Category: Daily Current Affairs & Editorials

Exercise Tiger Triumph 2025 Syllabus:Defence Location: Eastern Seaboard, IndiaType: Bilateral Tri-Service Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise between India and the United States                                  Objective: Enhance interoperability between the Indian and US armed forces for HADR operations. Develop Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for effective crisis response. Establish a Combined Coordination Center (CCC) to manage joint task force operations seamlessly.   Participating Forces: Indian Armed Forces Indian Navy: INS Jalashwa, INS Gharial, INS Mumbai, INS Shakti, P-8I Aircraft, Helicopters, Landing Crafts Indian Army: 91 Infantry Brigade, 12 Mechanized Infantry Battalion Indian Air Force (IAF): C-130 Aircraft, MI-17 Helicopters, Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) US Armed Forces US Navy: USS Comstock, USS Ralph Johnson, US Navy Medical Team US Marine Division: Troops, Medical Team   Phases of the Exercise: Harbour Phase (April 1–7, 2025) – Visakhapatnam Opening Ceremony on INS Jalashwa (April 1) with joint flag parade and media interaction. Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEE) and training visits. Sports and social interaction events to strengthen bilateral ties. Operational planning for Sea Phase. Sea Phase (April 8–13, 2025) – Off Kakinada Joint maritime, amphibious, and HADR operations. Joint medical camps at Kakinada Naval Enclave. Establishment of Joint Command and Control Center by Indian Army and US Marines. Joint medical aid operations conducted by IAF RAMT and US Navy medical teams. Closing Ceremony on USS Comstock (April 13, 2025) at Visakhapatnam.   Strategic Importance: Strengthens India-US military cooperation in disaster response. Enhances crisis response mechanisms for natural disasters. Improves tactical coordination in maritime and amphibious operations. Reinforces defense diplomacy and fosters closer ties between India and the US. With reference to Exercise Tiger Triumph 2025, consider the following statements: The exercise aims to enhance the interoperability between the Indian and US armed forces specifically for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations. The establishment of a Combined Coordination Center (CCC) is intended to streamline the management of joint task force operations during the crisis response phase of the exercise. The Indian Air Force’s (IAF) Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) will collaborate with the US Navy Medical Team in conducting joint medical operations, but the IAF will not participate in the Sea Phase of the exercise. The Sea Phase will be primarily focused on joint medical aid operations, with minimal engagement in maritime and amphibious operations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1, 2, and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 4 only Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only   Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Exercise Tiger Triumph 2025 is designed to enhance interoperability between the Indian and US armed forces, specifically for Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations. This is the central focus of the exercise. Statement 2 is correct: The exercise emphasizes the establishment of a Combined Coordination Center (CCC) to manage joint task force operations, ensuring efficient coordination during disaster response operations between the Indian and US forces. Statement 3 is incorrect: The IAF Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) will participate in the Sea Phase of the exercise, particularly in joint medical operations with the US Navy Medical Team. The IAF is involved in both the Sea and Harbour Phases of the exercise, particularly with its C-130 aircraft, MI-17 helicopters, and RAMT. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Sea Phase is not solely focused on joint medical aid operations. In fact, the Sea Phase involves a comprehensive combination of joint maritime, amphibious, and HADR operations, with medical operations being just one aspect. The exercise emphasizes tactical coordination in maritime and amphibious operations as well. Startup Mahakumbh 2025 Scheduled for April 3-5, 2025, at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi, Startup Mahakumbh 2025 is a groundbreaking initiative by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA), designed to empower Scheduled Tribe (ST) The event provides a dynamic platform for tribal innovators to showcase their businesses and connect with industry leaders, investors, and mentors. It coincides with Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, celebrating the 150th birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, a revered tribal leader.   Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 As a flagship initiative under MoTA, Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 highlights the significance of tribal entrepreneurship. It encourages inclusive economic growth and fosters self-reliance among tribal communities. The event will feature over 45 startups founded by ST entrepreneurs, with support from esteemed institutions such as IIM Calcutta and IIT Bhilai. These startups are expected to play a crucial role in enhancing the economic and social status of tribal communities.   Key Objectives of Startup Mahakumbh 2025 Promote Tribal Entrepreneurship and Innovation: Provide ST entrepreneurs with the opportunity to present their innovations to venture capitalists and investors. Facilitate Networking and Mentorship: Create a collaborative environment to help tribal entrepreneurs connect with industry experts, investors, and mentors. Support Atma Nirbhar Bharat: Align with the government’s vision of promoting self-reliance and sustainable economic growth within tribal communities.   Strategic Partnerships and Funding MoTA has established strategic partnerships with leading institutions like IIM Calcutta and IIT Delhi, creating a strong ecosystem for tribal entrepreneurs. The government has also set up a Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes, with an initial corpus of ₹50 crore. This fund will specifically support innovation and entrepreneurship among tribal communities.   Commitment to Inclusive Growth The initiative underscores the government’s commitment to inclusive growth. Tribal entrepreneurs are key to preserving cultural heritage and contributing to the broader economy. Through this event, MoTA aims to elevate tribal startups to national and global platforms, fostering economic empowerment for tribal communities across India. With reference to Startup Mahakumbh 2025 and Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025, consider the following statements: Startup Mahakumbh 2025 is a Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) initiative designed to empower tribal entrepreneurs by providing a platform for networking with industry leaders, investors, and mentors. Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 is specifically aimed at showcasing startups founded by Scheduled Tribe (ST) entrepreneurs, with the event receiving support from institutions like IIM Calcutta and IIT Bhilai. The Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes, with an initial corpus of

Concerns of Rising of ‘1 Person, 1 Family’ Culture Syllabus: GS1/Society Context The Supreme Court of India has raised concerns about the growing erosion of traditional family values, noting the rise of a ‘1 person, 1 family’ culture. This shift contrasts with India’s deep-rooted philosophy of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam—”the world is one family.”   Understanding Family A family is a social unit based on common residence, economic cooperation, and reproduction. It plays a fundamental role in shaping an individual’s identity, values, and behavior.In India, the family has traditionally been more than a kinship unit—it has been a moral, emotional, and economic pillar, fostering interpersonal bonds, generational wisdom, and social discipline.   Rise of the ‘1 Person, 1 Family’ Culture India’s historically strong joint family system is undergoing a transformation. More individuals are opting to live alone or in nuclear family setups, reflecting evolving social dynamics and personal aspirations. This trend is particularly visible in urban centers, where young professionals, entrepreneurs, and even elderly individuals are choosing solitude or smaller family structures over large, interdependent households.   Factors Driving This Shift Urbanization and Economic Independence Migration to metropolitan cities for career growth has led to a preference for independent living. Cities like Mumbai, Bengaluru, and Delhi report a surge in single-person households. Changing Aspirations and Individualism The focus on personal growth, career advancement, and self-development has led to a shift from collective family responsibilities to individual fulfillment. Traditional family hierarchies are increasingly being challenged. Delayed Marriages and Evolving Relationship Norms Marriage is being postponed, and alternative relationship models such as live-in arrangements and single parenting are gaining acceptance. India’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has dropped to 2.0, below the replacement level, signaling changing family dynamics. Economic Pressures The rising cost of living and demanding work schedules make joint family living impractical in urban areas. Western Influence Exposure to global lifestyles through education, employment, and social media has influenced family choices in India.   Declining Moral and Ethical Values Increased materialism and individualism have diminished virtues like empathy, respect, and sacrifice—values crucial for strong family ties.   Challenges Posed by the ‘1 Person, 1 Family’ Trend Mental Health Issues – Loneliness and social isolation, especially among older adults and remote workers. Financial Burdens – Living alone increases expenses, making financial management more challenging. Weakened Family Bonds – Reduced intergenerational relationships and a declining sense of collective responsibility.   Conclusion The Supreme Court’s concerns highlight the need for society to introspect on the changing nature of family relationships. While legal interventions can address disputes, fostering empathy, respect, and unity within families is crucial to preserving India’s social fabric. Balancing modern aspirations with traditional values can help sustain strong familial ties while adapting to evolving societal needs. In the long run, the persistence of the ‘1 Person, 1 Family’ trend is most likely to impact which of the following policy areas in India? Urban housing and real estate policies2. Social security and pension reforms3. Employment and labor market strategies4. Fertilizer subsidies for agricultural expansion (a) 1, 2, and 3 only(b) 2, 3, and 4 only(c) 1 and 4 only(d) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only  Explanation: Urban housing policies (1) will be impacted as demand for compact, affordable homes increases. Social security and pension systems (2) will be strained due to a rising elderly population without strong family support. Employment strategies (3) must adapt to a mobile, independent workforce with a preference for flexible jobs. However, fertilizer subsidies (4) are unrelated, as the decline in joint families is an urban phenomenon, not tied to agricultural policy. Union Cabinet Approved Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme Syllabus: GS3/Economy India’s Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme: Strengthening Atmanirbhar Bharat   Context: The Union Cabinet, led by the Prime Minister, has approved the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme, allocating ₹22,919 crore to strengthen India’s electronics supply chain and reduce import dependency.   Objectives of the Scheme: Establish a robust component ecosystem by attracting global and domestic investments. Enhance Domestic Value Addition (DVA) through capacity and capability Integrate Indian manufacturers into Global Value Chains (GVCs). Expected Outcomes: Attract investments worth ₹59,350 crore. Facilitate electronic production worth ₹4,56,500 crore. Generate 91,600 direct jobs along with numerous indirect employment opportunities. Duration: Six years, with a one-year gestation period.   India’s Electronics Sector: The electronics industry is one of the most rapidly expanding and globally traded sectors, with strategic and economic importance due to its cross-sectoral influence. Key Growth Indicators: Domestic Production: Grew from ₹1.90 lakh crore in 2014-15 to ₹9.52 lakh crore in 2023-24, achieving a CAGR of over 17%. Exports: Increased from ₹0.38 lakh crore in 2014-15 to ₹2.41 lakh crore in 2023-24, registering a CAGR of 20%. Mobile Manufacturing: India is the second-largest mobile phone producer globally. Semiconductors: The sector has gained momentum, with ₹1.52 lakh crore invested in five major semiconductor projects. Future Projection: India’s electronics production is projected to reach USD 300 billion by 2026.   Challenges in the Electronics Manufacturing Sector: Import Dependency: Heavy reliance on imported components, especially semiconductors, increases costs and supply chain risks. Infrastructure Deficiencies: Lack of world-class manufacturing facilities and efficient logistics hampers large-scale production. Shortage of Skilled Workforce: Limited talent pool for high-end manufacturing and R&D. Capital-Intensive Industry: Establishing semiconductor and electronics fabs requires high capital investment, deterring new entrants. Technological Gaps: Limited cutting-edge innovation in key areas of the electronic value chain. Global Competition: Intense rivalry with established electronics manufacturing hubs such as China, Taiwan, South Korea, and Vietnam.   Key Government Initiatives for Electronics Manufacturing: Make in India (2014) Aimed at transforming India into a global design and manufacturing hub. Phased Manufacturing Programme (PMP) (2017) Focused on increasing domestic value addition in mobile phone and component manufacturing.   Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme (2020) Incentives: 3% to 6% on incremental sales for eligible companies. Objective: Boost domestic manufacturing in mobile phones, electronic components, and semiconductor packaging. Duration: 5 years. Semicon India Program (2021) Financial Outlay: ₹76,000 crore. Objective: Develop a domestic semiconductor industry through incentives and global

Rajneet Kohli Appointed as Executive Director of Foods at HUL Syllabus:Polity   Key Appointment Rajneet Kohli to assume role at Hindustan Unilever (HUL) from April 7, 2025 Succeeds Shiva Krishnamurthy, who is stepping down for an external opportunity   Professional Background Former CEO & Executive Director at Britannia Industries (until March 14, 2025) Brings 30 years of experience in consumer and retail sectors Previously worked with Asian Paints, Coca-Cola, Jubilant FoodWorks, and Britannia   HUL’s Foods & Refreshment Business Includes brands like Kissan, Bru, Knorr, Brooke Bond, Horlicks, Lipton, and Hellmann’s Contributed ₹15,292 crore in revenue (FY24), 25% of HUL’s total turnover   Kohli’s Impact at Britannia Strengthened Britannia’s leadership in the food and bakery segment Led product innovation and digital transformation Recent Leadership Changes at HUL Rohit Jawa – MD & CEO (since June 2023) Harman Dhillon – Executive Director, Beauty & Well-being (2023) Arun Neelakantan – Executive Director, Customer Development (June 2024) Kohli’s leadership is expected to further accelerate HUL’s growth in the foods and refreshment segment With reference to corporate leadership transitions in FMCG companies, consider the following statements: Rajneet Kohli’s appointment as Executive Director – Foods & Refreshment at HUL marks his first leadership role in the FMCG sector. The Foods & Refreshment segment contributes over one-third of Hindustan Unilever’s total revenue. Kohli’s prior experience includes leadership roles in multinational corporations across multiple consumer-driven industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3  Answer: (c) 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Rajneet Kohli has previously held leadership roles in Britannia, Coca-Cola, Jubilant FoodWorks, and Asian Paints, making this not his first leadership role in the FMCG sector. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Foods & Refreshment segment contributed ₹15,292 crore in FY24, which is 25% of HUL’s total revenue, not over one-third. Statement 3 is correct: Kohli has extensive experience across multiple consumer sectors, including food, beverages, paints, and quick-service restaurants. Cabinet Approves 2% Hike in DA for Government Employees Syllabus: Polity   Key Highlights: Increase in DA/DR: Raised from 53% to 55% of Basic Pay/Pension. Effective Date: January 1, 2025.   Beneficiaries: Central Government Employees:66 lakh. Pensioners:55 lakh.   Financial Impact: Estimated additional burden on the exchequer: ₹6,614.04 crore per annum.   Background: DA is revised twice a year (January and July), based on the All India Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (AICPI-IW). Last revision: July 2024, when DA increased from 50% to 53%. Calculation follows the 7th Central Pay Commission’s   Purpose of DA/DR: Designed to offset inflation and preserve the purchasing power of government employees. Increasing speculation about the 8th Pay Commission has heightened interest in DA revisions. With reference to the recent increase in Dearness Allowance (DA) and Dearness Relief (DR) by the Union Government, consider the following statements: The DA hike is determined solely based on the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) to account for inflationary trends. The increase in DA is applicable only to central government employees and does not extend to pensioners. The 7th Central Pay Commission provides the formula for DA calculation, which is revised twice a year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 3 only(c) 1 and 2 only(d) 2 and 3 only Answer: (b) 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The DA hike is based on the All India Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (AICPI-IW), not the Wholesale Price Index (WPI). The AICPI-IW reflects the cost of living and inflation experienced by government employees. Statement 2 is incorrect: DA is applicable to both government employees and pensioners, in the form of DA for serving employees and Dearness Relief (DR) for pensioners. Statement 3 is correct: The 7th Central Pay Commission provides the formula for DA revision, which is revised biannually (January and July) based on AICPI-IW. Panel Recommends Framework for Direct Recruitment in CBI Syllabus: GS2/Governance   Key Recommendations Independent Recruitment Framework: Currently, many posts are filled through deputation from various organizations. The committee suggests an independent recruitment system for CBI. Recruitment could be conducted via SSC, UPSC, or a dedicated CBI examination. Lateral entry should be introduced for experts in cybercrime, forensics, financial fraud, and legal fields. Deputation should be limited to senior posts only. CBI should develop an in-house expertise team to reduce reliance on external specialists.   State Consent for Investigations: The committee recommends a new law allowing CBI to investigate cases related to national security and integrity without requiring state government consent. The law should include safeguards to maintain neutrality and prevent undue influence.   Permanent Cadre Establishment: CBI should create a permanent cadre with structured career growth. This would provide stability and reduce dependency on officers from other agencies. Challenges Faced by CBI   Lack of Autonomy & Operational Constraints: CBI operates under the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, which limits its independence. Investigations require state government consent, leading to frequent delays and political hurdles. Eight states have withdrawn general consent, restricting CBI’s jurisdiction.   Manpower Shortages: Nearly 16% of sanctioned positions remain vacant, affecting investigations.   Dependence on Deputation: CBI struggles to fill posts below inspector rank due to a shortage of suitable state police officers.   About the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Established: 1963, based on the Santhanam Committee’s recommendations on corruption prevention. Ministry: Operates under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions.     Jurisdiction: Requires state government consent for investigations unless covered under general consent.   Leadership: The CBI Director is appointed for a fixed two-year tenure based on recommendations from a three-member Appointment Committee. The committee’s recommendations aim to enhance CBI’s independence, efficiency, and expertise, ensuring it remains a robust investigative agency. Regarding the recruitment process in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements: The majority of CBI personnel are recruited independently through a dedicated CBI examination. Deputation from other government agencies remains the primary mode of filling key posts in CBI. The Parliamentary Committee has recommended lateral entry for

India Pitch for UNSC Reforms Syllabus: GS2/International Organization India Calls for UNSC Reform to Ensure Lasting Peace   Security of Peacekeepers UN peacekeepers today face a multitude of threats, including non-state actors, armed groups, and terrorists. India emphasizes the need for enhanced safety measures and security protocols for peacekeepers. Additionally, India advocates for accountability and justice in cases of crimes committed against peacekeeping forces.   Modernization of Peacekeeping Operations Recognizing the evolving nature of peacekeeping, India calls for the integration of advanced surveillance, communication, and data analytics in peacekeeping missions. India’s Centre for UN Peacekeeping (CUNPK) offers specialized training programs to equip peacekeepers with modern tools and strategies to meet contemporary challenges effectively.   Funding for Peacekeeping Missions India underscores the need for well-funded peacekeeping missions. The resources allocated to these missions should be commensurate with their mandates to ensure effective execution and operational success.   Inclusion in Mandate Formation India advocates for the inclusion of troop-contributing countries in the process of formulating mandates. This approach will enable better adaptation of peacekeeping operations to new realities and ensure that the strategies align with ground-level challenges. About the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) The UNSC is one of the principal organs of the United Nations, established in 1945 under the UN Charter to maintain international peace and security. It comprises 15 member states, including five permanent members with veto power—China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States—along with ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms. The UNSC headquarters is located in New York City. Need for UNSC Reforms Current Composition and Representation The present composition of the UNSC is marked by under-representation and lack of adequate representation of key global regions.   Inability to Address Conflicts The current structure of the Council has proven ineffective in addressing significant global conflicts, thereby undermining its credibility and primary mandate of upholding international peace and security.   Changing Global Order Since its inception in 1945, the world order has undergone significant transformations. These new geopolitical realities must be reflected in the permanent membership of the UNSC.   Issue of Veto Power Only the five permanent members hold veto power, often using it to stall resolutions addressing global crises, such as those in Ukraine and Gaza. The ten non-permanent members, despite being part of the Council, lack veto authority, limiting their influence in decision-making.   Legitimacy Concerns The concentration of power among the five permanent members creates a perception of inequity, diminishing the legitimacy and effectiveness of the UNSC in addressing contemporary security challenges.   Why India Deserves Permanent Membership in the UNSC Demographic and Global Representation India accounts for approximately 18% of the world’s population, making its inclusion in global decision-making bodies like the UNSC a matter of proportional representation.   Economic Strength India is one of the world’s largest economies, with a significant impact on global stability and development. Its economic contributions align with the UNSC’s objectives of maintaining international peace and security.   Commitment to Peacekeeping India has consistently been one of the largest contributors to UN peacekeeping missions, demonstrating its strong commitment to global peace and security. Geopolitical Influence India’s strategic location in South Asia and the Indo-Pacific region positions it as a crucial player in addressing global security challenges such as terrorism, climate change, and maritime security.   Advocacy for Democratic Values As the world’s largest democracy, India upholds values of pluralism, tolerance, and inclusivity, which align with the core principles of the UN.   Global Support India enjoys extensive support from numerous UN member states, including influential nations across different regions, underscoring its potential contribution to strengthening the UNSC’s role in global crisis management.   Challenges in Implementing UNSC Reforms Veto Power of Permanent Members Any proposed reforms require the approval of all five permanent members, who are often reluctant to support changes that might reduce their influence. Geopolitical and Regional Rivalries Regional tensions and geopolitical rivalries further complicate efforts to bring about UNSC reforms.   Complexity of the Reform Process Reforming the UNSC necessitates an amendment to the UN Charter, which requires a complex and lengthy process involving ratification by a significant number of member states. Opposition from China China, as a permanent UNSC member, continues to oppose India’s bid for permanent membership, hindering India’s inclusion in the Council. Way Forward Both permanent and non-permanent membership should reflect the present-day global landscape rather than the post-World War II order. Reforms in the UNSC are imperative to maintain its relevance, legitimacy, and effectiveness in addressing contemporary security challenges. However, achieving consensus among UN member states remains a formidable and ongoing process. Consider the following arguments against the UNSC’s current veto power structure: It enables any one of the P5 members to block international consensus. It has been used to shield countries from international scrutiny over human rights violations. It allows non-permanent members to influence decisions through alliances with P5 nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only Explanation: The veto power enables P5 members to block resolutions, even if the majority supports them (statement 1 is correct). It has been used to prevent action against allies accused of human rights violations (statement 2 is correct). However, non-permanent members do not have veto power and cannot directly influence decisions (statement 3 is incorrect). PM-SHRI Scheme Syllabus: Govt Policies A Parliamentary Standing Committee has urged the Education Ministry to release over ₹4,000 crore in pending Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) funds for Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and West Bengal. The funds have been withheld due to these st ates not signing the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the PM SHRI scheme. The panel emphasized that SSA predates PM SHRI and plays a crucial role in enforcing the Right to Education (RTE) Act.                     Understanding the PM SHRI Scheme PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched under NEP

World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector Syllabus: Georaphy/Economy                      Why in News? On May 31, 2023, the Government approved the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector, set to be implemented as a Pilot Project. This initiative aims to develop agricultural infrastructure at the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) level, including:   Construction of godowns Establishment of custom hiring centers Setting up of processing units   The project integrates various existing Government of India (GoI) schemes, such as: Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI) Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME)   Progress of the Pilot Project Under the Pilot Project, godowns have been constructed in 11 PACS across 11 States, with a total storage capacity of 9,750 Metric Tons (MT). State-wise Details of Completed Godowns S.No State District Name of PACS Capacity (MT) 1. Maharashtra Amravati Neripanglai Vividh Karyakari Sahakari Sanstha 3,000 2. Uttar Pradesh Mirzapur Bahudeshiya Prathamik Grameen Sahakari Samiti Limited, Kotwa Panday 1,500 3. Madhya Pradesh Balaghat Bahudeshiya Prathamik Krishi Saakh Sahakari Society Maryadit, Parswada 500 4. Gujarat Ahmedabad The Chandranagar Group Seva Sahakari Mandli Limited 750 5. Tamil Nadu Theni Silamarathupatti Primary Agriculture Credit Society 1,000 6. Rajasthan Sri Ganganagar Ghumudwali Gram Seva Sahakari Samiti Limited 250 7. Telangana Karimnagar Primary Agriculture Credit Society Limited, Gambhiropet 500 8. Karnataka Bidar Primary Agriculture Cooperative Federation Limited, Ekamba 1,000 9. Tripura Gomati Khilpara Primary Agriculture Credit Society Limited 250 10. Assam Kamrup 2 No. Pub Bongshar G.P.S.S Limited 500 11. Uttarakhand Dehradun Bahudeshiya Kisan Seva Sahakari Samiti Limited, Sahaspur 500 Total       9,750   Additionally, foundation stones have been laid for 500 additional PACS godowns under the Pilot Project, with a total of 575 PACS identified for implementation across various States/UTs.   Expansion and Future Goals The Ministry of Cooperation aims to establish and strengthen 2 lakh multipurpose PACS, Dairy, and Fishery Cooperative Societies across all panchayats and villages in the country. To guide this process, a Margdarshika (Standard Operating Procedure) has been introduced. In Karnataka, 128 PACS have been established against a target of 218 PACS to be formed by FY 2028-29.   Impact of the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan Decentralized Storage Capacity: 9,750 MT of storage capacity has been created at the PACS level. Reduction in Food Grain Wastage: Prevents post-harvest losses by ensuring adequate storage facilities. Strengthening of Food Security: Ensures better storage and distribution of food grains to enhance national food security. Preventing Distress Sales: Farmers can store their produce and sell it at better prices rather than being forced into distress sales. Cost Reduction in Transportation: Since PACS can function as both procurement centers and Fair Price Shops (FPS), transportation costs are reduced. Avoids the need to transport grains from procurement centers to warehouses and back to FPS. This initiative marks a major milestone in strengthening the cooperative sector and enhancing agricultural infrastructure across India. Consider the following statements regarding the “World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector”: It is being implemented exclusively under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF). The plan aims to develop agri-infrastructure at the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) level. One of the objectives of the plan is to enable PACS to operate as procurement centers as well as Fair Price Shops (FPS). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The plan is not implemented exclusively under AIF; rather, it converges multiple schemes like Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI), Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM), and Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME). Statement 2 is correct: The plan focuses on strengthening PACS by developing godowns, custom hiring centers, and processing units. Statement 3 is correct: The initiative allows PACS to function as procurement centers and Fair Price Shops (FPS), reducing transportation costs and logistical challenges. 3rd Session of India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee held in New Delhi Syllabus: IR The Third Session of the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee (JTC) was held in New Delhi on 25th-26th March 2025, marking a significant step in reinforcing trade relations between the two nations after a gap of 23 years. Both sides conducted a comprehensive review of bilateral trade and acknowledged that the current trade volume does not fully reflect the economic potential of their partnership. To address this, both countries committed to enhancing, deepening, and diversifying trade relations. A key outcome of the discussions was the proposal to establish an India-Uganda Joint Business Forum to promote direct engagement between business leaders from both nations.                                     Key Areas of Cooperation India and Uganda identified priority sectors to expand trade and investment, including: Agriculture & Allied Sectors: Coffee, cocoa products, pulses, spices, dairy products, fruits, and vegetables. Minerals & Resources: Rare Earth Elements (REE), mining, petrochemicals, and residual chemical products. Manufacturing & Industrial Growth: Plastic raw materials, essential oils, and allied products. Technology & Infrastructure: Digital infrastructure, banking, MSME growth, solar energy, rural electrification, and electric vehicles. Healthcare & Pharmaceuticals: Strengthening cooperation in health services, traditional medicine, and telemedicine. Both sides also agreed to explore and formalize Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) in Public Works, Infrastructure Development, Agriculture, Traditional Medicine, and Standardization. Additionally, discussions were held on recognizing the Indian Pharmacopoeia to facilitate pharmaceutical trade.   High-Level Participation The Indian delegation was led by Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce, Shri Ajay Bhadoo, who highlighted the strong economic partnership between the two nations and emphasized opportunities in e-commerce, pharmaceuticals, MSME cluster development, and renewable energy. The Ugandan delegation was headed by Elly Kamahungye Kafeero, Head of International Political Cooperation Department, Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Uganda, accompanied by Amb. Prof. Joyce Kikafunda Kakuramatsi, Uganda’s High Commissioner to India, and a 28-member delegation representing various ministries and Uganda’s Mission in India. The discussions were conducted in a cordial and cooperative

Sea Dragon 2025 Syllabus:Defence                 The Sea Dragon 2025 is a multilateral naval exercise focused on anti-submarine warfare (ASW). Hosted by the United States Navy’s 7th Fleet, it commenced on March 4, 2025, off the coast of Guam. This annual drill brings together key naval forces from the United States, Japan, Australia, South Korea, and India to enhance maritime security coordination in the Indo-Pacific region.                       Historical Evolution of Sea Dragon The Sea Dragon exercise originated in 2019 as a bilateral initiative between the United States Navy and the Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF). In 2020, it expanded to include Japan, South Korea, and New Zealand, broadening its scope. India joined in 2021, marking a strategic shift in its participation. By 2024, the exercise evolved into a Quad + South Korea collaboration, with Canada being excluded.   Participants in Sea Dragon 2025 The 2025 edition of the exercise features key naval forces, including the United States Navy (USN), Indian Navy (IN), Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF), Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF), and Republic of Korea Navy (ROKN). Each nation deploys advanced Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) for joint ASW training, enhancing operational coordination.   Objectives of Sea Dragon 2025 The primary objectives of the exercise are to enhance tactical coordination among participating navies and strengthen anti-submarine warfare capabilities. It aims to improve maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region by conducting simulated submarine-hunting exercises. The drill also focuses on promoting military cooperation among allied forces, ensuring seamless interoperability in maritime operations.   Nature of the Exercise Designed specifically for anti-submarine warfare, Sea Dragon involves MPRA deployments equipped with advanced sensors for real-world submarine detection training. The exercise consists of mock drills that simulate underwater threats, allowing pilots to exchange strategies and refine their submarine-tracking techniques.   Grading System and Awards The performance of participating nations is assessed based on submarine detection efficiency. The nation that achieves the highest score is awarded the Dragon Belt Award. Since 2022, the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF) has consistently won this prestigious recognition.   Significance for India and the Indo-Pacific For India, Sea Dragon 2025 enhances anti-submarine warfare skills, strengthens defence cooperation with Quad nations, and prepares the country for future joint naval operations. In the Indo-Pacific region, the exercise plays a crucial role in ensuring stability, promoting freedom of navigation, and reinforcing regional defence collaboration. Consider the following statements regarding the Sea Dragon 2025 exercise: It is hosted by the United States Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM) to enhance surface warfare capabilities. The exercise is primarily focused on anti-submarine warfare (ASW). India has been a participant in the exercise since its inception in 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3  Answer: (b) 2 only  Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The exercise is hosted by the U.S. 7th Fleet, not INDOPACOM. Additionally, it focuses on anti-submarine warfare, not surface warfare. Statement 2 is correct: Sea Dragon 2025 is explicitly designed for ASW, enhancing submarine detection and tracking. Statement 3 is incorrect: India joined the exercise in 2021, not 2019. The exercise initially started as a bilateral drill between the U.S. and Australia. Kerala Became First State To Establish Senior Citizens Commission Syllabus: Polity   Kerala has made history by becoming the first state in India to establish a Senior Citizens Commission with the passage of the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Bill, 2025. This groundbreaking initiative reflects the state’s commitment to safeguarding the rights, welfare, and dignity of elderly citizens. The commission will serve as a statutory body dedicated to addressing the needs of senior citizens while also acting as an advisory panel for policy formulation and implementation.   About the Senior Citizens Commission What is the Senior Citizens Commission? A statutory body established under the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Act, 2025. The first commission of its kind in India, focusing exclusively on elderly welfare. Functions as an advisory authority for state policies concerning senior citizens.   Objectives of the Commission Ensure the protection, welfare, and rehabilitation of elderly individuals. Safeguard the rights and dignity of senior citizens. Encourage the active participation of elderly individuals in societal development. Promote inclusive policies to integrate senior citizens into various sectors.   Key Features and Functions Policy Advisory: Develops and recommends policies for the welfare and empowerment of senior citizens. Grievance Redressal: Addresses complaints related to neglect, abuse, financial exploitation, and social exclusion. Skill Utilization: Encourages senior citizens to contribute their knowledge, skills, and experience to society. Legal Support: Provides legal assistance, particularly in cases of elder abuse, property disputes, and financial exploitation. Awareness Campaigns: Conducts public awareness programs to educate people about the rights of senior citizens and the responsibilities of families and institutions. Regular Reports: Submits periodic recommendations to the state government for necessary policy updates and improvements. With the establishment of this commission, Kerala has set a precedent for other states to prioritize elderly welfare and create a more inclusive, supportive, and dignified environment for senior citizens. With reference to the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission, consider the following statements: It is the first statutory body in India dedicated to senior citizens’ welfare. The commission has the power to issue legally binding directives on cases of elder abuse. It functions as both an advisory and grievance redressal body for elderly-related policies. The establishment of this commission was mandated under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 4 only(c) 1, 2, and 3 only(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Kerala is the first Indian state to establish a statutory Senior Citizens Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect: The commission does not have judicial powers to issue legally binding directives but can recommend legal action. Statement 3 is correct: The commission serves as an advisory and grievance redressal body. Statement

UN World Water Development Report 2025 – Mountains and Glaciers Syllabus: GS 3/Environment, Conservation   Key Findings Accelerated Glacier Melt: Glaciers are melting at an unprecedented rate, with significant mass loss in recent years. Over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice have been lost since 1975—equivalent to an ice block the size of Germany. Impurities like black carbon from wildfires and dust storms are intensifying the melting process by absorbing more solar radiation.   Permafrost Thawing: Rising temperatures are causing permafrost to melt, releasing organic carbon into the atmosphere and worsening climate change. Destabilized slopes increase the risk of landslides and other natural disasters.   Decline in Snow Cover: Snow cover in mountain regions has decreased, particularly during spring and summer. Between 1979 and 2022, there has been a 79% global decline in snow cover.   Impacts & Concerns Erratic Water Flow & Flooding Risks: Increased risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs)—responsible for over 12,000 deaths in the past 200 years. Sea Level Rise Contribution: Glacier melt accounts for 25-30% of global sea level rise, threatening millions worldwide.   Way Forward & Recommendations Mountains as Water Towers: Covering 33 million sq km, mountain regions sustain nearly 2 billion people by providing freshwater. Policy & Awareness: Urgent need for resource mobilization and strong policy frameworks to mitigate climate impacts. Increased awareness and proactive action required to protect mountain ecosystems and downstream communities. With reference to the United Nations World Water Development Report 2025, consider the following statements: The report states that glaciers have lost over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice since 1950. Black carbon from wildfires and dust storms can accelerate glacier melting by increasing solar radiation absorption. The report highlights that permafrost thawing is reducing atmospheric carbon levels, thereby mitigating climate change. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3  Answer: (b) 2 only  Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The report highlights that glaciers have lost over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice since 1975, not 1950. Statement 2 is correct: Black carbon and dust can accelerate glacier melting by increasing the absorption of solar radiation. Statement 3 is incorrect: Permafrost thawing releases organic carbon into the atmosphere, exacerbating climate change rather than mitigating it. Shaheed Diwas Syllabus: GS1/History   Context: On March 23, the nation pays tribute to Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev on Shaheed Diwas, commemorating their execution in 1931. Their sacrifice remains a powerful symbol of India’s freedom struggle.   Background: In 1928, the British government sent the Simon Commission, an all-British panel, to India to discuss constitutional reforms. This led to widespread protests as it excluded Indian representation. Lala Lajpat Rai led a protest in Lahore, where police, under Superintendent James A. Scott, brutally lathi-charged the demonstrators. Lajpat Rai succumbed to his injuries on November 17, 1928. To avenge his death, Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev targeted James Scott but mistakenly killed British officer John Saunders Arrested, tried, and sentenced to death, they became martyrs for India’s independence movement. Their execution inspired countless revolutionaries to continue the struggle for freedom.   Revolutionary Legacy: Bhagat Singh (1907–1931), Sukhdev (1907–1931), and Rajguru (1908–1931) were key members of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), a revolutionary group committed to armed resistance against British rule. Bhagat Singh was deeply influenced by Marxist and anarchist ideologies, drawing inspiration from Karl Marx, Vladimir Lenin, and Leon Trotsky. He is also remembered for the 1929 bombing of the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi, aimed at protesting against oppressive laws, without intending to cause harm. Shaheed Diwas serves as a reminder of their unwavering courage, patriotism, and ultimate sacrifice in the fight for India’s independence. Consider the following statements regarding the Simon Commission and its impact on the Indian freedom struggle: The Simon Commission was sent by the British government in 1927 to assess the need for constitutional reforms in India. The commission did not include any Indian members, leading to widespread protests across the country. Lala Lajpat Rai was fatally injured during a protest against the Simon Commission in Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: a) 1 and 2 onlyExplanation: The Simon Commission was sent in 1928, not 1927. The absence of Indian representation led to widespread protests. Lala Lajpat Rai was injured in a protest in Lahore, not Kolkata. Tavasya Syllabus: GS3/Defence   Overview Tavasya, the second frigate under Project 1135.6 Additional Follow-on Ships, was launched by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL). This follows the launch of Triput in 2024, with both frigates expected to be delivered to the Indian Navy by 2026 and 2027.                                     Background In 2016, India and Russia signed an agreement for four additional Krivak-class stealth frigates. Two were imported from Russia, while two were built in India under technology transfer. Tavasya is the second of the two indigenously built follow-on Krivak-class frigates.   Key Features Symbolism: Named after Bhima’s mace, representing naval strength. Multi-Role Capability: Designed for surface, sub-surface, and air combat operations. Specifications: Length: 124.8 meters Width: 15.2 meters Draught: 4.5 meters Displacement: ~3,600 tonnes Speed: Maximum 28 knots   Indigenous Contributions Triput and Tavasya incorporate indigenous equipment, weapons, and sensors, enhancing India’s naval self-reliance. Tavasya marks a significant milestone, likely signaling the end of license-built warships as India advances toward self-designed and self-constructed naval vessels. With reference to India’s Project 1135.6, consider the following statements: The project involves the construction of four additional Krivak-class frigates, two of which were built in India under a technology transfer agreement. The Krivak-class frigates are primarily designed for amphibious assault operations. Tavasya is the first of the two follow-on stealth frigates built by Goa Shipyard Limited under this project. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3

Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act, 2005 Syllabus: GS2/Governance   Context   Over 30 civil society organizations have urged the Union government to safeguard the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, amid concerns about potential restrictions imposed by the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023.   Concerns Raised Activists caution against fully implementing amendments that may weaken the RTI Act under the DPDP Act. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act now broadly prohibits disclosing personal information, even when it serves the public interest. The government justifies the change by citing the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) case, which recognized privacy as a fundamental right.   Challenges Posed by the Amendment Restricting access to information may hinder social audits and make it difficult to uncover corruption or misuse of public funds. RTI requests have been instrumental in verifying government programs, such as food ration distribution and welfare schemes. Activists argue that the original RTI framework already balanced privacy with transparency, rejecting claims that the changes align with the Supreme Court’s privacy ruling. Right to Information Act, 2005   Objectives and Scope Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in governance by granting citizens the right to access information from public authorities. Applicable to government departments, ministries, and organizations substantially funded by the government.   Key Provisions Information Access: Citizens can request government records, documents, and other relevant data. Exemptions: Information related to national security, confidentiality, and ongoing investigations is excluded. Response Time: Public authorities must respond within 30 days, extendable to 45 days in specific cases. Penalties: Officials withholding information without valid reasons or providing false details may face penalties.   Significance of the RTI Act Empowering Citizens: Enables individuals to seek information, ensuring government transparency and accountability. Preventing Corruption: RTI has exposed fund mismanagement in schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS). Promoting Good Governance: Enhances trust in government by fostering openness in decision-making. Facilitating Social Audits: NGOs and activists use RTI to verify government service delivery, such as the Public Distribution System (PDS). Ensuring Public Access to Records: RTI requests help uncover inefficiencies and corruption in government contracts. Strengthening Democracy: Encourages citizen participation in governance and policymaking.   Criticism and Challenges Administrative Burden: High volumes of RTI requests strain public authorities, diverting resources from primary duties. Misuse of RTI: Some requests are used for harassment or personal/political agendas. Delays in Processing: Authorities struggle to meet response deadlines, leading to frustration among applicants. Lack of Training and Infrastructure: Many government offices lack the expertise and resources for effective RTI implementation. Ambiguity in Exemptions: Vaguely defined exemptions create loopholes for withholding crucial public information.   Way Forward Parliament should define “personal information” and “public interest” more precisely. Personal data disclosure should be permitted when it serves a greater public good, such as exposing corruption or verifying the misuse of funds. Any amendments to the RTI Act should involve consultations with multiple stakeholders, including RTI activists, legal experts, and data protection specialists. The government must balance privacy rights with the need for transparency to ensure democratic accountability. The RTI Act remains a cornerstone of democracy, empowering citizens and ensuring government accountability. Its preservation is crucial for upholding transparency, reducing corruption, and promoting good governance. With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements: The RTI Act applies only to government departments and ministries but not to organizations that receive substantial government funding. The Act allows disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest. The government can reject an RTI request if the information sought affects national security or ongoing criminal investigations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only   Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The RTI Act not only applies to government departments and ministries but also covers organizations that receive substantial funding from the government (such as NGOs and public-private partnerships). Statement 2 is correct: The RTI Act permits disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest, but the recent amendment under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023 has created hurdles in this regard. Statement 3 is correct: The Act exempts disclosure of information that affects national security, foreign relations, or ongoing investigations under Section 8(1). Fast Track Special Courts Syllabus: GS2/ Polity, Judiciary  Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) have emerged as a critical judicial mechanism for expediting trials related to sexual crimes, ensuring justice for survivors in a time-bound manner. With an impressive disposal rate of 28%, these courts have significantly reduced legal delays in cases under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, and rape cases.   What are Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs)? Definition: FTSCs are dedicated courts established in India to accelerate the judicial process for heinous crimes, particularly rape and child sexual abuse cases.   Establishment: Initiated in 2019 under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law & Justice.   Funding Pattern: 60:40 (Centre:States) for most states and Union Territories (UTs) with a legislature. 90:10 for Northeastern and Hilly States/UTs to ensure equitable judicial access.   Operational Target: The scheme envisions the establishment of 790 FTSCs, including specialized e-POCSO courts. Each FTSC is expected to handle 41-42 cases per quarter, ensuring the disposal of at least 165 cases annually to reduce case backlog effectively.   Rationale for FTSCs The Supreme Court of India (2019) mandated speedy disposal of POCSO cases, emphasizing that both the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) and POCSO Act, 2012, prescribe strict timelines for investigation and trial. Judicial Backlog: Overburdened courts and limited judicial resources often result in prolonged trials, delaying justice and weakening deterrence against sexual crimes. FTSCs play a crucial role in reinforcing public confidence in the judicial system by ensuring swift and effective justice.   Key Recommendations by the Indian Institute

Project Pari Syllabus: GS 1/Culture   Public Art of India (PARI) Project The PARI project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Culture to promote and enrich India’s public art landscape. It is implemented by the Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA). The project showcases the country’s diverse regional art forms, including Phad, Thangka, Gond, and Warli, featuring the work of over 200 artists. Currently, the PARI project is operational only in Delhi, where it aims to foster public engagement through artistic expression. It encourages dialogue and reflection by integrating India’s rich cultural heritage with contemporary themes. As part of the government’s broader efforts, the initiative provides incentives to talented artists, ensuring the preservation and promotion of India’s artistic traditions in modern public spaces. With reference to the “Public Art of India (PARI) Project”, consider the following statements: The project is implemented by the Ministry of Culture in collaboration with private institutions. It primarily focuses on integrating India’s ancient art traditions with modern artistic expressions. As of now, the project has been implemented in multiple cities across India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 2 and 3 only Answer: (b) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The project is implemented by the Ministry of Culture but executed through Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), not private institutions. Statement 2 is correct: PARI aims to blend India’s rich cultural heritage with contemporary themes, making it a fusion of traditional and modern art. Statement 3 is incorrect: Currently, the project is limited to Delhi and has not yet been expanded to other cities. Swadesh Darshan Scheme Syllabus: GS2/Governance, Schemes   Context The Public Accounts Committee (PAC), chaired by C. Venugopal, has raised concerns over the poor execution of the Swadesh Darshan scheme by the Ministry of Tourism. The observations were based on a report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Despite the Ministry’s claims that most sanctioned projects were completed, the PAC identified significant discrepancies in project implementation. Swadesh Darshan Scheme Launched: 2014-15, as a flagship scheme under the Ministry of Tourism. Revamped: As Swadesh Darshan 2.0, with a focus on sustainable and responsible tourism, adopting a tourist-centric approach. Theme-Based Tourist Circuits: Spiritual Circuits (e.g., Char Dham Yatra, Buddhist Circuit) Cultural Circuits (e.g., North East Circuit, Tribal Circuit) Heritage Circuits Wildlife Circuits Coastal Circuits Funding: The Ministry of Tourism provides financial support to States and Union Territories for circuit development. Key Issues Identified by PAC Lapses in Planning: No feasibility studies were conducted before launching projects. Financial Mismanagement: Budget overruns due to inadequate planning. Approvals granted without Detailed Project Reports (DPRs). Weak Monitoring: No structured mechanism for project evaluation. Delays and incomplete projects despite claims of completion. Discrepancy in Completion Claims: The Ministry claimed 75 out of 76 projects were completed. However, PAC found that key projects like the Kanwaria Route in Bihar, Tribal Circuit in Telangana, and Sree Narayana Guru Ashram in Kerala were either incomplete or non-functional. Recommendations & Way Forward The Ministry of Tourism has been directed to physically inspect all projects and submit a detailed report within three weeks. The Ministry must provide data on: The scheme’s impact on employment generation. Changes in tourist footfall, as key indicators of the scheme’s success. About the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) Constitutional Status Not a constitutional body. Formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Composition 22 Members: 15 from Lok Sabha 7 from Rajya Sabha Elected annually by Parliament. Chairperson: Appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, typically from the opposition party. Functions Examines audit reports submitted by the CAG of India. Scrutinizes public expenditure to prevent extravagance and irregularities. Ensures accountability of the Executive to the Legislature. Works alongside CAG to uphold fiscal discipline and transparency. With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements: It is a constitutional body established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. The Chairperson of the PAC is always from the ruling party. PAC is responsible for examining the reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. The PAC can take suo-motu cognizance of financial irregularities and initiate investigations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 4 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 4 only Answer: (b) 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: PAC is not a constitutional body; it is formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chairperson is usually from the opposition party, not the ruling party. Statement 3 is correct: The PAC examines audit reports of CAG and scrutinizes public expenditure. Statement 4 is incorrect: PAC cannot take suo-motu cognizance; it works based on reports submitted by the CAG. Corbett Tiger Reserve Syllabus: Environment Recent Developments The Supreme Court recently criticized the Uttarakhand government for its slow action against senior officials accused of illegal constructions within the Corbett Tiger Reserve. About Corbett Tiger Reserve Location: Situated in the foothills of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand. Establishment: Established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, making it India’s first national park. Renamed Corbett National Park in 1957 to honor Jim Corbett, a renowned conservationist and naturalist. Area: Initially designated as a national park, later expanded to cover 1,288.31 sq. km as a Tiger Reserve. Topography: Characterized by an undulating terrain with multiple valleys. Major rivers: Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi. Predominantly located in the Bhabar and lower Shivalik regions, featuring porous soil, boulder deposits, and a deep water table. Flora Dominated by Sal forests, along with Sheesham and Kanju trees, particularly along ridges. Grasslands (locally called ‘Chaur’) are remnants of abandoned settlements and clearings. Riparian vegetation thrives along riverbanks. Invasive species: Lantana, an aggressive weed, poses a significant ecological challenge. Fauna Flagship species: Tigers and elephants. Other carnivores: Leopards, small carnivores. Herbivores: Sambar,

World Puppetry Day About World Puppetry Day World Puppetry Day is observed annually on March 21st to celebrate puppetry as a global art form and to honor puppeteers worldwide. This day highlights the significance of puppetry in cultural storytelling, entertainment, and artistic expression across various mediums, including stage, television, and film.   Understanding Puppetry Puppetry is an ancient performing art that involves crafting and manipulating puppets—figures representing humans, animals, or abstract forms—without mechanical aid. Puppets are controlled manually to create theatrical performances that engage audiences through storytelling and social commentary.   Puppetry in India India has a rich tradition of puppetry, deeply rooted in folklore, mythology, and artistic expression. The art has been used for centuries to narrate historical epics, moral tales, and social issues.            Major Types of Puppetry in India String Puppets (Kathputli): Predominantly found in Rajasthan and Gujarat, these puppets are manipulated using strings and often depict folk tales and traditional narratives. Shadow Puppets: Crafted from leather, these puppets are used to cast shadows on a screen. This form is especially popular in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. Rod Puppets: Controlled with rods, these puppets are commonly used in West Bengal and Assam, often portraying mythological stories. Glove Puppets: Worn on the puppeteer’s hands, these puppets are particularly known in Kerala (Pavakathakali), blending elements of classical dance with puppetry. The celebration of World Puppetry Day emphasizes the cultural importance of puppetry and encourages the preservation and promotion of this unique art form. With reference to puppetry in India, consider the following statements: The Kathputli form of puppetry, primarily found in Rajasthan, is a type of rod puppetry. Shadow puppetry is practiced in states such as Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh. Pavakathakali, a type of glove puppetry, is influenced by Kathakali dance traditions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Kathputli is not rod puppetry but a string puppetry form, primarily found in Rajasthan and Gujarat. (Statement 1 is incorrect.) Shadow puppetry is a traditional art form seen in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh, where leather puppets cast shadows on a screen. (Statement 2 is correct.) Pavakathakali, a glove puppet tradition from Kerala, is inspired by Kathakali dance, incorporating similar costume styles and expressions. (Statement 3 is correct.) APAAR ID Syllabus: GS2/ Education APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry) ID is a unique 12-digit identifier designed to digitally store, manage, and access a student’s academic records, including scorecards, mark sheets, grade sheets, degrees, diplomas, certificates, and co-curricular achievements. This initiative is part of the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ program introduced by the Ministry of Education, aligning with the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The APAAR ID is generated through the Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) portal, which maintains a database of schools, teachers, and students, along with regional academic statistics. Concerns Raised Despite being voluntary, activists and parents have expressed concerns over the rapid push by schools to create APAAR IDs for students, raising questions about privacy, data security, and informed consent. With reference to the APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry) ID, consider the following statements: APAAR ID is a 12-digit unique academic identifier launched under the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative. It is mandatory for all students enrolled in government and private educational institutions. The ID is generated through the Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) It aligns with the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: (B) 1, 3, and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The APAAR ID is a 12-digit unique identifier for students. Statement 2 is incorrect: While some schools are actively pushing for APAAR ID registration, it remains voluntary and not mandatory. Statement 3 is correct: The ID is generated through the UDISE+ portal, which compiles educational data. Statement 4 is correct: APAAR aligns with the NEP 2020, aiming to digitize academic records and improve student mobility. Implementation of Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission Syllabus: GS 3/Economy The Union Cabinet has approved the Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) with an additional allocation of ₹1,000 crore, increasing the total budget to ₹3,400 crore for the period 2021-2026 under the 15th Finance Commission. Launched in December 2014, RGM aims to conserve and develop indigenous bovine breeds. It is implemented by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, focusing on genetic upgradation, enhancement of milk production and productivity, and improving the profitability of dairy farming for farmers.   The scheme includes several key components. The Nationwide Artificial Insemination Program seeks to boost milk productivity, while Progeny Testing and Pedigree Selection focus on producing high-genetic-merit bulls, particularly of indigenous breeds. The implementation of In-Vitro Fertilization (IVF) technology plays a crucial role in genetic upgradation within a single generation. Sex-Sorted Semen Production has been established at five government semen stations in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh. Additionally, the Multi-purpose Artificial Insemination Technicians in Rural India (MAITRIs) initiative trains and equips technicians to deliver quality artificial insemination services directly to farmers. The revised mission will now function as a Central Sector component under the Development Programmes scheme. Two new initiatives have been introduced: a 35% capital assistance provision for setting up Heifer Rearing Centres and a 3% interest subvention on loans for purchasing High-Genetic-Merit (HGM) IVF heifers. The core activities of strengthening artificial insemination networks, supporting breed improvement programs, and establishing Centres of Excellence will continue. The mission has significantly contributed to India’s dairy sector. Over the past decade, milk production has increased by 63.55%, with per capita milk availability rising from 307 grams/day in 2013-14 to 471 grams/day in 2023-24. The Nationwide Artificial Insemination Programme has covered over 8.39 crore animals, benefiting 5.21 crore farmers.