Category: Daily Current Affairs & Editorials

PMAY-U Coffee Table Book Released in Kohima to Highlight Urban Housing Progress Syllabus:Schemes   Context: The Government of Nagaland has officially unveiled a Coffee Table Book titled “Transforming Lives: A Glance of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) Mission in Nagaland”. This publication commemorates the progress and impact of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) scheme in the state, particularly in providing dignified and affordable housing to urban poor communities.   Significance of the Launch Date & Venue: May 16, 2025 | Hotel Vivor, Kohima Released by: Shri Zhaleo Rio, Advisor for Municipal Affairs and Urban Development Chaired by: Shri Kekhrievor Kevichusa, Commissioner & Secretary, MAUD   Special Features: Invocation by Rev. Dr. Kevichalie Metha Musical performance by TRUISM Vote of thanks delivered by Smt. Temjenrenla Kichu, Joint Director, Municipal Affairs Department   About the Coffee Table Book Title: Transforming Lives: A Glance of PMAY (Urban) Mission in Nagaland Purpose: To visually document success stories, policy implementation, and community transformation under PMAY-U   Content Highlights: Real-life narratives of beneficiaries Visual documentation of urban development Insights into implementation challenges and grassroots engagement   Overview of PMAY-U (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban) Launched: June 25, 2015 Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) Objective: Housing for All in urban areas by the year 2022   Key Components: In-Situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR) Credit-Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP) Beneficiary-Led Construction (BLC)   Impact of PMAY-U in Nagaland Thousands of urban households have benefitted from housing assistance Strengthened the construction sector and generated employment Enhanced socio-economic inclusion through property registration in women’s names Improved access to basic amenities, leading to better quality of life for urban poor With reference to the Coffee Table Book “Transforming Lives: A Glance of PMAY (Urban) Mission in Nagaland”, consider the following statements: The book was launched by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting to commemorate 75 years of India’s independence. The book contains a visual record of PMAY-U implementation challenges and beneficiary narratives in Nagaland. The event was presided over by the Governor of Nagaland and included an address by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A) 2 onlyB) 1 and 3 onlyC) 1 and 2 onlyD) 2 and 3 only Answer:A Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. The book documents the visual and narrative impact of PMAY-U in Nagaland, including challenges and success stories. Statement 1 is incorrect as the book was released under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, not the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, and it was not linked to the 75th year of independence. Statement 3 is incorrect as the event was chaired by state officials—not by the Governor or Prime Minister. Justice Bela M. Trivedi Bids Farewell to Supreme Court After Trailblazing Career Syllabus:Polity   Justice Bela M. Trivedi retired from the Supreme Court of India on May 16, 2025, after a distinguished tenure of three-and-a-half years. Her career stands out for a series of pioneering milestones, significant constitutional rulings, and a legal journey that spanned from trial courts to the apex judiciary. Justice Trivedi’s retirement marks the culmination of a historic legal journey, beginning in Gujarat’s trial courts in 1995 and culminating in transformative judgments on constitutional law, child protection, reservation policy, and economic regulation. She was the 11th woman judge in the history of the Supreme Court of India and one of the rare judges to be elevated from a trial court (appointed July 10, 1995, Ahmedabad) to the Supreme Court (August 31, 2021). She was also featured in the Limca Book of Records for being part of a father-daughter judge duo serving in the same court. Among her landmark judgments were the EWS Reservation Case (Nov 2022), where she was part of the 5-judge bench that upheld 10% reservation under the 103rd Constitutional Amendment; the Sub-classification within SCs case (Aug 2024), where she delivered a dissenting opinion against allowing states to sub-categorise Scheduled Castes; and the POCSO Act Interpretation (Nov 2021), where she overruled the controversial “skin-to-skin” verdict by emphasizing that intent and any physical contact qualify as sexual assault. In the IBC ruling, she held that a moratorium under IBC does not prevent states from attaching properties under depositor protection laws. In May 2025, she cleared the UP government’s temple corridor project for the Banke Bihari temple in Mathura. Professionally, she practiced law in the Gujarat High Court for a decade, held key administrative roles including Registrar Vigilance and Law Secretary in Gujarat, was elevated to the Gujarat High Court in 2011, transferred to the Rajasthan High Court the same year, and returned to the Gujarat High Court in 2016. She was appointed to the Supreme Court in 2021 during a historic induction of 9 judges, including 3 women. Justice Trivedi’s legal journey is emblematic of progress in gender inclusivity and judicial reform. Her judgments have significantly influenced protections for children, rights of marginalized communities, and constitutional law, leaving a lasting legacy in Indian jurisprudence. With reference to the judicial career of Justice Bela M. Trivedi, consider the following statements: She was elevated directly from a trial court to the Supreme Court without serving in any High Court. She dissented in a Supreme Court judgment allowing states to sub-categorize Scheduled Castes, arguing it violated the constitutional mandate of equality. She authored the majority opinion in the 2022 verdict upholding the 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) under the 103rd Constitutional Amendment. In a landmark ruling under the POCSO Act, she held that absence of physical skin-to-skin contact nullifies the charge of sexual assault. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 2 onlyB) 1 and 4 onlyC) 2 and 3 onlyD) 1, 2 and 4 only  Answer: A) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Justice Trivedi served in multiple High Courts (Gujarat, Rajasthan) before being elevated to the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is correct: She gave a dissenting opinion in the case allowing sub-categorisation within SCs, citing concerns over equality. Statement 3 is

Amit Shah Inaugurates Training Program on Legislative Drafting in New Delhi Syllabus:Governanace Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated a specialized training program on legislative drafting in New Delhi, aimed at enhancing the understanding and application of legislative drafting principles among officials from Parliament, State Legislatures, ministries, statutory bodies, and other government departments.     Focus on Repealing Obsolete Laws In his address, Mr. Shah highlighted the government’s initiative to repeal nearly 2,000 obsolete laws since 2015. He described legislative drafting as not merely a science or an art, but a skill that demands precision, transparency, and clarity in execution.   Advocating Clear and Accessible Laws Stressing the importance of simplicity in legal language, Mr. Shah urged officials to draft laws that are clear, concise, and free from ambiguity. He emphasized that easily understandable laws can help minimize conflicts and ensure better implementation.   Influence on Governance and Society Shah noted that legislative drafting significantly influences how policies and regulations are interpreted and implemented, ultimately affecting both society and the state. Therefore, regular training is essential to refine the skills of legislative draftsmen.   Capacity Building through Training The program, organized by the Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies (ICPS) in collaboration with the Parliamentary Research and Training Institute for Democracies (PRIDE), aims to build the capacity of government officers. Through this initiative, participants will gain valuable insights into effective legislative drafting, promoting democratic governance and upholding the rule of law. Consider the following statements regarding legislative drafting as per the given text: It plays a key role in the interpretation of policies and their societal impact. It is a static process that, once codified, requires no revision. Training programs in legislative drafting are essential for promoting democratic governance.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.  1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct because the text emphasizes that legislative drafting significantly affects the interpretation and implementation of policies, which in turn impacts society and the state. Statement 2 is incorrect as the passage suggests that legislative drafting is a skill that requires regular training and updating, implying it is a dynamic, not static, process. Statement 3 is correct since the training program is described as a means to build capacity for democratic governance and uphold the rule of law. UGC launches new website, UTSAH and PoP portals to promote quality education Syllabus:Governance The University Grants Commission (UGC) has unveiled several major initiatives to strengthen the quality of higher education in India, including a revamped official website, the UTSAH (Undertaking Transformative Strategies and Actions in Higher Education) Portal, and the Professor of Practice (PoP) Portal. These initiatives mark a significant milestone in the UGC’s efforts to align with the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and to promote excellence in academic institutions across the country.     Overview of the Initiatives UGC’s New Website:The upgraded UGC website is designed to be more user-friendly and informative, featuring categorized content tailored for students, faculty, and universities. It also includes a dedicated section on the National Education Policy 2020, reflecting the UGC’s long-term vision for transforming higher education in India. UTSAH Portal:The UTSAH Portal serves as a centralized platform offering detailed insights into UGC’s initiatives aimed at qualitative reforms in higher education. It covers key areas such as curriculum enhancement, faculty development, research initiatives, and student support services. Professor of Practice (PoP) Portal:In line with the NEP 2020, the PoP Portal is a groundbreaking initiative that enables institutions to engage with industry and domain experts for academic roles. Professionals from various disciplines can register on the portal, providing their credentials, expertise, and preferred modes of engagement. Universities can post advertisements for PoP roles and access a database of eligible candidates to bring practical, real-world knowledge into classrooms.     Key Features of the Initiatives UGC Website: Simplified interface with structured content for different stakeholders. UTSAH Portal: Focuses on policy-driven educational reforms across core academic areas. PoP Portal: Bridges academia and industry by facilitating expert appointments in universities.   Important Facts for Competitive Exams University Grants Commission (UGC) Founded: 1956 UGC Headquarters: New Delhi Preceding Executive: Sukhadeo Thorat These steps by the UGC are aimed at transforming higher education in India by integrating innovation, practical expertise, and policy-driven reforms.   With reference to the UTSAH (Undertaking Transformative Strategies and Actions in Higher Education) Portal, consider the following statements: It serves as a digital platform for real-time academic audits of universities across India. It aligns with the objectives of the National Education Policy 2020 to drive qualitative reforms. It primarily focuses on school-level curriculum development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.  1 and 2 onlyB.  2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the UTSAH Portal is not designed for conducting real-time academic audits of universities. Instead, it serves as a platform to provide detailed information on UGC’s initiatives for reforms in higher education. Statement 2 is correct as the portal aligns with the goals of the National Education Policy 2020 by focusing on qualitative improvements in higher education. Statement 3 is incorrect because the portal targets higher education reforms, not school-level curriculum development. Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami Inaugurates National Homoeopathic Convention ‘Homeocon 2023’ in Uttarakhand Syllabus:Polity Uttarakhand Hosts ‘Homeocon 2023’: Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami Inaugurates National Homoeopathic Convention Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami inaugurated the National Homoeopathic Convention, Homeocon 2023, at Doon University, Dehradun, reaffirming the state’s commitment to promoting traditional medicine systems. The event highlighted homeopathy as the second most widely practiced system of medicine globally and underscored its relevance, particularly during the COVID-19 pandemic.   Significance of Homeopathy Homeopathy has established itself as a globally recognized and widely accepted alternative medical system. During the COVID-19 crisis, its holistic and patient-centric approach demonstrated valuable support in health care. The convention emphasized integrating homeopathy with conventional medicine to provide cost-effective, accessible,

Cabinet approves semiconductor unit in Uttar Pradesh Syllabus:Governanace The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved the establishment of a new semiconductor manufacturing unit, further advancing India’s journey towards self-reliance in the strategically vital semiconductor sector. This will be the sixth unit under the India Semiconductor Mission, with five units already in advanced stages of construction. The newly approved facility will be a joint venture between HCL and Foxconn, combining HCL’s legacy in hardware development with Foxconn’s global expertise in electronics manufacturing.   Location & Production: The plant will be set up near Jewar Airport in the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA) It will manufacture display driver chips for use in mobile phones, laptops, automobiles, PCs, and other display-enabled devices. Designed for a capacity of 20,000 wafers/month and an output of 36 million units/month.   Investment & Ecosystem: The project involves an investment of ₹3,700 crore. India’s semiconductor ecosystem is rapidly expanding, with global equipment giants like Applied Materials and Lam Research, and gas and chemical suppliers such as Merck, Linde, Air Liquide, and Inox establishing a presence in India.   Academic & Startup Contributions: Over 270 academic institutions and 70 startups are engaged in advanced chip design and innovation. 20 student-developed products have already been successfully taped out at SCL Mohali. As India witnesses a surge in demand for semiconductors across sectors—ranging from consumer electronics to defence—the new unit is a significant step towards realizing Prime Minister Modi’s vision of an Atmanirbhar Bharat. Consider the following statements with respect to India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem: The India Semiconductor Mission is being implemented under the aegis of the National Policy on Electronics 2019. Applied Materials and Lam Research are key players in semiconductor design software being developed in India. Display driver chips are typically used in digital screens but not in automobiles due to electromagnetic interference issues. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. None Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: Applied Materials and Lam Research are semiconductor equipment manufacturers, not design software companies. Statement 3 is incorrect: Display driver chips are used in automotive displays as well. NRFMTTI achieves CMVR testing approval for Agricultural Tractors Syllabus:Geography The Northern Region Farm Machinery Training & Testing Institute (NRFMTTI), Hisar (Haryana) has achieved two major milestones: Approval as a CMVR Testing Agency for Agricultural Tractors NABL Accreditation for CMVR Testing of Agricultural Tractors and Combine Harvesters NRFMTTI, a premier institution in the field of training and testing of agricultural machinery, is now an authorized agency to carry out CMVR (Central Motor Vehicle Rules) testing for agricultural tractors, in addition to combine harvesters. The institute has also been granted NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories) accreditation, further validating the quality and reliability of its CMVR testing services. This development will significantly benefit tractor manufacturers in Northern India, allowing them to conduct mandatory CMVR testing locally at NRFMTTI. Furthermore, NABL-accredited CMVR certification will improve the global credibility and acceptance of test results for agricultural tractors and combine harvesters, supporting domestic industry and exports. Which of the following statements regarding the recent accreditation and approval granted to NRFMTTI, Hisar is/are correct? It has been approved as a CMVR testing agency exclusively for Combine Harvesters. It has received NABL accreditation for CMVR testing of both agricultural tractors and Combine Harvesters. The institute is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Heavy Industries. The CMVR certification by NABL-accredited institutions is mandatory for domestic tractor sales under the Farm Mechanization Policy. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 2 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only Answer:A.2onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — NRFMTTI is approved for both tractors and harvesters. Statement 3 is incorrect — it is under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. Statement 4 is incorrect — while CMVR compliance is legally required, NABL certification enhances global acceptance but is not specifically mandated under a “Farm Mechanization Policy.” Ministry of Culture & IBC to Celebrate Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas with Prayers, Dialogue, and Cultural Splendour at Dr. BR Ambedkar International Centre Syllabus:History The Ministry of Culture and International Buddhist Confederation (IBC) is set to commemorate the sacred occasion of Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas—the Triple Blessed Day marking the Birth, Enlightenment, and Mahāparinirvāna of Lord Shākyamuni Buddha. The event will be held at Dr B R Ambedkar International Centre (Auditorium), Janpath, New Delhi on 15thMay 2025 (Thursday). The Guest of Honour for the event will be Shri Kiren Rijiju, Minister of Parliamentary Affairs and Minority Affairs and the Chief Guest will be Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat, Minister of Culture & Tourism. The programme will feature prayers and a thought-provoking panel discussion on the theme: ‘Application of Buddha Dhamma in Conflict Resolution’. Esteemed Buddhist scholar-monks and domain experts, including Geshe Dorji Damdul (Director, Tibet House, New Delhi), Prof. Hira Paul Gang Negi (Former HoD, Buddhist Studies, Delhi University), and Prof. Bimlendra Kumar (Professor, Pali & Buddhist Studies, BHU), will share insights on the timeless relevance of Buddha’s teachings. A special address will be delivered by the distinguished Buddhist nun, Ven. Gyaltsen Samten, and the Ratana Sutta will be rendered by renowned singer Ms. Subhadra Desai. Highlighting the cultural and spiritual significance of the day, two major exhibitions will be showcased:   Comparative Buddhist Art History of India Life and Teachings of the Buddha These exhibitions were part of the United Nations Vesak Day 2025 celebrations in Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam, held alongside the exposition of the Holy Relics of the Buddha from Sarnath across four Vietnamese cities. The event will also feature screenings of a documentary on the Dissemination of Buddha Dhamma in Asia and a film on the Exposition of the Holy Relics of the Buddha. Though the full moon of Vaiśākha falls on May 12 this year, the sanctity of the occasion leads to celebrations across the entire month. This

US-China 90-Day Tariff Truce Syllabus:IR The United States and China have agreed to a 90-day pause in their ongoing trade conflict following two days of talks in Geneva. Both countries will suspend all tariff hikes and non-tariff barriers imposed since April 2, with a mutual commitment to resolving trade disputes.     Background: How the Trade War Escalated Initial Tariffs: The U.S. began imposing tariffs in February, citing concerns over fentanyl exports from China. April 2 – “Liberation Day”: Marked a major escalation, with the U.S. slapping an additional 34% tariff on Chinese goods. China’s Response: Beijing hit back with retaliatory tariffs and non-tariff barriers, including export restrictions on rare earths and regulatory crackdowns on U.S. firms. By April 10: S. tariffs on Chinese goods: 145% China’s tariffs on U.S. goods: 125% A $100 Chinese item effectively cost $245 in the U.S.   Why Tariffs Were Imposed Trade Deficit: The U.S. cited a $1.2 trillion trade deficit in goods, arguing it reflected unfair trade. Unfair Competition: Claims that foreign nations subsidize exports and shield local firms, putting U.S. businesses at a disadvantage. Policy Shift: After failed diplomatic efforts, the U.S. adopted high tariffs as a defense mechanism for domestic industries.   Post-Truce Trade Landscape Tariff Reduction: Both countries lowered base tariffs to 10% on imports. S. Exception: A 20% additional tariff remains on Chinese goods tied to fentanyl concerns, totaling a 30% effective tariff. China’s Action: Beijing has lifted non-tariff measures, including export controls and corporate investigations.   Why the Truce Happened Consumer Impact: Tariffs raised prices, hurting consumers more than helping producers. Economic Strain: Retailers like Walmart warned of supply shortages and rising costs. Recession Risk: The U.S. economy contracted in Q1 2025, and economists warned of a looming recession and possible stagflation.   Conclusion The agreement marks a temporary ceasefire, not a resolution. With deep mistrust and complex negotiations ahead, the truce offers only a window for diplomacy — not a guaranteed peace. With reference to the US-China Tariff Truce of 2025, consider the following statements: The 90-day truce completely eliminated all tariffs and non-tariff barriers between the two nations. One of the triggers for the initial US tariff imposition was the illicit trade in synthetic opioids. China’s response to US tariffs included both retaliatory tariffs and export controls on critical minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer:BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Tariffs were reduced, not eliminated. Statement 2 is correct: Fentanyl trade was a key reason. Statement 3 is correct: China used both tariffs and non-tariff barriers like export restrictions. India’s Strategic Doctrine: PM Aligns Anti-Terror Policy with Global Framework Syllabus:Governance Context: In his first national address following Operation Sindoor — India’s most decisive military engagement since the Kargil War — Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a transformative anti-terror doctrine, redefining India’s approach to cross-border terrorism and regional security.   Core Tenets of the New Strategic Doctrine Response on India’s Terms:India reserves the sovereign right to determine the timing, nature, and intensity of its response to terrorism. Deterrence Beyond Nuclear Threats:India’s actions will not be constrained by adversarial nuclear posturing — signaling the end of “nuclear blackmail” as a deterrent. Unified Targeting Approach:No distinction will be made between terrorists, their leadership, or the states providing them support. All will be held equally accountable.     Doctrinal Evolution Post-Uri and Balakot This doctrine marks a continuity and intensification of India’s response model that began with: Uri Surgical Strikes (2016) Balakot Airstrikes (2019) Operation Sindoor, conducted after the Pahalgam terror attack, is positioned as the new baseline in India’s counter-terrorism strategy, raising the threshold for future military actions and reinforcing India’s offensive preparedness.   India’s Role in the Global War on Terror PM Modi positioned India as a responsible global actor in the fight against terrorism, likening strikes on Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba to international efforts post-9/11.He called for global unity and reiterated that the “era of terrorism” must end, adapting his earlier message: “This is not the era of war” to “This is also not the era of terrorism.”   Strategic Military Capabilities Displayed India showcased its growing technological edge, including: Precision missile strikes Destruction of drones and key enemy airbases Use of Made-in-India weaponry in 21st-century warfare The operation highlighted India’s capacity for deep-strike operations and its readiness for high-stakes, modern conflict scenarios.   Strategic Pause: A Calculated Decision While Pakistan sought diplomatic de-escalation after suffering significant losses, India chose to pause operations only after key objectives were achieved.This was described not as withdrawal, but as conditional suspension, with future actions contingent on Pakistan’s conduct.   Reaffirming Strategic Red Lines India reiterated its uncompromising stance: No engagement with Pakistan unless talks are centered on terrorism or Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). No resumption of trade, water-sharing, or diplomatic normalcy under the shadow of terror.   Philosophical Underpinning: Peace Through Strength On Buddha Purnima, PM Modi evoked Lord Buddha’s message, emphasizing that peace is safeguarded by strength. A militarily strong India is essential to achieving the vision of Viksit Bharat (Developed India).   Conclusion: A Paradigm Shift in National Security Posture India’s updated strategic doctrine signals a bold, assertive, and independent military posture, grounded in zero tolerance for terrorism and supported by advanced capabilities.Operation Sindoor is not just a tactical victory—it is the cornerstone of a new doctrine for India’s national security and global leadership in counter-terrorism. With reference to India’s new anti-terror doctrine post-Operation Sindoor, consider the following statements: It marks the first time India has formally rejected nuclear deterrence in its counter-terror strategy. The doctrine makes a distinction between non-state and state-sponsored terrorism. Operation Sindoor represents a shift from defensive retaliation to pre-emptive, technology-enabled strike capability. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine explicitly states that India will not be deterred by nuclear threats, rejecting

Buddha Purnima Syllabus: GS1/ History and Culture Buddha Purnima, one of the most revered festivals for Buddhists, is celebrated on the full moon day of Vaishakh (April-May). This year, it falls on 12th May. The festival honors the life and teachings of Gautama Buddha and serves as a reminder to follow the principles of kindness, non-violence, and wisdom. In India and across many South and Southeast Asian countries, Buddha Purnima is often referred to as the “thrice-blessed day” because it marks three significant events in the life of the Buddha: His birth at Lumbini. His enlightenment (Nirvana) at Bodh Gaya. His Mahaparinirvana (death) at Kushinagar. In certain parts of the world, however, the focus is solely on the Buddha’s birth, while his enlightenment and passing are commemorated on separate occasions. Since 1999, the United Nations has recognized Buddha Purnima as the UN Day of Vesak, celebrating the spiritual legacy of the Buddha on a global scale.  Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India: GST was implemented in India on 1st July 2017, replacing multiple indirect taxes at both central and state levels. The GST Council is responsible for making recommendations on matters related to GST, including tax rates and exemptions. Under GST, the central government and the state governments both have the authority to levy taxes on goods and services. GST is applicable to only goods and not services, and it does not apply to exempted categories like agricultural produce. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 1, 2, and 3 onlyD) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: C) 1, 2, and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: GST was implemented on 1st July 2017, replacing various indirect taxes like VAT, excise duty, and service tax, creating a unified tax system across the country. Statement 2 is correct: The GST Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister, is tasked with making recommendations regarding the tax structure, rates, and exemptions for GST. Statement 3 is correct: Under GST, both the central government (CGST) and state governments (SGST) have the authority to levy taxes on goods and services within their jurisdiction. Statement 4 is incorrect: GST applies to both goods and services, and exempted categories, such as agricultural produce, are also subject to the provisions of GST, albeit at a zero tax rate or with exemptions for certain goods. Lafora Disease Syllabus: GS2/ Health Researchers are hopeful about discovering a treatment for Lafora Disease, a rare and progressive genetic disorder of the nervous system.   What is Lafora Disease? Lafora disease is classified as one of the Progressive Myoclonic Epilepsies (PMEs), which are conditions characterized by muscle spasms (myoclonus) and seizures. The disease is named after Gonzalo Rodríguez Lafora, the Spanish neurologist who first identified it. It is caused by the accumulation of Lafora bodies, abnormal, insoluble, glycogen-like structures that build up in the brain and other tissues. This buildup interferes with normal neuronal function, leading to severe seizures, cognitive decline, and motor dysfunction.   Genetic Causes and Inheritance Lafora disease is primarily caused by mutations in either the EPM2A gene or the EPM2B (NHLRC1) The disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning both copies of the gene must be altered for the disease to develop. The risk of inheritance is higher in populations where consanguineous marriages (marriage between close relatives) are more common.   Current Status and Treatment Currently, there is no known cure for Lafora disease. Treatment is focused on managing symptoms, but it remains largely palliative. However, ongoing research offers hope for potential breakthroughs in treatment in the near future. Consider the following statements regarding Lafora Disease: Lafora Disease is classified under Progressive Myoclonic Epilepsies (PMEs) and primarily affects the central nervous system. The disease is caused by the accumulation of Lafora bodies, which are insoluble glycogen-like structures, disrupting neuronal function. Lafora Disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning only one mutated gene copy is needed for the disorder to manifest. Mutations in either the EPM2A or EPM2B (NHLRC1) genes are known to cause Lafora Disease. The prevalence of Lafora Disease is higher in populations with high rates of consanguineous marriages. Which of the above statements are correct? A) 1, 2, 4, and 5 onlyB) 1, 3, and 5 onlyC) 2, 4, and 5 onlyD) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only Answer: A) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Lafora Disease is indeed classified under Progressive Myoclonic Epilepsies (PMEs), a group of neurological disorders that affect the central nervous system, primarily manifesting as seizures and cognitive decline. Statement 2 is correct: The disease is caused by the buildup of Lafora bodies, which are abnormal, insoluble, glycogen-like structures that accumulate in neurons, disrupting their function. Statement 3 is incorrect: Lafora Disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) are required for the disease to manifest. This contradicts the autosomal dominant inheritance mentioned in the statement. Statement 4 is correct: The mutations responsible for Lafora Disease are found in the EPM2A and EPM2B (NHLRC1) genes, which are crucial for the proper functioning of glycogen metabolism in the brain. Statement 5 is correct: There is a higher prevalence of Lafora Disease in populations with consanguineous marriages due to the autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, which increases the likelihood of inheriting both mutated gene copies. First Round of Negotiations for the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement Syllabus: GS2/ International Relations, GS3/ Economy Recently, the first round of negotiations for the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement (FTA) concluded successfully, setting the stage for enhanced trade relations between the two nations. Bilateral Trade Between India and New Zealand In the financial year 2024–25, bilateral merchandise trade between India and New Zealand reached USD 1.3 billion, reflecting a remarkable growth of 6% compared to the previous year. This surge indicates the growing trade potential between the two countries. India’s Imports

164th Birth Anniversary of Rabindranath Tagore Syllabus: GS1/ History and Culture   Prime Minister Modi paid tribute to Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore on his Jayanti, honoring the profound legacy of this Indian polymath. Tagore, a key figure of the Bengal Renaissance, made significant contributions as a poet, writer, playwright, composer, philosopher, social reformer, and painter.     In 1921, he founded Visva-Bharati University, a pioneering institution for cultural exchange. Tagore revolutionized Bengali literature and music by merging traditional themes with modern ideas, a movement known as Contextual Modernism. Some of his notable literary works include Gitanjali, a collection of devotional poems; Gora, a philosophical novel exploring nationalism and identity; and Ghare-Baire (The Home and the World), which critiques aggressive nationalism. His musical legacy is equally remarkable, with his compositions becoming national anthems for India (“Jana Gana Mana”) and Bangladesh (“Amar Shonar Bangla”) as well as the state anthem of West Bengal (“Banglar Mati Banglar Jol”). Tagore’s achievements were globally recognized when he became the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913, for Gitanjali. He was also the first lyricist to receive the Nobel Prize in this category. Revered by many, he was affectionately known by titles like Gurudeb, Kobiguru, and Biswokobi. Consider the following statements regarding India’s National Monetization Pipeline (NMP): The NMP aims to unlock value in infrastructure assets across various sectors, including railways, airports, and power plants. The NMP is part of the broader National Infrastructure Investment Fund (NIIF) initiative. Under NMP, government-owned assets will be leased out to private players for a fixed term rather than sold outright. The NMP is expected to generate a total of ₹6 lakh crore over the next 4 years. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 onlyB) 1, 2, and 4 onlyC) 2, 3, and 4 onlyD) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: A) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The National Monetization Pipeline aims to unlock value from government-owned infrastructure assets in sectors such as railways, airports, and power plants. Statement 2 is incorrect: The NMP is not part of the National Infrastructure Investment Fund (NIIF). It is a separate initiative focused on monetizing public sector assets. Statement 3 is correct: The NMP involves leasing out government-owned assets to private players for a fixed term, rather than selling them outright. This allows the government to retain ownership of the assets while benefiting from private sector management and investment. Statement 4 is incorrect: The NMP aims to generate ₹6 lakh crore over 4 years, but this figure has been projected as a broader estimate, and the actual amount may vary depending on asset identification and execution. Maharana Pratap Syllabus: GS1/Medieval History Maharana Pratap was born on May 9, 1540, in Kumbhalgarh, Rajasthan. He was the 54th ruler of Mewar, a region in present-day Rajasthan, and belonged to the Sisodia Rajput dynasty.     Battle of Haldighati (1576): One of the most iconic moments in Maharana Pratap’s life was the Battle of Haldighati, fought between his forces and the Mughal army led by Raja Man Singh I of Amber. The battle is celebrated for the remarkable resistance put up by the Rajput forces against overwhelming Mughal power. Although the battle ended inconclusively, with Maharana Pratap retreating into the hills of southern Mewar, it failed to break the deadlock between the Mughal Empire and Pratap’s forces. Maharana Pratap’s legendary horse, Chetak, is also renowned for its loyalty and bravery, playing a significant role during the battle.   Legacy: Maharana Pratap is known for his refusal to accept Mughal supremacy, unlike many other Rajput rulers who succumbed to Mughal dominance. He regained much of the territory lost to the Mughals, though he could not recapture Chittorgarh. Maharana Pratap remains a symbol of Rajput pride, valor, and unwavering resistance against foreign rule. Consider the following statements regarding Maharana Pratap: Maharana Pratap was the 54th ruler of Mewar and was born in Kumbhalgarh, Rajasthan. The Battle of Haldighati (1576) was a decisive victory for Maharana Pratap over the Mughal forces. Maharana Pratap’s horse, Chetak, became legendary due to its bravery during the Battle of Haldighati. Unlike many other Rajput rulers, Maharana Pratap accepted Mughal supremacy after the Battle of Haldighati. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 onlyB) 1, 2, and 3 onlyC) 1, 3, and 4 onlyD) 1 and 4 only Answer: A) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Maharana Pratap was indeed the 54th ruler of Mewar and was born in Kumbhalgarh, Rajasthan on May 9, 1540. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Battle of Haldighati in 1576, although a fierce fight, ended in a stalemate. Maharana Pratap did not win the battle, but he managed to escape and continue his resistance against the Mughals. Statement 3 is correct: Chetak, Maharana Pratap’s horse, became legendary for its loyalty and bravery, especially during the Battle of Haldighati. It played a key role in saving Pratap’s life, despite being injured during the battle. Statement 4 is incorrect: Maharana Pratap famously refused to accept Mughal supremacy, unlike many other Rajput rulers. He continued to resist the Mughal empire throughout his life. World Press Freedom Index Syllabus: GS2/Governance   Context: Reporters Without Borders (RSF) has released the World Press Freedom Index for 2025.   About the Index: The World Press Freedom Index assigns each country or territory a score between 0 and 100, where 100 represents the highest level of press freedom and 0 represents the lowest. The index evaluates the freedom of journalists and media across 180 countries and territories.   Findings: India ranks 151st in 2025, with a score of 96, improving by 8 places from 159th in the previous year. Top-ranked countries: Norway retains its position at 1st, followed by other Scandinavian and European nations, which benefit from robust legal protections and a diverse media landscape. Bottom-ranked countries: Eritrea ranks 180th (last), followed by several nations in Sub-Saharan Africa and East Asia, facing severe restrictions on press freedom.

India now 3rd largest vehicle manufacturer: Union Minister Nitin Gadkari Syllabus:Governance     Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways, Nitin Gadkari, announced that India is now the third-largest vehicle manufacturer globally, reflecting the rapid growth of the country’s automobile industry. Speaking at the 4th International BBB Summit and Expo on Bioenergy Value Chain in New Delhi, the Minister emphasized the increasing demand for various types of vehicles in India. He noted that while this growth fuels economic development, it also leads to a corresponding rise in fossil fuel consumption, raising concerns over energy sustainability. To address this, he underscored the urgent need to curb fuel imports, boost exports, and transition towards alternative energy sources. Highlighting the economic challenges faced by the agricultural sector, Mr. Gadkari called for measures to make agriculture more economically viable, asserting that true self-reliance is not possible without strengthening the agrarian economy. The two-day summit brings together policymakers, scientists, technocrats, industrial leaders, and bioenergy experts. Its primary focus is on promoting cutting-edge technologies that utilize India’s vast biomass resources to build a sustainable bioenergy value chain. Consider the following statements regarding the interpretation of Sedition laws and Freedom of Speech in India: Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code, which criminalizes sedition, has been struck down by the Supreme Court as unconstitutional in its entirety. The Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) judgment upheld the constitutionality of Section 124A but limited its application to acts involving incitement to violence or public disorder. The Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab (1995) ruling clarified that casual sloganeering without incitement to violence does not amount to sedition. The Supreme Court’s 2022 interim order on sedition mandates all pending trials, appeals, and proceedings under Section 124A to be kept in abeyance, and no new FIRs should be filed under the provision until reconsidered. Which of the above statements is/are correct?A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2, 3, and 4 onlyC) 1, 2, and 4 onlyD) 2 and 4 only Correct Answer: B) 2, 3, and 4 only  Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: Section 124A has not been struck down. It has been kept in abeyance by an interim SC order (2022), but not declared unconstitutional yet. Statement 2 – Correct: In Kedar Nath Singh (1962), the SC upheld the provision but narrowed its scope to “incitement to violence or public disorder.” Statement 3 – Correct: In Balwant Singh (1995), the SC ruled that merely raising slogans like “Khalistan Zindabad” does not amount to sedition unless there is incitement to violence. Statement 4 – Correct: In 2022, the SC ordered that all pending cases under Section 124A be paused and no fresh FIRs be filed while the law is under review. CENJOWS hosts MRSAM-India Eco-System Summit 2.0 Syllabus:Environment On May 7, 2025, the Centre for Joint Warfare Studies (CENJOWS), in collaboration with Aerospace Services India (ASI) and Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI), hosted the MRSAM India Eco-System Summit 2.0 at the Manekshaw Centre in New Delhi. The summit aimed to bolster India’s air and missile defence capabilities under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat and Make-in-India initiatives.   Key Highlights: Collaborative Efforts: The event underscored the growing synergy between Indian and Israeli defence sectors, with ASI reaffirming its vision to become India’s premier defence service provider. Participation: Senior representatives from the Ministry of Defence (MoD), Armed Forces, DRDO, Bharat Electronics Limited, Bharat Dynamics Limited, and leading Indian defence manufacturers attended the summit. Focus Areas: Panel discussions centered on operational readiness, self-reliance in missile systems, and technology showcases featuring AI-powered service management systems like STORMS developed by ASI. Indigenous Manufacturing: The summit highlighted the achievements of ASI-IAI’s wholly-owned Indian subsidiary, which plays a critical role in providing technical representation, life-cycle support, and local manufacturing for the MRSAM system and its associated subsystems such as the BARAK 8 missile and Air Defence Fire Control Radar. Future Outlook: The event emphasized the importance of establishing a resilient and future-ready air defence infrastructure through sustained collaboration, capability development, and localized innovation. This summit marks a significant step towards enhancing India’s indigenous defence manufacturing capabilities and reducing dependence on foreign suppliers. With reference to the Medium-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (MRSAM) India Eco-System Summit 2.0, held in 2025, consider the following statements: The MRSAM system, developed through India-Israel collaboration, is equipped with the BARAK 8 missile and integrates with the Air Defence Fire Control Radar. The summit was organized solely by DRDO to showcase India’s independent missile development efforts under the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020. STORMS, an AI-powered service management system, was demonstrated at the summit and is developed by an Indian public sector defence manufacturer. The summit aligns with India’s vision of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ by emphasizing indigenization, lifecycle support, and the establishment of wholly foreign-owned subsidiaries within Indian defence production. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 4 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 1, 3, and 4 onlyD) 1, 2, and 4 only Correct Answer: A) 1 and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. The MRSAM system includes the BARAK 8 missile and Air Defence Fire Control Radar as part of the India-Israel collaboration. Statement 2: Incorrect. The summit was co-organized by CENJOWS, ASI (Aerospace Services India), and Israel Aerospace Industries — not solely by DRDO. Statement 3: Incorrect. STORMS was developed by ASI (a private-sector partner), not a public sector manufacturer like BEL or BDL. Statement 4: Correct. The summit strongly aligns with the goals of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’, and the Indian subsidiary of IAI facilitates local production and lifecycle support. DELIVERY OF ‘ARNALA’- FIRST ANTI SUBMARINE WARFARE SHALLOW WATER CRAFT TO THE INDIAN NAVY Syllabus:Defence On 8 May 2025, INS Arnala, the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Crafts (ASW SWCs), was officially delivered to the Indian Navy at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli. Designed and built indigenously by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata, the ship marks a major step forward in India’s naval self-reliance under the ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’     Key Highlights: Public-Private Partnership (PPP): Constructed in collaboration with L&T Shipyard,

India’s Past Military Operations Against Pakistan Syllabus :GS 2/IR Operation Sindoor represents a significant shift in India’s approach to naming military operations. Moving away from the traditional use of powerful, mythological, or tactical terms, this new operation introduces a more emotionally resonant narrative. Unlike previous operations such as Riddle, Meghdoot, and Bandar, which reflected traditional displays of military strength, Operation Sindoor places a focus on human experience and tribute.     Notable Past Operations Operation Riddle (1965 Indo-Pak War): India launched Operation Riddle in response to Pakistan’s offensive actions under the code names Operation Gibraltar and Grand Slam during the 1965 war. Pakistan’s violation of the Line of Control (LoC) and their advance into Jammu and Kashmir prompted India to target the cities of Lahore and Kasur on September 6, 1965. The operation had a debilitating impact on Pakistan’s military capabilities.   Operation Ablaze (1965 Indo-Pak War): Conducted in April 1965, Operation Ablaze was India’s preemptive military mobilization in response to rising tensions with Pakistan, particularly in the Rann of Kutch. While it did not immediately escalate into direct combat, the operation signaled India’s readiness and helped lay the groundwork for the subsequent military engagements that culminated in the Tashkent Agreement.   Operation Cactus Lily (1971 Indo-Pak War): Also known as The Meghna Heli Bridge or The Crossing of the Meghna, Operation Cactus Lily was a daring air assault conducted in December 1971 during the Bangladesh Liberation War. The operation, executed by the Indian Army and Air Force, aimed to bypass a Pakistani stronghold at Ashuganj and reach Dhaka by crossing the Meghna River, a crucial strategic move in the war.   Operations Trident and Python (1971 Indo-Pak War): These naval offensives targeted Pakistan’s port city of Karachi during the 1971 war. Operation Trident, which took place on the night of December 4-5, 1971, marked the first use of anti-ship missiles in the region. The operations inflicted significant damage on Pakistani naval assets, contributing to the ultimate victory for India and the creation of Bangladesh.   Operation Meghdoot (Siachen Conflict, 1984): Launched in April 1984, Operation Meghdoot was a preemptive action by India to assert control over the strategically important Siachen Glacier, countering Pakistan’s growing presence in the region. India quickly deployed troops to key heights on the glacier, gaining a significant advantage by the time Pakistan mobilized.   Operation Vijay (1999 Kargil Conflict): Operation Vijay was India’s military response in May 1999 to reclaim territory occupied by Pakistani forces in the Kargil sector. The operation successfully expelled Pakistani troops and recaptured critical strategic points, marking a significant victory for India in the Kargil War.   Operation Safed Sagar (1999 Kargil Conflict): Operation Safed Sagar refers to the Indian Air Force’s role during the Kargil War. The operation involved extensive airstrikes aimed at dislodging Pakistani forces from Indian positions along the LoC. This was the first large-scale use of air power in the region since the 1971 Indo-Pakistani War and played a key role in India’s success.   Unnamed Operation (2016 Surgical Strikes): In response to the Uri attack, Indian special forces carried out a series of surgical strikes in September 2016 against terrorist launch pads across the LoC in Pakistan-administered Kashmir. The operation was notable for its lack of a formal codename and marked a shift towards more proactive counter-terrorism actions by India.   Operation Bandar (2019 Balakot Air Strikes): This operation was India’s response to the Pulwama terror attack in February 2019, which killed 40 CRPF personnel. The Indian Air Force carried out airstrikes on a Jaish-e-Mohammed training camp in Balakot, Pakistan, marking the first cross-LoC airstrike since 1971. The strikes led to brief aerial skirmishes between the two nations and heightened tensions. Consider the following statements regarding India’s military operations: Operation Sindoor represents a shift in India’s naming strategy, moving towards more emotionally resonant names instead of conventional or mythological ones. Operation Riddle was launched in response to Pakistan’s Operation Gibraltar and Grand Slam in the 1965 war, targeting areas such as Lahore and Kasur. Operation Ablaze was a preemptive military action initiated by India in response to rising tensions in the Rann of Kutch, which eventually led to the Tashkent Agreement. Operation Safed Sagar involved airstrikes to eliminate Pakistani forces in the Kargil sector during the 1999 conflict, marking the first large-scale use of air power since the 1971 war. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1, 2, and 3 onlyB) 2, 3, and 4 onlyC) 1, 3, and 4 onlyD) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Operation Sindoor indeed marks a shift in India’s naming conventions, focusing on emotional and human-centric narratives. Statement 2 is correct: Operation Riddle was launched in 1965 in response to Pakistan’s military actions under Operation Gibraltar and Grand Slam, targeting cities like Lahore and Kasur. Statement 3 is correct: Operation Ablaze was a preemptive military move by India during the Rann of Kutch crisis, and it set the stage for the Tashkent Agreement. Statement 4 is correct: Operation Safed Sagar involved the Indian Air Force’s airstrikes in the Kargil sector and marked the first significant use of air power since the 1971 war. Quad concludes Indo-Pacific Logistics Network simulation Syllabus :GS 2/IR The Quad countries recently conducted a Tabletop Exercise at the Asia-Pacific Centre for Security Studies in Honolulu, Hawaii, to further the development of the Quad Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN).   Indo-Pacific Logistics Network (IPLN) The IPLN is an initiative designed to enhance the logistical capabilities of Quad nations, enabling them to respond more swiftly and effectively to natural disasters in the Indo-Pacific region. This collaborative effort reflects the Quad’s commitment to ensuring a free and open Indo-Pacific and underscores the importance of strengthening practical cooperation to address regional challenges.     The Quad The Quad, comprising India, Japan, Australia, and the United States, was initially formed after the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami to coordinate disaster relief efforts. It was officially formalized in 2007 under

India Launches Chip-Based E-Passports to Enhance Travel Security Syllabus:Security Syllabus:Security   India has officially launched chip-based e-passports as part of its ongoing digital transformation of travel documentation. These advanced passports, embedded with RFID chips and biometric data, aim to enhance the security, efficiency, and convenience of international travel for Indian citizens. This move positions India alongside countries like the USA, UK, and Germany, which have already implemented similar e-passport technologies.   Why in the News? On April 1, 2024, the Government of India, through the Passport Seva Programme Version 2.0, began the nationwide rollout of chip-based e-passports. This initiative marks a key milestone in modernizing travel infrastructure and ensuring secure, tamper-proof documentation. It also aligns with the introduction of new passport rules in 2025.   Key Features of Chip-Based E-Passports Embedded RFID Chip & Antenna: Securely stores biometric and personal data. Enhanced Security: Difficult to forge or duplicate, ensuring higher safety. Scannable Barcode: Enables easy digital access to residential addresses for immigration officers.   Objectives Improve passport security and global compatibility. Streamline immigration processes and reduce fraud. Support Digital India and promote paperless governance. Implementation and Rollout Pilot Launch: April 1, 2024. Cities Currently Issuing E-Passports: Chennai, Jaipur, Hyderabad, Nagpur, Amritsar, Goa, Raipur, Surat, Ranchi, Bhubaneswar, Jammu, and Shimla. Issued through selected Regional Passport Offices (RPOs).   New Passport Rules (2025) Birth Certificate: Mandatory for those born on or after October 1, 2023. Residential Address: Digitally embedded in the e-passport, no longer printed on the last page. Parents’ Names: Removed from the passport to streamline personal data. Significance Aligns with global best practices in passport security. Supports paperless immigration and enhances data privacy. Demonstrates India’s commitment to tech-based governance and modernization. This shift to chip-based e-passports marks a significant leap toward a more secure and efficient system, contributing to both national and international travel modernization efforts. onsider the following statements regarding India’s rollout of chip-based e-passports: The chip-based e-passports are embedded with RFID chips and biometric data to improve security and efficiency. The e-passports are issued nationwide as part of the “Passport Seva Programme Version 1.0.” The new passport rules will make birth certificates mandatory for individuals born on or after October 1, 2023. Parents’ names have been removed from the new e-passports to streamline personal data. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: D) 1, 3, and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The chip-based e-passports are embedded with RFID chips and biometric data, enhancing passport security and efficiency. Statement 2 is incorrect: The e-passports are part of the “Passport Seva Programme Version 2.0,” not Version 1.0. Statement 3 is correct: The new passport rules (2025) require birth certificates for applicants born on or after October 1, 2023. Statement 4 is correct: The new e-passports remove parents’ names to streamline personal data. Amex and HSBC Top Credit Card Additions Among Foreign Banks in FY25 Syllabus:Economy In a significant recovery from previous declines, foreign banks like HSBC and American Express have emerged as key players in the credit card market, with impressive net additions in FY25, as per data released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). HSBC added 216,997 cards, while American Express saw a net addition of 107,086 cards. This surge reflects a resurgence in consumer credit demand, contributing to the overall industry expansion, with more than 8 million new credit cards issued across all banks in FY25.   Why in News? On May 7, 2025, the RBI highlighted that HSBC and American Express topped the list for net credit card additions among foreign banks in FY25. This marks a sharp recovery for American Express, which had previously witnessed a decline in its card base. The credit card industry as a whole added over 8 million cards, reflecting increasing consumer appetite for credit and the growing adoption of digital payments.   Key Highlights: HSBC: Added 216,997 cards in FY25, a stark turnaround after a decline of 38,693 cards in FY24. American Express: Net addition of 107,086 cards in FY25, a significant increase from just 11,450 cards in FY24. Standard Chartered: Experienced a decline of 158,322 cards in FY25. Industry Total: Over 8 million new credit cards issued across all banks in FY25.   Background: Foreign banks faced several challenges in expanding their credit card base in India, including limited branch presence, regulatory hurdles, and intense competition from domestic banks. Notably, American Express had been under restrictions by the RBI in 2021 due to non-compliance with data localization requirements, but these restrictions were later lifted.   Aim & Objectives of Expansion: Capture growing demand: Tap into India’s expanding middle class, which is increasingly adopting digital payments and consumer credit. Strengthen premium market share: Targeting high-income consumers with premium credit card offerings. Align with India’s fintech growth: Support the country’s push towards a cashless economy and the rapid growth of its fintech ecosystem.   Significance: The surge in credit card additions reflects the revival of foreign banks’ retail operations in India. The growth in consumer credit demand signals rising consumer confidence and economic recovery in India. It highlights India’s ongoing transition towards credit-driven consumption, in line with the country’s evolving economic landscape. Consider the following statements regarding the recent growth in the credit card market in India for FY25: HSBC and American Express were the leaders in net credit card additions, with HSBC adding over 200,000 cards and American Express adding more than 100,000 cards. The overall credit card industry in India saw a decline in the number of cards issued during FY25. American Express had faced restrictions by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2021 due to non-compliance with data localization norms, which were later lifted. Foreign banks in India have traditionally struggled to expand their credit card base due to competition from domestic banks, regulatory hurdles, and limited branch presence. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 onlyB) 2 and 4 onlyC)

1. Santhara Syllabus: GS1/Culture A tragic incident involving a three-year-old girl with a brain tumour has sparked a national debate after her parents initiated her into Santhara, a Jain religious ritual of voluntarily embracing death.   What is Santhara? Santhara, also called Sallekhana or Samadhi Maran, is an ancient Jain religious vow of gradual fasting unto death. It is undertaken with the aim of attaining spiritual purity by detaching from worldly desires and shedding accumulated karma. Jain scriptures permit Santhara only under specific circumstances, such as: Terminal illness Extreme old age Severe and unavoidable hardship (e.g., famine or deteriorating health that may lead to unintentional harm to living beings, violating ahimsa).   Ethical and Legal Concerns The death of a minor has raised critical questions of consent and legality, as children lack the cognitive maturity to make life-ending decisions. Medical professionals and child rights activists argue that the practice, when applied to minors, equates to enforced starvation and violates basic human rights.   Legal Status of Santhara In 2015, the Rajasthan High Court ruled that Santhara is akin to suicide, making it punishable under: Section 306 – Abetment to suicide Section 309 – Attempt to suicide The ruling triggered widespread protests from the Jain community, citing infringement on religious freedom. Later, the Supreme Court stayed the Rajasthan HC verdict, effectively preserving the status quo and recognizing Santhara as part of Jain religious tradition—pending a final decision. Consider the following statements regarding the Jain ritual of Santhara and its legal-constitutional implications in India: Santhara is explicitly protected under Article 25 of the Constitution as a core religious practice of Jainism, as affirmed by the Supreme Court in a final judgment. The Rajasthan High Court, in a 2015 ruling, equated Santhara with suicide and held it punishable under Sections 306 and 309 of the Indian Penal Code. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution has been interpreted to include the right to die with dignity in the context of both euthanasia and religious fasting. The Supreme Court’s stay on the Rajasthan High Court’s verdict effectively legalizes Santhara in all forms and circumstances, including its use by minors. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 3 onlyD) 1, 2, and 4 only Correct Answer: B) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Supreme Court has stayed the Rajasthan HC judgment but has not delivered a final ruling affirming Santhara as a constitutionally protected religious practice. Thus, legal status is pending adjudication, not fully affirmed. Statement 2 – Correct: The Rajasthan HC in 2015 did declare Santhara punishable under IPC Sections 306 and 309, treating it as suicide. Statement 3 – Correct: The right to die with dignity has been interpreted under Article 21 by the Supreme Court, especially in the Common Cause v. Union of India (2018) judgment on passive euthanasia. Statement 4 – Incorrect: The SC’s interim stay on the HC ruling does not equate to full legalization, especially not for minors who cannot give informed consent, making the recent case ethically and legally controversial. Mangar Bani Syllabus: GS1/ Ancient History Recent archaeological findings at Mangar Bani, located in the Aravalli ranges along the Delhi-Haryana border, have uncovered prehistoric tools and rock art dating back to the Lower Palaeolithic period (approximately 200,000–500,000 years ago), making it one of the oldest known human habitations in the region. Mangar Bani is not only an important archaeological site but also a sacred grove and hill forest, believed to be the only surviving primary forest in the Delhi NCR region. Despite its ecological significance, it is not officially notified as a forest under the Forest (Conservation) Act. A primary forest refers to an ecologically mature and naturally regenerated forest, largely untouched by significant human activity, and characterized by the presence of native tree species and high biodiversity. With reference to Mangar Bani, consider the following statements: Mangar Bani is officially classified as a primary forest under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. Archaeological evidence from Mangar Bani indicates human habitation dating back to the Upper Palaeolithic period. It is located in the Aravalli hills, and represents the last surviving patch of primary forest in the Delhi NCR region. Primary forests are typically younger forests subjected to reforestation and managed silviculture practices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 3 onlyC) 1, 3, and 4 onlyD) 2 and 4 only Answer: B) 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Mangar Bani is not officially notified as a forest under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, despite functioning ecologically as one. Statement 2 is incorrect: The evidence dates back to the Lower Palaeolithic period, not Upper Palaeolithic. Statement 3 is correct: Mangar Bani is indeed located in the Aravalli hills and is considered the last remaining primary forest in the Delhi NCR. Statement 4 is incorrect: Primary forests are ecologically mature and minimally disturbed, unlike reforested or managed forests. Rules for Obtaining Voter ID in India Syllabus: GS2/ Governance Context In the aftermath of the recent terrorist attack in Pahalgam, investigations revealed that several deported Pakistani nationals were in possession of Indian identity documents, including voter ID cards, raising concerns about loopholes in the electoral registration system.   Constitutional and Legal Framework Article 326 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every Indian citizen aged 18 years or above for elections to the Lok Sabha and State/Union Territory Legislative Assemblies. Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 disqualifies individuals from being registered in electoral rolls if they: Are not citizens of India, Have been declared to be of unsound mind by a competent court, Are disqualified due to corrupt practices or offences under election laws.   Voter Registration Procedure The Election Commission of India (ECI) requires new applicants to use Form 6 for enrolment.   Required documents include: Self-attested proof of age and address (e.g., utility bills, Aadhaar, driving license), A signed declaration of Indian citizenship. Proof