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Current Affairs 28 july 2025 – Tone Academy

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karthik July 28, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 28 july 2025 – Tone Academy

India & Maldives Celebrate 60 Years of Friendship Syllabus:IR On July 25, 2025, commemorative stamps were released to celebrate 60 years of India-Maldives diplomatic ties (1965–2025). Leaders Involved: The stamps were symbolically released by PM Narendra Modi and President Mohamed Muizzu, showcasing their nations’ shared maritime heritage.     Featured Vessels on the Stamps: Uru (India): This stamp features a handcrafted dhow from Beypore, Kerala, symbolizing India’s ancient shipbuilding tradition. Vadhu Dhoni (Maldives): This stamp showcases a traditional coastal fishing boat, reflecting Maldives’ maritime life.   Objectives of the Release: To honor the historic diplomatic partnership between the two nations. To promote their cultural and maritime bonds. To foster people-to-people connectivity.   Significance: The release of these stamps serves as a visual representation of the deep-rooted oceanic ties between India and Maldives, reinforcing their cooperation in various sectors such as trade, tourism, climate action, and security. Which of the following statements about the 2025 commemorative stamps released by India and Maldives is/are correct? The stamps symbolically depict maritime vessels that reflect the traditional shipbuilding practices of both nations. The event marks 60 years of bilateral relations that began immediately after the Maldives gained independence from British rule in 1965. The Vadhu Dhoni, depicted on one stamp, is a deep-sea vessel traditionally used for oceanic navigation across the Indian Ocean. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3  Answer: A. 1 and 2 only Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. The stamps depict the Uru and Vadhu Dhoni, representing cultural maritime heritage. Statement 2: Correct. Diplomatic ties were established in 1965, after Maldives’ independence from British protectorate rule. Statement 3: Incorrect. Vadhu Dhoni is a coastal fishing boat, not typically used for long-distance oceanic navigation. Thoothukudi Port City Syllabus:Place in News PM Modi recently inaugurated the newly extended runway and terminal building at Thoothukudi airport. Location: Thoothukudi is a port and industrial city in Tamil Nadu, located on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal.     Key Identity: It is known as the “Pearl City” for its ancient pearl fishing. It is also called the “Sea Gateway of Tamil Nadu”. Its port was renamed O. Chidambaranar Port Trust in 2011. Ancient & Maritime Significance: The city has thrived as a port since the 6th century BCE, with the ancient port of Korkai located nearby. It was a hub for trade, exchanging pearls with civilizations in Rome, Greece, and Southeast Asia. Thoothukudi was a prominent port under the Pandya & Chola dynasties for naval trade.   Swadeshi Movement (1906): O. Chidambaram Pillai launched the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company here to challenge the British monopoly on the Tuticorin–Colombo shipping route, a key event in India’s freedom struggle. Which of the following statements correctly reflect the maritime significance of ancient Thoothukudi and its surrounding regions? Korkai, located near Thoothukudi, served as a major ancient port and capital of the Pandya dynasty. Thoothukudi established extensive maritime trade links with Greco-Roman civilizations, particularly in black pepper and sandalwood. Archaeological evidence suggests active Indo-Roman trade in pearls from this region during the early historic period. The city was directly connected to the Silk Road maritime network under the Chola Empire. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 1, 3 and 4 onlyD. 2, 3 and 4 only  Answer: B. 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – Korkai was a Pandya port capital and pearl fishery center. Statement 2 is incorrect – The region was famous for pearls, not sandalwood or pepper (which were more common in Kerala and Karnataka). Statement 3 is correct – Roman coins and pearl-related artefacts have been excavated in Tamil Nadu. Statement 4 is incorrect – The Silk Road maritime network was active but direct evidence of Thoothukudi’s integration under Cholas in that specific network is insufficient. PM Modi’s ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’ Gift to King Charles III – Strengthening Green Diplomacy Syllabus:Polity During his UK visit in July 2025, PM Modi gifted a Davidia involucrata ‘Sonoma’ sapling to King Charles III. This gift was part of India’s “Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam” initiative and was presented at the Sandringham Estate in Norfolk.   About the Campaign: The “Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam” (One Tree in Mother’s Name) initiative is a tribute-based tree plantation campaign designed to honor mothers. It promotes citizen-led afforestation and fosters an emotional connection to nature, thereby strengthening India’s climate action agenda.     Significance of the Gift: The gift serves as a symbol of shared environmental values between India and the UK. It aligns with King Charles’ well-known environmental advocacy. It reinforces India’s green diplomacy and soft power on the global stage.   Gift Features: The gifted tree, a Sonoma Dove Tree (Davidia involucrata), is known for its early blooming and distinctive white, handkerchief-like bracts. It is scheduled to be planted in the autumn at the royal estate. This gesture further strengthens India–UK ties, which also include ongoing discussions on the India–UK Free Trade Agreement (CETA). With reference to the Davidia involucrata ‘Sonoma’ gifted by India to the UK, consider the following statements: It is a deciduous tree native to China and is known for its white, dove-like floral bracts. It is listed as an endangered species under the IUCN Red List, making it a symbol of biodiversity preservation. It will be planted in Sandringham Estate, highlighting a royal tradition of ceremonial plantations with climate symbolism. The ‘Sonoma’ cultivar is known for late blooming and vibrant red flowers, symbolizing cross-cultural hybridization. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 4 onlyD. 2, 3 and 4 only  Answer: A. 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – The dove tree is native to China, with distinct white bracts. Statement 2 is incorrect – Davidia involucrata is not endangered, though rare. Statement 3 is correct

karthik July 26, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 26 july 2025 – Tone Academy

India-UK Vision 2035 and CETA Syllabus:IR   Why in News? The Indian Prime Minister’s visit to London marked two significant developments: Unveiling of the India–UK Vision 2035 roadmap. Formalisation of the Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA), a Free Trade Agreement (FTA). Goal: To push bilateral trade beyond USD 100 billion by 2030.   What are the Key Features of the India-UK Vision 2035? The Vision 2035 roadmap outlines strategic cooperation across multiple sectors: Trade and Economic Cooperation: The newly signed CETA is central, aiming to increase bilateral trade and create jobs. The Joint Economic and Trade Committee (JETCO) will oversee its implementation. Plans to advance a Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) for greater investment protection.   Technology and Innovation: A major focus is the Technology Security Initiative (TSI), targeting advancements in next-generation technologies. Key areas include Artificial Intelligence (AI), quantum computing, telecom, and critical minerals. Defense: Agreement on a 10-year defence industrial roadmap, focusing on joint research and manufacturing. Areas of collaboration: jet engine technology, maritime security, and directed energy weapons. The UK will rely on India for logistics in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). Cooperation under the Indo-Pacific Oceans’ Initiative (IPOI) to set up a Regional Maritime Security Centre of Excellence (RMSCE) to tackle non-traditional maritime security threats (e.g., piracy, drug trafficking).   Climate and Sustainability: Collaboration to mobilize green finance. Partnership on offshore wind and nuclear technologies. Building joint supply chains in green goods. Utilizing platforms like the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI).   Education and Skills: The UK will encourage the establishment of university campuses in India. Focus on Mutual Recognition of Qualifications (MRQ), facilitating professional mobility. Climate-linked job creation through a Green Skills Partnership.   Global Governance: Reinforces commitment to multilateralism. Advocating for reforms in institutions like the United Nations, WTO, IMF, and the World Bank, indicating a shared vision for a more equitable global order. What are the Key Highlights of the India-UK CETA? CETA is a pivotal Free Trade Agreement with comprehensive features:   Key Features: Duty-Free Access for India: India will have 99% duty-free access to the UK market. This will significantly benefit labor-intensive sectors such as textiles, leather, marine products, electric and hybrid vehicles, and auto components. Duty Reduction for UK: India will cut or eliminate duties on 90% of its tariff lines, covering 92% of imports from the UK (includes cars, alcohol). EV Tariffs: India will eliminate tariffs on UK electric vehicles (EVs) in the sixth year of the agreement, with no duties on EVs priced below GBP 40,000, promoting green mobility. Services Sector: Indian professionals and companies will enjoy expanded market access in IT, financial services, education, and more, with simplified visa processes for sectors like engineering, architecture, and hospitality. Double Contribution Convention: Under this convention, the India-UK CETA will exempt Indian professionals and their employers from UK social security contributions for three years, significantly improving the competitiveness of Indian talent in the UK market. Inclusive Growth: The agreement explicitly promotes participation from women, youth, Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), farmers, and innovators, encouraging access to global value chains and supporting sustainable practices. Agricultural Benefits: Indian agricultural products like processed foods, edible oils, and seafood will see tariff reductions, boosting exports to the UK. Impact: Trade Expansion: The CETA aims to double bilateral trade by 2030, reaching nearly USD 112 billion in goods and services combined. The agreement is projected to increase UK exports to India by 60% by 2040. Job Creation: The agreement will stimulate job creation in both countries by expanding economic activities, especially in sectors like manufacturing, services, and agriculture. Increased Investment: The inclusion of provisions that benefit MSMEs, startups, and entrepreneurs will encourage investment flows between India and the UK.     How India-UK Relations Evolved Over Time? Trade and Investments: Bilateral trade reached USD 21.34 billion in 2023–24. India’s exports to the UK rose by 12.6% to USD 14.5 billion in 2024–25. Imports from the UK grew by 2.3% to USD 8.6 billion.   Technology and Innovation: The India–UK Technology Security Initiative (TSI), launched in 2024, focuses on key emerging sectors like AI, semiconductors, and cybersecurity. The UK is now India’s second-largest research partner after the US. India-UK “NET Zero” Innovation Virtual Centre will focus on green hydrogen and decarbonisation. The UK also named India a partner in its International Science Partnership Fund.   Defence and Security: India and the UK have strengthened defence ties through joint exercises like Konkan (Navy), Cobra Warrior (Air Force), and Ajeya Warrior (Army). Focus on Indo-Pacific cooperation and defence technology collaboration.   Health: Significant collaboration during the Covid-19 pandemic, notably with the AstraZeneca-Serum Institute vaccine partnership. Over 60,000 Indians work in the UK’s National Health Service, highlighting the crucial contribution of the Indian diaspora.   Indian Diaspora: The UK is home to 1.86 million people of Indian origin, contributing significantly to science, arts, business, and politics, acting as a living bridge between the two nations.   What are the Key Areas of Friction Between India-UK? Despite growing cooperation, certain issues pose challenges: Extradition Issues: India accuses the UK of sheltering fugitives (e.g., Vijay Mallya, Nirav Modi). The UK’s reluctance on extradition strains legal and diplomatic trust. Russia-Ukraine War: India’s neutral stance (driven by strategic autonomy) clashes with the UK’s strong support for Ukraine, causing strategic discomfort and differing approaches on multilateral forums. Climate Tariffs: The UK’s planned Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) may hurt Indian exports like steel, which are energy-intensive. India perceives this as a form of protectionism under the guise of environmental concerns. Khalistani Activities: Pro-Khalistani protests and activities in the UK strain ties. India wants stronger UK action against such groups, viewing them as a threat to its national security and sovereignty. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR): UK’s push for strict IP protection clashes with India’s need for affordable medicines (generic drug production) and flexible innovation rules, particularly in areas like public health.   What Steps Can India Take to Strengthen India-UK Ties? Deepen Security Ties: Leverage forums like

karthik July 26, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 25 july 2025 – Tone Academy

Paika Rebellion Syllabus:History   In News: Controversy: Former Odisha CM Naveen Patnaik criticized the exclusion of the 1817 Paika Rebellion from NCERT’s new Class VIII history textbook, calling it a “huge dishonour” to the Paikas. Who were Paikas? Definition: The Paikas (pronounced “paiko”, literally “foot soldiers”) were a class of military retainers. Recruitment: They had been recruited from various social groups by the Gajapati rulers of Odisha since the 16th century. Service and Land: They would render martial services to the king in return for hereditary rent-free land (nish-kar jagirs), which they would cultivate during peacetime. This system gave them a unique social and economic standing.   Paika Rebellion (1817): Nature: An armed uprising in Odisha against British rule. Leadership: Led by Bakshi Jagabandhu, a military chief of King Mukund Dev II.   Triggering Factors for Rebellion: British Annexation of Odisha (1803): The British annexed Odisha after Colonel Harcourt’s largely uncontested march from Madras to Puri. An agreement was made with King Mukunda Deva II for compensation and land, but it was only partly honored, leading to discontent.   Oppressive British Policies: New land revenue systems: Disrupted traditional landholding patterns and increased revenue demands. Currency changes: Introduction of new currency caused economic dislocation. Control over salt: The British salt monopoly deprived locals of a traditional livelihood and made salt expensive, a crucial commodity. Loss of Paika Privileges: The most significant direct impact on the Paikas was the loss of their hereditary rent-free lands, which undermined their social status and economic stability. Culmination: This mounting discontent culminated in the 1817 Paika Rebellion, led by Bakshi Jagabandhu. Participation: The rebellion was also joined by Kondh tribals, indicating a broader resistance from various sections of society. Actions: Rebels attacked British officials and government property, showcasing the widespread anger.   Suppression and Legacy: Suppression: Though initially fierce, the revolt was eventually crushed by the British forces. Jagabandhu’s Surrender: Bakshi Jagabandhu surrendered in 1825. Broader Context: The rebellion was part of broader 19th-century rural uprisings in India against British disruption of traditional social and economic structures. Inspiration: Despite its failure, the rebellion inspired future resistance movements in Odisha and remains a strong symbol of Odia pride and resistance against colonial rule.   Recognition: 2017: Prime Minister Narendra Modi felicitated more than 200 descendants of Paika warriors in Bhubaneswar, commemorating 200 years of the rebellion. 2019: Then President Ram Nath Kovind laid the foundation stone of the Paika Memorial at Barunei foothills, a significant site associated with the rebellion. Last Year (presumably 2024): Odisha’s Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi announced that the Paika Academy and Paika Memorial would be established expeditiously at Barunei near Khurda, further solidifying its place in public memory and historical education. The Paika Rebellion is often considered an early example of organized resistance against the British East India Company’s rule in India, predating the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857 in its intensity and localized impact. With reference to the Paika Rebellion of 1817, consider the following statements: It was primarily triggered due to the abolition of the salt monopoly by the British, which led to widespread unemployment. The Paikas were granted rent-free land holdings in return for military services during peacetime. Bakshi Jagabandhu led the rebellion as a military chief under the British East India Company. The rebellion witnessed participation from tribal communities like the Kondhs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 and 4 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2 and 4 only  Correct Answer: A. 2 and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The salt monopoly was introduced by the British, not abolished. It deprived locals of livelihood and increased salt prices. Statement 2 is correct: The Paikas were indeed given hereditary rent-free lands (nish-kar jagirs) for their services. Statement 3 is incorrect: Bakshi Jagabandhu was not a British officer. He was the military commander of King Mukund Dev II. Statement 4 is correct: The rebellion saw participation from Kondh tribals, indicating wider social discontent. Can Presidential Reference Change a Judgment? Syllabus:Polity]   Context: The Supreme Court (SC) has issued notices to the Union Government and all States on a Presidential reference regarding the President’s and Governor’s powers. The SC seeks opinion on whether the President and Governors can be judicially compelled to act within prescribed timelines on Bills passed by State legislatures.   Background: Previous SC Verdict (Timeline for Bills): Recently, the Supreme Court verdict laid down a timeline for the President and governors to decide on state bills. “Pocket Veto” by Governor: Generally, the Governor is not bound by any time limit to act on a Bill. This allows the Governor to simply not act on a Bill indefinitely, referred to as a “Pocket Veto”, although the term is not officially used in the Constitution for Governors. (The term “pocket veto” is specifically used for the President of India’s power to not act on a bill, without sending it back or giving assent, for an indefinite period.) SC Ruling on Indefinite Delay: The Supreme Court ruled that Governors cannot delay or withhold assent to Bills indefinitely once they are passed or re-passed by the state Assembly. Timeline Set by SC Ruling (April 8th Ruling – implied): One month for re-passed Bills (i.e., bills returned by the Governor and passed again by the Assembly). Three months if the Bill is withheld contrary to Cabinet advice. Question on Judicial Authority: This ruling raised questions about the scope of judicial authority under Article 142, and whether the courts can enforce accountability on constitutional functionaries like Governors and the President. Presidential Reference: President Droupadi Murmu sought the Supreme Court’s advisory opinion under Article 143 on whether the President and governors need to follow timelines to decide on state bills.   Article 143 Presidential Reference Article 143(1): The President can refer any question of law or fact that is of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion. The Court may choose to answer or decline, however, if the court chooses

karthik July 24, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 24 july 2025 Tone Academy

International Monetary Fund (IMF) and Gita Gopinath’s Departure Syllabus:Economy   Gita Gopinath’s Departure Announcement: IMF Managing Director Kristalina Georgieva announced that Gita Gopinath, the First Deputy Managing Director (FDMD), would be leaving the Fund at the end of August to rejoin Harvard University. Previous Roles at IMF: Gopinath joined the IMF as Chief Economist in 2019. She was the first woman to hold this position. She was later promoted to First Deputy Managing Director (FDMD) in 2022.   About the International Monetary Fund (IMF) Nature: The IMF is a specialised UN agency. Establishment: Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference. Primary Objective: To ensure global monetary stability post the Great Depression and World War II. Key Functions/Promotes: Monetary cooperation among nations. Ensures financial stability Facilitates international trade. Supports high employment. Works to reduce poverty Headquarters (HQ): Washington D.C., USA. This information highlights a significant personnel change at a major international financial institution and provides essential details about the IMF’s origin, functions, and headquarters. With reference to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), consider the following statements: The IMF was established at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 and is a specialized agency of the UN. Gita Gopinath was the first woman to hold the post of Managing Director of the IMF. One of the IMF’s objectives is to promote high employment and reduce global poverty. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3  Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The IMF was established in 1944 at Bretton Woods and is a specialized agency of the UN. Statement 2 is incorrect: Gita Gopinath was the first woman to be Chief Economist and later FDMD, but not Managing Director. Statement 3 is correct: Promoting high employment and poverty reduction is part of its goals. Launch of Yard 3034 (Ajay) – Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) Syllabus:Defence   Vessel Name/Yard Number: Yard 3034 (Ajay). Significance: It is the eighth and last ship of the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) This indicates the completion of a significant indigenous shipbuilding project for the Indian Navy. Design & Builder: Indigenous: It is indigenously designed and built. Shipyard: Constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata. Launch Date & Location: Launched on July 21, 2025, at GRSE, Kolkata. Dignitary Present: Launched in the presence of VAdm Kiran Deshmukh, Chief of Materiel (COM). Indigenization Level: 80% of the INS Ajay’s content is indigenous, aligning strongly with India’s ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ (Self-Reliant India) initiatives in defense production. Lead Ship of the Class: The first ship of this class, named Arnala, was commissioned on June 18, 2025. This indicates that the class is known as the ‘Arnala-class ASW SWC’.   Significance of ASW SWCs Role: These vessels are designed for anti-submarine operations in coastal waters and shallow areas, where larger warships may have difficulty operating. Capabilities: They are equipped with advanced sonar systems, anti-submarine rockets, and torpedoes to detect and engage enemy submarines. Coastal Security: Their deployment enhances India’s coastal defense and anti-submarine warfare capabilities, particularly in the littoral regions. Boost to Indigenous Shipbuilding: The successful design and construction of all eight ships in this class by GRSE is a significant achievement for India’s defense shipbuilding industry, showcasing its capacity to build complex warships. Consider the following pairs regarding defence operations during the Kargil conflict: Operation Role Operation Vijay Air strike campaign by Indian Air Force Operation Safed Sagar Naval blockade to cut off supplies to Pakistan Operation Talwar Ground operation by Indian Army to recapture occupied heights Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. NoneD. None Explanation: Operation Vijay: Army-led operation – ground combat. Operation Safed Sagar: Air Force Operation Talwar: Navy’s maritime blockade.All pairs are mismatched. Suhani Shah: India’s First Female Mentalist to Win FISM World Championship Syllabus:Awards   Achievement: India’s Suhani Shah has become the first Indian female mentalist to win big at the International Federation of Magic Societies (FISM) World Championship. Event Location: The championship was held in Italy. Award: She bagged the prestigious title of ‘Best Magic Creator’. This award recognizes her innovative contributions to the art of magic and mentalism. Significance: Her win makes her country proud on a global stage, breaking barriers in a field traditionally dominated by men. Personal Details: Born: January 29, 1990. Hails From: A Marwari family in Udaipur, Rajasthan. This information highlights a significant global achievement by an Indian artist, making it relevant for general awareness and current affairs sections of competitive exams. Which of the following features is/are associated with the ‘Arnala-class Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Crafts’? They are built with over 80% indigenous content. Designed to operate in deep-sea and long-range missions. Equipped with sonar, anti-submarine rockets, and torpedoes. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: 80% indigenous content aligns with Aatmanirbhar Bharat. Statement 2 is incorrect: These are shallow-water crafts meant for coastal/littoral operations. Statement 3 is correct: Equipped with sonar, rockets, and torpedoes. Bihar: First State with Fewer Than 1,200 Voters Per Polling Station Syllabus:Polity   Key Achievement: Bihar has become the first state in the country where every polling station will now cater to fewer than 1,200 voters. Implementation Measure: To achieve this, 12,817 new polling stations have been added across the state. Change in Ceiling: Earlier: There was a ceiling of 1,500 electors per polling station. Revised: This ceiling has been revised to 1,200 voters per station. Process: This revision was undertaken as part of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of the electoral rolls. Overall Impact on Polling Stations: With this addition, the total number of polling stations in Bihar has now gone up to 90,712, from the earlier 77,895.   Significance Enhanced Voter Convenience: Reduces waiting times and overcrowding at polling stations, making the voting process more comfortable and accessible for

karthik July 23, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 22 july 2025 – Tone Academy

Hatti Tribe & Polyandry in Himachal Pradesh Syllabus: Society   Context: A woman in Himachal Pradesh recently married two brothers from the Hatti tribe, drawing attention to the tribal practice of polyandry, especially in the lower Himalayan regions.   Key Features: Polyandry Practice: Known locally as Jodidara, polyandry is where a woman marries multiple husbands, often brothers. Cultural Prevalence: Practised among Hatti and other Himalayan communities; it historically emerged to preserve property and reduce population pressure. Legal-constitutional Aspect: Polyandry is not permitted under Indian law (Hindu Marriage Act, 1955), but the Constitution (Article 29) protects tribal customs and culture. Tribal Status: Hatti community was notified as a Scheduled Tribe (ST) in 2022 for socio-economic upliftment.   Way Forward: Need for balancing tribal rights and constitutional morality. Social awareness programs to empower tribal women. Revisit the scope of Article 29 to address gender equity in tribal laws. With reference to tribal marital customs in India, consider the following statements: Polyandry is legally recognized under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Article 29 of the Indian Constitution protects distinct cultural practices of communities, including tribal customs. The Hatti tribe, notified as an ST recently, primarily resides in Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3  Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Hindu Marriage Act prohibits polyandry; it allows only monogamous unions. Statement 2 is correct: Article 29(1) protects the cultural and linguistic identity of groups, including tribals. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Hatti tribe primarily resides in Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, not in J&K or Ladakh. ICMR’s Indigenous Malaria Vaccine: AdFalciVax Syllabus:Science Context: ICMR has invited partnerships for commercialising its indigenously developed malaria vaccine, AdFalciVax.   About the Vaccine: Type: Recombinant vaccine using DNA of Plasmodium falciparum. Developed by: ICMR–RMRC, Bhubaneswar. Targets: Entire CSP (Circumsporozoite Protein) and also targets transmission stages in the mosquito’s gut.   Key Advantages: Provides dual protection — individual immunity + community-wide transmission reduction. Uses genetic engineering for improved antigen response. Way Forward: Fast-track clinical trials and rollout under public-private partnerships. Integrate with national malaria eradication programs. Consider the following about the malaria vaccine AdFalciVax: It uses recombinant DNA technology to target the circumsporozoite protein (CSP) of Plasmodium falciparum. It provides protection only to the vaccinated individual and does not affect community-level transmission. It was developed by ICMR’s Bhubaneswar-based institute. Which of the statements is/are correct?A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: AdFalciVax uses full CSP and DNA technology. Statement 2 is incorrect: It also targets the parasite inside mosquitoes, reducing transmission in the population. Statement 3 is correct: It was developed by ICMR–RMRC, Bhubaneswar. GI Tag Demand for ‘Sangri’ of Khejri Tree Syllabus:Ecology Context:Efforts are underway to secure a GI tag for the desert vegetable ‘Sangri’, the edible pod of the Khejri tree. Key Points: Scientific name: Prosopis cineraria Ecological Role: Drought-resilient, nitrogen fixer, critical for desert agroforestry. Cultural Link: Mentioned in epics like Mahabharata and Ramayana; protected in the Khejarli Massacre (1730). Way Forward: GI tagging can protect biodiversity, secure farmer incomes, and promote agro-tourism. Need for conservation-driven value chains. The Khejri tree (Prosopis cineraria), recently in news due to a GI tag proposal for its pods, is associated with which of the following characteristics? It is considered a keystone species in the Thar Desert ecosystem. It played a central role in the Khejarli Massacre during the Bishnoi movement. It is classified as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. Select the correct answer:A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Khejri stabilizes sand dunes, fixes nitrogen, and supports arid agroforestry. Statement 2 is correct: The 1730 Khejarli Massacre involved villagers protecting these trees. Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not critically endangered; it’s fairly common in Rajasthan. International Moon Day Syllabus: Day Special Context: International Moon Day was observed on July 20 to commemorate the 1969 Apollo 11 landing.   About: First observed after a UNGA resolution in 2021. Theme for 2025: “One Moon, One Vision, One Future”. Celebrates peaceful lunar exploration and international cooperation.   India’s Achievements: Chandrayaan-1 (2008): Found water on Moon. Chandrayaan-3 (2023): First soft landing near Moon’s south pole.   Way Forward: India should push for leadership in global lunar governance norms and sustainable resource use.   With reference to lunar missions and global moon governance, consider the following statements: Chandrayaan-1 was the first mission to confirm water molecules on the lunar surface. International Moon Day is a UN-designated observance commemorating the first human landing on the Moon. The Artemis Accords are a UN-led agreement binding all member states on moon resource sharing. Which of the above are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Chandrayaan-1, via NASA’s M3 instrument, confirmed lunar water. Statement 2 is correct: Moon Day (July 20) was adopted by UNGA Resolution 76/76. Statement 3 is incorrect: Artemis Accords are not UN-led; they are US-led agreements. Alien Plant Invasion in Tropical Ecosystems Syllabus:Ecology Context: Recent studies show a sharp rise in alien plant species threatening tropical ecosystems.   Key Points: Introduced Species: Spread by humans either intentionally or accidentally. Impacts: Outcompete native species. Alter fire regimes, hydrology, and carbon cycles. Pose threat to wildlife (e.g., blackbuck spreads invasive seeds). Projections: By 2050: 669 new invasions in S. America, 503 in Africa, 227 in Asia. India Context: 66% of natural areas now face some invasion due to agriculture, fires.   Way Forward: Long-term biodiversity monitoring and restoration. Policy shift from control to prevention and biosecurity. Which of the following is the most scientifically accurate reason why alien plant species threaten tropical biodiversity? A.They increase evapotranspiration and cause drought-like conditions.B. They outcompete native flora by altering ecosystem processes such as

karthik July 23, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 23 july 2025 – Tone Academy

Bima Sakhi Scheme Syllabus: GS1 – Women Empowerment, GS2 – Governance   Context: LIC disbursed ₹62.36 crore as stipend under the Bima Sakhi Scheme during FY 2024–25.   About the Scheme: Launched by LIC to empower women aged 18–70, with a minimum qualification of Class X pass. Currently, 2,05,896 Bima Sakhis are active nationwide.   Key Features: Provides specialized training in insurance and financial literacy. Monthly stipend: ₹7,000 (Year 1) → ₹6,000 (Year 2) → ₹5,000 (Year 3) + commission-based earnings. Graduated Bima Sakhis may qualify for Development Officer   Significance: Empowers rural women through livelihood and skill development. Enhances financial inclusion and insurance penetration at the grassroots. Which of the following statements about the Bima Sakhi Scheme is/are correct? It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It provides a stipend along with commission-based income to trained women. The scheme is open to all Indian women aged between 18 and 70 years who have passed at least Class X. A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: B. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme is implemented by LIC, not the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Statement 2 is correct: Women get a stipend for 3 years in addition to commissions. Statement 3 is correct: Women aged 18–70 years with at least Class X qualification are eligible. Kamchatka Peninsula Earthquakes Syllabus: GS1 – Geography   Context: A series of earthquakes hit the Kamchatka Peninsula, Russia. Geographical Details: Located in Far Eastern Russia, between the Sea of Okhotsk and the Pacific Ocean. Houses Sredinny (Central) and Vostochny (Eastern) mountain ranges. Part of the Pacific Ring of Fire; seismically active due to Pacific–North American Plate   Significance: Home to Volcanoes of Kamchatka, a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Region prone to volcanic eruptions and earthquakes. Consider the following statements about the Kamchatka Peninsula: It lies between the Sea of Okhotsk and the Bering Sea. It is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire. It is located in eastern Europe. A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3  Answer: A. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is correct: It lies between the Sea of Okhotsk (west) and Bering Sea (east). Statement 2 is correct: It is a volcanic hotspot and part of the Pacific Ring of Fire. Statement 3 is incorrect: It is located in Far Eastern Russia, not Europe. Meri Panchayat App – WSIS Champion Award 2025 Syllabus: GS2 – Governance Context: “Meri Panchayat” app received the WSIS 2025 Champion Award under the category of Cultural and Linguistic Diversity.   About the App: Developed by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and NIC. Covers 65 lakh Gram Panchayats, benefiting 950 million rural citizens.   Key Features: Access to budgets, development plans, public assets. Geo-tagged grievance redressal; supports 12 languages. Promotes transparency, digital inclusion, and citizen engagement Which of the following correctly describes the ‘Meri Panchayat’ App?A. It is a mobile app for citizen grievance redressal in urban areas.B. It is a mobile and web application aimed at transforming digital governance in Gram Panchayats.C. It provides direct benefit transfers (DBT) for MNREGA workers.D. It tracks elected Panchayat representatives’ performance for the Election Commission. Answer: B.Explanation: The app is developed by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and NIC to unify digital functions for Gram Panchayats. It empowers rural citizens and Panchayat functionaries through a single digital interface. Bills of Lading Bill, 2025 Syllabus: GS2 – Governance Context: Parliament passed the Bills of Lading Bill, 2025, replacing the archaic 1856 Act.   Features: Simplifies and modernizes shipping documentation. Provides clarity on stakeholders’ rights and duties. Empowers Central Government to issue directions.   Significance: Aligned with global maritime trade norms. Supports Ease of Doing Business and Viksit Bharat 2047 Consider the following about the Bills of Lading Bill, 2025: It repeals a colonial-era law from the 19th century. It aims to improve maritime law to align with international standards. It empowers state governments to regulate shipping documentation. A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: A. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is correct: Replaces Indian Bills of Lading Act, 1856. Statement 2 is correct: Brings Indian maritime documentation in line with global trade norms. Statement 3 is incorrect: It empowers the Central Government, not state governments. Legal Status of the Right to Vote Syllabus: GS2 – Polity and Governance Context: SC examines legality of Bihar’s electoral roll revision.   Constitutional Provision: Article 326: Voting is based on universal adult suffrage (18+ years).   Legal Interpretations: P. Ponnuswami (1952): Voting is a statutory right. Kuldip Nayar (2006) & Jyoti Basu Case (1982): Reaffirmed statutory nature. Anoop Baranwal (2023): Declined to reopen the debate.   Conclusion: Voting is not a fundamental or constitutional right but a statutory right under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. With reference to the Right to Vote in India, consider the following: It is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. It is a statutory right as per judicial pronouncements. It was made available to all citizens above 18 years of age after the 61st Amendment Act, 1989. A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3  Answer: B. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The right to vote is not a fundamental right; it is a statutory right. Statement 2 is correct: Confirmed in multiple SC judgments. Statement 3 is correct: The 61st Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18. National List of Essential Diagnostics (NLED) 2025 Syllabus: GS2 – Health Context: ICMR expanded diagnostic coverage at PHCs and CHCs via NLED 2025. Highlights: Rapid tests for Hepatitis B, syphilis, sickle cell anaemia. Molecular TB tests at sub-centre level; samples collected & sent up. Biochemical testing (glucose, liver enzymes) at PHCs. Dental X-rays and TB skin test at

karthik July 21, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 21 july 2025 – Tone Academy

INS Nistar: India’s First Indigenous Diving Support Vessel Syllabus: GS3 – Defence | GS2 – Government Initiatives     Context: The Indian Navy commissioned INS Nistar in Visakhapatnam on July 18, 2025. This vessel marks a major leap in India’s naval capabilities, particularly in deep-sea rescue operations. About INS Nistar: Historical Reference: – The original INS Nistar was a submarine rescue vessel acquired from the Soviet Union in 1969 and decommissioned in 1989. Indigenous Construction: – New INS Nistar is the first-ever indigenously designed and built Diving Support Vessel (DSV). – Built by Hindustan Shipyard Limited, it has over 80% indigenous content, involving around 120 MSMEs.   Key Features: – Displacement: Over 10,000 tonnes – Length: 118 meters – Diving Capacity: Can conduct operations up to 300m depth – Equipment:   Remotely Operated Vehicles (ROVs)   Self-Propelled Hyperbaric Life Boat   Diving Compression Chambers   15-tonne subsea crane – Medical Facilities: Includes an ICU, operation theatre, 8-bed hospital with hyperbaric   capability – Aviation Support: Capable of helicopter operations – Serves as the mother ship for deep submergence rescue vessels   Strategic Role: – Enhances India’s capacity for submarine rescue missions – Only a few navies globally possess such capabilities   Significance: Aatmanirbhar Bharat in Defence: – A flagship example of India’s shift towards self-reliance in defence production. – All 57 warships currently in the pipeline are being constructed indigenously. Geostrategic Role: – Reinforces India’s image as the “First Responder” and “Preferred Security Partner” in the Indo-Pacific region. – Strengthens India’s Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA) and deep-sea capability.   Way Forward: Promote domestic defence industries and MSMEs involved in naval constructionBuild specialized vessels with multi-role utility• Strengthen joint naval rescue protocols with friendly nations in IOR Consider the following statements regarding INS Nistar: It is India’s first indigenously built aircraft carrier. It can support diving operations up to 300 meters deep. It is equipped with hyperbaric medical facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: B Explanation:– Statement 1 is incorrect: INS Nistar is a Diving Support Vessel, not an aircraft carrier.– Statement 2 is correct: It can conduct rescue ops up to 300m depth.– Statement 3 is correct: It has an ICU, operation theatre, and hyperbaric facilities. Hindu Kush Himalayas: Rising Threat of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) Syllabus: GS1 – Geography | GS3 – Environment, Disaster Management     Context: According to the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD), the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) region is experiencing a surge in Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) due to climate change and rising temperatures.   About Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs): Definition: – GLOFs occur when a large volume of water is suddenly released from glacial lakes formed by melting glaciers, causing catastrophic flooding downstream. Drivers of GLOFs: – Rising temperatures → Accelerated glacier melting – Formation of supraglacial lakes (meltwater ponds on the surface of glaciers) – Weak natural dams (ice or moraine) prone to collapse Features of Supraglacial Lakes: – Often difficult to detect – Dynamic in nature – expand, merge, and overflow suddenly – Common in debris-covered glaciers   About the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) Region Geographical Extent: – Spans ~3,500 km across 8 countries: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan Hydrological Importance: – Source of 10 major Asian river systems, including:   Indus   Ganges   Brahmaputra (Yarlung Tsangpo)   Irrawaddy   Salween, Mekong, Yangtse, Yellow River, Amu Darya, and Tarim Human Dependency: – Supports nearly 2 billion people for food, water, and energy security – Rich in biodiversity and endemic species   Institutional Framework ICIMOD (International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development): – Intergovernmental knowledge centre headquartered in Kathmandu, Nepal – Works with 8 HKH countries for climate resilience, disaster management, and sustainable development   Impacts of GLOFs Direct Impacts: – Flash floods – Loss of lives and infrastructure – Destruction of hydropower, agriculture, and human settlements Wider Concerns: – Downstream water insecurity – Ecosystem destabilization – Triggering of secondary hazards like landslides   Way Forward Early Warning Systems (EWS): – Real-time satellite and sensor-based monitoring of glacial lakes Risk Mapping and Zonation: – Identify GLOF-prone lakes and vulnerable valleys Community Preparedness: – Local disaster resilience plans, training, and emergency infrastructure Regional Cooperation: – Cross-border data sharing and policy coordination among HKH countries Consider the following statements about the Hindu Kush Himalaya region: It is the source of ten major Asian river systems. It spans across 5 countries only. Supraglacial lakes formed in this region are easily detectable. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A Explanation:– Statement 1 is correct: HKH is the origin of 10 major river systems.– Statement 2 is incorrect: It spans 8 countries.– Statement 3 is incorrect: Supraglacial lakes are hard to detect due to their dynamic nature and debris cover. Lion-Tailed Macaque and the Sharavathi Valley Sanctuary: Conservation vs Development Syllabus: GS3 – Environment | GS1 – Geography | GS2 – Governance   Context: The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has granted in-principle approval to divert 142.76 hectares of forest land in the Sharavathi Valley Lion-Tailed Macaque Wildlife Sanctuary, Karnataka, for the Sharavathi Pumped Storage Project (2,000 MW).   Sharavathi Valley Lion-Tailed Macaque Sanctuary Location: – Situated in the Western Ghats of Karnataka — a UNESCO World Heritage site and one of the eight “hottest hotspots” of biodiversity in the world. Ecological Significance: – Home to ~700 Lion-Tailed Macaques — the highest protected-area population of this endangered species. Biodiversity Hub: – Tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests – Rich bird and insect diversity – Endemic species across the floral and faunal spectrum     Lion-Tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus) Appearance: – Recognizable by its silver-white mane and tufted tail, contrasting with its dark fur Habitat and Range: – Endemic to the Western Ghats of South India – Prefers dense, tropical evergreen rainforests (Sholas), mostly in the upper canopy Conservation Status: – IUCN Red List: Endangered – CITES: Appendix I – India’s WPA, 1972: Schedule I (highest protection) Population: – Fewer than 2,500 individuals remain in the wild – Highly fragmented populations vulnerable to local extinction Behavior and Diet: – Largely arboreal and frugivorous – Also consumes shoots, insects, and flowers – May adapt to human-modified

karthik July 19, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 19 july 2025 – Tone Academy

Eswatini: Absolute Monarchy in Southern Africa Syllabus: GS1 – Geography | GS2 – Polity & Governance Context: The United States deported five foreign nationals convicted of crimes to Eswatini, drawing attention to this lesser-known African monarchy.     Key Facts about Eswatini: Landlocked country in Southern Africa; borders South Africa and Mozambique. Formerly known as Swaziland; renamed Eswatini in 2018 to shed colonial identity. Member of the Common Monetary Area (CMA) alongside Lesotho, Namibia, and South Africa. One of the last absolute monarchies in the world. King Mswati III has ruled since 1986, exercising centralized control through decrees. Socio-economic issues: Over 50% population lives on <$4/day; highest HIV rate globally (~26%).   Way Forward: Strengthen democratic institutions and civil society engagement. Enhance healthcare access, particularly HIV/AIDS treatment. Leverage regional partnerships within CMA for economic growth. Consider the following statements: Eswatini shares borders with South Africa and Zimbabwe. It is the only absolute monarchy in Africa. Eswatini uses its own independent currency and is not part of any monetary union. Which of the above statements is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: It borders South Africa and Mozambique, not Zimbabwe. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: It is part of the Common Monetary Area. Cabo Delgado Region: LNG Projects and Climate Concerns Syllabus: GS1 – Geography | GS3 – Environment Context: A study warns that proposed LNG projects in Mozambique’s Cabo Delgado could significantly increase global GHG emissions.   Geographic Significance: Cabo Delgado is Mozambique’s northernmost province, bordering Tanzania and the Indian Ocean. Located near the Rovuma Basin, a hub of natural gas reserves. Strategic for energy exports but vulnerable to climate and security risks.   Concerns: Projects could lead to substantial CO₂ emissions if fully exploited. Human rights concerns due to insurgencies and displacement in the region. Risks of environmental degradation and marine ecosystem disruption.   Way Forward: Promote sustainable energy transitions and just financing. Improve governance and community involvement in project design. Monitor ecological impacts with international oversight. Which of the following statements about the Cabo Delgado region is/are correct? It borders Tanzania and the Indian Ocean. It is located in southern Mozambique. It lies near the Rovuma Basin, rich in natural gas reserves. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: AExplanation:Statement 2 is incorrect – Cabo Delgado is in northern Mozambique.   Statement 1: CorrectCabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique. It shares an international border with Tanzania to the north and has a coastline along the Indian Ocean to the east. This geographic positioning makes it strategically significant, especially for trade, security, and resource extraction. Statement 2: IncorrectCabo Delgado is not in southern Mozambique. It is located in the northern part of the country. The confusion may arise because much of Mozambique’s population and economic centers lie in the south, but Cabo Delgado is a remote, underdeveloped region far from the capital, Maputo. Statement 3: CorrectThe Rovuma Basin, which extends along the border with Tanzania and into the Indian Ocean, is rich in offshore natural gas reserves. Major global energy companies like TotalEnergies and ExxonMobil have invested in LNG (liquefied natural gas) projects in the area. This natural wealth, however, has also made the region vulnerable to insurgency and conflict, as armed groups vie for control and influence. Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha Syllabus: GS2 – Polity & Governance Context: As the Monsoon Session begins, it is vital to understand parliamentary procedures that shape democratic dialogue in India.   Key Mechanisms in Lok Sabha: Rule 377: For raising non-point-of-order issues. Question Hour: MPs question ministries on various issues. Zero Hour: Post-Question Hour slot for raising urgent issues (not officially in rules). Rule 193 & 184: Allow discussions with/without voting. Adjournment Motion: Suspends business to discuss urgent matters. No-Confidence Motion: If passed, results in the fall of the government.   Rajya Sabha Parallels: Rule 180A–E for public importance matters.   Way Forward: Uphold parliamentary conventions. Ensure timely answers to MPs’ queries. Use tools like Zero Hour responsibly for public interest. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? Rule 193 – Discussion with voting Rule 377 – Raising matters of public importance Question Hour – Raised post lunch session A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. All of the above Answer: BExplanation: Rule 193 is for discussion without Question Hour is the first hour of the sitting, not post-lunch. Public Accounts Committee (PAC) on Aadhaar Verification Failures Syllabus: GS2 – Governance | Accountability Mechanisms   Context: PAC has called for review of UIDAI’s functioning due to concerns over biometric verification failures.   About PAC: Established in 1921; key financial oversight body. Reviews use of public funds, CAG reports, tax administration. 22 members (15 LS, 7 RS); chaired by opposition MP.   Concerns Raised: High biometric mismatch rates exclude genuine beneficiaries. Affects access to welfare schemes. With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) and Aadhaar verification issues, consider the following statements: The PAC consists of only Lok Sabha members. The Chairperson of the PAC is conventionally from the ruling party. PAC has raised concerns over biometric mismatches affecting welfare delivery.       Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The PAC has members from both Lok Sabha (15) and Rajya Sabha (7). Statement 2 is incorrect: The chairperson is usually from the opposition. Statement 3 is correct: PAC highlighted that biometric mismatch under Aadhaar leads to exclusion from welfare schemes. Maulana Azad National Fellowship (MANF) Syllabus: GS2 – Governance | Welfare for Minorities   Context: Pending MANF payments have been released after a seven-month delay.   About MANF: Launched in 2009-10 for minority students pursuing MPhil/PhD. Covers six notified communities: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Parsis, Buddhists. Administered by Ministry of Minority Affairs.   Scope: For

karthik July 18, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 18 july 2025 – Tone Academy

Swachh Survekshan 2024-25 Awards Latest News Syllabus:Awards The President of India recently presented the Swachh Survekshan 2024–25 Awards at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. The event was organized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).   About the Awards: This was the 9th edition of the world’s largest urban cleanliness survey.It is conducted under the Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban (SBM-U).A total of 78 awardees were recognized, including cities, cantonment boards, and institutions.   Top Rankings: Indore, Surat, and Navi Mumbai were ranked as the top three cities under the newly launched Super Swachh League, which honors consistent performance.Vijayawada secured the fourth position overall. Key Recognitions: Ahmedabad, Bhopal, and Lucknow were honored as leading Swachh Shehars.Prayagraj was awarded as the Best Ganga Town.Secunderabad Cantonment Board received recognition for its exceptional sanitation management.Visakhapatnam, Jabalpur, and Gorakhpur were named Best SafaiMitra Surakshit Shehars for their commitment to sanitation worker welfare.   Special Honors: The Government of Uttar Pradesh, the Prayagraj Mela Adhikari, and the Municipal Corporation of Prayagraj received special recognition for effectively managing urban sanitation during the Mahakumbh, which witnessed a footfall of approximately 66 crore people.   New Initiatives: The “One City, One Award” principle was introduced to ensure fair competition among cities of different sizes.Thirty-four cities were declared Promising Swachh Shehars for their significant progress in sanitation and cleanliness. With reference to the “Super Swachh League” introduced in Swachh Survekshan 2024–25, consider the following statements: It is awarded to cities that have secured first rank in their population categories in the current year only. Indore, Surat, and Navi Mumbai were ranked among the top three under this category. The league was created to reward consistent top performance over multiple years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the Super Swachh League wasn’t just about the top performance in the current year. It was designed to honor cities with consistent high rankings over several years, thus rewarding sustained excellence.Statement 2 is correct. Indore, Surat, and Navi Mumbai were the top three performers in the newly introduced Super Swachh League.Statement 3 is correct and central to the League’s purpose: recognizing consistent excellence rather than one-time wins. West Bank Displacement Crisis Syllabus: GS1/Places in News Context: The UN reported unprecedented levels of displacement in the West Bank, the highest since the start of Israeli occupation nearly 60 years ago.     Geographical Location: Lies west of the Jordan River. Bordered by: Israel (west), Jordan (east), and Jerusalem (south-west). Major cities: Ramallah (Palestinian Authority’s administrative capital), Hebron, Nablus, Jenin, Bethlehem.   Historical Background: 1948: Post Arab-Israeli War, Jordan occupied the West Bank. 1967: Captured by Israel during the Six-Day War. 1993–1995 Oslo Accords: Divided the West Bank into: Area A: Full Palestinian civil & security control. Area B: Palestinian civil control & joint Israeli-Palestinian security. Area C: Full Israeli control (about 60% of territory). Consider the following pairs: Area Control under Oslo Accords A Full Israeli control B Joint Palestinian-Israeli civil control C Full Palestinian civil and security control Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? A. 1 onlyB. 3 onlyC. NoneD. All Answer: C Explanation: Area A → Full Palestinian control Area B → Palestinian civil + joint security Area C → Full Israeli control All given pairings in the question are incorrectly matched, hence the correct answer is None.   Euthanasia in India Syllabus: GS2/Governance Context: Kerala allows euthanasia of diseased stray dogs under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Animal Husbandry Practices and Procedures) Rules 2023.   Legal Framework: Section 8 of Animal Husbandry Rules (2023): Permits euthanasia if an animal is: Severely diseased (risk of spread). Mortally/severely injured. Must be certified by a registered veterinary practitioner.   Types of Euthanasia: Active: Direct intervention (e.g. lethal injection). Passive: Withdrawing life support/treatment.   Supreme Court Guidelines: 2011 (Aruna Shanbaug case): Passive euthanasia allowed in specific conditions. 2018: Legalized passive euthanasia for terminally ill, under Article 21 (Right to Die with Dignity). Requires advance directive or court-sanctioned decision. Permits DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) orders. With reference to euthanasia and its legal status in India, consider the following statements: Active euthanasia is legally permitted in India under the 2018 Supreme Court judgment. Passive euthanasia includes withdrawal of nutrition and hydration if approved by the court or living will. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 prohibits all forms of euthanasia for stray animals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Active euthanasia is not legal in India. Only passive euthanasia is allowed. Statement 2 is correct: Passive euthanasia includes withdrawal of nutrition, hydration, etc., as per a living will or court approval. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2023 Animal Husbandry Rules under PCA Act permit euthanasia under medical grounds. HIV Pre-exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) Syllabus: GS2/Health   Context: Aurobindo, Cipla, and Viatris to manufacture injectable cabotegravir (CAB LA) for HIV treatment in 133 countries.     About PrEP: Preventive antiretroviral use by HIV-negative individuals. Blocks HIV replication post-exposure. Forms: Oral pills: Truvada (TDF/FTC), Descovy (TAF/FTC). Injectables: Apretude (cabotegravir): Every 2 months. Yeztugo: Every 6 months. With reference to injectable Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention, consider the following statements: Cabotegravir injectable (Apretude) is administered once every 6 months. PrEP works by directly neutralizing HIV before it enters host cells. India has initiated domestic production of injectable PrEP drugs under voluntary licensing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Apretude is taken every 2 months, not 6. (Yeztugo is every 6 months.) Statement 2 is incorrect: PrEP prevents HIV replication post-exposure, it doesn’t neutralize virus entry. Statement 3 is correct: Indian companies like Aurobindo, Cipla have signed agreements to manufacture CAB LA. NATO

karthik July 17, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 17 july 2025 – Tone Academy

Earthquake Preparedness in India: Wake-up Call from Delhi Tremor Syllabus: GS1 – Geography | GS3 – Disaster Management Context: A 4.4 magnitude earthquake near Delhi has spotlighted India’s vulnerability and unpreparedness in seismic zones.   Seismic Zonation in India• 59% of India’s landmass is earthquake-prone, divided into Zones II–V.• High-risk zones: Himalayan belt, Northeast, Andaman & Nicobar Islands.• Delhi lies in Zone IV, highly susceptible to moderate to severe tremors.   Urban Vulnerability• Most buildings in Delhi lack compliance with IS 1893:2016 seismic norms.• Older infrastructure, high population density, and poor urban planning increase risk.• Liquefaction risk in floodplains like Delhi and Guwahati.   Government Initiatives• National Building Code 2021 promotes earthquake-safe designs.• BIS building guidelines revised; new earthquake zoning map proposed.• Disaster Management Act 2005 enables NDMA and SDMAs to enforce resilience.• Mobile app ‘BhooKamp’ launched for real-time alerts.   Way Forward• Strict building code enforcement, retrofitting critical structures, public education, and robust early warning systems are essential for urban resilience. Consider the following statements regarding earthquake risk and preparedness in India: Delhi falls under Seismic Zone V as per the Bureau of Indian Standards. Liquefaction risk is a concern in floodplain cities like Delhi and Guwahati. The National Building Code 2021 is a legally binding framework for seismic design. Which of the above statements is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Delhi lies in Seismic Zone IV, not V. Statement 2 is correct: Liquefaction is a risk in floodplain areas due to loose soil and high water tables. Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Building Code provides guidelines but is not legally binding unless incorporated into local bylaws. UN SDG Report 2025: Course Correction Needed Syllabus: GS2 – Governance, International Reports Context: The UN’s 2025 SDG Progress Report reveals major setbacks with just 5 years to meet the 2030 Agenda.     Key Findings:• 35% of targets are stagnating or regressing.• SDG 2 (Zero Hunger), SDG 4 (Education), SDG 6 (Water), SDG 8 (Work), SDG 10 (Inequality) face severe challenges.• 2.3 billion affected by food insecurity; 57% of education goals off track.   Positive Trends• 40% decline in HIV cases; rise in malaria prevention.• Broader social protection coverage seen globally.   India’s Context• SDG India Index by NITI Aayog aligns domestic priorities with global targets.• Strong performance in clean energy (SDG 7), climate action (SDG 13), but education and inequality lag.   Recommendations• Renewed political will, reforming global finance (Sevilla Commitment), improved data tracking (Medellín Framework), and focused action on lagging goals.   With reference to the 2025 UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Progress Report, consider the following: SDG 13 (Climate Action) is among the most severely lagging targets globally. The Sevilla Commitment advocates reform in global financing for SDGs. Medellín Framework focuses on educational inclusivity among indigenous populations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: SDG 13 has shown progress in India, though global challenges remain. Statement 2 is correct: The Sevilla Commitment pushes for reform in global financing systems for SDG implementation. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Medellín Framework pertains to data tracking and monitoring, not indigenous education. Adoption Crisis in India: Too Few Children, Too Many Waiting Parents Syllabus: GS2 – Governance, Vulnerable Sections Context:• An RTI reveals a sharp mismatch between adoptable children and registered prospective parents.   Current Scenario• Ratio of families to adoptable children is 13:1 (2025), up from 11:1 in 2021.• 36,000+ families wait; only 2,652 children legally free for adoption.• Average wait time has increased to 3–5 years.     Root Causes• Delay in declaring children legally free due to red tape.• Most children in CCIs (Child Care Institutions) not eligible for adoption.• Bias against older children and legal ambiguity post-amendment to JJ Act.   Legal and Institutional Framework• Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) governs adoptions under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.• Hague Convention compliance adds global legitimacy. Need of the Hour• Streamline adoption process, improve inter-agency coordination, increase awareness about special needs and older child adoption. Which of the following is/are contributing factors to the adoption crisis in India? Most children in Child Care Institutions are not legally eligible for adoption. The Hague Convention prohibits inter-country adoption of special-needs children. The Juvenile Justice (Amendment) Act has led to reduced adoption eligibility. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is correct: Many children are in CCIs but not declared legally free, hence not adoptable. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Hague Convention allows inter-country adoption, including of special-needs children, under proper safeguards. Statement 3 is correct: Recent amendments have slowed processes due to ambiguities in child status. 4. PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana: A District-Level Agri Push Syllabus: GS3 – Agriculture, Government Schemes Context:• The Union Cabinet launched a ₹24,000 crore annual scheme to boost agriculture in 100 underperforming districts. Key Features• Integrates 36 existing schemes across 11 ministries.• Aims to increase productivity, promote diversification, and modernize farming.• Special emphasis on irrigation, credit access, and post-harvest facilities.     Implementation Strategy• Unified District Agriculture & Allied Plan (DAAP) for convergence.• 117 Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) monitored via digital dashboard.• NITI Aayog and Central Officers to supervise progress.   Significance• Aims to bridge yield gaps and boost rural incomes.• Aligns with goals of doubling farmers’ income and sustainable agriculture. Which of the following correctly describe features of the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana? It is targeted at 100 aspirational districts with low agricultural productivity. It merges all schemes under the Ministry of Agriculture. The DAAP strategy aims for inter-ministerial convergence at district level. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: BExplanation: Statement 1 is correct: Targets 100 underperforming