the Public Distribution System (PDS). Ensuring Public Access to Records: RTI requests help uncover inefficiencies and corruption in government contracts. Strengthening Democracy: Encourages citizen participation in governance and policymaking.   Criticism and Challenges Administrative Burden: High volumes of RTI requests strain public authorities, diverting resources from primary duties. Misuse of RTI: Some requests are used for harassment or personal/political agendas. Delays in Processing: Authorities struggle to meet response deadlines, leading to frustration among applicants. Lack of Training and Infrastructure: Many government offices lack the expertise and resources for effective RTI implementation. Ambiguity in Exemptions: Vaguely defined exemptions create loopholes for withholding crucial public information.   Way Forward Parliament should define “personal information” and “public interest” more precisely. Personal data disclosure should be permitted when it serves a greater public good, such as exposing corruption or verifying the misuse of funds. Any amendments to the RTI Act should involve consultations with multiple stakeholders, including RTI activists, legal experts, and data protection specialists. The government must balance privacy rights with the need for transparency to ensure democratic accountability. The RTI Act remains a cornerstone of democracy, empowering citizens and ensuring government accountability. Its preservation is crucial for upholding transparency, reducing corruption, and promoting good governance. With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements: The RTI Act applies only to government departments and ministries but not to organizations that receive substantial government funding. The Act allows disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest. The government can reject an RTI request if the information sought affects national security or ongoing criminal investigations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only   Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect:The RTI Act not only applies to government departments and ministries but also covers organizations that receive substantial funding from the government (such as NGOs and public-private partnerships). Statement 2 is correct:The RTI Act permits disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest, but the recent amendment under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023 has created hurdles in this regard. Statement 3 is correct:The Act exempts disclosure of information that affects national security, foreign relations, or ongoing investigations under Section 8(1). Fast Track Special Courts Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) have emerged as a critical judicial mechanism for expediting trials related to sexual crimes, ensuring justice for survivors in a time-bound manner. With an impressive disposal rate of 96.28%, these courts have significantly reduced legal delays in cases under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, and rape cases.   What are Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs)?   Definition: FTSCs are dedicated courts established in India to accelerate the judicial process for heinous crimes, particularly rape and child sexual abuse cases.   Establishment: Initiated in 2019 under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law & Justice.   Funding Pattern: 60:40 (Centre:States) for most states and Union Territories (UTs) with a legislature. 90:10 for Northeastern and Hilly States/UTs to ensure equitable judicial access.   Operational Target: The scheme envisions the establishment of 790 FTSCs, including specialized e-POCSO courts. Each FTSC is expected to handle 41-42 cases per quarter, ensuring the disposal of at least 165 cases annually to reduce case backlog effectively.   Rationale for FTSCs The Supreme Court of India (2019) mandated speedy disposal of POCSO cases, emphasizing that both the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) and POCSO Act, 2012, prescribe strict timelines for investigation and trial. Judicial Backlog: Overburdened courts and limited judicial resources often result in prolonged trials, delaying justice and weakening deterrence against sexual crimes. FTSCs play a crucial role in reinforcing public confidence in the judicial system by ensuring swift and effective justice.   Key Recommendations by the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) Continuation of the FTSC Scheme Given their impact, FTSCs should be sustained and expanded to

Polity International Government Schemes Economy Science Defence Environment Indexes Culture Global Free Speech Survey 2024 The Future of Free Speech report, conducted in October 2024 by an independent think tank, ranks India 24th among 33 countries, highlighting concerns about the protection of controversial speech. While many Indians value free speech, their support for government criticism is notably low. The Future of Free Speech Index ranks countries based on public support for free expression. The 2024 survey shows a global decline in free speech support since 2021. Notably, democratic nations like the United States and Japan have experienced drops, whereas Scandinavian countries, including Norway and Denmark, lead the rankings with the highest scores. India scored 62.6, positioned between South Africa and Lebanon. Despite a strong abstract support for free speech, commitment to protecting controversial speech has weakened. A concerning 37% of Indian respondents believe the government should restrict criticism of its policies, the highest percentage among surveyed nations, contrasting with just 5% in the UK. The survey indicates a disconnect in India. While many claim to support free speech, actual protections are lacking. This trend mirrors patterns seen in Hungary and Venezuela, where public sentiment does not align with government actions, signaling democratic backsliding. When asked about changes in their ability to speak freely, Indians expressed a belief in improvement over the past year. However, observers suggest the reality has worsened, pointing to a gap between public perception and the actual state of free speech in India. The report notes that free speech extends beyond legal rights and requires a culture of open debate and tolerance for dissent. The erosion of willingness to defend controversial speech is evident, threatening the essence of free expression. Globally, support for free speech tends to correlate with actual freedom of expression. However, India’s situation is atypical. Nations with high public support usually enjoy better protections, yet in India, the opposite is true. The survey explored various aspects of free speech, including attitudes toward censorship, criticism of the government, and sensitive topics. Support for free speech often declines when it involves offensive content or criticism of religion, reflecting a complex landscape of public opinion. With reference to the “Future of Free Speech” report, consider the following statements: The 2024 survey indicates that support for free speech has increased globally compared to 2021. Scandinavian nations, particularly Norway and Denmark, have ranked the highest in the index. India’s ranking in the index suggests that public support for free speech correlates directly with actual protections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 2 and 3 only Answer: (b) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The report highlights a decline in free speech support globally since 2021, especially in democratic nations like the US and Japan. Statement 2 is correct: Norway and Denmark have consistently scored the highest in the rankings, showing strong public and institutional support for free speech. Statement 3 is incorrect: The report suggests that while India has public support for free speech, actual protections remain weak. This contradicts the usual correlation seen in other nations.   Jan Vishwas Bill 2.0   The Jan Vishwas Bill 2.0, introduced by the Union government, aims to overhaul India’s intricate legal system. This initiative is part of a broader effort to improve the ease of living by addressing excessive criminalisation and ensuring laws are fair, enforceable, and humane. The Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy has highlighted the vast number of criminal provisions in India’s legal framework, many of which impose disproportionate penalties for minor infractions.   India’s Overburdened Legal System India currently has 882 central laws, of which 370 contain criminal provisions, covering a staggering 7,305 offences. While some laws address serious crimes such as murder and financial fraud, many govern everyday activities like parenting, local community events, and business operations. The legal landscape often imposes severe penalties, including life imprisonment and even the death penalty, for offences that may not always warrant such harsh measures. The Problem of Over-Criminalisation A significant issue with India’s current legal system is the criminalisation of minor infractions. Citizens can face imprisonment for trivial acts such as failing to report the death of a pet or improper storage of e-cigarettes. This overreach blurs the distinction between serious and minor offences, leading to arbitrary enforcement by authorities and increasing the risk of legal exploitation.   Disproportionate Punishments and Legal Inconsistencies One of the key concerns is the lack of proportionality in punishments. For instance, the Mental Healthcare Act prescribes the same jail term for record-keeping errors as it does for major medical violations. Such inconsistencies weaken public trust in the justice system and create a disjointed legal structure that does not align with societal needs.   Social and Economic Impact The consequences of harsh legal provisions fall disproportionately on the poor, who often lack access to legal resources. With low conviction rates, the judicial process itself becomes a form of punishment, leading to prolonged pretrial detentions. Many individuals suffer due to outdated or unjust laws that fail to reflect contemporary realities.   Principles of Legal Reform The Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy has outlined four key principles for legal reform: Preserving Societal Values – Ensuring laws reflect ethical and cultural norms. Preventing Justifiable Harm – Criminal laws should address actions that cause significant harm to individuals or society. Ensuring Effective Legal Solutions – Laws should provide clear and enforceable Proportionality in Punishments – Penalties should correspond to the severity of offences.   Future Legal Reforms The Jan Vishwas Bill 2.0 seeks to shift the focus from punitive justice to restorative justice, reducing unnecessary legal burdens and prioritising reforms that benefit citizens. A key objective is to decrease the number of undertrial prisoners and streamline judicial procedures to create a more efficient, equitable, and transparent legal system. As India moves forward, legal reforms must prioritize justice, fairness, and societal well-being to enhance the quality of life for all citizens.    With reference to

Polity and Governance International Government Policies Economy Science and Technology Defence Environment Society Geography Indices and Reports Art and Culture: Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Programme Syllabus: GS2/Governance Context: The Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment successfully launched the first batch of the Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Programme, aimed at fostering a citizen-centric approach in governance.   About the Programme It is an interactive initiative designed to inspire, enlighten, and guide Central Government employees in adopting the Karmayogi Way, which prioritizes Seva-Bhav (a sense of service) and accountability. The initiative is spearheaded by the Capacity Building Commission (CBC) to enhance competency-driven governance.   Capacity Building Commission (CBC) Established: 2021 Structure: Three-member body supported by an internal Secretariat led by a Secretary. Composition: Members are drawn from diverse backgrounds, including the private sector, academia, public sector, and civil society. Objective: Standardizing and improving public sector learning and development initiatives across the country.   Mission Karmayogi Launched: 2020 Type: National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) Objective: Developing a future-ready civil service with the right attitude, skills, and knowledge, in alignment with the vision of New India. Governance: Anchored by an apex body, headed by the Prime Minister to ensure effective implementation.   Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Programme: It is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions. The programme emphasizes a citizen-centric approach to governance by fostering Seva-Bhav and accountability. The Capacity Building Commission is responsible for implementing this programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2, and 3 Explanation: Incorrect: The Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Programme is launched by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions. Correct: The programme indeed emphasizes a citizen-centric approach to governance, fostering Seva-Bhav (spirit of service) and accountability among government employees. Correct: The Capacity Building Commission (CBC), established in 2021, is responsible for implementing and overseeing the programme, aligning it with broader civil service capacity-building initiatives under Mission Karmayogi.   PM’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors (PM-YUVA 3.0) Syllabus: GS2/ Governace   The Ministry of Education has launched the third edition of the Prime Minister’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors (PM-YUVA 3.0) to nurture young literary talent in India.   About the Scheme: Aims to mentor aspiring authors under the age of 30, fostering a culture of reading, writing, and publishing. Provides mentorship and publishing support to help Indian writers gain recognition on a global platform.   Focuses on three key themes: Contribution of Indian Diaspora in Nation Building Indian Knowledge System Makers of Modern India (1950-2025) Aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes building a knowledge-driven ecosystem. National Book Trust (NBT), India, is responsible for implementing the scheme.   With reference to the Prime Minister’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors (PM-YUVA 3.0), consider the following statements: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Culture to promote regional literature and folk traditions. The scheme aims to train young authors under the age of 35 to foster a reading and writing culture in India. National Book Trust (NBT), India, is responsible for implementing the scheme. The scheme aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, focusing on creating a knowledge-driven ecosystem. Which of the above statements is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: PM-YUVA 3.0 is launched by the Ministry of Education, not the Ministry of Culture. Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme is designed for authors under the age of 30, not 35. Statement 3 is correct: National Book Trust (NBT), India is responsible for implementation. Statement 4 is correct: The scheme aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, promoting a knowledge-driven ecosystem. Regulating Ultra-Processed Foods – The Need for Stronger Policies Syllabus: GS2 Introduction Prime Minister Narendra Modi has emphasized the urgent need to combat obesity, and the 2025 Economic Survey has proposed a ‘health tax’ on ultra-processed foods (UPFs) to curb their consumption. With one in four Indian adults obese and one in four either diabetic or pre-diabetic (NFHS-5), addressing this health crisis requires bold policy interventions.   Challenges in Food Labelling and Advertising Regulatory Gaps The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has struggled to enforce strict food labelling and advertising regulations since 2017. Current rules are ambiguous and industry-friendly, failing to implement mandatory front-of-pack warning labels despite the rising health risks of UPFs. Flaws in the Indian Nutrition Rating (INR) System Introduced in September 2022, the INR system is modeled after Australia’s ineffective ‘health star’ system, which assigns 1 to 5 stars based on nutritional content.   Criticisms include: Creates a false health perception: Unhealthy foods appear healthier due to star ratings. Lack of scientific scrutiny: The FSSAI relied on an unexamined IIM Ahmedabad study to justify the rating system. Industry influence: Key decisions were shaped by food industry representatives, sidelining independent health experts.   Misclassification Examples: Soft drinks with high sugar may receive 2 stars instead of a warning label. Cornflakes (high in sugar and sodium) are rated 3 stars, misleading consumers about their health impact. The FSSAI ignored its own 2021 proposal for mandatory ‘traffic light’ warning labels, favoring an industry-driven approach   Ineffective Advertising Regulations India has four different laws regulating HFSS (High Fat, Salt, Sugar) food advertisements, but they lack enforcement: Consumer Protection Act, 2019: Defines misleading ads but does not mandate nutritional disclosure. National Multisectoral Action Plan (2017): Proposed stricter HFSS ad rules, but no action was taken.   Loopholes in advertising laws: No requirement to disclose sugar, salt, or fat content in advertisements. Brands continue targeting children with misleading health claims.   Global Best Practices and Lessons for India Chile’s ‘High In’ Warning Labels: A policy requiring clear warning labels on UPFs led to a 24% reduction in

Government Policies Economy Science and Technology Defence Environment Geography History Cities Coalition for Circularity Syllabus: GS2/Government Policy   Context           India recently launched the Cities Coalition for Circularity C-3 a multi-national alliance fostering collaboration knowledge-sharing and public-private partnerships to advance circular economy principles in urban development. This initiative was introduced at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific held in Jaipur.   Key Highlights of the Event Pro-Planet People P3 Approach the Prime Minister reaffirmed India’s commitment to sustainability through Reduce Reuse Recycle 3R principles CITIIS 2.0 City Investments to Innovate Integrate and Sustain MoU signed for urban sustainability projects worth 1800 crore Benefits 18 cities across 14 states serving as model urban projects   Background Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum Established in 2009 to promote sustainable waste management and circular economy in the Asia-Pacific region. Hanoi 3R Declaration 2013-2023 Outlined 33 voluntary goals for transitioning to a resource-efficient and circular economy. Global Plastic Treaty Negotiations The forum actively works toward international policies on plastic waste management. Cities Coalition for Circularity C-3   ObjectiveC-3 supports urban centers in integrating circular economy principles into urban planning waste management and resource optimization   Key Focus Areas Waste Reduction Promoting segregation composting and upcycling Resource Efficiency Encouraging reuse and shared material use Sustainable Infrastructure Implementing eco-friendly construction and urban design     Significance of C-3 for Urban Sustainability Climate Action Reduces waste and emissions combating climate change Economic Growth Creates new business opportunities in recycling and waste management, Resilient Cities Reduces reliance on finite resources strengthening urban resilience Job Creation Expands employment in green sectors like sustainable construction and Renewable energy Improved Quality of Life Enhances public health and urban environments   Global and Indian Context Internationally Cities like Amsterdam Copenhagen and Tokyo have successfully adopted circular economy strategies under the C-3 framework In India Circularity is gaining traction through Swachh Bharat Mission promoting waste segregation and recycling Smart Cities Mission integrating sustainability into urban planningExtended Producer Responsibility EPR holding companies accountable for waste management GOBAR-Dhan Scheme covering 67.8 percent of districts supporting bio-waste management   Challenges in Implementing Circular Economy in Cities Low Awareness and Technical Expertise High Initial Investment Costs Resistance from Businesses and Consumers Weak Policy Support and Implementation   Way Forward Policy Enforcement Implement mandatory circular economy regulations Investment in R and D Develop sustainable materials and innovative recycling technologies Public Awareness Campaigns Educate citizens on circular living practicesStrengthen Public-Private Partnerships Scale up circular economy initiatives through collaboration C-3 marks a major step in India’s urban sustainability journey driving resource efficiency economic resilience and environmental sustainability in Indian cities and beyond   Consider the following statements regarding the Cities Coalition for Circularity (C-3): 1.It was launched at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific. 2.The initiative focuses on urban sustainability through a linear economy approach. 3.It promotes the adoption of circular economy principles in urban planning, waste management, and resource optimization. The initiative is led by the World Bank in collaboration with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Which of the statements given above are correct?                   (a) 1 and 3 only(b) 1, 2, and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only   Explanation: C-3 was launched at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific. It focuses on a circular economy approach, not a linear one. The initiative is driven by the Government of India, not the World Bank or UNEP Swavalambini Syllabus: GS2/ Governance   The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), in collaboration with NITI Aayog, has launched Swavalambini, a structured initiative aimed at fostering women entrepreneurship across Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).   About Swavalambini The programme is designed to cultivate an entrepreneurial mindset among young women and equip them with the necessary resources, skills, and mentorship to build and scale their ventures. It follows a stage-wise approach, ensuring structured guidance from business ideation to venture expansion.   Key Features of Swavalambini Faculty Development Programme (FDP) Aimed at training faculty members from participating Higher Education Institutions (HEIs). Involves intensive five-day training sessions to enable faculty to mentor aspiring women entrepreneurs. Mentorship and Networking Once participants develop their business plans, they are provided with mentorship from industry experts and successful entrepreneurs. The programme also facilitates: Access to funding opportunities through government schemes and private investors. Networking opportunities with established business leaders and professionals to enhance entrepreneurial success. Women Entrepreneurship Development Programme (EDP) A comprehensive initiative that provides an in-depth understanding of: Business Planning – Strategies for market entry and scalability. Leadership and Decision-Making Skills – Enhancing managerial capabilities. Financial Literacy and Investment Strategies – Understanding capital allocation and risk management. Market Research and Competitive Analysis – Equipping entrepreneurs with insights for a data-driven approach to business. With reference to the Swavalambini Programme, consider the following statements: 1.Swavalambini is a joint initiative of MSDE and NITI Aayog aimed at women entrepreneurship. 2.The programme primarily focuses on providing direct financial assistance to women entrepreneurs for their startups. 3.It includes a Faculty Development Programme (FDP) that trains educators from Higher Education Institutions (HEIs). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Swavalambini is a collaborative effort between MSDE and NITI Aayog, aimed at boosting women entrepreneurship. Statement 2 is incorrect. The programme does not provide direct financial aid but facilitates access to funding through various government and private schemes. Statement 3 is correct. The Faculty Development Programme (FDP) is a crucial component, training faculty members from HEIs to mentor women entrepreneurs. Cabinet Nod To Revised Waqf Bill (2024) Syllabus: GS2/Governance   Context: The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister of India, has approved the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 with key recommendations from the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC). This bill aims to strengthen the

Polity& Governance International Relations Government Policies Economy Science and Technology Defence Environment History Geography Art and Culture Deregulation Commission & State’s Role in Governance Syllabus: GS2/Governance   India’s Deregulation Commission: A Step Towards Economic Reform To enhance the ease of doing business and minimize bureaucratic inefficiencies, the Prime Minister of India has announced the establishment of a Deregulation Commission aimed at streamlining regulatory processes and eliminating redundant laws.   Understanding Deregulation and Its Significance Deregulation Definition: Reducing or eliminating government-imposed restrictions on industries to promote market efficiency and free competition. Challenges for Businesses: Startups and MSMEs face significant regulatory hurdles, including excessive licensing requirements, outdated laws, and bureaucratic delays.   Key Highlights of the Deregulation Commission 1991 Economic Liberalization: Marked the beginning of reduced state control and increased private sector participation. Eliminating Archaic Regulations: Focused on scrapping obsolete compliance requirements. Sectoral Focus:  Key sectors identified for deregulation include banking, energy, telecom, retail, and manufacturing. Collaboration with Regulators: Coordination with bodies like RBI, SEBI, TRAI, and CERC. Encouraging Private Investment: Aims to reduce red tape to attract higher FDI and domestic investments.   Rationale Behind the Deregulation Commission Reducing Bureaucratic Hurdles: Improve India’s ranking in the Ease of Doing Business Index. Boosting Economic Growth: Simplify compliance frameworks for sectors like manufacturing and digital economy. Encouraging Entrepreneurship & Innovation: Support startups and MSMEs by easing regulatory burdens. Modernizing Outdated Laws: Repeal colonial-era laws hindering business expansion. Attracting FDI: Address challenges from restrictive policies in various sectors. Enhancing Federalism & State Cooperation: Work with state governments to create uniform policies. Increasing Competition & Market Efficiency: Results in lower prices and improved services. Evolution of Deregulation in India Key Regulatory Commissions and Their Impact Regulatory Commission Sector Role Major Reforms RBI Banking & Finance Regulates monetary policy and financial institutions – Increased FDI limits in insurance – Deregulated interest rates – Reduced PSU bank stake TRAI Telecommunications Ensures fair competition and consumer protection – 1994: Allowed private telecom players – 1999: Revenue-sharing model replaced license fees – 2016: Entry of Jio led to reduced tariffs CERC Energy Regulates electricity pricing and open access – Encouraged private investment in power generation – Allowed consumers to choose suppliers – Promoted renewable energy auctions PNGRB Oil & Gas Ensures transparency in fuel pricing – 2010: Deregulation of petrol prices – 2014: Deregulation of diesel prices – 2016: Daily fuel price revision introduced     Challenges and Negative Impacts of Deregulation Market Failures & Monopolies: Risk of excessive deregulation leading to monopolies. Job Losses in PSUs: Privatization may result in downsizing and layoffs. Regulatory Capture: Influence of powerful private entities on policy decisions. Rural Economic Disparities: Benefits skewed towards urban economies. Environmental Concerns: Risk of increased pollution and resource depletion.   Way Forward: A Balanced Approach Ensure consumer protection and prevent corporate malpractices. Balance business interests with public welfare. Careful deregulation of sensitive sectors like healthcare and education.   Conclusion: The Deregulation Commission is a transformative initiative for improving India’s business environment, requiring a balance between liberalization and regulatory oversight to ensure sustainable growth. Which of the following arguments can be made against deregulation in India’s financial sector? 1. It may increase systemic financial risks, leading to crises like the 2008 Global Financial Crisis.2. Private players may prioritize short-term profits over long-term economic stability.3. Reduced state oversight may lead to higher financial fraud and banking irregularities.4. It may make India’s economy more resilient to external financial shocks. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only(c) 2, 3, and 4 only(d) 1, 3, and 4 only  Answer: (b) Explanation: While deregulation can boost competition, excessive deregulation in the financial sector may increase risks, promote speculative behavior, and lead to crises. However, it does not necessarily make the economy more resilient (eliminating option 4). Internet Shutdowns in India Internet Shutdowns in 2024: Trends and Legal Framework Context A report by advocacy body Access Now highlights that 2024 witnessed the highest number of internet shutdowns globally, raising concerns about digital rights and governance.   Global Trends in Internet Shutdowns (2024) A total of 296 internet shutdowns occurred worldwide. India accounted for 84 shutdowns, making up 28% of the global total. India had the second-highest number of shutdowns, just behind Myanmar. However, India’s total shutdowns in 2024 were fewer compared to the previous year. Shutdowns were imposed in 16 Indian States and Union Territories. States with the Most Shutdowns: Manipur – 21 shutdowns Haryana – 12 shutdowns Jammu & Kashmir – 12 shutdowns Primary Reasons for Shutdowns: Protests: 41 instances Communal violence: 23 instancesLegal Provisions Governing Internet Shutdowns in India Indian Telegraph Act, 1885: Internet shutdowns can be imposed in cases of “public emergency” or in the interest of “public safety”. However, the law does not clearly define what qualifies as an emergency or a safety issue.   Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC): Before 2017, most shutdowns were imposed under Section 144 CrPC. This provision allows authorities to prevent unlawful gatherings and direct individuals to refrain from certain activities. Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017: These rules formalized the process for imposing temporary internet shutdowns. Shutdown orders must be reviewed by an advisory board within five days to assess their legitimacy.   Landmark Case: Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020) The Supreme Court ruled that indefinite internet shutdowns are unconstitutional.It held that: Internet access is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution. Shutdowns must be temporary and proportionate, not indefinite. The government must publish all orders imposing shutdowns under Section 144 CrPC. All shutdown orders are subject to judicial review.   Arguments in Favor of Internet Shutdowns National Security: Prevents the spread of misinformation and coordination of unlawful activities. Targeted & Temporary Measure: Aims to address specific security concerns rather than long-term restrictions. Preventing Unrest & Violence: Helps curb the organization of protests, riots, and civil disturbances. Countering Fake News: Reduces the spread of disinformation during crises.   Arguments Against Internet Shutdowns Freedom of

1.Polity Changes in Chief Election Commissioner Appointment Process A recent meeting involved Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Home Minister Amit Shah, and Leader of Opposition Rahul Gandhi to appoint a successor to retiring Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) Rajiv Kumar. The meeting highlighted changes in the appointment process and raised concerns about the new law governing these appointments. Previous Appointment Process: Procedure: The President of India appointed the CEC and Election Commissioners based on the Prime Minister’s advice. Legislation: There was no formal legislation governing the appointment process. Succession: Typically, the most senior Election Commissioner (based on the date of appointment) succeeded the outgoing CEC. Ambiguity: The seniority rule had potential ambiguity when Commissioners were appointed on the same day. Introduction of the New Law: Legislation: The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 governs the new appointment process. Search Committee: A search committee led by the Law Minister creates a shortlist of candidates. Selection Committee: A selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition, and a Cabinet Minister reviews the shortlist. Role of the Selection Committee: Flexibility: The selection committee can consider candidates beyond the initial shortlist. Goals: Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in appointing electoral officials. Eligibility Criteria and Terms of Service: Eligibility: Candidates must have held a position equivalent to a Secretary in the Government of India. They must also possess integrity and experience in managing elections. Reappointment: Officials are not eligible for reappointment. Term Limit: The maximum term of service is six years for any individual in these roles. Reasons for the Change in Appointment Process: Supreme Court Intervention: The change was influenced by Supreme Court interventions. Constitutional Considerations: The Supreme Court noted that the Constitution did not intend for the Executive to have exclusive authority over these appointments. Mandate for Change: The Supreme Court’s ruling mandated a more inclusive selection process, leading to the new law. On-going Legal Challenges: Challenge to the New Law: The Association for Democratic Reforms has contested the removal of the Chief Justice of India from the selection committee. Supreme Court Review: The Supreme Court is set to hear these petitions, raising questions about Parliament’s authority to modify judicial rulings through legislation Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners under the previous appointment process? A) The Parliament of India B) The Prime Minister of India C) The President of India, based on the Prime Minister’s advice D) The Supreme Court of India Answer and Explanation: C) The President of India, based on the Prime Minister’s advice The information clearly states that the President appoints them based on the Prime Minister’s advice, under the previous procedure. President of India issued Proclamation imposing President’s rule in Manipur This marks the 11th instance of President’s Rule being imposed in the state, with the last time being in 2001-02, putting the State Assembly under suspended animation. Constitutional Basis: Article 356 of the Constitution allows for the imposition of President’s Rule in a state. This happens when the President, acting on a report from the State Governor, is convinced that the state government can no longer function according to the Constitution. Duration and Approval: Initial Period: President’s Rule is initially in effect for two months. Parliamentary Approval: To extend beyond two months, both houses of Parliament must approve it by a simple majority. Extension Limits: If approved, President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum of three years, with parliamentary approval required every six months. Revocation: The President can end President’s Rule at any time through a subsequent proclamation. Consequences of President’s Rule: The President assumes control of the State Government’s functions and the Governor’s powers. The President can transfer the powers of the State Legislature to Parliament. The High Court continues to operate as usual. S R Bommai Vs Union of India (1994) Supreme Court held that the proclamation under Article 356 was subject to judicial review. The President can only dissolve a state legislative assembly after Parliament’sapproval of the proclamation, and until then, the assembly remains suspended. To extend President’s Rule beyond the initial period, what is required? a) Approval from the State Assembly b) Approval from the President c) Approval from both houses of Parliament d) A referendum in the state   Correct Answer: c) Approval from both houses of Parliament        Issue of Pendency of Cases in Indian Judiciary Issue of Pendency of Cases in Indian Judiciary This is a concise summary of the problem of case backlogs in the Indian judiciary and the Supreme Court’s efforts to address it. About : The Supreme Court first endorsed the appointment of ad-hoc judges in its 2021 ruling in Lok Prahari v. Union of India. These judges were authorised to hear only criminal appeals as part of a bench led by a sitting judge. Backlog: As of January 2025, High Courts were hampered with a disgusting backlog of 62 lakh cases. Legal Basis: Article 224A: This constitutional provision allows the Chief Justice of a High Court to appoint retired judges with the President’s permission. Lok Prahari v. Union of India (2021): The Supreme Court case that established the conditions for appointing ad-hoc judges, including the requirement that the High Court has a significant number of vacancies. Background and Context: The Supreme Court has previously allowed ad-hoc judges but has identified a lack of use of the provision. Why the Backlog? Causes: The article lists several contributing factors to the massive backlog of cases: Insufficient Judges: A low judge-to-population ratio. Increased Litigation: More cases are being filed due to a growing population and complex socio-economic issues. Delays in the Justice System: Procedural inefficiencies, adjournments, and delays in evidence. Lack of Infrastructure: Under-equipped and under-staffed courts. Bureaucratic Challenges: Administrative inefficiencies and lack of modernization. Impact of the Backlog: Consequences: The backlog has several negative consequences: Delay in Justice: Cases take years to resolve. Increased Number of Under trials: More people are waiting in prison for their trials. Increased Costs: Financial strain on