Category: Monthly Current Affairs

Polity & Governance International Relations Economy Science and Technology & Defence Environment Indices and Reports Geography Awards Security History & Art and Culture Odisha Launches ANKUR Initiative to Drive Smart, Citizen-Centric Urban Growth and Prepare for Future Challenges Syllabus:Governance The Government of Odisha has launched ANKUR (Atal Network for Knowledge, Urbanisation and Reforms)—a strategic platform aimed at fostering smart, sustainable, and citizen-centric urban development across the state. The initiative was formalized through the signing of MoUs with six premier urban development institutions, marking a pivotal step in urban policy innovation.   Key Features of ANKUR Collaborative Framework: Developed through extensive stakeholder consultations, ANKUR seeks to respond to Odisha’s rapid urbanisation by promoting multi-stakeholder partnerships, co-creation of resilient solutions, and scalable urban reforms.   Four Strategic Pillars: Capacity Building Knowledge & Research Implementation Support Innovation Ecosystems Vision Alignment: The programme aligns with the national agenda of Viksit Bharat @2047, addressing the anticipated tripling of Odisha’s urban population by 2036 through proactive urban planning and governance reform.   Key State Leadership (Post-2024 Assembly Elections) Capital: Bhubaneswar Chief Minister: Mohan Charan Majhi (succeeding Naveen Patnaik) Deputy Chief Ministers:V. Singhdeo and Pravati Parida Governor: Hari Babu Kambhampati Consider the following statements regarding the ANKUR initiative launched by the Government of Odisha: ANKUR is designed as a vertical under the Smart Cities Mission and is funded entirely by the central government. It emphasizes four pillars: capacity building, knowledge and research, implementation support, and innovation. The initiative aligns with the national development vision of Viksit Bharat @2047 and anticipates tripling of Odisha’s urban population by 2036. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer:BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect—ANKUR is a state-level initiative, not a vertical of the Smart Cities Mission, nor entirely centrally funded. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. ANKUR (Atal Network for Knowledge, Urbanisation and Reforms) is an independent state-level strategic initiative launched by the Odisha government, not by the central government. It is not a vertical or sub-programme of the Smart Cities Mission, which is a central government initiative under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Funding Structure: ANKUR is being developed through collaborative partnerships, including state-level planning, memorandums of understanding (MoUs) with knowledge partners, and likely multi-stakeholder contributions, not solely central funding. The objective of ANKUR is to create a customised urban reform and innovation framework suited to Odisha’s needs, rather than operate under the top-down framework of centrally sponsored schemes. Gujarat Launches ‘Karmayogi Swasthya Suraksha Yojana’ Providing ₹10 Lakh Cashless Health Cover Syllabus:Scheme Gujarat Unveils ‘Karmayogi Swasthya Suraksha Yojana’ for State Employees and AIS Officers The Government of Gujarat has launched the ‘Gujarat Karmayogi Swasthya Suraksha Yojana’, aimed at providing cashless medical treatment coverage of up to ₹10 lakh per family. The scheme is applicable to All India Services (AIS) officers, state government employees, and pensioners, and is implemented under the PMJAY “G” category card system.   Enrollment & Implementation Mechanism: Eligibility mandates possession of a PMJAY “G” category card, issued by the State Health Agency (SHA). The SHA serves as the nodal authority for card distribution, scheme governance, and overall implementation.   Eligibility Criteria and Family Definition: The definition of ‘family’ for coverage varies: For state government employees and pensioners, eligibility is governed by the Gujarat State Services (Medical Treatment) Rules, 2015. For AIS officers and pensioners, the definition is based on the AIS (Medical Attendance) Rules, 1954. Dependent family certificates, issued by designated authorities, are mandatory for enrollment under the scheme. This health security initiative enhances social welfare for public servants while aligning with the broader objectives of Ayushman Bharat and state-led universal health coverage.   About Gujarat: Capital: Gandhinagar Chief Minister: Bhupendra Rajnikant Patel Governor: Acharya Devvrat With reference to the “Gujarat Karmayogi Swasthya Suraksha Yojana”, consider the following statements: The scheme provides reimbursement-based medical assistance for AIS officers and government pensioners under the National Health Authority’s central PMJAY framework. Possession of a PMJAY “G” category card issued by the State Health Agency (SHA) is mandatory for availing benefits under the scheme. The scheme uniformly defines the term “family” for all categories of beneficiaries to ensure equitable treatment access. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: B. 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme is cashless, not reimbursement-based, and it is implemented under the state-level PMJAY-G category, not directly under the central Statement 2 is correct: Possession of a PMJAY “G” category card issued by the State Health Agency is mandatory for availing scheme benefits. Statement 3 is incorrect: The definition of “family” varies: For state employees: Gujarat State Services Rules, 2015 For AIS officers: AIS (Medical Attendance) Rules, 1954 DHRUVA Initiative Syllabus:Governance Launched in 2025 by the Department of Posts, the DHRUVA initiative—Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address—represents a transformative digital policy aimed at overhauling how address information is structured, managed, and utilized across India. Building upon the foundation laid by the earlier Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN) system, DHRUVA elevates address data as a fundamental pillar of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI).   Core Features of DHRUVA DHRUVA seeks to revolutionize address management by enabling secure, real-time sharing of verified address information among citizens, businesses, and government bodies. By promoting interoperability and standardizing address formats nationwide, the initiative ensures seamless collaboration across sectors. A flagship innovation under DHRUVA is the introduction of Address-as-a-Service (AaaS). This service model facilitates the dynamic usage and exchange of address data while prioritizing user consent, privacy, and data security. Through a unified national framework, AaaS aims to streamline service delivery across India.   Enhancing Governance and Service Delivery By replacing ambiguous traditional addresses with precise virtual geo-coded identifiers, DHRUVA enhances governance effectiveness, particularly in targeting government schemes and improving service outreach to rural and underserved communities. The initiative also strengthens emergency response mechanisms by enabling accurate location identification.   Benefits to the

Environment Society History Governance Science and Technology Polity Economy International Relations Geography Defence miscellaneous India Opposes Inclusion of Chlorpyrifos at Stockholm Convention Syllabus :GS 3/Environment At the meetings of the conferences of the Parties to the Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) conventions in Switzerland, India expressed strong opposition to the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). India raised concerns about the potential impact on food security due to the lack of viable alternatives to this insecticide.   Chlorpyrifos: Overview Chlorpyrifos is an insecticide that has been widely used in agriculture and pest control. It has been linked to several adverse health effects, including: Neurodevelopmental issues Reduced birth size Lung and prostate cancer with chronic exposure The World Health Organization (WHO) classifies Chlorpyrifos as a moderately hazardous pesticide. The chemical works by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme essential for proper nervous system function, leading to harmful neurological effects.   Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) The Stockholm Convention, adopted in May 2001 and entering into force on 17 May 2004, aims to protect human health and the environment from harmful chemicals known as persistent organic pollutants (POPs). The Convention outlines measures for the elimination or restriction of POPs in three annexes: Annex A: Chemicals to be eliminated. Annex B: Chemicals to be restricted. Annex C: Chemicals for which unintentional production and release should be minimized. The Convention also provides a framework for dispute resolution between member countries. Chlorpyrifos Phase-out and India’s Concerns Chlorpyrifos was nominated for global phase-out by the European Union in 2021. In 2024, the Persistent Organic Pollutants Review Committee (POPRC) recommended the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos in Annex A of the Stockholm Convention (for elimination), though it suggested exemptions for certain uses, such as plant protection, cattle tick control, and wood preservation. At the BRS meetings, there was significant debate over whether exemptions for agricultural uses and pest control should be allowed. India, along with other nations, advocated for certain exceptions, particularly for the pesticide’s crucial role in pest control and vector-borne disease management. India’s Stance on Chlorpyrifos India’s extensive use of Chlorpyrifos: Registered in India since 1977, Chlorpyrifos was the most widely used insecticide in the country in 2016-17. India emphasized that Chlorpyrifos is essential for agriculture, particularly for controlling urban pests such as cockroaches and termites, as well as for vector-borne disease control, which remains a significant public health issue in the country. A 2024 study detected Chlorpyrifos residues in 33% of food samples tested in India, underscoring the widespread use of the pesticide. The Anupam Verma Committee (2013), set up to review pesticides banned or restricted in other countries but still in use in India, identified Chlorpyrifos as being toxic to fish and bees, which raised environmental concerns.   India’s Future Plans India is actively promoting natural farming through a national mission led by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. This initiative is aimed at reducing dependence on synthetic chemicals like pesticides, while also improving soil health and sustainability in agriculture.   Other Chemicals Discussed at the BRS Convention Apart from Chlorpyrifos, other chemicals such as Medium-chain chlorinated paraffins and long-chain perfluorocarboxylic acids (LC-PFCAs) are also being debated at the BRS Convention for potential inclusion in the lists of restricted or eliminated chemicals. India’s opposition to the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos under the Stockholm Convention reflects its complex balancing act between addressing environmental concerns and ensuring food security and public health, particularly in a country where the pesticide plays a key role in pest control. Consider the following statements regarding India’s stance on Chlorpyrifos at the BRS Convention: India opposed the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos under the Stockholm Convention due to concerns over food security and lack of alternatives. Chlorpyrifos was nominated for global phase-out by the European Union in 2021 and the Persistent Organic Pollutants Review Committee (POPRC) recommended its inclusion in Annex B of the Stockholm Convention in 2024. Chlorpyrifos is primarily used in India for urban pest control, including insects like cockroaches and termites, and vector-borne disease management. 4.The Anupam Verma Committee (2013) recognized Chlorpyrifos as safe for both environmental and health concerns, with no significant risks to wildlife. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1, 2, and 3 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, and 4   Answer:B. 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. India did indeed oppose the inclusion of Chlorpyrifos under the Stockholm Convention, citing concerns over food security and the absence of viable alternatives. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Chlorpyrifos was nominated for global phase-out by the European Union in 2021, the POPRC recommended its inclusion in Annex A (for elimination) in 2024, not Annex B. Statement 3 is correct. Chlorpyrifos is extensively used in India for pest control, particularly for urban pests like cockroaches and termites, and for vector-borne disease management. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Anupam Verma Committee (2013) recognized Chlorpyrifos as toxic to fish and bees, raising environmental concerns, not as safe. Climate-driven Extreme Weather Events Syllabus: GS3/Environment Context: A new study published in Nature Geoscience warns that extreme monsoon variability driven by climate change could permanently damage marine productivity in the Bay of Bengal. Study Overview: The research, based on 22,000 years of climate data, reveals how fluctuations in the Indian summer monsoon have historically affected ocean chemistry and ecosystem health in the Bay of Bengal. Scientists used microfossils of foraminifera—single-celled marine organisms that record environmental data in their calcium carbonate shells—to reconstruct past ocean conditions.   Key Findings Both excessively strong and unusually weak monsoons have historically disrupted ocean mixing processes, leading to a reduction of up to 50% in nutrient availability for marine organisms. These disruptions starve plankton—the foundation of the marine food web—triggering cascading impacts on marine productivity. Notable declines occurred during climatic episodes such as Heinrich Stadial 1 (17,500–15,500 years ago) and the early Holocene (10,500–9,500 years ago), marked by extreme monsoon patterns.   Implications Under Climate Crisis Future climate models indicate rising sea

Polity & Governance International Relations Economy Science and Technology & Defence Environment Indices and Reports Geography Awards Security History & Art and Culture Telangana Becomes First State to Implement SC Sub-Categorisation Syllabus:Polity On April 14, 2025—coinciding with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s birth anniversary—the Government of Telangana issued a historic Government Order (GO) to implement the Telangana Scheduled Castes (Rationalization of Reservations) Act, 2025, making it the first state in India to operationalize sub-categorisation among Scheduled Castes (SCs). This move aims to equitably redistribute the existing 15% SC reservation by dividing 59 SC sub-castes into three groups based on relative backwardness, ensuring targeted affirmative action.   Key Legislative and Legal Timeline Act Passed by Assembly: March 18, 2025 Governor’s Assent: April 8, 2025 GO Issued: April 14, 2025 (Ambedkar Jayanti) SC Judgment Enabling Sub-Categorisation: August 1, 2024 Commission Appointed: October 2024 Commission Head: Justice Shamim Akhtar (Retd.)   Basis for Grouping Population size Literacy and education access Employment rates Financial assistance received Political participation Representations: Over 8,600 received by the commission   Government Justifications Health Minister Damodar Raja Narasimha: “Not a final solution, but a corrective tool for equitable upliftment. Education, skill training, and financial aid are key.” Civil Supplies Minister N. Uttam Kumar Reddy: “No dilution of existing benefits. No creamy layer within SCs. Reservation may rise post-2026 Census (SC population: 17.5%).” Judicial and Commission Backing SC Judgment (Aug 2024): Legally permitted sub-categorisation within SCs Justice Shamim Akhtar Commission: Conducted wide consultations and data-driven analysis   Historical Committees Referenced: Lokur Committee (1965) Justice Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996) Usha Mehra Commission (2007)   Political and Social Reactions CPI MLA K. Sambasiva Reddy: Criticized the Rella community’s classification into Group 3 AIMIM MLA Majid Hussain: Suggested increasing SC reservation to 18% and creating 4 sub-categories Govt Stand: 3-group system strikes balance—2 groups would underrepresent the most backward; 4 would complicate policy Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court judgment dated August 1, 2024, regarding SC sub-categorisation: It declared sub-categorisation within SCs unconstitutional. It laid the legal foundation for Telangana’s move to classify SCs into three groups. It emphasized that sub-categorisation cannot be implemented without Parliament’s approval. Which of the statements is/are correct? A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: BExplanation: The SC upheld the validity of sub-categorisation within SCs by states under Article 15(4) and 16(4), enabling Telangana’s Act. The Supreme Court, in its August 1, 2024 judgment, did not declare sub-categorisation unconstitutional. In fact, it upheld the validity of sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes by individual states under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), provided it is done rationally and based on empirical data. Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act Syllabus: GS2/Governance   New Data Protection Rules and Impact on the RTI Act Recent Development The Union Minister for Information and Technology clarified that personal information required to be disclosed under existing laws will continue to be available under the RTI Act even after the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules are implemented.   Key Changes to the RTI Act Amendment Trigger: The RTI Act will be amended following the notification of DPDP rules. Section 8(1)(j) Update: Now includes a blanket restriction on disclosing personal information, even if public interest is involved. Government’s Stand: Disclosure is still allowed where it is legally mandated. The amendment is justified in light of the 2017 Supreme Court ruling that affirmed the right to privacy as a part of Article 21.   Concerns Raised Reduced Transparency: May hinder access to critical information needed for social audits and exposing corruption or fund misuse. Civil Society View: The amendment undermines the balance between privacy and transparency established in the original Act. Pending Status: The amendment is not yet in effect; civil society groups are urging the government to revise the draft DPDP rules.   Related Reforms and Rules RTI Amendment Act, 2019 Tenure: Reduced tenure of CICs and ICs to 3 years (from 5). Service Conditions: Salaries and terms now set by the Central Government, no longer linked to Election Commissioners. RTI Rules, 2022 Encourages online filing of RTI applications. Streamlined appeal and complaint   RTI Act, 2005 – Overview Purpose To promote transparency and hold public authorities accountable by giving citizens the right to access information.     Scope Covers government bodies and any organization substantially funded by the government.   Key Features 30-day response period (extendable to 45 days in some cases). Penalties for non-compliance or false information. Exemptions include matters affecting national security, confidentiality, or ongoing investigations.   Significance of RTI Empowers citizens and encourages democratic participation. Critical in exposing corruption, e.g., in NREGS and PDS. Facilitates social audits by NGOs and activists. Improves transparency in government contracts and projects.   Challenges Burden on authorities due to high volume of requests. Misuse by individuals for personal vendettas. Delays in processing applications. Inadequate training and infrastructure in public offices. Ambiguous exemptions sometimes used to deny legitimate information.   Way Forward RTI remains a cornerstone for good governance and democratic accountability. The upcoming DPDP Rules must ensure that transparency is not compromised. A careful balance is needed between the right to privacy and the citizen’s right to information. Civil society’s input should be incorporated before finalizing the rules to safeguard the RTI Act’s original intent. Consider the following statements regarding the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019: It fixed the tenure of CIC and ICs at both central and state levels to three years. Salaries of CICs and ICs are now equated with the Chief Election Commissioner. The amendment grants the Central Government power to determine service conditions of Information Commissioners. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer:CExplanation: Statement 2 is incorrect — the amendment removed equivalence with Election Commissioners. Now, the Centre decides their salary and terms. Statement 1 and 3 are correct. UP’s Zero Poverty Scheme to be Named After Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Syllabus:   Scheme   On the occasion

Government Policies Polity Economy Science & Technology Geography International Relations Environment Defence Indices Culture Society Cities Coalition for Circularity Context           India recently launched the Cities Coalition for Circularity C-3 a multi-national alliance fostering collaboration knowledge-sharing and public-private partnerships to advance circular economy principles in urban development. This initiative was introduced at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific held in Jaipur.   Key Highlights of the Event Pro-Planet People P3 Approach the Prime Minister reaffirmed India’s commitment to sustainability through Reduce Reuse Recycle 3R principles CITIIS 2.0 City Investments to Innovate Integrate and Sustain MoU signed for urban sustainability projects worth 1800 crore Benefits 18 cities across 14 states serving as model urban projects   Background Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum Established in 2009 to promote sustainable waste management and circular economy in the Asia-Pacific region. Hanoi 3R Declaration 2013-2023 Outlined 33 voluntary goals for transitioning to a resource-efficient and circular economy. Global Plastic Treaty Negotiations The forum actively works toward international policies on plastic waste management. Cities Coalition for Circularity C-3   Objective C-3 supports urban centers in integrating circular economy principles into urban planning waste management and resource optimization   Key Focus Areas Waste Reduction Promoting segregation composting and upcycling Resource Efficiency Encouraging reuse and shared material use Sustainable Infrastructure Implementing eco-friendly construction and urban design     Significance of C-3 for Urban Sustainability Climate Action Reduces waste and emissions combating climate change Economic Growth Creates new business opportunities in recycling and waste management, Resilient Cities Reduces reliance on finite resources strengthening urban resilience Job Creation Expands employment in green sectors like sustainable construction and Renewable energy Improved Quality of Life Enhances public health and urban environments   Global and Indian Context Internationally Cities like Amsterdam Copenhagen and Tokyo have successfully adopted circular economy strategies under the C-3 framework In India Circularity is gaining traction through Swachh Bharat Mission promoting waste segregation and recycling Smart Cities Mission integrating sustainability into urban planningExtended Producer Responsibility EPR holding companies accountable for waste management GOBAR-Dhan Scheme covering 67.8 percent of districts supporting bio-waste management   Challenges in Implementing Circular Economy in Cities Low Awareness and Technical Expertise High Initial Investment Costs Resistance from Businesses and Consumers Weak Policy Support and Implementation   Way Forward Policy Enforcement Implement mandatory circular economy regulations Investment in R and D Develop sustainable materials and innovative recycling technologies Public Awareness Campaigns Educate citizens on circular living practicesStrengthen Public-Private Partnerships Scale up circular economy initiatives through collaboration C-3 marks a major step in India’s urban sustainability journey driving resource efficiency economic resilience and environmental sustainability in Indian cities and beyond     Consider the following statements regarding the Cities Coalition for Circularity (C-3): It was launched at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific. The initiative focuses on urban sustainability through a linear economy approach. It promotes the adoption of circular economy principles in urban planning, waste management, and resource optimization. The initiative is led by the World Bank in collaboration with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Which of the statements given above are correct?                 (a) 1 and 3 only(b) 1, 2, and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only   Explanation: C-3 was launched at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific. It focuses on a circular economy approach, not a linear one. The initiative is driven by the Government of India, not the World Bank or UNEP Swavalambini The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), in collaboration with NITI Aayog, has launched Swavalambini, a structured initiative aimed at fostering women entrepreneurship across Higher Education Institutions (HEIs).   About Swavalambini The programme is designed to cultivate an entrepreneurial mindset among young women and equip them with the necessary resources, skills, and mentorship to build and scale their ventures. It follows a stage-wise approach, ensuring structured guidance from business ideation to venture expansion.   Key Features of Swavalambini Faculty Development Programme (FDP) Aimed at training faculty members from participating Higher Education Institutions (HEIs). Involves intensive five-day training sessions to enable faculty to mentor aspiring women entrepreneurs. Mentorship and Networking Once participants develop their business plans, they are provided with mentorship from industry experts and successful entrepreneurs. The programme also facilitates: Access to funding opportunities through government schemes and private investors. Networking opportunities with established business leaders and professionals to enhance entrepreneurial success. Women Entrepreneurship Development Programme (EDP) A comprehensive initiative that provides an in-depth understanding of: Business Planning – Strategies for market entry and scalability. Leadership and Decision-Making Skills – Enhancing managerial capabilities. Financial Literacy and Investment Strategies – Understanding capital allocation and risk management. Market Research and Competitive Analysis – Equipping entrepreneurs with insights for a data-driven approach to business. With reference to the Swavalambini Programme, consider the following statements: Swavalambini is a joint initiative of MSDE and NITI Aayog aimed at women entrepreneurship. The programme primarily focuses on providing direct financial assistance to women entrepreneurs for their startups. It includes a Faculty Development Programme (FDP) that trains educators from Higher Education Institutions (HEIs). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Swavalambini is a collaborative effort between MSDE and NITI Aayog, aimed at boosting women entrepreneurship. Statement 2 is incorrect. The programme does not provide direct financial aid but facilitates access to funding through various government and private schemes. Statement 3 is correct. The Faculty Development Programme (FDP) is a crucial component, training faculty members from HEIs to mentor women entrepreneurs.   Cabinet Nod To Revised Waqf Bill (2024) Context: The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister of India, has approved the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 with key recommendations from the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC). This bill aims to strengthen the regulation, administration, and

Polity & Governance Science and Technology International Relations Defence Environment Indian Art & Culture Geography Society Economy Changes in Chief Election Commissioner Appointment Process A recent meeting involved Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Home Minister Amit Shah, and Leader of Opposition Rahul Gandhi to appoint a successor to retiring Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) Rajiv Kumar. The meeting highlighted changes in the appointment process and raised concerns about the new law governing these appointments.   Previous Appointment Process: Procedure: The President of India appointed the CEC and Election Commissioners based on the Prime Minister’s advice. Legislation: There was no formal legislation governing the appointment process. Succession: Typically, the most senior Election Commissioner (based on the date of appointment) succeeded the outgoing CEC. Ambiguity: The seniority rule had potential ambiguity when Commissioners were appointed on the same day.   Introduction of the New Law: Legislation: The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 governs the new appointment process. Search Committee: A search committee led by the Law Minister creates a shortlist of candidates. Selection Committee: A selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition, and a Cabinet Minister reviews the shortlist.   Role of the Selection Committee: Flexibility: The selection committee can consider candidates beyond the initial shortlist. Goals: Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in appointing electoral officials.   Eligibility Criteria and Terms of Service: Eligibility: Candidates must have held a position equivalent to a Secretary in the Government of India. They must also possess integrity and experience in managing elections. Reappointment: Officials are not eligible for reappointment. Term Limit: The maximum term of service is six years for any individual in these roles. Reasons for the Change in Appointment Process: Supreme Court Intervention: The change was influenced by Supreme Court interventions. Constitutional Considerations: The Supreme Court noted that the Constitution did not intend for the Executive to have exclusive authority over these appointments. Mandate for Change: The Supreme Court’s ruling mandated a more inclusive selection process, leading to the new law.   Ongoing Legal Challenges: Challenge to the New Law: The Association for Democratic Reforms has contested the removal of the Chief Justice of India from the selection committee.   Supreme Court Review: The Supreme Court is set to hear these petitions, raising questions about Parliament’s authority to modify judicial rulings through legislation Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners under the previous appointment process? A) The Parliament of India B) The Prime Minister of India C) The President of India, based on the Prime Minister’s advice D) The Supreme Court of India Answer and Explanation: C) The President of India, based on the Prime Minister’s advice The information clearly states that the President appoints them based on the Prime Minister’s advice, under the previous procedure.   President of India issued Proclamation imposing President’s rule in Manipur This marks the 11th instance of President’s Rule being imposed in the state, with the last time being in 2001-02, putting the State Assembly under suspended animation.   Constitutional Basis: Article 356 of the Constitution allows for the imposition of President’s Rule in a state. This happens when the President, acting on a report from the State Governor, is convinced that the state government can no longer function according to the Constitution.   Duration and Approval: Initial Period: President’s Rule is initially in effect for two months. Parliamentary Approval: To extend beyond two months, both houses of Parliament must approve it by a simple majority. Extension Limits: If approved, President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum of three years, with parliamentary approval required every six months. Revocation: The President can end President’s Rule at any time through a subsequent proclamation.   Consequences of President’s Rule: The President assumes control of the State Government’s functions and the Governor’s powers. The President can transfer the powers of the State Legislature to Parliament. The High Court continues to operate as usual.   S R Bommai Vs Union of India (1994) Supreme Court held that the proclamation under Article 356 was subject to judicial review. The President can only dissolve a state legislative assembly after Parliament’sapproval of the proclamation, and until then, the assembly remains suspended. To extend President’s Rule beyond the initial period, what is required? a) Approval from the State Assembly b) Approval from the President c) Approval from both houses of Parliament d) A referendum in the state   Correct Answer: c) Approval from both houses of Parliament        Issue of Pendency of Cases in Indian Judiciary This is a concise summary of the problem of case backlogs in the Indian judiciary and the Supreme Court’s efforts to address it. About: The Supreme Court first endorsed the appointment of ad-hoc judges in its 2021 ruling in Lok Prahari v. Union of India. These judges were authorised to hear only criminal appeals as part of a bench led by a sitting judge. Backlog: As of January 2025, High Courts were hampered with a disgusting backlog of 62 lakh cases.                      Legal Basis: Article 224A: This constitutional provision allows the Chief Justice of a High Court to appoint retired judges with the President’s permission. Lok Prahari v. Union of India (2021): The Supreme Court case that established the conditions for appointing ad-hoc judges, including the requirement that the High Court has a significant number of vacancies. Background and Context: The Supreme Court has previously allowed ad-hoc judges but has identified a lack of use of the provision. Why the Backlog? Causes: The article lists several contributing factors to the massive backlog of cases: Insufficient Judges: A low judge-to-population ratio. Increased Litigation: More cases are being filed due to a growing population and complex socio-economic issues. Delays in the Justice System: Procedural inefficiencies, adjournments, and delays in evidence. Lack of Infrastructure: Under-equipped and under-staffed courts. Bureaucratic Challenges: Administrative inefficiencies and lack of modernization. Impact of the Backlog: Consequences: The backlog has several negative consequences: Delay in Justice: Cases take years to