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Current Affairs 5 july 2025 – Tone Academy

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karthik July 4, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 5 july 2025 – Tone Academy

Russia Becomes First Country to Recognise Taliban Government Syllabus:Security   Historic Diplomatic Recognition In a significant diplomatic development, Russia officially recognised the Taliban government in Afghanistan in July 2025. This marks the first formal recognition of the Taliban regime by any major global power since the group returned to power in August 2021, following the collapse of the U.S.-backed Afghan government. The decision came after Russia removed the Taliban from its list of banned terrorist organisations, signalling a pivotal shift in its foreign policy.     Background and Taliban’s Quest for Legitimacy Since regaining control, the Taliban has sought international recognition to secure economic aid, unlock frozen assets, and attract foreign investment. While countries like China, Iran, and Pakistan have maintained diplomatic engagements with Taliban representatives, none had accorded full recognition until Moscow’s announcement. Russia’s move reflects years of pragmatic engagement with the Taliban and is rooted in its strategic interests in Central Asia.   Diplomatic Formalities and Russia’s Justification The Russian Foreign Ministry confirmed the acceptance of credentials from the Taliban-appointed ambassador, Gul Hassan Hassan, thereby establishing formal diplomatic relations. Moscow justified its decision as a means to facilitate bilateral cooperation in sectors such as trade, energy, agriculture, and infrastructure. Taliban Foreign Minister Amir Khan Muttaqi hailed the recognition, urging other nations to follow suit.   Geopolitical and Economic Implications Russia’s recognition is expected to enhance its regional influence and secure access to Central and South Asia, particularly by utilising Afghanistan as a transit hub for energy exports to Southeast Asia. The move is also seen as part of Russia’s broader strategy to counterbalance Western policies that continue to isolate the Taliban regime. It positions Moscow as a key player in shaping Afghanistan’s regional future.   Humanitarian and Security Concerns Persist Despite this diplomatic breakthrough, Afghanistan continues to grapple with a deepening humanitarian crisis. The UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) recently reported severe droughts in the northern provinces, leading to crop failures and livestock deaths—threatening the livelihoods of millions. Furthermore, the Taliban’s harsh gender policies, including the ban on girls’ education and women’s employment, remain major points of concern for the international community.   Criticism and Global Reactions Russia’s decision has sparked widespread criticism from Afghan women’s rights activists and human rights organisations, who argue that the recognition grants legitimacy to a regime with a repressive human rights record. Western nations, including the United States and EU members, continue to withhold recognition, citing the Taliban’s failure to uphold international norms, especially regarding women’s rights and inclusive governance.   Implications for Afghanistan’s Global Standing Russia’s recognition may set a precedent and influence other nations to re-evaluate their diplomatic posture towards the Taliban. However, with sanctions still in place on several Taliban leaders, and human rights concerns unresolved, any shift in global consensus will likely be gradual and conditional. The future trajectory of Afghanistan’s integration into the global system will depend on balancing strategic interests with humanitarian principles. With reference to Russia’s recognition of the Taliban government in Afghanistan in 2025, consider the following statements: Russia is the first country to officially recognise the Taliban regime since it took power in 2021. Prior to recognition, Russia had categorised the Taliban as a terrorist organisation. Russia’s move was followed by the lifting of all international sanctions on the Taliban. Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Russia formally recognised the Taliban government in Afghanistan in July 2025, becoming the first country to do so since the group seized power in 2021. This recognition followed Russia’s decision to remove the Taliban from its official list of banned terrorist organisations. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. However, statement 3 is incorrect. Although Russia’s recognition is a significant diplomatic shift, it did not lead to the lifting of international sanctions on the Taliban. The United Nations, the United States, and several Western countries continue to impose sanctions on senior Taliban leaders and restrict financial flows to Afghanistan due to concerns over human rights violations and the exclusion of women and minorities from public life. Narendra Modi’s Global Honours Syllabus:Governance On July 4, 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi was conferred the Order of the Republic of Trinidad and Tobago, the highest civilian honour of the Caribbean island nation. This recognition marks a historic milestone, as it coincided with the first official visit by an Indian Prime Minister to Trinidad and Tobago since 1999.   Significance of the Award The honour was bestowed in acknowledgment of: His impactful global leadership Extensive engagement with the Indian diaspora Humanitarian contributions during the COVID-19 pandemic This award was part of PM Modi’s five-nation diplomatic tour in mid-2025, during which he was also honoured by Ghana and Cyprus.   Highest Civilian Honours Conferred on PM Modi by Foreign Nations (Chronological Summary) S.No. Award Country Date Notes 1 Order of the Republic Trinidad and Tobago 4 July 2025 Highest civilian honour 2 Officer of the Order of the Star of Ghana Ghana 2 July 2025 National leadership honour 3 Grand Cross of the Order of Makarios III Cyprus 16 June 2025 Highest civilian honour 4 Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean Mauritius March 2025 Highest civilian honour 5 Sri Lanka Mitra Vibhushana Sri Lanka April 2025 Top foreign leadership recognition 6 Order of St. Andrew Russia 9 July 2024 Highest civilian honour 7 Order of the Dragon King Bhutan 22 March 2024 Highest civilian honour 8 Order of Honour Greece 25 August 2023 Second-highest civilian honour 9 Legion of Honour France 14 July 2023 Highest civilian honour 10 Order of the Nile Egypt 25 June 2023 Highest civilian honour 11 Order of Logohu Papua New Guinea 22 May 2023 Highest civilian honour 12 Order of Fiji Fiji 22 May 2023 Highest civilian honour 13 Legion of Merit United States 21 December 2020 Highest military merit (for foreign nationals) 14 Order

karthik July 4, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 4 july 2025 – Tone Academy

Genome Sequencing Syllabus: GS3/Science and Technology Context In a significant scientific advancement, researchers have successfully sequenced the first complete ancient Egyptian genome. The individual lived approximately 4,500 to 4,800 years ago, making this the oldest DNA sample recovered from Egypt to date.   Key Highlights: The DNA was extracted from the individual’s teeth, which are considered a reliable source for preserving ancient genetic material.This genome is currently the most complete and oldest ever sequenced from Ancient Egypt. It provides critical insights into the genetic history, ancestry, and migration patterns of ancient populations. What is a Genome: A genome refers to the complete set of an organism’s DNA or RNA, which carries all the genetic instructions required for life processes.In humans, the genome comprises around 3 billion DNA base pairs organized into 23 pairs of chromosomes.Each chromosome contains numerous genes, which are specific segments of DNA that encode instructions for producing proteins and other essential biological molecules.   Genome Sequencing Explained: DNA consists of four nucleotide bases: Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, and Guanine.Genome sequencing is the process of determining the exact order of these bases.By sequencing the genome, scientists can identify the unique genetic makeup of an individual, which helps in understanding ancestry, mutations, and evolutionary biology.   Importance of Ancient DNA Studies: These studies offer valuable insights into human evolution, population migration, and historical disease patterns.They contribute to a deeper understanding of genetic diversity in ancient civilizations.Ancient DNA data also help map historical interactions between Egyptian populations and regions such as the Levant, Sub-Saharan Africa, and the Mediterranean. Consider the following statements regarding ancient genome sequencing and its implications: The genome sequenced from a 4,500–4,800-year-old individual in Egypt is the oldest and most complete DNA sample recovered from Africa. Ancient genome sequencing primarily uses mitochondrial DNA as it is more abundant than nuclear DNA in ancient remains. Sequencing of ancient genomes can help trace population migrations, genetic drift, and admixture events, but it has no relevance in understanding ancient diseases. In humans, the genome comprises approximately 3 billion base pairs, organized into 46 autosomes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 4 onlyD. 1 and 2 only   Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only Explanation: Statement 1: Correct:The genome sequenced from a 4,500–4,800-year-old individual is indeed the oldest and most complete genome from Ancient Egypt, and one of the oldest from the African continent. Statement 2: Correct:Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is often targeted in ancient DNA studies because it is present in multiple copies per cell, making it more likely to be preserved in degraded samples. Statement 3: Incorrect:Ancient genome sequencing can help understand ancient diseases, including genetic disorders and pathogen-host interactions (e.g., tuberculosis, plague). So this statement is factually wrong. Statement 4: Incorrect:Humans have 46 chromosomes in total, but only 44 are autosomes (22 pairs). The remaining 2 are sex chromosomes (XX or XY). Hence, this is factually incorrect. DengiAll Syllabus: GS2/Health   Context India has achieved a major milestone in public health research by reaching 50% enrolment in its first Phase III clinical trial of an indigenous tetravalent dengue vaccine, DengiAll.   About DengiAll Developer: DengiAll is being developed by Panacea Biotec Limited under a licensing agreement with the National Institutes of Health (NIH), the primary health research agency of the United States. Composition: The vaccine contains attenuated (weakened) forms of all four dengue virus serotypes — DENV-1 to DENV-4. Its composition mirrors that of the NIH-developed vaccine, differing only in inactive ingredients. Regulatory Approval: The vaccine’s clinical trial protocol has been approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI). Clinical Trials: Earlier Phase I and II trials conducted in India demonstrated a robust and balanced immune response to all four dengue virus types. Trial Coordination: The Phase III trial is being coordinated by the ICMR-National Institute of Translational Virology and AIDS Research (NITVAR), formerly ICMR-NARI.   About Dengue Causative Agent: Dengue is caused by the Dengue virus (DENV), which exists in four distinct serotypes (DENV-1 to DENV-4). Transmission: The virus is not transmitted directly from person to person. Instead, it spreads through the bite of an infected Aedes aegypti mosquito. Infection Cycle: A mosquito becomes infected after biting a dengue-infected person, and it can then transmit the virus to others through subsequent bites.   Existing Vaccine – Dengvaxia (CYD-TDV) Approval: Licensed in a few countries, primarily for individuals aged 9–16 years with prior dengue infection. Limitations: Associated with safety concerns if given to dengue-naïve individuals.   Dengue as a Public Health Threat The World Health Organization (WHO) lists dengue as one of the top 10 global health threats. In India, dengue continues to be a major public health challenge. In 2024 alone, the country reported: 3 lakh cases 297 deaths Consider the following statements regarding the DengiAll vaccine and the broader context of dengue control in India: The DengiAll vaccine uses an inactivated viral platform and is derived from a technology licensed from the World Health Organization. The vaccine targets all four known serotypes of the dengue virus and has shown immunogenicity in Indian Phase I and II trials. Dengue virus is directly transmissible from person to person via respiratory droplets or contact with bodily fluids. The ICMR-National Institute of Translational Virology and AIDS Research (NITVAR), under ICMR, is the nodal agency coordinating Phase III trials of DengiAll. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 2 and 4 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2 and 4 only Correct Answer: A. 2 and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: DengiAll is based on attenuated (weakened) viral strains, not inactivated ones The technology is licensed from the NIH (USA), not WHO. Statement 2 – Correct: The vaccine targets all four dengue virus serotypes (tetravalent). Phase I and II trials in India showed robust and balanced immune responses. Statement 3 – Incorrect: Dengue is not spread through direct human-to-human transmission. It is a vector-borne disease, transmitted only through mosquito

karthik July 4, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 3 july 2025 – Tone Academy

Munnar as ‘Responsible Tourism Destination’ Syllabus: GS1/Places   Why in News: The Kerala government is working to transform Munnar into a Responsible Tourism Destination, aiming to develop it into a net-zero tourism hub that safeguards its fragile ecosystem.   About Munnar Location: Idukki district, Kerala Altitude: 1,600 meters above sea level Geographical Setting: At the confluence of Muthirapuzha, Nallathanni, and Kundala rivers Surroundings: Flanked by the Anamalai Hills and Cardamom Hills   Natural & Cultural Significance Known for misty hills, tea plantations, valleys, and waterfalls Originally inhabited by the Muthuvan tribal community Emerged as a tea center in the late 19th century under H. Sharp, a European planter   Unique Attractions Neelakurinji Flower: Blooms once every 12 years Eravikulam National Park: Habitat of the endangered Nilgiri Tahr Home to Anamudi Peak – the highest peak in South India Consider the following statements regarding Munnar’s ecological and cultural significance: Munnar is located at the junction of the Western and Eastern Ghats. The Nilgiri Tahr, endemic to the region, is classified as “Critically Endangered” by the IUCN. Neelakurinji flowers bloom cyclically every 12 years and are found exclusively in the Shola forests of the Western Ghats. Anamudi Peak, located near Munnar, is the highest peak in India south of the Himalayas. Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1, 2 and 4 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4  Correct Answer: B Explanation: Munnar lies in the Idukki district of Kerala, near the Anamalai Hills, where the Western Ghats stretch eastward and come close to the Eastern Ghats. While not strictly the geographical confluence, it is part of a larger transitional ecological zone where biodiversity from both mountain ranges overlaps. Hence, this statement is considered broadly correct in the context of biodiversity and topography. Mahabodhi Temple Syllabus: GS1/Culture The Supreme Court recently declined to entertain a plea seeking exclusive control of the Mahabodhi Temple in Bodh Gaya by the Buddhist community. The Court directed the petitioner to approach the High Court instead.   About the Mahabodhi Temple Location: Bodh Gaya, BiharStatus: UNESCO World Heritage SiteReligious Significance: One of the four holiest Buddhist sites, marking the location where Gautama Buddha attained Enlightenment under the Bodhi Tree.   Historical Background In the 3rd century BCE, the first temple at the site was constructed by Emperor Ashoka after his conversion to Buddhism. The present temple structure dates back to the 5th–6th centuries CE and is considered one of the earliest and most significant examples of brick-built Buddhist architecture. In the 13th century, the site came under decline following the invasion by Bakhtiyar Khilji. In the 16th century, Hindu monk Ghamandi Giri established the Bodh Gaya Math, initiating Hindu religious activity at the site.   Post-Independence Governance Under the Bodh Gaya Temple Act, 1949, the temple’s management was placed under a government-appointed committee. The committee includes representatives from both Hindu and Buddhist communities. The temple administration is overseen by the Bihar State Government. With reference to the Mahabodhi Temple in Bodh Gaya, consider the following statements: It is the oldest surviving brick structure in India built during the reign of Emperor Ashoka. The present structure of the temple primarily dates to the Gupta period. The temple is one of the four pilgrimage sites identified by the Buddha himself. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3  Correct Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. While Ashoka did build the first temple, the present structure is not from his time, and it is not the oldest surviving brick structure. Statement 2 is correct. The current structure primarily dates to the Gupta period (5th–6th century CE). Statement 3 is correct. The Buddha identified four sacred places: Lumbini (birth), Bodh Gaya (enlightenment), Sarnath (first sermon), and Kushinagar (death). Glutathione Syllabus: GS2/ Health Context The recent death of actor Shefali Jariwala has drawn national attention to the use of glutathione injections, which she reportedly underwent as part of an anti-ageing treatment. While the cause of death is still under investigation, the incident has raised concerns over the unregulated use of such therapies.   What is Glutathione? Glutathione is a naturally occurring antioxidant synthesized by the liver. It plays a vital role in: Skin repair and regeneration Immune system support Detoxification and free radical neutralization Slowing the ageing process Inhibiting the growth of certain cancer cells Due to its broad therapeutic properties, glutathione is often referred to as the “mother of all antioxidants.” However, natural glutathione levels decline with age, stress, and illness, leading many individuals to opt for oral supplements or intravenous (IV) injections to restore optimal levels.   Health Impacts and Regulatory Concerns While glutathione has clinical benefits, the off-label use of high-dose IV injections—especially for skin lightening or anti-ageing—poses significant risks: Adverse Effects: Allergic reactions, hypotension, kidney dysfunction, and disruption of the body’s natural antioxidant balance Long-term Risks: Potential interference with liver function and immune response in some cases From a regulatory standpoint, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)—India’s apex body for drug and cosmetic regulation—has not approved glutathione for skin-lightening purposes. Despite this, the substance continues to be marketed and used in cosmetic clinics and wellness centres across the country. Consider the following statements with reference to glutathione: It is a tripeptide composed of glutamine, cysteine, and glycine. It is synthesized exclusively in the pancreas and transported to other organs. It functions as a reducing agent, neutralizing reactive oxygen species in cells. Its deficiency is associated with neurodegenerative diseases and weakened immunity. Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1, 3 and 4 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: AExplanation: Statement 1 is correct: Glutathione is a tripeptide of glutamine, cysteine, and glycine. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is primarily synthesized in the liver, not the pancreas. Statement 3 is correct: It acts as a reducing agent and

karthik July 2, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 1 July 2025 – Tone Academy

Hul Diwas Syllabus: GS1/History and Culture   Context June 30 is observed as Hul Diwas, commemorating the anniversary of the 1855 Santhal rebellion (Santhal Hul), one of the earliest organized peasant uprisings against British colonial rule.   Santhal Hul (1855) The rebellion was led by four brothers—Sidho, Kanho, Chand, and Bhairav Murmu—along with their sisters Phulo and Jhano. The Santhals rose not only against the British East India Company but also against oppressive zamindars, upper castes, darogas, and moneylenders, collectively referred to as dikus.   Significance The uprising paved the way for protective legislation, including the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act, 1876 and the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908, enacted to safeguard tribal land rights and cultural autonomy.   Genesis of the Uprising In 1832, the British designated an area in present-day Jharkhand as Damin-i-Koh, meant for Santhal settlement and agricultural development. Over time, exploitation by outsiders led to widespread land dispossession and economic hardship among the Santhals. Under the leadership of the Murmu brothers, about 60,000 Santhals took up arms against the East India Company, employing guerrilla tactics. The British eventually suppressed the rebellion, executing Sidhu in 1855 and Kanhu in 1856. Consider the following statements about the Santhal Hul (1855): It was confined entirely to the area demarcated as Damin-i-Koh and did not spread beyond. The term diku used by the Santhals referred to all external exploitative forces, including moneylenders and zamindars. One of the long-term consequences of the rebellion was the enactment of tenancy laws that sought to protect tribal land. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 1 and 3 onlyD) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: B) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: While Damin-i-Koh was the core, the uprising spread into adjacent regions (parts of Bihar and Bengal). Statement 2 is correct: Diku was a collective term for all outsiders: British, zamindars, moneylenders, and local collaborators. Statement 3 is correct: The rebellion’s legacy included the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act (1876) and Chotanagpur Tenancy Act (1908). MY Bharat 2.0 Platform Syllabus: GS2/Governance The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) has signed an MoU with the Digital India Corporation (DIC) to develop the upgraded MY Bharat 2.0   About MY Bharat MY Bharat is a dynamic technology platform designed to provide an institutional framework for engaging and mobilizing India’s youth in a structured, meaningful way.It promotes purposeful youth participation and civic responsibility by enabling young citizens to: Create digital profiles Take part in volunteering and learning initiatives Connect with mentors and peers Contribute to building a developed India by 2047 Launched in 2023, the platform has already registered over 76 crore youth and more than 1.19 lakh organizations.   MY Bharat 2.0 Platform The upgraded version, MY Bharat 2.0, aims to further digitally empower and connect India’s youth.Key features include: Modular architecture to ensure scalability AI-driven tools like a Smart CV Builder and personalized digital profiles AI chatbots, speech-to-text capability, and WhatsApp integration Enhanced accessibility features, including voice navigation With reference to the MY Bharat initiative, consider the following statements: MY Bharat is primarily focused on youth engagement in sports and athletic development as its central objective. The platform allows young citizens to build digital profiles and participate in structured volunteering and learning activities. MY Bharat was launched prior to the Digital India initiative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A) 1 onlyB) 2 onlyC) 2 and 3 onlyD) 1 and 3 only Answer: B) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: While sports engagement can be part of volunteering, the central aim is broader civic engagement and nation-building. Statement 2 is correct: Creating digital profiles and participating in volunteering and learning programs is a core feature. Statement 3 is incorrect: Digital India was launched in 2015, whereas MY Bharat was launched in 2023 Civil Registration System (CRS) and Sample Registration System (SRS) Syllabus: GS2/Governance   Context Civil Registration System (CRS) data from the last two decades indicate that Bihar has consistently lagged behind other Indian states in the registration of births.   Civil Registration System (CRS) The Civil Registration System, commonly referred to as the birth and death registration system, involves the continuous, permanent, and compulsory recording of vital events such as births, deaths, and stillbirths under statutory provisions. Constitutional Basis: Falls under the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution. Governing Legislation: The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969. Administering Authority: Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI), Ministry of Home Affairs.Vital statistics generated through CRS are critical inputs for designing evidence-based policies across sectors such as health, education, and social welfare.   Sample Registration System (SRS) To strengthen and standardize civil registration, the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, was enacted. To ensure the availability of reliable and continuous demographic data, the Office of the Registrar General of India launched the Sample Registration System (SRS) in 1964–65 as a pilot project and expanded it to a full-scale operation from 1969–70 onwards. Since then, SRS has been a regular source of comprehensive data on birth and death rates in the country. With reference to the Civil Registration System in India, consider the following statements: The constitutional basis of the CRS is derived from the Union List, as vital statistics are an exclusively central subject. The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, provides the legal framework for compulsory registration of stillbirths in India. The Office of the Registrar General of India functions administratively under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 onlyC) 2 and 3 onlyD) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: B) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1: Incorrect. Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths fall under the Concurrent List (both Centre and States share responsibility). Statement 2: Correct. The 1969 Act covers births, deaths, and stillbirths. Statement 3: Incorrect. The RGI functions under the Ministry of Home Affai Kombucha Syllabus: GS2/Health  A recent 8-week study

karthik June 30, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 30 june 2025 -Tone Academy

India’s Start-up Ecosystem Witnessed Exponential Growth: Meta Syllabus: GS3/Economy   Context According to a report by Meta, India’s startup ecosystem has seen remarkable expansion over the past decade. Key Highlights Six key growth drivers identified:▫ AI adoption▫ Cross-border expansion▫ Omnichannel presence▫ Tier 2 and 3 market focus▫ Category diversification▫ Creator-led brand building AI Integration: Over 70% of startups are leveraging AI in operations.▫ Sectors like healthcare, edtech, and beauty lead in AI maturity, applying automation for customer service, predictive analytics, and personalised offerings. Tier 2 and 3 Markets: Emerging as crucial growth areas.▫ Startups use vernacular content, regional influencers, and WhatsApp-based commerce for deeper market reach.▫ Service-based startups are expanding here faster than product-focused ones. India’s Startup Ecosystem India hosts one of the world’s most vibrant startup ecosystems, with over 30,000 tech startups, ranking third globally after the US and China. The number of DPIIT-recognised startups grew from ~500 in 2016 to 1,59,157 by January 2025. Between 2016–2024, recognised startups created over 1.66 million direct jobs, fueling employment growth. India ranks fourth globally in total funding raised by tech startups, after the US, UK, and China. As of 2024, India has 4 lakh startups, including six new unicorns minted in 2024 alone. Significance Employment Generation: Over 1.6 million jobs created, underlining startups’ vital role in job creation. GDP Contribution: Startups drive productivity through innovation and support ancillary industries. Foreign Investment Magnet: India attracts substantial global VC and private equity funding. Inclusivity & Impact: Rural-focused startups and social enterprises are closing critical gaps in healthcare, education, and agriculture, improving lives across communities. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Startup ecosystem: India ranks second globally after China in terms of total funding raised by tech startups. Service-based startups are expanding into Tier 2 and 3 markets faster than product-based startups. IndiaAI Mission aims to create a high-end computing facility equipped with over 15,000 GPUs. Which of the statements given above are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3  Answer:BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect (India ranks 4th after the US, UK, China). Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct (facility with 18,693 GPUs)   India-US Trade Deal To Finalise Soon Syllabus: GS2/International Relation Context: In a recent statement, the US President indicated that a “very big” trade deal with India may be on the horizon, suggesting that negotiations between the two countries are accelerating.   India–USA Trade Deal Overview Past Engagements Post-independence period: India’s protectionist policies and the US’s Cold War alliances limited the scope for deeper economic engagement. 1991 Reforms: India’s economic liberalization fundamentally altered the bilateral dynamic, creating opportunities for increased trade and investment. 2005–2015: The US emerged as one of India’s major trading partners. Initiatives like the US-India Trade Policy Forum (TPF) were launched to address disputes and promote economic ties.   Current Scenario Trade Volume: Bilateral trade has reached $191 billion, making the US India’s largest trading partner. Tariff Tensions: In April 2025, the US imposed a baseline tariff of 10% and proposed reciprocal tariffs of up to 26% on Indian products, citing persistent trade imbalances. Negotiations: Talks are intensifying, with the objective of reaching an interim agreement before July 9, 2025. Key negotiation areas include: Expanded market access for US agricultural and industrial goods, including genetically modified (GM) crops; Tariff concessions for Indian textiles, pharmaceuticals, and electronics; Rules on digital trade and customs facilitation.   Major Challenges in US-India Trade Relations Tariff Disparities: India’s average applied tariffs (~17%) remain among the highest in the G20, compared to the US average of 3.3%. India seeks exemptions from new US duties. Agriculture and Dairy Sensitivities: India is wary of fully opening these sectors, emphasizing the protection of small farmers and domestic producers. These issues remain politically contentious. Steel and Aluminum Tariffs: The US has imposed tariffs of up to 26% on Indian steel and aluminum exports under national security justifications, prompting strong protests from India. Regulatory and Infrastructure Barriers: US exporters face non-transparent regulations, price-sensitive markets, inconsistent state-level policies, and logistical inefficiencies in India. Digital Trade and Data Localization: India’s data localization requirements and emphasis on digital sovereignty are major concerns for US technology firms. Efforts are underway to identify mutually acceptable norms.   Way Forward: Both countries remain committed to concluding a broad-based Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) by the end of 2025. The shared goal is to double bilateral trade to $500 billion by 2030, up from $191 billion in 2024–25. A successful agreement could: Reshape global supply chains; Strengthen economic resilience; Set an important precedent for more balanced and equitable globalization. Consider the following statements regarding tariff structures and trade policies between India and the United States: India’s average applied tariff rate remains the highest among all G20 countries. The US has justified reciprocal tariffs on Indian steel and aluminum exports on grounds of national security. India’s tariff on industrial goods is uniformly lower than its tariff on agricultural goods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 1 onlyD) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer:A) 1 and 2 only  Explanation Statement 1:Correct. India has one of the highest average applied tariffs among G20 countries (around 17%). While it is among the highest, the phrase “remains the highest” is strong but acceptable in this context because India’s tariffs are frequently cited as the highest or nearly the highest in the G20 for overall applied rates. Statement 2:Correct. The US imposed reciprocal tariffs on Indian steel and aluminum exports citing national security grounds under Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962. This is precisely the justification the US has used in multiple disputes. Statistical Report on Agriculture and Allied Sectors Syllabus: GS3/Economy, Agriculture   Context: The National Statistics Office (NSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), has released its annual publication titled Statistical Report on Value of Output from Agriculture and Allied Sectors (2011–12 to 2023–24).   About the Report: This comprehensive document provides

karthik June 28, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 28 june 2025 – Tone Academy

GI Tagged Kolhapuri Chappals Syllabus: GS3/Economy/GS1/Culture   Context Italian luxury brand Prada has faced backlash in India for selling leather flat sandals, priced around Rs 1.2 lakh, that closely resemble traditional Kolhapuri chappals.   About Kolhapuri Chappals: Kolhapuri chappals are renowned handcrafted leather footwear traditionally made by artisan communities in Maharashtra. Their history traces back to at least the 12th century. In 2019, they were granted Geographical Indication (GI) status, officially recognising their cultural and regional heritage.   GI-Tagged Kolhapuri Chappals – Craft Process Kala Mitti Application: A sticky paste of black mud (kala mitti) is used temporarily to hold leather layers together. Chaprega: Artisans decorate the chappal surfaces by creating intricate designs with punches and hammers. Stamping Patterns: Small metal tools imprint motifs like elephants, birds, and geometric borders. Finishing: The chappals are polished in natural or dyed shades such as brown, tan, and mustard. With reference to Kolhapuri chappals, consider the following statements: They received Geographical Indication (GI) status prior to 2010. The traditional technique involves the temporary use of kala mitti to hold leather layers together during crafting. The motifs commonly imprinted on these chappals include floral patterns derived exclusively from the Mughal aesthetic tradition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 onlyC) 1 and 3 onlyD) 2 and 3 only Correct Answer: B) 2 only Explanation: Kolhapuri chappals were granted GI status in 2019, not before 2010.Kala mitti (a traditional black sticky mud paste) is applied to temporarily hold the layers of leather in place during assembly. Bonalu Festival Syllabus: GS1/ History and Culture   Context: The Bonalu festival’s first main puja for the Ashada month commenced at the Goddess Jagadambika Ammavaru Temple within Golconda Fort.   About Bonalu: Bonalu is an annual Hindu festival dedicated to the worship of Goddess Mahakali.It is celebrated across Hyderabad, Secunderabad, and various parts of Telangana.   History: The tradition began in the 19th century, following a severe plague outbreak in Hyderabad. As an expression of gratitude for divine protection, people began offering Bonam—derived from Bhojanalu in Telugu, meaning “meals”—to Goddess Mahakali each year.   Timing: The festival is observed during Ashada Masam (June–July), coinciding with the start of the monsoon season.In 2014, Bonalu was officially declared the state festival of Telangana after the state’s formation.   Rituals and Celebrations Bonam Offering: Women carry pots containing rice, milk, and jaggery, decorated with neem leaves, turmeric, vermillion, and a lit lamp, to present to the Goddess. Metlu Puja: Devotees apply turmeric and vermillion to the temple steps as a mark of reverence. Temple Celebrations: The festival begins with a major puja at Jagadambika Temple in Golconda Fort and continues at temples such as Ujjaini Mahankali in Secunderabad and Akkanna Madanna in Old Hyderabad. With reference to the Bonalu festival, consider the following statements: The term Bonam, associated with Bonalu, is derived from a Sanskrit word referring to sacrificial offerings of animals during Vedic rituals. The festival historically originated as a response to a health crisis in Hyderabad, subsequently evolving into an annual observance of gratitude. Bonalu rituals involve the offering of rice mixed with jaggery and milk, adorned with neem leaves and vermillion, specifically symbolising purification and the goddess’s protective powers. Bonalu was officially recognised as a state festival of Telangana prior to the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 2, 3, and 4 onlyD) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer:B) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The word Bonam comes from the Telugu word Bhojanalu meaning “meal,” not Sanskrit or related to animal sacrifice. Statement 2 is correct: The festival did indeed originate as a response to the plague outbreak in Hyderabad in the 19th century. Statement 3 is correct: The offering of rice, jaggery, milk, neem leaves, turmeric, and vermillion symbolises purification and protection by the Goddess. Statement 4 is incorrect: Bonalu was declared the state festival in 2014, after the formation of Telangana (post-bifurcation). Digha’s Jagannath Temple Syllabus:History Digha’s Jagannath Temple will host its first-ever Rathyatra, welcoming around 50 international visitors from countries including Russia, China, and Ukraine.   About Located in Purba Medinipur district of West Bengal, the newly built Jagannath Temple in Digha is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of Lord Vishnu. The temple also enshrines idols of Balabhadra (Balarama) and Subhadra, the divine siblings of Jagannath. Inaugurated on 30 April 2025, the temple has been designed as a replica of the famous Jagannath Temple in Puri.     Architecture Style: Kalingan (Kalinga) architectural tradition, featuring a soaring vimana (shikhara). Materials: Sandstone sourced from Bansi Paharpur hills in Rajasthan, with marble flooring imported from Vietnam. Height: 65 metres (213 feet). With reference to the newly inaugurated Jagannath Temple in Digha, consider the following statements: The temple’s primary construction material for the superstructure was granite sourced from Odisha. It was designed following the Kalingan architectural style, which typically features a Rekha Deul with curvilinear shikhara. The temple houses only the idol of Lord Jagannath and does not enshrine any associated deities. The flooring material was imported from Vietnam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 2 and 4 onlyB) 1 and 3 onlyC) 2, 3, and 4 onlyD) 1, 2, and 4 only Answer: A) 2 and 4 only  Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: The main construction stone is sandstone from Bansi Paharpur (Rajasthan), not granite from Odisha. Statement 2 – Correct: The Kalingan style is indeed characterized by Rekha Deul with curvilinear shikhara. Statement 3 – Incorrect: The temple houses three deities—Jagannath, Balabhadra, and Subhadra. Statement 4 – Correct: Marble flooring was imported from Vietnam. Estimates Committees of Parliament Syllabus: GS2/ Polity  Context: A two-day national conference of Estimates Committees from Parliament and state and UT legislatures is being held in Mumbai to commemorate the 75th anniversary of the Committee on Estimates. About the Committee on Estimates: The Committee on Estimates was established in 1950 based on the

karthik June 27, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 27 june 2025 – Tone Academy

This compilation covers key current affairs such as the delisting of dormant RUPPs by the Election Commission, India–Vietnam strategic ties, and PM-led PRAGATI reviews. It also highlights advances in quantum tech, agroforestry, and agricultural innovation, along with insights into flash floods and disaster preparedness. Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) Syllabus:Polity The Election Commission of India (ECI) has initiated the process of delisting 345 Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) that have remained electorally inactive since 2019 and are now physically untraceable. What are RUPPs? RUPPs are political entities registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, but not formally recognised as State or National parties. Privileges: They enjoy income tax exemptions and are eligible to receive political donations without necessarily participating in elections. Scale: As of 2025, India has over 2,800 RUPPs, a number that has more than doubled from 1,112 in 2010 to 2,301 by 2019. Disclosure Gaps: Nearly 97% of registered parties remain unrecognised, and most fail to comply with mandatory financial reporting requirements. Criteria for Recognition State Party Status: A registered party must meet any one of these criteria: 6% Vote + 2 Assembly Seats: Secure at least 6% of valid votes in an Assembly election and win 2 seats. 6% Vote + 1 Lok Sabha Seat: Win 6% of votes in a Lok Sabha election from a state and secure 1 seat. 3% Assembly Seats or 3 Seats Minimum: Win at least 3% of Assembly seats or a minimum of 3 seats. 1 of Every 25 Lok Sabha Seats: Secure 1 Lok Sabha seat for every 25 seats allocated to the state. 8% Vote Share: Achieve at least 8% of total votes in a state, regardless of seats won. National Party Status: A registered party qualifies if it meets any one of the following: 6% Vote in 4 States + 4 Lok Sabha Seats: Secure 6% of votes in four or more states and win at least 4 Lok Sabha seats. 2% Lok Sabha Seats from 3 States: Win at least 2% of Lok Sabha seats (currently 11 out of 543), with representation from at least 3 states. Recognition in 4 States: Recognised as a State Party in four or more states. Key Issues with RUPPs Electoral Inactivity: Many parties have not contested elections for years, questioning their genuine political purpose. Opaque Funding: Less than 5% submitted donation reports between 2013 and 2016, highlighting poor financial compliance. Tax Exemption Abuse: Section 13A of the IT Act is misused to claim tax benefits despite no electoral activity. No Verifiable Presence: Numerous RUPPs have no traceable offices or functioning bodies, violating Section 29A requirements. Election-Year Proliferation: Registrations often surge during elections, suggesting misuse for dubious donations or proxy funding. The Way Forward Delisting Dormant Parties: The ECI’s current action to delist 345 inactive RUPPs is a critical step. Stronger Registration Norms: Introduce mandatory participation criteria and stricter financial disclosure obligations. Regular Audits: Conduct routine scrutiny and Income Tax reviews of inactive entities. Digital Oversight: Scale up the Political Parties Registration Tracking Management System (PPRTMS) for real-time monitoring and transparency. Public Disclosure: State Chief Electoral Officer websites should publish party status, audit filings, and compliance histories. Conclusion The delisting of non-functional RUPPs is a necessary reform to protect electoral integrity. By enforcing accountability, tightening registration norms, and ensuring regular audits, India can prevent the misuse of political privileges for tax evasion or money laundering and strengthen democratic transparency. With reference to Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) in India, consider the following statements: Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, RUPPs are mandated to submit audited financial statements annually to maintain their registration, irrespective of whether they contest elections. A political party securing 8% of the valid votes in a state Assembly election automatically attains the status of a recognised State Party, even if it does not win any seats. The recognition criteria for National Parties include obtaining at least 2% of Lok Sabha seats from not less than three different states. The income tax exemption available to RUPPs under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act is contingent upon their participation in at least one election within a five-year period. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only(b) 1, 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 4 only(d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Option: (a) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 — Incorrect: While parties are required to maintain certain disclosures (like audited accounts), annual submission of audited financial statements is not a mandatory condition to maintain registration under Section 29A. It is a compliance requirement, but default does not automatically result in delisting—hence this statement is too strong. Statement 2 — Correct: Indeed, securing 8% of the valid votes in a state, regardless of seats won, is one of the criteria for State Party recognition. Statement 3 — Correct: One of the criteria for National Party status is winning at least 2% of Lok Sabha seats with representation from at least three states (currently 11 seats). Statement 4 — Incorrect: There is no statutory requirement under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act that a party must contest an election within a five-year period to retain tax exemption. This gap in the law is precisely why dormant parties misuse the benefit. PM chairs 48th PRAGATI Meeting Syllabus:Polity Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the 48th PRAGATI meeting to fast-track critical infrastructure projects in the sectors of Mines, Railways, and Water Resources.   Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation (PRAGATI) PRAGATI is an interactive platform established to address citizen grievances and monitor the implementation of important government programmes and projects across both Central and State levels.     Key Highlights Launched: 2015 Objective: To ensure proactive governance, real-time monitoring, and timely resolution of bottlenecks in priority projects.   Salient Features and Impact Since its inception, PRAGATI has been instrumental in driving India’s infrastructure and social development by: Facilitating strategic project selection and focused leadership Enhancing coordination among States and Central

karthik June 27, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 25 june 2025 -Tone Academy

New Gecko Species Discovered in Coonoor Hills Syllabus:EcologyTop of Form   A newly identified species of gecko, Dravidogecko coonoor, has been discovered in the Nilgiris district of Tamil Nadu, further enriching the biodiversity of the Western Ghats—a region globally recognized for its endemic wildlife. The findings were published in the scientific journal Bionomina, with Mr. A. Abinesh as the lead author.   Background of the Discovery The species was previously misidentified as Hemidactylus anamallensis. However, after rigorous field studies and taxonomic analysis, researchers confirmed it as a distinct species. The surveys also led to the identification of eight additional Dravidogecko species, bringing the total number within the genus to nine.   Habitat and Ecology Dravidogecko coonoor has so far been recorded only in the town of Coonoor, inhabiting a range of substrates including tree bark, building walls, and vegetation branches. Its presence in both anthropogenic and natural landscapes—such as montane forests and monoculture plantations—illustrates a level of ecological adaptability. Nonetheless, its confinement to high-altitude zones of the Western Ghats makes it especially sensitive to environmental disruptions.   Conservation Concerns The gecko’s restricted distribution and the fact that its habitats lie outside designated protected areas raise concerns about its long-term survival. Threats such as habitat fragmentation, deforestation, and the accelerating impacts of climate change heighten its vulnerability. The researchers underscore the species’ potential conservation significance, urging proactive efforts for habitat protection.   Broader Significance The discovery of Dravidogecko coonoor emphasizes the continuing need for systematic biodiversity surveys in the Western Ghats. It not only contributes to a deeper understanding of regional endemism but also underscores the urgency of conservation interventions in ecologically fragile and understudied areas. This find highlights the importance of taxonomic research in informing conservation policy and sustaining the biological heritage of India’s mountainous ecosystems. With reference to the recently discovered Dravidogecko coonoor in the Nilgiris of Tamil Nadu, consider the following statements: Dravidogecko coonoor is the only known species of the genus Dravidogecko that is adapted to both urban and montane forest habitats. Its entire known population exists within protected areas of the Western Ghats, offering it automatic legal protection under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The species’ elevation-specific distribution, combined with anthropogenic pressures, makes it particularly vulnerable to climate-induced habitat shifts. The reclassification of the species from Hemidactylus anamallensis to Dravidogecko coonoor underscores the importance of integrative taxonomy in biodiversity conservation. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 3 and 4 onlyD. 2, 3 and 4 only Answer: C. 1, 3 and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Dravidogecko coonoor inhabits both urban (building walls) and natural environments (montane forests), making it ecologically versatile among the genus. Statement 2 – Incorrect: The species has been documented outside protected areas, leaving it vulnerable to unregulated habitat disruption and not automatically covered by legal safeguards. Statement 3 – Correct: As a high-elevation endemic species in a human-modified landscape, it is susceptible to climate change and habitat degradation. Statement 4 – Correct: The species was previously misidentified; its reclassification using detailed morphological and field surveys illustrates the role of integrative taxonomy in identifying cryptic species and guiding conservation priorities. Caste Census in Himachal Pradesh Syllabus:Society The Government of India has announced the launch of a detailed caste-based Census in Himachal Pradesh, scheduled to commence in 2026. This initiative seeks to collect granular data on the state’s caste demographics, offering insights into the socio-economic status of various communities. The process will begin in the state’s snow-bound regions—owing to their harsh climate and limited accessibility—before expanding to the rest of the state in 2027. Demographic Landscape of Himachal Pradesh Himachal Pradesh, with a population of approximately 77.56 lakh, is characterized by significant caste diversity: Scheduled Castes (SCs): ~25% of the population; includes 57 officially recognized castes, predominantly concentrated in districts like Kangra and Mandi. Other Backward Classes (OBCs):52%. Scheduled Tribes (STs):71%; the Hattee community was granted ST status in 2023, further diversifying the state’s demographic composition. Methodology and Implementation The Census will be conducted by trained state government personnel, including school teachers and anganwadi workers, through both digital and manual data collection tools. It will involve: Door-to-door enumeration. Verification of responses against official documents. Collection of caste-linked socio-economic indicators, including income, education, and access to welfare. The state aims to ensure data accuracy and transparency, especially given the sensitive nature of caste classification. Judicial and Social Complexities The ST status of the Hattee community remains under judicial scrutiny. Certain SC and OBC representatives have opposed the inclusion, arguing that it may dilute affirmative action benefits for existing marginalized groups. The Himachal Pradesh High Court has placed a stay on the community’s ST status notification, with a final hearing expected in July 2027. The verdict could significantly influence both the enumeration process and policy implications. Political and Electoral Implications While some analysts believe caste has historically had limited electoral sway in the state, others suggest the new data may realign political strategies and welfare distribution: 17 out of 68 Assembly constituencies are reserved for SC candidates, and 3 for STs. Regional affiliations, economic concerns, and local leadership have traditionally dominated voter behavior more than caste identity. Still, this is the first comprehensive caste enumeration since 1931, and it may reconfigure the socio-political narrative by reshaping welfare programs and constituency demands. Expert Views Experts are divided on the potential consequences: Some view it as an administrative tool for improving policy targeting and addressing caste-based disparities. Others, including Onkar Chand Sharma, argue the Census could have long-term political ramifications, especially in addressing intra-group inequalities and redefining the scope of reservations and social justice frameworks. Conclusion: The upcoming caste Census in Himachal Pradesh is poised to be a landmark exercise in demographic mapping, with potential ripple effects across governance, social justice policy, and electoral politics. As the state navigates judicial constraints and community expectations, the success of the Census will depend on its ability to balance data integrity, community trust, and policy relevance.

karthik June 26, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 26 june 2025 – Tone Academy

CBSE Introduces Biannual Board Exams for Class 10 from 2026-27 Syllabus:Governance Effective: 2026–27 Academic Session | Student-Centric Reform Aligned with NEP 2020   Why This Matters Reduces exam stress and the “one-chance” pressure Offers students a chance to improve scores in up to 3 subjects Supports flexibility, a core aim of National Education Policy (NEP) 2020   Exam Structure First Exam (Mandatory): Mid-February Second Exam (Optional): May Applicable to students passing the first exam in at least 3 subjects Best score out of the two will be considered for the final mark sheet   Eligibility and Conditions Fail in 3 or more subjects: Essential Repeat (not eligible for second exam) Fail in 1 to 2 subjects: Compartment (eligible for second exam) Sports quota students and students from snow-bound regions (e.g., Ladakh) may choose the second session Subject replacement students may reappear in failed subjects for higher education eligibility   Compartment Exam Reforms Merged with Second Exam and scheduled in June (instead of July) Second and third attempts aligned with next year’s exam cycle   Other Key Provisions First exam results available on DigiLocker for Class 11 admissions Provisional Class 11 admission allowed for compartment students, confirmed after second exam result With reference to the CBSE’s decision to conduct Class 10 Board Examinations twice a year starting from the 2026–27 academic session, consider the following statements: The second exam will be held only for students who have failed in up to two subjects in the first attempt. Students opting for improvement can appear in a maximum of three academic subjects in the second exam. Sports quota students who miss the first exam due to national-level commitments are barred from appearing in the second session. The best score between the two attempts is taken into account for the final result. Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. 2, 3 and 4 only Answer:B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — students who fail in 1–2 subjects (not just improvement candidates) can also take the second exam. Statement 2 is correct — students can reappear in up to 3 academic subjects. Statement 3 is incorrect — sports quota students are allowed to take the second session. Statement 4 is correct — best score is considered. ‘ECoR Yatra’ App: East Coast Railway’s Digital Leap for Rath Yatra 2025 Pilgrims Syllabus:Governance Launched By: East Coast Railway (ECoR) Platform: Available on Google Play Store Context and Significance: In preparation for the annual Rath Yatra 2025 in Puri, Odisha, the East Coast Railway (ECoR) has launched the “ECoR Yatra” mobile application. This tech-integrated solution is aimed at streamlining travel and logistics for millions of pilgrims. It represents a major advancement in digitizing public transport services during high-footfall religious events.   Key Features of the ECoR Yatra App Real-Time Railway Services Live train running status and PNR tracking via the National Train Enquiry System (NTES) Dedicated list of special Rath Yatra trains operating between June 25 and July 7, 2025 Information on seat availability, fare details, and platform numbers Integration with UTS on Mobile for unreserved ticket booking     Accommodation and Navigation Booking information for retiring rooms, tourist huts, and temporary shelters Integration with IRCTC for end-to-end booking and travel planning In-app navigation similar to Google Maps for navigating station premises   Passenger Amenities and Accessibility Information on essential services such as drinking water kiosks, medical aid booths, public toilets, and Wi-Fi zones Accessibility features including wheelchair availability and battery-powered carts for senior citizens E-catering options and alerts on sanitation services   Multilingual and Inclusive User Interface Support for multiple Indian languages Embedded educational videos for digital tools such as Automatic Ticket Vending Machines (ATVMs) and UTS for first-time users   Emergency and Safety Tools Direct contact access for Railway Protection Force (RPF), medical emergencies, and lost-and-found services Push notifications for service changes, emergencies, and travel advisories   Special Focus: Rath Yatra 2025 Pilgrim Management Real-time updates and operational details on special trains to manage high passenger volume Aims to reduce congestion at Puri Railway Station by promoting advance digital planning Designed to minimize dependence on physical enquiry counters through mobile-based solutions   How to Access the App Open the Google Play Store Search for “ECoR Yatra” Download and install the application   Objective: To provide a seamless, informed, and safe travel experience to pilgrims attending one of India’s largest religious gatherings. The app aligns with the objectives of the Digital India initiative and the Indian Railways’ modernization drive. The ‘ECoR Yatra’ app supports several government missions. Which of the following missions are most directly aligned with the app’s features? Digital India National Rail Plan Swachh Bharat Mission Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana Select the correct answer using the code below: A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, and 3 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above Answer: B. 1, 2, and 3 only Explanation: Digital India – Directly AlignedThe ‘ECoR Yatra’ app is a tech-based initiative using mobile platforms, real-time data, digital ticketing, and multilingual instructional tools. It reflects the core objectives of the Digital India Mission, which seeks to empower citizens with technology-driven governance and improve access to public services. National Rail Plan Directly Aligned The app enhances operational efficiency, passenger information systems, and mobility management, especially during high-density events like the Rath Yatra. These improvements are directly in line with the goals of the National Rail Plan, which aims for modernization, integration of digital tools, and improving passenger experience. Swachh Bharat Mission – Indirect but AlignedThe app features sanitation monitoring, alerts for cleanliness, public toilet mapping, and waste management support at stations. These services contribute to clean public spaces, which is a core pillar of the Swachh Bharat Mission. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana – Not AlignedThis scheme is focused on rural road infrastructure to connect unconnected habitations. It deals with physical rural road development and does not relate to railway digitization or pilgrim management in urban hubs

karthik June 24, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 24 june 2025 – Tone Academy

Draft Registration Bill 2025 Syllabus :GS2/Governance Why in News: The Ministry of Rural Development has invited suggestions on the Draft Registration Bill 2025.It aims to replace the 117-year-old Registration Act of 1908 with a digital, citizen-centric framework.   Key Features: Online and offline registration allowed with Aadhaar or alternate identification.Expanded list of compulsory registration documents, including sale agreements and company mergers. New administrative roles created, including Additional and Assistant Inspector Generals of Registration. Registrations made on false grounds can be cancelled, with a 30-day window for appeal. Penalties reduced, with imprisonment lowered from seven to three years and applicable fines.   Challenges: Cybersecurity concerns, especially for protecting e-signatures and digital records.Delegation to Common Services Centres may cause procedural issues in title transfer and stamp duty valuation.   Related Initiatives: Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP): Digitizing and integrating land records since 2016. SVAMITVA Scheme: Drone-based mapping of rural properties to provide official Record of Rights. NAKSHA Programme: Modernizing urban land records using geographic information systems and digital tools. With reference to the Draft Registration Bill, 2025, consider the following statements: The Bill empowers the Inspector General to cancel registrations obtained through fraud or misrepresentation. The Bill removes the requirement for physical appearance for all categories of registration documents. Aadhaar is the only accepted identity for registration under the Bill. The Bill introduces roles such as Additional and Assistant Inspector Generals to support decentralised functioning. Which of the statements are correct? A. 1 and 4 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only Answer: A. 1 and 4 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: Both online and offline modes are permitted; physical appearance is not eliminated completely. Statement 3 is incorrect: Alternative identification documents are allowed in addition to Aadhaar. Statement 4 is correct. Fighting Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) with Insect-Based Livestock Feed Syllabus: GS2/ Health Amid escalating concerns over the overuse of antibiotics in animal husbandry, India is exploring insect-based feed alternatives to mitigate the risk of Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is leading collaborative efforts to promote AMR-resilient, sustainable food systems.   What is Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)? AMR arises when microorganisms—bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites—develop resistance to antimicrobial drugs. This renders standard treatments ineffective, leading to persistent infections, increased disease transmission, and higher mortality. Current Toll: ~700,000 deaths annually Projected Impact by 2050: 10 million deaths per year, with a potential global GDP loss of 8%     How Does Livestock Feed Contribute to AMR? Over 50% of antibiotics globally are used in animal agriculture, often for growth promotion rather than disease treatment. Continuous exposure fosters the development of Antibiotic Resistance Genes (ARGs) in animal gut microbes. These ARGs can transfer to humans via food chains, soil, water, and direct contact, amplifying public health risks.   Insect-Based Feed: A Sustainable Alternative Curbing AMR Insects naturally produce Antimicrobial Peptides (AMPs) like defensins and cecropins, enhancing livestock immunity and reducing antibiotic dependency. Nutritional Superiority Insects offer high-quality protein, essential amino acids, and micronutrients such as zinc, iron, and calcium. They mimic the natural diet of many poultry and aquaculture species. Economic and Environmental Viability Lower production costs and better benefit-to-cost ratios than conventional feeds like fishmeal or soy. Reduces dependence on imported protein feed, fostering local agri-tech innovation and circular economy models.   Global Efforts Against AMR Global Action Plan (GAP), 2015: A “One Health” framework integrating human, animal, and environmental health. World Antimicrobial Awareness Week (WAAW): Promotes awareness and stewardship globally. GLASS (2015): WHO’s surveillance initiative for antimicrobial use and resistance data. GARDP: WHO-DNDi collaboration for R&D in antibiotic development, especially for neglected diseases.   India’s Initiatives on AMR NAP-AMR: India’s multi-sectoral plan based on the “One Health” approach. AMR Surveillance Network (ICMR): Tracks resistance trends and supports evidence-based policy. Red Line Campaign: Mandatory red marking on prescription-only antibiotics to prevent OTC misuse. NAC-NET (NCDC): Monitors antibiotic consumption trends in public health facilities. Operation AMRITH (Kerala): State-level intervention to restrict indiscriminate antibiotic use.   Conclusion AMR poses an immediate and escalating threat to human health, agriculture, and global development. Innovations such as insect-based livestock feed offer a transformative pathway to address AMR, enhance food security, and build resilient, low-impact food systems. Urgent and sustained action—grounded in science, policy, and public awareness—is essential to combat this global crisis. With reference to the use of insects in livestock feed, consider the following statements: Insects possess antimicrobial peptides that can functionally replace antibiotics in livestock diets. Insect-based feeds are banned under the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) guidelines due to zoonotic risks. The economic viability of insect-based feed is supported by its high feed conversion efficiency and localized production models. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer:BExplanation: Statement 2 is incorrect — WOAH does not ban insect-based feed; it is being increasingly accepted as a sustainable option. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. How Will Foreign Universities Impact Higher Education in India? Syllabus: GS2/ Education   Context The University Grants Commission (UGC) has notified the “Setting up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions in India Regulations, 2023”, enabling renowned global universities to establish campuses in India. This aligns with the vision of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which promotes the internationalisation of higher education.       Background Prestigious foreign institutions are now setting up branches in locations such as GIFT City (Gujarat) and Navi Mumbai. Successful models like NYU Abu Dhabi and Yale-NUS in Singapore have shown the importance of academic autonomy, strong local partnerships, and robust state support.   Why Are Foreign Universities Entering India? Push Factors in the West Demographic Decline: Ageing populations in developed countries like the UK, Australia, and Canada have led to falling domestic student enrolments. Financial Stress: Declining public funding has compelled universities to depend on high-paying international students. Policy Restrictions: Stricter student visa norms and