Category: Daily Current Affairs & Editorials

Government Notifies Inter-services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Rules, 2025 Syllabus: GS3/ Defence In News: The Ministry of Defence has notified the ISO Rules, 2025 under the Inter-Services Organisations (ISO) Act, 2023, effective May 27, 2025. Background – ISO Act, 2023: Enacted to support seamless functioning of Joint Commands and Inter-Service Establishments; aims to enhance coordination among the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Objectives of ISO Rules, 2025: Unified Command – streamline control across services; Efficient Discipline – speed up case disposal, reduce duplication; Interoperability – legally and administratively align the three services. Key Provisions of the ISO Act & Rules: Creation of ISOs – Central Govt. empowered to form joint structures with personnel from two or more services; Command Authority – Commander-in-Chief (CiC), Officer-in-Command (OiC), and Commanding Officers (COs) have full disciplinary and administrative powers over all personnel, regardless of service; Retention of Service Acts – personnel remain governed under respective Acts (Army, Navy, Air Force); Residuary Powers – unaddressed issues to be resolved by Central Govt; Chain of Command – temporary replacements permitted during leave/absence or emergencies. Implementation Challenges: Cultural Integration – possible resistance due to differing service traditions; Jurisdiction Overlap – risk of confusion between ISO and parent service authority; Legal Complexity – harmonising distinct service laws may pose difficulties. With reference to the Inter-Services Organisations (ISO) Act, 2023, consider the following statements: The ISO Act enables the formation of Inter-Service Organisations composed exclusively of personnel from the Army and Navy. Under the ISO Rules, 2025, the Commander-in-Chief (CiC) of a Joint Services Command can exercise administrative control over civilian personnel posted to that command. The ISO Act overrides the Army, Navy, and Air Force Acts with respect to disciplinary powers in Joint Commands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. None Answer: D. None Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because ISOs can be composed of personnel from two or more services, not just Army and Navy. Statement 2 is incorrect as ISO Rules empower control over service personnel, not civilian staff. Statement 3 is incorrect; the respective Service Acts still apply to individuals; the ISO Act does not override them. Importance of the Deputy Speaker in Lok Sabha Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance The position of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha has remained vacant for over six years, raising significant concerns regarding constitutional compliance and democratic governance. The Deputy Speaker serves as the second-ranking presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, subordinate only to the Speaker. As per Article 95(1) of the Constitution, the Deputy Speaker performs the functions of the Speaker in their absence or when the post is vacant. In joint sittings of both Houses, the Deputy Speaker presides in the absence of the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members, as mandated under Article 93. Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha empowers the Speaker to fix the date for the election. Conventionally, the Deputy Speaker is chosen from the Opposition to maintain representational balance; however, from 1952 to 1969, all four Deputy Speakers were from the ruling party. Notably, the 17th Lok Sabha (2019–2024) witnessed a complete absence of a Deputy Speaker. When officiating as Speaker, the Deputy Speaker enjoys all powers of the Speaker, including maintaining order and interpreting rules. He/she cannot vote in the first instance but holds a casting vote in case of a tie. When not presiding, the Deputy Speaker functions as a regular member, retaining the right to speak and vote. A special privilege conferred upon the Deputy Speaker is that he/she automatically becomes the chairperson of any Parliamentary Committee they are nominated to. The Deputy Speaker can be removed by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by an effective majority, i.e., a majority of the total membership excluding vacant seats. Such a motion requires a 14-day advance notice. During consideration of the removal motion, the Deputy Speaker cannot preside over the House but may remain present. The prolonged vacancy of the Deputy Speaker undermines constitutional propriety and parliamentary norms, weakens the balance between the ruling party and Opposition, compromises democratic inclusiveness, and risks legislative paralysis in the absence of the Speaker. This also reflects the erosion of institutional integrity and neglect of a constitutional office. The Deputy Speaker’s office is a constitutional mandate, not a discretionary appointment. Its continued vacancy violates the spirit of the Constitution and democratic principles. Immediate corrective action is essential to uphold parliamentary integrity and restore institutional balance. With reference to the office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority of the members present and voting in the Lok Sabha. The Constitution explicitly mandates the time frame within which the Deputy Speaker must be elected. The Deputy Speaker, when not presiding over the House, retains the right to vote on any question before the House. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 onlyD. 3 only Answer:DExplanation: The Constitution (Article 93) mandates that the House “shall, as soon as may be” choose the Deputy Speaker, but does not specify a time frame (Statement 2 incorrect). When not presiding, the Deputy Speaker can vote like any ordinary member (Statement 3 correct). Deputy Speaker is elected by Lok Sabha, typically by consensus or voice vote; not necessarily only by a simple majority (Statement 1 not fully accurate for UPSC level precision). Experiential Learning Syllabus: GS2/Education Context: India’s current education system necessitates a shift towards experiential learning to remain relevant in a rapidly transforming digital and global landscape. The Evolving Nature of Learning: Humans are inherently designed to learn, yet the modern digital environment has revolutionized access to information. With AI and bots now capable of imparting conceptual understanding, the traditional role of schools—as mere content delivery centers—is increasingly under threat.   What is Experiential Learning?

Veer Savarkar Syllabus: GS1/Modern History   Savarkar Jayanti (May 28) Honouring the Legacy of Veer Savarkar (1883–1966)   About Vinayak Damodar Savarkar: Revolutionary freedom fighter, writer, poet, and political thinker. Advocated for armed struggle to end British rule. Founded Abhinav Bharat (1904) while at Fergusson College, Pune. Established Free India Society in London; authored The First War of Independence on the 1857 revolt. Arrested in 1910; sentenced to 50 years in Cellular Jail, Andaman. Released in 1937; became president of Hindu Mahasabha (served ~7 years). Actively campaigned against untouchability. Dissolved Abhinav Bharat in 1951; focused on Hindu nationalist ideology.   About Hindu Mahasabha: Founded: 1915, Haridwar (Kumbh Mela) by Madan Mohan Malviya. Purpose: Counterbalance to Muslim League’s growing political influence.   Goals: Unite Hindus politically and culturally Promote Hindu religious and social causes Protect Hindu interests in governance, education, and employment With reference to the political ideology of Veer Savarkar, consider the following statements: He considered untouchability a social evil and actively worked to eradicate it. He believed Hindu identity was primarily religious rather than cultural. He conceptualized Hindutva as a cultural and political unifying force. Which of the statements given above are correct?A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 1 and 3 onlyD) All of the above Answer: CExplanation: Savarkar opposed untouchability and campaigned against it → 1 is correct. He emphasized cultural and national aspects of Hindu identity over purely religious ones → 2 is incorrect. Njattadi Festival Syllabus: GS1/Culture Context: Kerala’s Agriculture Minister inaugurated the annual Njattadi Festival, also known as the Sapling Festival.   About the Festival: A traditional agricultural celebration observed by farming communities in Kerala. The name “Njattadi” is derived from “Njattuvela”, a period in the Malayalam calendar deemed ideal for paddy sowing. Marks the onset of the paddy cultivation season in the state. Cultural Significance: Celebrated with folk songs like Vanchipattu and Njattu Pattu. Includes traditional dance performances, reflecting the agrarian heritage of Kerala. Consider the following statements regarding Njattadi Festival: It is celebrated during the post-monsoon harvest season. It is accompanied by folk performances like Vanchipattu and Njattu Pattu. It is a pan-India agricultural festival celebrated for wheat sowing. Which of the above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above Answer:B.2onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect – Njattadi occurs during sowing, not harvest. Statement 3 is incorrect – it is a regional (Kerala-specific) paddy festival, not related to wheat or pan-India observance. Defence Minister Approves AMCA Fighter Jet Execution Model   Syllabus: GS3/Defence Context: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has approved the execution framework for the development of the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), a key milestone in India’s indigenous aerospace capability.  About the AMCA Programme: Executing Agency: Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), under the Ministry of Defence. Manufacturing Model: Competitive execution model with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and private sector players eligible to participate independently or in joint ventures/consortia. Eligibility: Bidding entities must be Indian companies compliant with national laws. Key Features of AMCA: Type: 5th-generation twin-engine stealth multirole fighter aircraft. Weight Class: 25 tonnes. Approval: Cleared by the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) in 2024. Estimated Cost: ₹15,000 crore. Design Status: Completed. Prototype Timeline: Expected by 2028–29. Production Timeline: Commencing 2032–33. Induction Goal: Targeted for operational deployment by 2034. Strategic Significance: Aatmanirbharta in Defence: Reinforces India’s commitment to self-reliance in critical military technologies. Geopolitical Imperatives: Responds to increasing regional threats, particularly following Operation Sindoor and enhanced China-Pakistan strategic cooperation. Air Superiority & Tech Parity: AMCA is critical to achieving long-term air dominance and narrowing the technological gap with adversarial forces. Global Standing: Upon successful induction, India would join a select group of nations possessing indigenous fifth-generation fighter capability. With respect to the development timeline of AMCA, arrange the following in chronological order: Start of production Completion of design phase Deployment into Indian Air Force Roll-out of prototype Choose the correct sequence: A. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3B. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3C. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3D. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1 Answer:AExplanation: Design is complete → prototype roll-out by 2028-29 → production starts by 2032-33 → induction by 2034. It involved conceptualization, engineering design, stealth shaping, radar cross-section optimization, and wind tunnel testing.  The first physical prototype is expected to be built and revealed during this period.  This stage includes building a full-scale test aircraft for evaluation, ground testing, and limited flight trials. RoDTEP scheme Syllabus :GS 3/Economy The Government of India has reinstated benefits under the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme for three key categories: Advance Authorization (AA) holders, Export-Oriented Units (EOUs), and Special Economic Zone (SEZ) These benefits will apply to all eligible exports made from 1st June 2025     About the RoDTEP Scheme: Launch: January 2021 Objective: To reimburse embedded taxes and duties on exported goods that were previously non-recoverable. Coverage: Includes Central, State, and local levies not refunded under any other scheme. WTO Compliance: Designed to align with World Trade Organization (WTO) norms by neutralizing domestic taxes on exports.   Implementation Mechanism: Fully digitalized and transparent. Benefits are disbursed in the form of transferable electronic duty credit scrips issued by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC). Principle: Upholds the global trade norm that exported products should not carry the burden of domestic taxes. With reference to the RoDTEP scheme, consider the following statements: The scheme allows reimbursement of both refundable and non-refundable duties and taxes incurred during the production and export of goods. It is compliant with the provisions of the WTO Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures. The electronic scrips issued under the scheme are non-transferable and can only be used by the original exporter. The benefits under the scheme were initially not available to SEZ units and EOUs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2, and 3 onlyD. 2, 3, and 4 only Answer:BExplanation: Statement

India has initiated the process to develop Electric Hansa (E-Hansa), a next-generation two-seater electric trainer aircraft: Dr Jitendra Singh Syllabus:Governance In a high-level review chaired by Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, India highlighted major advancements in green aviation, space exploration, and the broader science and technology landscape.   E-HANSA: India’s First Indigenous Electric Aircraft India is developing the Electric Hansa (E-HANSA), a next-generation two-seater electric trainer aircraft.Developed by CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL), Bengaluru, it is priced around ₹2 crore, nearly half the cost of comparable imported trainers.It is part of the HANSA-3 NG program, contributing to India’s green aviation and clean energy goals. Technology Commercialization and Public-Private Partnerships The National Research Development Corporation (NRDC) will adopt successful models from BIRAC and IN-SPACe to promote technology transfer.Focus areas include hub-and-spoke PPP models, AI-powered tech and IP exchange platforms, and regional National Technology Transfer Offices (NTTOs).Efforts are aimed at standardizing tech transfer protocols and improving ease of doing business.A global perspective rooted in the philosophy of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam was emphasized.   ISRO Recognized for Key Achievements ISRO was praised for the SPADEX mission, which demonstrated docking and undocking technology essential for the upcoming Gaganyaan human spaceflight.It also played a major role in Operation Sindoor and is collaborating with 40 central ministries and 28 state governments.As part of the Axiom Space Mission, Group Captain Subhash Shukla will carry out seven microgravity experiments aboard the International Space Station.   Whole-of-Science, Whole-of-Government Vision Aligned with Prime Minister Modi’s Viksit Bharat vision, Dr. Singh called for integrated planning through region-wise Chintan Shivirs.These strategic sessions will include departments such as DST, DBT, CSIR, ISRO, Earth Sciences, and Atomic Energy to ensure holistic coordination.   Global Collaboration and Science Talent Exchange A proposal was made for a Global Science Talent Bridge to attract leading international researchers.CSIR labs, recently opened to students, received an overwhelming response and will reopen soon after temporary security-related suspension.New science collaboration centers are being explored with countries like Switzerland and Italy, building on the models of the Indo-French and Indo-German Science Centres.   Key Attendees The meeting was attended by top scientific leaders including Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood (Principal Scientific Advisor), Dr. N. Kalaiselvi (DG and Secretary, CSIR), Dr. V. Narayanan (Chairman, ISRO), and the Secretaries of DST, DBT, Earth Sciences, Atomic Energy, IMD, and NRDC.This strategic review represents a pivotal moment in the transformation of India’s science and innovation ecosystem. With reference to the E-HANSA aircraft, consider the following statements: It is India’s first indigenously developed electric trainer aircraft, designed to support the transition to carbon-neutral aviation under the National Green Aviation Mission. The aircraft was developed by CSIR–NAL and includes onboard AI modules for autonomous flight control and energy optimization. The E-HANSA project complements the UDAN scheme by enabling cost-effective pilot training in underserved regions. The aircraft uses lithium-sulphur battery technology, which offers higher energy density and lower weight compared to conventional lithium-ion batteries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.  1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Answer: B. 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct:E-HANSA is indeed India’s first indigenously developed electric trainer aircraft, intended to promote sustainable aviation. Though there is no official “National Green Aviation Mission,” its development aligns with broader green and clean energy initiatives. Statement 2 is incorrect:There is no public documentation confirming the presence of AI-based autonomous flight systems in E-HANSA. It is primarily a manually piloted trainer aircraft. Statement 3 is correct: E-HANSA supports affordable pilot training and could help extend aviation access in line with the UDAN scheme, which targets regional connectivity. Statement 4 is incorrect: E-HANSA currently uses lithium-ion batteries, not lithium-sulphur. Lithium-sulphur technology is still in experimental stages and not yet deployed in this aircraft. DRDO inaugurates Quantum Technology Research Centre to further bolster indigenous quantum capabilities for strategic & defence applications Syllabus:Defence   On May 27, 2025, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) inaugurated the Quantum Technology Research Centre (QTRC) at Metcalfe House, Delhi. The state-of-the-art facility was inaugurated by Samir V. Kamat, Secretary, Department of Defence R&D and Chairman, DRDO. The QTRC aims to strengthen India’s indigenous quantum research capabilities, particularly in support of strategic and defence applications. Equipped with cutting-edge experimental infrastructure, QTRC is poised to advance research across critical quantum technology domains. Its key capabilities include: Characterisation of Vertical-Cavity Surface-Emitting Lasers (VCSELs) and Distributed Feedback (DFB) Lasers, Test-beds for evaluating single-photon sources, Characterisation of Micro-Fabricated Alkali Vapor Cells, Experimental platforms for developing and validating Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) techniques, a critical enabler of ultra-secure communication in the post-quantum era. These initiatives are spearheaded by the Scientific Analysis Group (SAG), DRDO. In parallel, the Solid State Physics Laboratory (SSPL) is leading the development of foundational quantum technologies at QTRC. These include: An ultra-small atomic clock based on Coherent Population Trapping (CPT) for highly precise timekeeping in GNSS-denied environments, An atomic magnetometer utilizing optically pumped magnetometry for ultra-sensitive magnetic field detection, Advanced solid-state quantum devices and materials, critical for the development of scalable quantum systems. DRDO continues to play a pivotal role in India’s quantum technology ecosystem, leading national efforts in quantum sensing, secure communications, and post-quantum cryptography. As a core stakeholder in the National Quantum Mission, DRDO remains committed to fostering sovereign quantum capabilities through indigenous innovation. The inauguration ceremony was attended by Suma Varughese, Director General (Micro Electronic Devices, Computational Systems & Cyber Systems), whose vision was instrumental in conceptualising this next-generation research facility. Also present were Manu Korulla, DG (Resources & Management), along with Directors of SSPL and SAG, senior scientists, and distinguished guests. With reference to the Quantum Technology Research Centre (QTRC) recently inaugurated by DRDO, consider the following statements: The primary aim of QTRC is to establish a commercial ecosystem for quantum computing in collaboration with private sector partners under the National Quantum Mission. The centre hosts facilities for characterisation of laser systems such as Vertical-Cavity Surface-Emitting

Bharat Forecasting System Launched Syllabus :GS 1/Geography The Ministry of Earth Sciences has launched the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) to revolutionize weather prediction in India. Developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, BFS delivers highly localized weather forecasts with a cutting-edge 6 km grid resolution—the highest in the world. It enables more accurate prediction of small-scale weather phenomena across India. Powered by Supercomputer Arka (Speed: 11.77 petaflops, Storage: 33 petabytes), BFS now generates forecasts in 4 hours, compared to 10 hours by the earlier system, Pratyush. It focuses on the tropical belt (30°S to 30°N), including entire India, and surpasses global models from the U.S., UK, and Europe (with 9–14 km resolution). It integrates data from 40 Doppler Weather Radars (to be scaled to 100) and provides nowcasting for the next 2 hours. BFS boosts India’s self-reliance in weather prediction and enhances disaster preparedness, agricultural planning, water resource management, and public safety at local levels. It supports India’s commitment to the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction and marks a major leap in India’s capability to deliver accurate, timely, and actionable forecasts from national to panchayat-level scale. With reference to the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS), consider the following statements: It is the first global model to offer sub-10 km resolution for weather forecasts. It uses a combination of ensemble and deterministic forecasting techniques. It has real-time integration with satellite-derived precipitation and land-surface data. It is developed under the National Monsoon Mission by IITM, Pune. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: C. 2, 3 and 4 only Explanation: The Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) does indeed offer a 6 km × 6 km grid resolution, which is among the highest globally for operational regional weather models. However, it is not the first model globally to offer sub-10 km resolution. Some non-global or specialized regional models (e.g., Japan’s JMA models, or high-resolution models for small regions in Europe) have already operated at similar or finer resolutions. Also, BFS is not a global model — it is designed primarily for the tropical belt (30°S to 30°N), including India, so the claim of being a first global model is inaccurate. The BFS employs ensemble forecasting (multiple simulations for probabilistic forecasts) and deterministic forecasting (single high-accuracy prediction). This hybrid approach improves both accuracy and confidence intervals in weather prediction.              BFS integrates real-time observational data from multiple sources: Satellite data (for cloud cover, precipitation, temperature) Land-surface observations (e.g., soil moisture, surface temperature) Doppler Weather Radars (currently 40, expanding to 100) This enhances both short-term (nowcasting) and medium-range forecasts. Iran Slams Trump’s Plan to Rename Persian Gulf Syllabus: GS2/IR/GS1/Places in News            Former U.S. President Donald Trump’s proposal to rename the Persian Gulf as the ‘Arabian Gulf’ or ‘Gulf of Arabia’ sparked sharp criticism from Iran, which viewed the move as a direct challenge to its national identity and historical heritage. The suggestion reportedly surfaced in anticipation of Trump’s visit to Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and the United Arab Emirates.     About the Dispute: The Persian Gulf is a geopolitically and economically vital water body located in Western Asia. It connects to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea through the strategically crucial Strait of Hormuz. The countries bordering it are Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Qatar, and the UAE. While Iran insists on the historical term Persian Gulf, Arab Gulf States (except Iran) often refer to it as the ‘Arabian Gulf’ or simply ‘the Gulf’, sparking an ongoing naming dispute that reflects deeper regional rivalries and identity politics.   Historical Background: The term Persian Gulf is rooted in antiquity, referring to Persia, the former name of Iran. In 1935, Reza Shah Pahlavi officially changed the country’s international name from Persia to Iran, asserting that Persia was an exonym (a name given by outsiders) and promoting Iran, the country’s endonym (a native name), to reinforce national sovereignty. This naming controversy continues to carry geopolitical weight, symbolizing broader tensions between Iran and its Arab neighbors. With reference to the geopolitical discourse surrounding the Persian Gulf naming controversy, consider the following statements: The term “Persian Gulf” has been historically recognized in international treaties and cartographic references predating modern nation-states in West Asia. The Strait of Hormuz, connecting the Persian Gulf to the Arabian Sea, lies entirely within the territorial waters of Iran. The move by some Arab states to promote the term “Arabian Gulf” is aligned with pan-Arab political assertions post-World War II. The United Nations has officially adopted “Arabian Gulf” as the standardized name for international usage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 3 onlyD. 1 and 4 only Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: The name Persian Gulf has been consistently used in historical maps, naval treaties, and geographical references dating back over two millennia, especially in Greek, Roman, and Islamic sources. It remains the official designation used by the United Nations. Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Strait of Hormuz is not entirely within Iranian waters. It is a narrow waterway bordered by both Iran to the north and Oman (specifically the Musandam exclave) to the south, making it an international strait subject to maritime law. Statement 3 – Correct: The push to rename the Persian Gulf as the Arabian Gulf gained momentum particularly in the mid-20th century, in line with the rise of Pan-Arab nationalism and the political identity consolidation of Arab states in the Gulf region. Statement 4 – Incorrect: The United Nations and most international organizations continue to use “Persian Gulf” as the official name. Any alternative naming is considered politically charged and is not recognized by global institutions. Moringa Syllabus: GS2/ Health The PKM1 variety of Moringa oleifera has gained global attention for its adaptability and benefits, particularly in African nations such as Senegal,

Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) Syllabus:Science   Latest News: India has detected one case of the newly emerging COVID-19 variant NB.1.8.1 and four cases of the LF.7 variant, as reported by the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG). About INSACOG: The Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) was established in December 2020 by the Government of India. It is a collaborative initiative involving the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), the Council for Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).   Structure & Function: Comprises a network of 54 laboratories across India. Conducts genomic surveillance of SARS-CoV-2 through sentinel sequencing, coordinated by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) in Delhi. Integrated with the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP).   Evolving Mandate: Initially focused on tracking variants among international travellers, INSACOG now emphasizes early detection of variants emerging within India and monitoring unusual epidemiological trends.   Key Objectives: Early identification of SARS-CoV-2 variants of public health concern through nationwide genomic surveillance. Detection of variants in special scenarios such as vaccine breakthrough infections, super spreader events, and areas with high morbidity or mortality. Integration of genomic data with epidemiological insights. Recommending public health interventions based on surveillance findings.   Significance: INSACOG’s work helps to uncover links between emerging variants and outbreaks, guiding strategies to interrupt transmission chains and strengthen the nation’s public health response. With reference to the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG), consider the following statements: INSACOG was jointly established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Indian Council of Medical Research to study the immunological response of COVID-19 vaccines in high-risk populations. It functions under the coordination of the Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) of the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) and focuses exclusively on variants found in international travellers. One of the key mandates of INSACOG is to integrate genomic surveillance data with epidemiological trends to inform public health interventions. INSACOG includes over 50 laboratories across India and utilizes sentinel surveillance as part of its genomic monitoring strategy. Which of the statements given above are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 3 and 4 onlyC) 1, 3 and 4 onlyD) 2, 3 and 4 only Answer: B) 3 and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: INSACOG was established not to study vaccine immunology but to monitor genomic variations in SARS-CoV-2. It was initiated by the Ministry of Health along with DBT, CSIR, and ICMR. Statement 2 is incorrect: Although it initially focused on international travellers, its mandate has evolved to include domestic variant detection and integration with epidemiological trends. Statement 3 is correct: INSACOG does integrate genomic data with epidemiological surveillance to guide public health actions. Statement 4 is correct: INSACOG comprises 54 laboratories and uses sentinel surveillance for tracking genomic variants. Orans Syllabus:Polity The Rajasthan government has begun the formal process of classifying Oran lands—community-managed sacred groves—as forests, in compliance with the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment on December 18, 2024. This decision comes under the purview of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980, aiming to strengthen the legal protection of these ecologically and culturally significant landscapes.   About Orans: Definition: Orans are traditional sacred groves preserved by rural communities in Rajasthan, often dedicated to local deities and associated with socio-religious practices. Ecological Significance: They serve as biodiversity hotspots and support critical ecological functions such as: Livelihood support through grazing and forest produce. Water conservation via features like talabs (ponds), nadis (small ponds), open wells, and seasonal streams. Cultural Role: Annual religious festivals and fairs are organized in these groves, reinforcing community stewardship. Extent: Rajasthan houses approximately 25,000 orans spread across 6 lakh hectares. Some, like the Bhadariya Mata Oran in Jaisalmer, span over 17,000 hectares. Conservation Value: Orans are vital habitats for endangered species, notably the Great Indian Bustard (GIB)—India’s most critically endangered bird and the state bird of Rajasthan.   Policy and Legal Developments: The Rajasthan Forest Policy 2023 classified orans merely as general community lands, which provided limited conservation safeguards. The Supreme Court’s 2024 judgment recognized orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, enhancing their legal protection against encroachment and ecological degradation.   With reference to the traditional ‘Orans’ of Rajasthan, consider the following statements: Orans are recognized under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, as Community Reserves notified by State governments. The Supreme Court’s judgment in December 2024 mandated their classification as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980. Orans have no role in the hydrological cycle, as they are primarily cultural and religious spaces. The Great Indian Bustard, a critically endangered bird species, is found exclusively in protected national parks and not in community lands like Orans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 onlyC) 2 and 3 onlyD) 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: B) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1: Incorrect – Orans are not uniformly notified as Community Reserves under the Wildlife Protection Act, though some may qualify. They are traditionally protected community lands. Statement 2: Correct – The Supreme Court, in December 2024, recognized Orans as forests under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980. Statement 3: Incorrect – Orans often contain vital water bodies (e.g., Talab, Nadi) and play a significant role in the hydrological cycle and local ecology. Statement 4: Incorrect – The Great Indian Bustard is indeed found in Orans, which are vital habitats outside formal protected areas. Tianwen-2 Mission Syllabus:Defence China is preparing to launch Tianwen-2, a landmark asteroid exploration mission aimed at advancing its deep-space capabilities and scientific understanding of near-Earth objects.   Mission Overview Agency: China National Space Administration (CNSA) Launch Vehicle: Long March 3B Launch Site: Xichang Satellite Launch Centre, Sichuan Province Mission Objective: To survey and return samples from near-Earth asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa, followed by a secondary mission to the main asteroid belt to study comet 311P/PANSTARRS.   Asteroid 469219 Kamo‘oalewa Discovered in 2016 by the Pan-STARRS 1 telescope (Haleakalā Observatory, Hawaii). Classified as a quasi-satellite of Earth: although

India Post Payments Bank Collaborates with Aditya Birla Capital to Enhance Access to Loan Products Nationwide Syllabus:Economy   India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), a Government of India undertaking, has partnered with Aditya Birla Capital Ltd. (ABCL), a leading financial services company, to improve access to loan products across India, particularly in rural and underserved areas. Under this collaboration, IPPB will provide referral services for ABCL’s loan offerings, including personal loans, business loans, and loans against property. Customers will benefit from quick approvals, minimal documentation, and hassle-free disbursements through IPPB’s digital platforms. The initiative uses AI and data analytics to offer personalized financial solutions tailored to individual needs. IPPB was established on 17 August 2016, is headquartered in New Delhi, and is led by MD & CEO Mr. R. Viswesvaran. With reference to the partnership between India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) and Aditya Birla Capital Ltd. (ABCL), consider the following statements: The partnership allows IPPB to directly disburse loan amounts to customers from its own corpus. ABCL’s loan products will be accessible through IPPB’s digital channels in both urban and rural areas. The use of AI and data analytics in this partnership aims to ensure credit allocation based solely on income tax records. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer:AExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: IPPB acts only as a referral partner, not a lending institution in this context. Statement 2 is correct: The partnership is designed to reach both urban and rural populations via IPPB’s digital network. Statement 3 is incorrect: AI-driven personalization considers multiple data sources, not just income tax records. Government to Play Key Role in New Payments Regulatory Board Syllabus: Economy The Central Government has notified the Payments Regulatory Board Regulations, 2025, establishing a Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) to replace the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS)—previously a committee under the RBI Central Board.   About the PRB Statutory Basis: Established under Section 3 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. Assisted by: The Department of Payment and Settlement Systems (DPSS) within the RBI.   Board Composition Chairperson: RBI Governor Members: RBI Deputy Governor (in charge of payment and settlement systems) One RBI officer nominated by the Central Board Three members nominated by the Central Government Experts in payment systems, IT, law, etc., may be invited (permanent or ad hoc) RBI’s Principal Legal Adviser is a permanent invitee   Voting and Decision-Making Total 6 voting members (3 RBI + 3 Government) RBI Governor holds a casting vote in case of a tie Each member has one vote Decisions passed by majority vote Meetings and Delegation Minimum of two meetings annually Chaired by Governor or Deputy Governor (in absence) Board may delegate powers to sub-committees, members, or RBI officers Eligibility Criteria for PRB Members Must be below 70 years Cannot be a sitting MP or MLA Must not have material conflict of interest with any payment system Background and Rationale A 2017 committee recommended an independent PRB with a Chairperson appointed by the Government in consultation with the RBI. RBI opposed the idea of an external regulator, insisting the Governor head the PRB and retain the casting vote. The final structure aligns with RBI’s proposal, ensuring regulatory oversight remains within the RBI framework.   Strategic Importance The PRB is expected to bring a holistic perspective by including members with expertise in technology and payment systems. It will act as a coordinating body across departments like Fintech and DPSS, promoting uniform standards across the digital payments ecosystem. With reference to the partnership between India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) and Aditya Birla Capital Ltd. (ABCL), consider the following statements: The partnership allows IPPB to directly disburse loan amounts to customers from its own corpus. ABCL’s loan products will be accessible through IPPB’s digital channels in both urban and rural areas. The use of AI and data analytics in this partnership aims to ensure credit allocation based solely on income tax records. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer:AExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: IPPB acts only as a referral partner, not a lending institution in this context. Statement 2 is correct: The partnership is designed to reach both urban and rural populations via IPPB’s digital network. Statement 3 is incorrect: AI-driven personalization considers multiple data sources, not just income tax records. WHO Recognises 4 Nations for Trans Fat Elimination Syllabus:Health Context: The World Health Organization (WHO) has recognized Austria, Norway, Oman, and     Singapore for successfully eliminating industrially produced trans fats from their national food supplies, setting a benchmark in public health policy. Understanding Trans Fats – Definition: Trans-fatty acids (TFAs) are a type of unsaturated fat. They occur in two forms: Naturally Occurring Trans Fats: Found in small quantities in red meat and dairy products. Industrially Produced Trans Fats: Created during hydrogenation, a chemical process that converts liquid vegetable oils into solid fats (e.g., partially hydrogenated oils or PHOs). Common Sources: Processed & fried foods (biscuits, cakes, vanaspati ghee), baked goods (pies, pastries, prepackaged dough), and cooking fats (shortening, stick margarine). Health Risks Associated with Trans Fats – Cardiovascular Disease: Increases LDL (bad cholesterol), decreases HDL (good cholesterol), leads to arterial plaque buildup and atherosclerosis, increasing the risk of heart attacks and strokes. Metabolic Disorders: Contributes to obesity due to high energy density (9 kcal/g), and prolonged consumption impairs insulin sensitivity, leading to type 2 diabetes. Global Burden: WHO (2024) estimates 278,000 deaths annually from trans-fat consumption, accounting for ~7% of cardiovascular-related deaths globally. Policy Interventions – WHO Global Strategy (2018): Aims to eliminate industrial trans fats globally by 2025, targeting 90% global and 70% regional population coverage with best-practice policies. India’s Regulatory Framework: FSSAI Regulation (2021) mandates edible oils and fats to contain less than 2% trans fats, effective from January 2022, aligning with WHO guidelines.   Conclusion:

INSV Kaundinya Syllabus:Defence   Overview The Indian Navy has inducted INSV Kaundinya, a reconstructed ancient Indian ship inspired by 5th-century maritime imagery found in the Ajanta cave murals. This unique vessel symbolizes India’s historic shipbuilding prowess and aims to raise awareness of the country’s rich maritime legacy.   Project Background Launched in July 2023 under a tripartite collaboration between the Ministry of Culture, Indian Navy, and Hodi Innovations. Funded by the Ministry of Culture to celebrate traditional craftsmanship and maritime traditions. The ship is scheduled to sail along the ancient maritime trade route from Gujarat to Oman in 2025.   Traditional Shipbuilding Techniques Built using ancient “stitched ship” methods, where wooden planks are fastened with coir ropes, coconut fibres, and natural resin, completely avoiding the use of metal nails. Design inspired by maritime scenes depicted in the Ajanta cave paintings. With no original blueprints available, the ship’s reconstruction relied on a combination of 2D artistic analysis, archaeological evidence, naval architecture, and hydrodynamic modeling.   Symbolism and Design The sails display traditional motifs like the Gandabherunda (two-headed eagle) and the Sun, representing strength and vitality. The bow features a Simha Yali, a mythical lion-like figure rooted in South Indian iconography. A Harappan-style stone anchor on deck symbolically connects the ship to the maritime practices of the Indus Valley Civilization. Named after Kaundinya, a legendary Indian sailor believed to have sailed to Southeast Asia, the vessel pays tribute to India’s role in ancient trade and cultural exchange across oceans.   Ajanta Cave Paintings Context The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra, dating from the 2nd century BCE to the 6th century CE, are renowned for their early Indian mural art. The murals use the tempera technique (painting on dry plaster) with natural pigments like red ochre and black. Artistic themes center around Buddhism, depicting Jataka Tales, scenes from the Buddha’s life, and moral stories (Avadanas). The paintings are notable for their expressive human figures, detailed gestures, and rich decorative patterns reflecting spiritual and emotional depth. Which of the following statements about the maritime trade network referenced in the voyage of INSV Kaundinya is/are correct? It was part of the “Maritime Silk Route” linking India to Southeast Asia and East Africa. It had established ports like Lothal, Arikamedu, and Barygaza that facilitated Roman and Arab trade. Kaundinya’s voyage is associated with the cultural transmission of Buddhism to Sri Lanka. Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer:AExplanation: Kaundinya is associated with Indian maritime expansion to Southeast Asia (e.g., Funan), not Sri Lanka. Buddhism reached Sri Lanka via Ashoka’s missionary efforts. The “Maritime Silk Route” was an ancient network of sea routes that linked Southeast Asia, South Asia (including India), the Arabian Peninsula, and East Africa. India played a pivotal role in this trade network, acting as a central hub due to its strategic location between the East and the West. Indian ports facilitated the movement of goods (like spices, textiles, gems) as well as ideas (like religion, language, and culture) across the Indian Ocean. The voyage of INSV Kaundinya is a tribute to this historical maritime linkage, especially between India and Southeast Asia (e.g., ancient kingdoms like Funan, in modern-day Cambodia and Vietnam). Liquid Carbon Syllabus:Chemistry   Overview: For the first time, scientists have successfully observed the atomic structure of liquid carbon, using advanced techniques involving the DIPOLE 100-X high-power laser and ultrashort X-ray pulses from the European XFEL (X-ray Free Electron Laser) in Germany. This marks a significant milestone in high-energy material science and planetary physics.   What Is Liquid Carbon? Liquid carbon refers to the transient molten phase of carbon, which exists only under extreme conditions of temperature (~4500°C) and pressure. Under normal circumstances, carbon exists as: Solid allotropes (e.g., graphite, diamond) Gaseous compounds (e.g., CO₂) This liquid phase is crucial for: Modelling carbon-rich exoplanetary cores Understanding high-energy astrophysical environments Investigating material behavior under extreme laser interactions, relevant to nuclear fusion research   Why Is It Challenging to Study? Unlike many elements, carbon sublimates at normal atmospheric pressure—directly transitioning from solid to gas—making it virtually impossible to study its liquid form in a laboratory. Additionally: It forms only under intense pressures and temperatures No conventional containment system can withstand these conditions The liquid state exists for mere nanoseconds, requiring ultrafast diagnostic tools   Experimental Technique To overcome these barriers: The DIPOLE 100-X laser generated shock compression waves, briefly converting solid carbon into liquid Within a billionth of a second, European XFEL’s X-ray pulses diffracted off the sample’s atoms The resulting X-ray diffraction patterns revealed the atomic structure Repeating the experiment at varying intervals enabled a time-resolved sequence or “movie” of the solid-to-liquid transition   Key Discoveries Structure: Liquid carbon exhibits a tetrahedral configuration—with four nearest atomic neighbors—resembling solid diamond Validation: The findings confirmed theoretical predictions and provided a precise estimate of carbon’s melting point under high-pressure conditions   Implications Planetary Science: Enhances understanding of deep planetary interiors, especially carbon-rich exoplanets and early Earth models Fusion Research: Informs the design of carbon-based materials used in extreme-temperature environments, such as fusion reactors Fundamental Physics: Contributes to the broader understanding of phase transitions in high-energy-density systems Which of the following factors make experimental observation of liquid carbon uniquely difficult? Its liquid phase exists only at extremely high pressure and temperature. Its rapid vaporization causes interference with optical diagnostics. Conventional laboratory containers cannot withstand the required experimental conditions. It has a permanent liquid phase in the upper mantle of the Earth. A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4   Answer:A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – liquid carbon forms only under extreme conditions. Statement 2 is plausible due to rapid phase change causing diagnostic challenges. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect—carbon does not exist in a liquid state in the Earth’s mantle due to insufficient pressure-temperature conditions. Kakapo Syllabus:Environment Artificial Insemination to Save the Critically Endangered

WHO Pandemic Agreement Syllabus:Health   What is it: A legally binding international treaty under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution. This is only the second such treaty after the 2003 Framework Convention on Tobacco Control.     Aim: To ensure equitable access to vaccines, diagnostics, and treatments, and to establish a coordinated global response system for future pandemics.   Key Highlights: Adopted by 124 countries with 11 abstentions.Becomes enforceable after ratification by 60 countries. WHO cannot enforce national laws; member states retain full sovereignty. The United States withdrew from negotiations under previous administration policies.   Why It’s Needed: The COVID-19 pandemic exposed critical failures in global cooperation and fairness.An estimated one million deaths could have been prevented with equitable vaccine distribution. Disparities widened as wealthier nations secured most vaccine supplies, leaving others behind. Core Provisions Mandatory sharing of pathogen samples and data. Pharmaceutical companies must provide ten percent of vaccine output free and ten percent at low cost to low-income countries. Support for local vaccine production through technology transfer.Vaccine allocation based on public health needs rather than geopolitical interests. Establishment of global supply chains and emergency funding mechanisms. Countries must guarantee public access to innovations developed with public funds.Emphasis on the One Health approach connecting human, animal, and environmental health.   Significance: Strengthens international health cooperation Promotes fair access to life-saving tools Improves pandemic preparedness and early response Protects low- and middle-income countries Maintains balance between national autonomy and global coordination With reference to the recently adopted WHO-led international pandemic treaty, consider the following statements: The treaty is the first legally binding international agreement under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution. Ratification by at least 60 member states is required for the treaty to come into force. Under its provisions, pharmaceutical companies are obligated to provide 20 percent of vaccine output either free of cost or at low cost to low-income countries. The treaty establishes enforceable supranational powers for the WHO, superseding national legal frameworks during pandemics. The treaty mandates a One Health approach, integrating human, animal, and environmental health dimensions. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1, 2, and 5 onlyB. 2, 3, and 5 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 1, 3, and 4 only Answer: B. 2, 3, and 5 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The treaty is legally binding under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution, but it is not the first such treaty. The Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC), adopted in 2003, was the first. This pandemic treaty is the second. Statement 2 is correct. The treaty becomes enforceable after ratification by at least 60 countries. Statement 3 is correct. The treaty mandates that 10 percent of vaccine output be provided free of cost and another 10 percent at an affordable or low cost to low-income countries. Together, this makes up 20 percent, but it is not entirely free or low cost as a single category. The statement’s phrasing is acceptable for a correct answer under UPSC norms. Statement 4 is incorrect. The WHO does not gain supranational enforcement powers under the treaty. Member states retain full sovereignty, and the WHO cannot override national legal frameworks. Statement 5 is correct. The treaty emphasizes the One Health approach, which integrates human, animal, and environmental health as part of global pandemic preparedness. Therefore, the correct statements are 2, 3, and 5. India’s Small Farmers Syllabus:Agriculture Who Are India’s Small Farmers? Small and marginal farmers, defined as those owning less than 2 hectares of land (Agricultural Census 2015–16), make up over 85% of India’s farmers but cultivate just 45% of the nation’s net sown area. They are the backbone of food production, yet remain vulnerable due to limited resources, poor market access, and systemic inequities.   Key Challenges Climate Risks and Rising Costs High dependence on monsoons, with inadequate irrigation infrastructure Escalating input costs (seeds, fertilizers, diesel) reduce profit margins (RBI Handbook, 2022)   Poor Market Access and Price Realisation Only 7% benefit from MSP; most sell under distress to middlemen (Shanta Kumar Committee, 2015) Lack of storage, processing, and transport infrastructure increases price volatility   Credit and Debt Issues Only 30% have access to formal credit (NABARD, 2016–17) Many rely on informal loans with high interest ₹10.09 lakh crore in corporate loan write-offs (RBI, 2022) vs. limited farm debt relief highlights credit inequality   Over-reliance on Subsidies Loan waivers and subsidies offer temporary relief but discourage innovation and diversification   Limited Entrepreneurial Skills and Infrastructure Lack of training in agribusiness, digital tools, and value chain management Inadequate infrastructure stalls transition to high-value, market-linked farming   Government Interventions PM-KISAN: ₹6,000 annual income support to small/marginal farmers PMFBY: Crop insurance against yield losses from climate events PMKSY: Irrigation efficiency and “Har Khet Ko Pani” e-NAM: A digital market platform for price discovery FPO Scheme: Formation of 10,000+ Farmer Producer Organisations to empower smallholders   Way Forward Promote Agripreneurship Transition farmers from subsistence to business models using platforms like AgriBazaar, Ninjacart, and e-NAM Strengthen FPOs and SHGs Provide financial support, training, and digital tools to FPOs for collective bargaining and value addition Reform Rural Credit Systems Expand credit access to cooperatives, SHGs, and FPOs Strengthen digital lending platforms with safeguards Encourage Sustainable & Organic Farming Scale schemes like Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) Promote exports and certification (NPOP, Fairtrade) Integrate blockchain for transparency in premium markets Implement 4P Models (Public-Private-Producer Partnerships) Engage corporates in ethical procurement, investment, and capacity-building under CSR Bridge the Digital Divide Invest in rural internet, digital literacy, and precision agriculture tools like drones and real-time data systems Align with SDGs Promote climate-resilient agriculture supporting SDG 1 (No Poverty), SDG 2 (Zero Hunger), and SDG 13 (Climate Action)   Conclusion India’s agricultural transformation depends on empowering its small and marginal farmers—not just through subsidies, but with lasting opportunities for dignity, resilience, and enterprise. Post-pandemic innovations such as e-commerce, digital platforms, and FPOs now offer the tools to close critical gaps in credit, infrastructure, and markets. A systemic shift from relief to resilience

India and the European Union (EU) Syllabus:IR Context India and the European Union (EU) have resumed negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), aiming to finalize a comprehensive deal in two phases. Talks, which had been stalled since 2013 due to market access issues, resumed in June 2022. Both sides have now agreed to conclude the agreement using India’s phased negotiation approach, similar to the one adopted in FTAs with Australia. The goal is to seal the deal by the end of 2025, as agreed upon by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the European Commission President.   Key Areas of Focus Market Access: EU seeks tariff reductions in sectors such as automobiles, medical devices, wines, spirits, meat, and poultry. Services & Investment: Discussions include liberalization of services, investment protection, and clearer dispute resolution frameworks. Regulatory Issues: Strengthening of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), and agreements on: Sanitary & phytosanitary measures Technical barriers to trade Customs procedures Government procurement Sustainability and green transition   Expected Benefits Boost to Indian exports, especially garments, pharmaceuticals, steel, petroleum, and electrical machinery. Stronger investor confidence and bilateral cooperation. Promotion of innovation and sustainable development.   India-EU Bilateral Relations Political Ties Formal relations date back to the early 1960s. A Cooperation Agreement was signed in 1994, deepening ties beyond trade. The first India-EU Summit in 2000 was a milestone. In 2004, the partnership was upgraded to a Strategic Partnership at the 5th Summit in The Hague. Economic Ties The EU is India’s largest trading partner for goods. In 2023–24, bilateral trade in goods stood at USD 137.41 billion. 17% of India’s exports go to the EU; 9% of EU exports come to India. Other Areas of Cooperation India-EU Water Partnership (IEWP): Launched in 2016 for cooperation on water management technologies and policies. Nuclear Energy R&D: Agreement signed in 2020 for peaceful research collaboration. Trade and Technology Council (TTC): Established in 2023 to foster cooperation on trade, technology, and security.   About the European Union (EU):A political and economic union of 27 countries.   Origins: Started as the European Coal and Steel Community (1950) with six members. Became the European Economic Community (1957) under the Treaty of Rome. Officially formed as the European Union in 1993 under the Maastricht Treaty.   Purpose: To promote economic and political integration, democratic values, and human rights. Currency: 20 EU nations use the euro as their official currency. Global Role: One of the world’s most influential trade and political blocs. With reference to the India-EU Free Trade Agreement negotiations, consider the following statements: The negotiations were resumed in 2022 after being suspended due to disagreements over intellectual property rights. The phased approach adopted in the FTA negotiations with the EU has also been used by India in other FTAs. The EU has no existing FTAs with any Asian country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A   Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect – The negotiations were suspended in 2013 primarily due to disagreements over market access, not intellectual property rights. Statement 2 is correct – India has adopted a phased approach in FTA negotiations with countries like Australia. Statement 3 is incorrect – The EU has existing FTAs with several Asian countries including South Korea, Japan, and Vietnam. India’s Relationship with Türkiye and Azerbaijan Syllabus:IR   Context: India’s diplomatic and trade relations with Türkiye and Azerbaijan are under pressure following their vocal support for Pakistan and condemnation of India’s recent counter-terror operations.   Recent Developments: On May 7, India launched Operation Sindoor targeting nine terror camps in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir in response to the April 22 terror attack in Pahalgam, Kashmir. During this operation, Pakistan employed Turkish-origin drones in failed attacks on Indian military installations. Subsequently, India and Pakistan agreed to cease all military actions across land, air, and sea. Türkiye and Azerbaijan’s statements backing Islamabad triggered a backlash within India, leading to diplomatic and public responses.   India’s Trade Relations with Türkiye Formal ties: Bilateral trade pact signed in 1973; a Joint Commission for Economic and Technical Cooperation was formed in 1983. Exports (Apr–Feb 2024-25): USD 5.2 billion (1.5% of India’s total exports) Imports: USD 2.84 billion (0.5% of India’s total imports) Major exports to Türkiye: Mineral fuels, electrical machinery, auto components, organic chemicals, pharmaceuticals, textiles, iron and steel Major imports from Türkiye: Marbles, apples, gold, vegetables, lime, cement, mineral oil, pearls, iron and steel Trade balance: India enjoys a trade surplus     India’s Trade Relations with Azerbaijan Exports (Apr–Feb 2024-25): USD 86.07 million (0.02% of India’s total exports) Imports: USD 1.93 million (0.0002% of India’s total imports) Major exports: Tobacco, tea, cereals, chemicals, rubber, paper, ceramic products Major imports: Animal fodder, organic chemicals, essential oils, leather Oil Trade: India ranked third among importers of Azerbaijani crude oil in 2023 Trade balance: India has a surplus   People-to-People Ties Indian diaspora: ~3,000 in Türkiye (including 200 students); ~1,500 in Azerbaijan Tourism: ~3 lakh Indian tourists visited Türkiye and ~2 lakh visited Azerbaijan in 2023   Emerging Challenges Türkiye and Azerbaijan’s support for Pakistan’s narrative has led to diplomatic strain. Calls for boycotts of Turkish and Azerbaijani products and tourism have intensified in India. Tourism cancellations, suspension of promotional campaigns, and withdrawal of academic MoUs (e.g., IIT Bombay, JNU) reflect growing public and institutional backlash. Indian traders are reportedly reducing imports of Turkish goods like apples and marble in protest. India’s trade with both countries remains relatively limited in volume but carries strategic and symbolic significance amid rising geopolitical tensions. With reference to India’s bilateral relations with Türkiye and Azerbaijan in the context of recent geopolitical developments, consider the following statements: Türkiye and Azerbaijan jointly condemned India’s operation in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, and Türkiye-origin drones were used during the conflict. India maintains a trade surplus with both Türkiye and Azerbaijan, yet Türkiye accounts for a higher share of India’s imports than Azerbaijan. Despite strained ties, India remains among the top five destinations for crude oil

PM Modi to virtually inaugurate redeveloped Begumpet railway station Prime Minister Narendra Modi will virtually inaugurate the redeveloped Begumpet railway station on Thursday, as part of the launch of 103 Amrit Bharat stations across the country. Alongside Begumpet, the Karimnagar and Warangal railway stations in Telangana will also be opened to the public. The Begumpet station has been transformed into a modern transit hub that celebrates Telangana’s rich heritage under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme, with an investment of approximately ₹26.55 crore. According to South-Central Railway (SCR) officials, the upgraded station features passenger-friendly amenities such as escalators, lifts, spacious waiting areas, modern restrooms, and dedicated facilities for differently-abled commuters. A symbolic centerpiece of the station is the Indian Roller, Telangana’s state bird. SCR Chief Public Relations Officer A Sridhar highlighted the station’s new illuminated lighting, landscaped greenery, water features, and clear signage, all designed to improve the overall travel experience. Notably, Begumpet Railway Station will be fully operated by women staff, including station masters, ticket clerks, RPF constables, and booking personnel. A dedicated surveillance system is in place to ensure enhanced safety for female passengers. Serving over 15,000 passengers daily, Begumpet is one of Hyderabad’s busiest suburban stations, ranking just after Secunderabad, Hyderabad, and Kacheguda stations. Which of the following statements about the Begumpet railway station redevelopment is/are correct? The station has been redeveloped with an investment exceeding ₹25 crore. It includes passenger amenities like escalators, lifts, and dedicated facilities for differently-abled passengers. Begumpet is the busiest railway station in Hyderabad. Options:A) 1 and 2 onlyB) 2 and 3 onlyC) 1 and 3 onlyD) All of the above Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct because the redevelopment of Begumpet railway station was done at an estimated cost of ₹26 crore 55 lakh, which is indeed more than ₹25 crore. Statement 2 is correct as the redevelopment includes several passenger-friendly features such as escalators, lifts, spacious waiting halls, modern toilets, and dedicated facilities for differently-abled commuters. Statement 3 is incorrect because Begumpet is one of the busiest suburban stations in Hyderabad, but it is not the busiest. The busiest stations in Hyderabad are Secunderabad, Hyderabad (main), and Kacheguda stations, which handle more passenger traffic than Begumpet. Operation Olivia Syllabus:Defence In a significant achievement for marine conservation, the Indian Coast Guard’s (ICG) annual initiative, Operation Olivia, successfully safeguarded a record 98 lakh Olive Ridley turtles nesting at the Rushikulya river mouth in Odisha during February 2025. Conducted every year from November to May, this mission aims to protect the critical nesting habitats of Olive Ridley turtles along Odisha’s coastline, including the renowned Gahirmatha Beach, which witnesses the arrival of over eight lakh turtles annually. The unprecedented mass nesting at Rushikulya underscores the effectiveness of the ICG’s continuous efforts, which encompass rigorous surface patrolling, aerial surveillance, and active engagement with local communities. Since the launch of Operation Olivia, the ICG has executed over 5,387 surface patrol sorties and 1,768 aerial surveillance missions, substantially mitigating threats such as illegal fishing and habitat disturbances. During this period, 366 boats engaged in unlawful fishing activities were apprehended, reinforcing the Coast Guard’s enforcement capabilities in marine wildlife protection. Beyond surveillance and enforcement, the ICG has fostered collaboration with fishing communities by encouraging the adoption of Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs) and formalizing partnerships with NGOs through Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) to advance sustainable fishing practices and conservation awareness. Which of the following is/are the primary objectives of Operation Olivia conducted by the Indian Coast Guard? Protecting the nesting grounds of Olive Ridley turtles along Odisha’s coast Promoting the use of Turtle Excluder Devices among fishing communities Encouraging mass fishing during the turtle nesting season Conducting aerial and surface patrols to prevent illegal fishing Select the correct answer using the code below:A) 1 and 3 onlyB) 1, 2 and 4 onlyC) 2 and 3 onlyD) All of the above Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only Explanation: Operation Olivia, led by the Indian Coast Guard, primarily focuses on protecting the nesting grounds of Olive Ridley turtles along Odisha’s coast by safeguarding key breeding sites like Rushikulya and Gahirmatha. It actively promotes the use of Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs) among fishing communities to reduce accidental turtle capture in fishing nets. Additionally, the operation conducts aerial and surface patrols to monitor and prevent illegal fishing and other activities that could disrupt turtle habitats. However, Operation Olivia does not encourage mass fishing during the turtle nesting season. In fact, it aims to reduce fishing activities during this critical period to protect the turtles, making option 3 incorrect. Hence, the correct options are 1, 2, and 4 only. Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan’ Syllabus:Schemes Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers Welfare and Rural Development, Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan, today held a press conference at the National Media Centre, New Delhi, to announce the launch of the nationwide “Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan,” scheduled from May 29 to June 12, 2025. He emphasized that under the leadership of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, India is actively pursuing the vision of becoming a developed nation, with modern agriculture and prosperous farmers forming the foundation of this goal. Agriculture remains the backbone of the Indian economy, supporting nearly half the population and ensuring national food security. Shri Chouhan highlighted the Ministry’s primary goals: securing food for India’s 1.45 billion people, ensuring availability of nutritious food, increasing farmer incomes, and conserving natural resources for future generations. To achieve these objectives, the Ministry has devised a six-point strategy focusing on increasing production, lowering costs, ensuring fair prices, compensating for natural disaster losses, promoting crop diversification with value addition and food processing, and encouraging natural and organic farming. He shared record agricultural outputs for the year, including Kharif rice production of 1206.79 lakh metric tonnes, wheat at 1154.30 lakh metric tonnes, Kharif maize at 248.11 lakh metric tonnes, groundnut at 104.26 lakh metric tonnes, and soybean at 151.32 lakh metric tonnes. These historic highs have strengthened national food reserves and align with the vision