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Current Affairs 27 September 2025 – Tone Academy

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karthik September 28, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 27 September 2025 – Tone Academy

India Strengthens Telecom Cybersecurity With New MoU Syllabus:Security   Context Signed in the presence of senior government officials, the MoU marks a new era of collaboration between telecom and financial intelligence agencies. The initiative responds to the rapid expansion of India’s digital economy and the growing sophistication of cyber-frauds. It underscores the need for cross-sectoral synergy to strengthen fraud detection and prevention.   Key Features of the MoU Real-time Data Sharing: DoT will provide FIU-IND with a Mobile Number Revocation List (disconnected numbers + reasons). FIU-IND will share mobile numbers linked to suspicious financial transactions. Fraud Risk Indicators (FRI): Numbers categorised by fraud risk to aid banks and payment systems. Tech Platforms: DoT’s Digital Intelligence Platform and Sanchar Saathi portal. FIU-IND’s Finnex 2.0. Feedback Loop: Establishment of SOPs for structured data sharing, monitoring, and updates.   Impact Shifts fraud detection from reactive to proactive. Banks and financial institutions can use FRI data to flag high-risk mobile numbers. Prevents fraudulent mobile connections and protects digital transactions. Already prevented 4.8 million fraudulent transactions, saving ₹140+ crore.   Technological Backbone DoT Tools: ASTR – detects multiple SIMs with fake identities. CIOR – blocks international spoofed calls. Sanchar Saathi Portal – disconnected 28 million fraudulent connections. FIU-IND Tools: Finnex 2.0 – advanced suspicious transaction analysis system.   About the Agencies FIU-IND: Apex body for analysing suspicious financial transactions, anti-money laundering, and fraud risk intelligence. DoT’s Digital Intelligence Unit (DIU): Uses AI and big data to detect and prevent telecom misuse. With reference to the recent Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed between the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the Financial Intelligence Unit–India (FIU-IND), consider the following statements: The MoU facilitates the sharing of Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) data that categorises mobile numbers based on fraud risk. The Sanchar Saathi portal, managed by FIU-IND, is a key platform enabling the detection of fraudulent mobile connections. DoT will provide FIU-IND with the Mobile Number Revocation List, which includes disconnected numbers and their reasons. FIU-IND will share with DoT suspicious transaction reports directly submitted by banks under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 4 only(c) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Answer → (a) 1 and 3 only Explanation Statement 1 – Correct: The new system allows real-time sharing of FRI data, classifying numbers as high-risk or low-risk, enabling proactive fraud detection. Statement 2 – Incorrect: Sanchar Saathi is a DoT initiative that has disconnected over 28 million fraudulent connections; FIU-IND does not manage it. Statement 3 – Correct: DoT shares the Mobile Number Revocation List with FIU-IND to cross-check telecom misuse in fraud cases. Statement 4 – Incorrect: FIU-IND cannot disclose full STRs (confidential under PMLA). Only fraud-linked mobile numbers are shared with DoT. Swachhata Hi Seva Syllabus:Scheme   The year 2025 marks a significant milestone in India’s journey toward cleanliness and public health under the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM). The annual Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) campaign has matured into a nationwide movement, mobilising millions in the spirit of civic responsibility. This year’s edition, themed Swachhotsav, reinforces the nation’s commitment to transforming neglected spaces and modernising waste management, promoting dignity and sustainability across communities.   A Nationwide Cleanliness Drive Launched in 2017, Swachhata Hi Seva is an annual campaign culminating on 2nd October, Mahatma Gandhi’s birth anniversary. The 2025 campaign spans 15 days, engaging citizens, government bodies, and civil society in cleaning drives, awareness programmes, and community initiatives. Its focus on Antyodaya se Sarvodaya — uplifting the most marginalised to achieve collective progress — ensures that both urban and rural areas benefit from improved sanitation and environmental management.   Shramdaan: Collective Voluntary Service On 25th September 2025, the Ek Din, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath Shramdaan initiative saw millions volunteering for an hour of cleanliness activities, including plogging, waste segregation, and beautification of Cleanliness Target Units (CTUs). Political leaders, youth groups, NGOs, and sanitation workers actively participated, with the drive also recognising the essential contributions of sanitation workers to public health and dignity.   Transforming Waste Management SBM has revolutionised India’s approach to waste. Today, over 81% of urban solid waste is processed, up from just 16% in 2014. Key infrastructure includes Material Recovery Facilities, composting units, and waste-to-energy plants. Dumpsite remediation has reclaimed 7,646 acres, addressing 58% of accumulated legacy waste. Notable projects include Delhi’s Bhalswa landfill and Rajkot’s urban forest, converting toxic landfills into green, productive spaces.   Government Ministries Driving Cleanliness Several ministries have actively supported Swachhata Hi Seva 2025, including Commerce & Industry, Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Cooperation, Parliamentary Affairs, and Ports, Shipping & Waterways. Initiatives range from cleanliness drives and health camps to eco-friendly projects, demonstrating the translation of policy into impactful, ground-level action and fostering a nationwide culture of cleanliness.   Impact and Success Stories SBM has delivered remarkable results: 12 crore toilets built nationwide, reducing open defecation and improving women’s safety. Nearly 3 lakh children under five protected from sanitation-related diseases. Innovative state-level models, such as Amarnath Yatra 2025 achieving zero-landfill status, Assam’s women converting water hyacinth into handicrafts, and Agra transforming a massive dumpsite into a green urban hub. From Campaign to Cultural Movement Swachh Bharat Mission has transcended a routine cleanliness drive to become a cultural movement, redefining public health, environmental responsibility, and social dignity. By rejuvenating neglected urban and rural spaces, Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 strengthens the nation’s commitment to embedding cleanliness as a permanent value, paving the way for a developed India by 2047. Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 emphasizes “Antyodaya se Sarvodaya”. In the context of this campaign, which of the following statements is/are correct? It focuses on uplifting marginalised sections to achieve inclusive progress. It prioritizes rural sanitation over urban areas exclusively. It integrates waste management, health, and livelihood interventions under a single framework. (a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation: The campaign targets both rural and urban areas, so statement 2 is incorrect. It

karthik September 28, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 26 September 2025 – Tone Academy

Super Typhoon Ragasa Syllabus: GS1/Geography Context Super Typhoon Ragasa has caused widespread devastation across East Asia, raising concerns about the increasing intensity of tropical cyclones linked to climate change. About Super Typhoons Definition: A super typhoon is the most intense form of typhoon, equivalent to a Category 5 hurricane, with sustained winds of ≥253 km/h (157 mph). Formation Region: Usually forms in the Western North Pacific Ocean near countries like China, Japan, and the Philippines. Structure: Warm-core low-pressure systems with a spiral inflow of winds near the surface and a spiral outflow in the upper atmosphere. Latitude Condition: Develop beyond 5° latitude from the equator, since the Coriolis force is essential for initiating rotation. Terminology of Tropical Cyclones by Region Hurricane → North Atlantic, Eastern North Pacific, South Pacific. Cyclone → Indian Ocean. Typhoon → Western North Pacific. Willy-Willy → Eastern Southern Indian Ocean.   Significance / Impacts Cause large-scale destruction of life, infrastructure, agriculture, and livelihoods. Lead to massive displacement, humanitarian crises, and disruption of trade & supply chains. Increasing frequency and intensity linked to global warming and rising sea surface temperatures. Consider the following statements regarding tropical cyclones: A super typhoon is equivalent to a Category 5 hurricane. Typhoons are confined to the Western North Pacific Ocean. Tropical cyclones do not form within 5° latitude of the equator due to weak Coriolis force. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1 Correct – Super typhoon = Cat-5 hurricane in intensity. Statement 2 Correct – The term “typhoon” is specific to the Western Pacific. Statement 3 Correct – Coriolis force near the equator is too weak to initiate cyclone rotation.   Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) Syllabus: GS2/International Relations Context India recently participated in the 3rd FIPIC Summit with Pacific Island nations, highlighting its Act East Policy and Indo-Pacific engagement.   About FIPIC Launched: 2014 by India to enhance cooperation with 14 Pacific Island Countries (PICs). Members: Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu. Objective: Strengthen diplomatic ties, development partnership, capacity building, and climate resilience.   Focus Areas of Cooperation Climate Change & Disaster Resilience: Support for renewable energy, early warning systems, and adaptation projects. Development Assistance: Lines of Credit, grants for infrastructure, healthcare, and digital connectivity. Capacity Building: Scholarships, training programs under ITEC (Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation). Connectivity: India’s push for maritime cooperation, digital public infrastructure, and better air-sea links. Geopolitical Significance: Counters growing influence of China in the Pacific; builds India’s image as a partner in the Global South.     Recent Highlights India announced projects in solar energy, desalination plants, and telemedicine for Pacific Islands. Proposal to extend Digital India solutions (like UPI, e-Governance tools) to PICs. Consider the following statements regarding FIPIC: FIPIC was launched by India in 2014 to enhance relations with 14 Pacific Island nations. Climate change and disaster resilience are among its major focus areas. China is also a full member of FIPIC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 Correct – FIPIC was launched in 2014 for India–PIC ties. Statement 2 Correct – Climate action is a key agenda. Statement 3 Incorrect – China is not a member; FIPIC is India-led. Tylenol–Autism Controversy Syllabus: GS2/Health | GS3/Science & Tech Context Concerns have been raised over the possible link between prenatal exposure to acetaminophen (Tylenol) and neurodevelopmental disorders like autism and ADHD in children.     About Tylenol (Acetaminophen / Paracetamol) Use: Widely used over-the-counter drug for pain relief and fever reduction. Safety Record: Generally considered safe during pregnancy and for children, when taken in recommended doses. WHO & FDA View: Recognize paracetamol as safe, but advise cautious use during pregnancy.   Controversy Scientific Studies: Some observational studies have reported a correlation between maternal use of acetaminophen during pregnancy and higher risk of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children. Causation Not Established: No conclusive evidence; correlation could be due to underlying maternal health conditions (like infections) for which Tylenol was taken. Legal Cases: In the US, lawsuits have been filed claiming that Tylenol exposure led to autism in children. Regulatory Stand: Authorities have not banned Tylenol but recommend using the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration during pregnancy.   Significance Raises questions on drug safety during pregnancy. Reflects broader concerns on pharmaceutical regulation, litigation, and public trust in medicine. Important for India, given high dependence on paracetamol as an affordable analgesic. With reference to the Tylenol–Autism controversy, consider the following statements: Tylenol is another name for acetaminophen, commonly known as paracetamol. WHO has banned the use of paracetamol during pregnancy due to proven risks of autism. Current evidence establishes only correlation, not causation, between Tylenol use in pregnancy and autism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 Correct – Tylenol = acetaminophen (paracetamol). Statement 2  Incorrect – WHO/FDA have not banned it, only advise caution. Statement 3 Correct – Studies show correlation, but causation is unproven   EC Launches e-sign Feature for Correction of Voter Names Syllabus: GS2/Governance Context The Election Commission of India (ECI) has launched a new e-sign feature on its ECINET portal and app, enabling voters to verify their identity for corrections using Aadhaar-linked phone numbers.     About ECINET Portal Unified Digital Platform: ECINET integrates and subsumes over 40 existing electoral apps and services, including Voter Helpline App, cVIGIL, Suvidha 2.0, among others. Objective: Simplify and streamline voter registration, correction, and verification processes through a single interface.   Features: E-sign for name corrections and other voter record updates.

karthik September 25, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 25 September 2025 – Tone Academy

Mohenjodaro Dancing Girl Syllabus: GS1/ Ancient History Context A professor from Haryana was recently booked for allegedly attempting to steal a replica of the Mohenjodaro ‘Dancing Girl’ bronze figurine from the National Museum, Delhi, highlighting the enduring cultural and historical significance of this iconic artefact.   About the Dancing Girl Civilisation: The statuette belongs to the Indus Valley Civilization (c. 2500–1900 BCE), reflecting the sophistication of one of the world’s earliest urban societies. Discovery: Unearthed in 1926 at Mohenjo-daro (present-day Pakistan) by archaeologist Ernest Mackay. Material and Technique: Crafted from bronze using the lost-wax (cire perdue) casting technique, demonstrating the advanced metallurgical and artisanal skills of the Harappans. This technique allowed the creation of fine, intricate forms, indicating a high degree of technical knowledge and aesthetic sensibility.     Physical Features: Height: 10.5 cm Adorned with a necklace and multiple bangles stacked on her arms. Depicts a young female in a dynamic, confident pose, interpreted as a dancer or performer, highlighting the Harappan appreciation for art, beauty, and social life. Significance: The figurine is often regarded as a symbol of the Indus Valley Civilization’s urban sophistication, social structure, and cultural expression. Its discovery contributed to understanding Harappan metallurgy, jewelry craftsmanship, and daily life, offering insights into both technological advancement and artistic sensibilities. The Dancing Girl is not merely an artefact; it reflects Harappan urban culture, gender representations, and aesthetic sensibilities. Its lost-wax bronze technique evidences technological innovation, while its dynamic posture and adornments provide clues about societal norms, craft specialization, and cultural priorities. This makes it an essential reference for understanding early South Asian urban civilization and material culture. Consider the following statements regarding the Mohenjodaro Dancing Girl: It was crafted using the lost-wax casting technique. The statuette was discovered at Harappa by John Marshall. The figurine reflects the advanced metallurgical and artistic skills of the Harappans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 Correct – Lost-wax technique used. Statement 2 Incorrect – Discovered at Mohenjo-daro, excavated by Ernest Mackay, not Harappa/John Marshall. Statement 3 Correct – Reflects high level of artistic and metallurgical sophistication Tirah Valley Syllabus: GS1/ Geography     Context Recently, Pakistan’s Air Force launched eight LS-6 precision-guided glide bombs targeting villages in the Tirah Valley of Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, highlighting the region’s ongoing strategic and security significance in the broader Pakistan–Afghanistan border context.   About Tirah Valley Location & Strategic Importance: Situated in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Pakistan, near the Pakistan–Afghanistan border. Lies between the Khyber Pass (a historic trade and military corridor) and the Khanki Valley, spanning Khyber and Orakzai districts. Its mountainous terrain makes it geostrategically significant, historically serving as a military and trade gateway between Central and South Asia.   Tribal Inhabitants: Primarily home to Afridi and Orakzai Pashtun tribes, who have traditionally maintained autonomous social structures and tribal codes (Pashtunwali). Terrain & Sub-Valleys: Characterized by rugged, mountainous landscapes, with numerous sub-valleys including Maidan, Rajgul, Waran, Bara, and Mastura. The terrain has historically provided natural fortification and has shaped both tribal life and military operations.   Militancy and Displacement: Since the U.S.-led invasion of Afghanistan in 2001, Tirah Valley has experienced intense militarization, acting as a battleground between Pakistani state forces and various militant groups. The region has witnessed cycles of conflict, displacement, and security operations, making it a focal point in counter-terrorism and border security studies.   Analytical Note Tirah Valley’s strategic location near the Khyber Pass underscores its importance in regional geopolitics, trade, and military logistics. The combination of rugged terrain and tribal social structures has historically made state control difficult, facilitating insurgency and militancy. Understanding Tirah Valley is essential for India–Pakistan border security, regional geopolitics, and counter-terrorism policy analysis. The Tirah Valley, recently in the news due to military operations, is strategically important because: It lies between the Khyber Pass and Khanki Valley. It spans the Khyber and Orakzai districts of Khyber Pakhtunkhwa. It is directly connected to the Wakhan Corridor of Afghanistan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 Correct – Lies between Khyber Pass and Khanki Valley. Statement 2 Correct – Covers Khyber and Orakzai districts. Statement 3 Incorrect – No direct connection to the Wakhan Corridor; that lies further north in Afghanistan. Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025 Syllabus: GS2/ Education; Governance   Context The Union Ministry of Education has launched the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025, a nationwide virtual innovation contest aimed at school students, with a prize pool of ₹1 crore, highlighting the government’s focus on fostering innovation, self-reliance, and entrepreneurship from the school level.   About the Buildathon Participants: Open to students from Classes 6 to 12 across approximately six lakh government and private schools nationwide. Inclusive approach ensures participation from both urban and rural schools, promoting equity in innovation opportunities.   Objectives: Encourage students to develop innovative solutions and products addressing real-world challenges. Focus areas include self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat), indigenous knowledge, and sustainability. Aligns with India’s vision of Viksit Bharat by 2047, aiming to create a generation of problem-solvers, innovators, and young entrepreneurs.   Organisers: Department of School Education & Literacy, Ministry of Education. In collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission (NITI Aayog) and All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE). Background: Builds upon the success of the School Innovation Marathon 2024, which catalyzed programmes like: Student Innovator Programme (SIP) Student Entrepreneurship Programme (SEP) Several patents, startups, and innovation ventures have emerged from the Atal Tinkering Labs, demonstrating tangible outcomes of earlier government innovation initiatives.   Analytical Note Policy Significance: Encourages STEM education and design thinking among school students. Fosters entrepreneurial mindset from an early age, contributing to India’s innovation ecosystem. Supports Atmanirbhar Bharat by leveraging indigenous knowledge and sustainable solutions.   Long-term Impact: Bridges education, innovation, and entrepreneurship. Prepares students for future technology-driven challenges, aligning with national

karthik September 25, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 24 September 2025 – Tone Academy

HQ IDS Organises the Combined Operational Review and Evaluation (CORE) Programme   Syllabus: GS3 / Defence Context:  Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff (HQ IDS) is organising the Combined Operational Review and Evaluation (CORE) Programme at the United Service Institution of India, New Delhi.   Key Highlights: Civil-Military Engagement Platform: The programme brings together senior officers from the Indian Armed Forces along with officials from the Ministries of Defence, External Affairs, and Home Affairs. Strategic Awareness: Aims to enhance strategic awareness and equip officers with fresh perspectives for pragmatic, balanced decision-making in leadership roles.     Themes Covered: Evolving regional and global security challenges. Impact of technological transformation on warfare. Importance of strategic communication. Enhancing civil-military synergy to address complex, multidimensional threats.   Significance: Fosters better understanding between civil and military authorities.• Equips participants with analytical skills to address contemporary and future security challenges.• Encourages integrated approaches to national security planning. With reference to the CORE Programme organised by HQ IDS, consider the following: It is designed to enhance strategic awareness among both military and civil officials. The programme focuses on themes such as cyber security, global terrorism, and AI-based warfare only. Civil-military synergy is a key aspect of the CORE Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 – Correct: The CORE Programme aims to enhance strategic awareness for participating officers from both military and civilian sectors. Statement 2 – Incorrect: While technology is a theme, the programme does not focus exclusively on cyber security, terrorism, or AI; it covers broader security challenges and civil-military collaboration. Statement 3 – Correct: Strengthening civil-military synergy is central to the objectives of the programme. 51st Foundation Day of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) Syllabus: GS3 / Environment Context: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) celebrated its 51st Foundation Day.   Key Highlights: Establishment: CPCB was set up in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and later empowered under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.     Role: Supports the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Functions: Promotes cleanliness of water bodies and controls air pollution. Operates the National Air Monitoring Programme (NAMP) to track air quality trends. Runs automated air quality monitoring stations, e.g., at ITO, New Delhi.   Significance:• Provides scientific data to guide industrial regulations and environmental policy.• Strengthens India’s pollution control mechanisms and sustainable development initiatives. Which of the following statements about CPCB is correct? CPCB was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. CPCB operates the National Air Monitoring Programme to track pollution trends. CPCB’s functions include both water and air pollution management. (a)1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 onlyExplanation:• Statement 1 – Incorrect: CPCB was established in 1974 under the Water Act, not the Environment Protection Act.• Statement 2 – Correct: CPCB runs NAMP to monitor air quality.• Statement 3 – Correct: CPCB’s mandate covers both air and water pollution control. International Day of Sign Languages Syllabus: Miscellaneous Context: Observed annually on 23rd September to highlight the importance of sign language in ensuring the human rights of Deaf people worldwide.     Key Highlights: UN Recognition: Sign languages are recognized as full natural languages, distinct from spoken ones. India’s Adoption: Indian Sign Language (ISL) is promoted for both Deaf and hearing communities. India ratified the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD) in 2007, committing to Deaf rights. Commemoration: The date also marks the establishment of the World Federation of the Deaf (WFD) in 1951. Theme 2025: “No Human Rights Without Sign Language Rights,” emphasizing the centrality of sign languages to human rights. Do You Know?• Globally, over 70 million Deaf people exist, with more than 80% in developing countries.• In India, the 2011 Census recorded about 50 lakh Deaf persons.   Significance:• Promotes awareness of Deaf rights and inclusion.• Encourages government and society to ensure accessibility and equal opportunities for the Deaf community. With reference to the International Day of Sign Languages, consider the following: It is observed on 23rd September every year. India ratified the CRPD in 2007, promoting Indian Sign Language. The day was first celebrated in 2018, linked to the International Week of the Deaf. (a)1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3Explanation:• Statement 1 – Correct: The day is observed on 23rd September.• Statement 2 – Correct: India ratified the CRPD in 2007, endorsing ISL.• Statement 3 – Correct: The celebration began in 2018 as part of the International Week of the Deaf. Rosh Hashanah Syllabus: GS1 / Culture Context:• Prime Minister Narendra Modi greeted Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu on Rosh Hashanah 2025, reflecting India’s civilizational outreach and deepening ties with Israel.   About Rosh Hashanah:• Meaning: Hebrew for “Head of the Year,” marking the Jewish New Year.• Religion: Central observance in Judaism, celebrated globally.• Origins: Rooted in Hebrew Bible (Leviticus 23:23–25), linked to the creation of the world.• Duration: Two days, starting on 1st Tishrei (September/October).  Practices: Prayer & Reflection: Forgiveness, repentance (teshuva), setting priorities. Shofar Blowing: Ram’s horn blown in synagogues symbolizing awakening and renewal. Food Traditions: Apples dipped in honey for a “sweet year,” pomegranates symbolizing righteousness. Greeting: “Shanah Tovah” – meaning “Good Year.”   Significance:• Spiritual: God judges past actions and inscribes fate in the Book of Life, later sealed on Yom Kippur.• Cultural: Strengthens Jewish identity and global community bonding.• Global Relevance: Observed worldwide, including Israel, USA, Europe; growing recognition in multicultural societies like India.   India–Israel Context:• India and Israel share historic people-to-people ties (Cochin Jews, Bene Israel, Baghdadi Jews).• Leaders exchanging greetings on festivals reflects India’s pluralism and diplomatic warmth.• Soft power avenue in bilateral relations. With reference to Rosh Hashanah, consider

karthik September 24, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 23 September 2025 – Tone Academy

PM Narendra Modi’s Visit to Gujarat Syllabus: GS2 / Governance & GS3 / Infrastructure Context: On September 20, 2025, PM Narendra Modi visited Gujarat to inaugurate and lay the foundation stone for development projects worth over ₹34,200 crore across ports, energy, health, highways, heritage, and industrial zones in Bhavnagar, Dholera, and Lothal.     Key Highlights: Samudra Se Samriddhi Event: Held in Bhavnagar, focusing on maritime growth and coastal development. Major Inaugurations: Hindustan Petroleum LNG Regasification Terminal, Chhara Port, Somnath. IOCL Acrylics & Oxo Alcohol Project, Vadodara. 45 MW Badeli Solar PV Project and solarisation of Dhordo village, Kutch. Bhavnagar Projects: Foundation stones for world’s first CNG terminal, brownfield port expansion, and Sir T. General Hospital expansion. Maritime Projects: Virtually inaugurated 21 MoUs worth ₹66,025 crore under Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways. Mumbai International Cruise Terminal: India’s largest cruise terminal, worth ₹556 crore.   Significance: Strengthens maritime infrastructure, renewable energy, and regional healthcare. Boosts industrial and port-led economic corridors in western India. With reference to PM Narendra Modi’s Gujarat visit (September 2025), consider the following: The visit included both physical and virtual inaugurations of infrastructure projects. Dhordo village in Kutch was solarized as part of the renewable energy initiatives. Mumbai International Cruise Terminal is India’s largest and was inaugurated under the Ministry of Tourism.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: (a) 1 and 2 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 – Correct: During his September 2025 visit to Gujarat, PM Modi inaugurated multiple projects in physical mode, including local infrastructure projects in towns and villages. Additionally, he inaugurated several projects virtually, connecting remote locations and state capital projects. This dual approach is consistent with the Government’s recent practice of blending physical and virtual inaugurations to cover a large number of projects efficiently. Statement 2 – Correct: Dhordo village in Kutch, Gujarat, was fully solarized as part of renewable energy and green village initiatives. This aligns with the PM’s vision of promoting clean energy, sustainability, and energy independence in rural areas. Statement 3 – Incorrect: While the Mumbai International Cruise Terminal (MICT) is indeed India’s largest cruise terminal, it does not fall under the Ministry of Tourism. The terminal is administered by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways, as it is part of maritime and port infrastructure development. Misattributing it to the Ministry of Tourism is a common error; the Ministry of Tourism primarily promotes travel and tourism infrastructure, not port operations. Make in India – 10th Anniversary Initiatives Syllabus: GS3 / Economy Context: In September 2025, Union Minister Piyush Goyal launched six initiatives and India’s first-ever coloured ₹100 commemorative coin marking Make in India’s 10th anniversary.     Key Initiatives: Assessment of Logistics Cost (AoLC) Report – By NCAER, analyzing freight cost per tonne-km across transport modes. Industrial Park Rating System (IPRS) 3.0 – Benchmarking industrial parks for competitiveness and sustainability. Logistics Data Bank 2.0 – Multi-modal shipment tracking for MSMEs and exporters. LEADS 2025 – Evaluates logistics performance across States & UTs. HSN Code Guidebook – Allocates 12,167 HSN codes across 31 Ministries/Departments. State & City Logistics Plans (S&CLP) – Digitally enabled logistics planning under SMILE programme with ADB support.   Significance: Enhances industrial competitiveness, logistics efficiency, and transparency. Supports MSMEs, facilitating easier trade and compliance. Consider the following about IPRS 3.0: It benchmarks industrial parks using sustainability, digitalization, and logistics connectivity. It is implemented by DPIIT in collaboration with UNDP. The initiative aims to guide policy interventions and investor decision-making.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 – Correct: The Industrial Park Rating System (IPRS) 3.0 is a framework developed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce & Industry. It evaluates industrial parks across multiple parameters, including: Sustainability: Environmental management, green infrastructure, renewable energy use. Digitalization: Smartpark management systems, digital services, and automation. Logistics connectivity: Proximity to highways, ports, railways, and multimodal transport facilities. These parameters help rank parks objectively and promote best practices. Statement 2 – Incorrect: While the IPRS 3.0 was developed with support from an international development agency, it was the Asian Development Bank (ADB), not UNDP, that assisted DPIIT in refining the system. UNDP does work on industrial development projects globally, but it is not associated with IPRS 3.0. Statement 3 – Correct: The IPRS 3.0 is intended to: Guide policy interventions: Helps the government prioritize industrial parks for upgrades, investments, and incentives. Support investor decision-making: By providing standardized ratings, investors can identify high-quality parks with strong infrastructure and operational efficiencies. This makes the system a strategic tool for both public and private sector planning. . Mercedes-Benz Hurun India Wealth Report 2025 Syllabus: GS3 / Economy   Context: The report revealed Maharashtra has the highest millionaire households (1.78 lakh), followed by Delhi (79,800) and Tamil Nadu (72,600). Mumbai is the “Millionaire Capital” with 1.42 lakh households.     Key Findings: Top 10 states account for 79% of millionaire households. Wealth accumulation driven by GSDP growth and formalisation in technology, finance, and industry. Banking preference: HDFC Bank (domestic) and Citibank (international).   Significance: Highlights regional wealth disparity, urban concentration, and emerging patterns in high-net-worth population distribution. Which of the following statements about the Mercedes-Benz Hurun India Wealth Report 2025 is/are correct? Gujarat ranks fifth in millionaire households, after Maharashtra, Delhi, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka. Mumbai has more millionaire households than the combined total of Delhi and Bengaluru. The report emphasizes GSDP growth as a key factor for wealth accumulation.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: (b) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 2 is incorrect; Mumbai has 1.42 lakh, Delhi + Bengaluru combined = 68,200 + 31,600 = 99,800 < 1.42 lakh; correct. Actually, this seems correct — re-evaluate. 1.42 lakh > 99,800 . So statement 2 is correct. So correct

karthik September 23, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 22 September 2025 – Tone Academy

National Archives of India (NAI) Syllabus: GS1 / Indian Heritage & Culture Context The National Archives of India (NAI) is India’s premier archival institution, located in New Delhi. It serves as the custodian of government records and documents of historical value.   About NAI Established: 1891 in Calcutta as the Imperial Record Department. Shifted: To New Delhi in 1911; housed in a building near India Gate. Administrative Control: Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Collections: Public records dating back to 1748; manuscripts, maps, private papers, microfilms, and digital records.     Functions & Significance Preserves and maintains documents of enduring value. Provides access to researchers, scholars, and citizens. Ensures transparency and accountability in governance. Acts as a cultural and historical repository of India’s administrative evolution.   Do You Know? The NAI has more than 5 million files, including rare treaties, maps, and manuscripts. Hosts exhibitions such as the “Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav” archival showcase. Digital initiatives like Abhilekh-Patal make archives accessible online. Consider the following statements about the National Archives of India (NAI): It was originally established in Calcutta as the Imperial Record Department in 1891. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It houses records dating back to 1748. Which of the statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is correct. The National Archives of India (NAI) was indeed founded in Calcutta on March 11, 1891, and was originally named the Imperial Record Department. It was later moved to its current location in New Delhi. Statement 2 is incorrect. The NAI operates under the Ministry of Culture, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its main role is to manage and preserve the archival records of the Government of India, making them accessible to scholars and the public. Statement 3 is correct. The NAI’s collection includes a vast number of records, with the earliest ones dating back to 1748. These records are a crucial historical resource, documenting the transition from the British colonial administration to independent India. Hangul Deer (Kashmir Stag) – Dachigam National Park Syllabus: GS3 / Environment & Biodiversity Context The Hangul (Kashmir Stag), endemic to Jammu & Kashmir, is facing severe population decline. Dachigam National Park remains its last viable habitat.   About Hangul Scientific Name: Cervus hanglu hanglu IUCN Status: Critically Endangered Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I species Distribution: Once found widely across Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Chamba Valley. Now restricted mostly to Dachigam NP, J&K. Population Trend: 1940s – ~5,000 animals 1970s – ~1,000 animals 2023 – ~260 animals      Dachigam National Park (J&K) Location: ~22 km from Srinagar. Area: 141 sq. km. Features: Alpine pastures, meadows, coniferous forests, and glacial streams. Other Species: Himalayan black bear, leopard, musk deer, Himalayan grey langur, Himalayan weasel.   Conservation Challenges Habitat fragmentation due to tourism, livestock grazing, and encroachments. Poaching and human-wildlife conflict. Decline in genetic diversity due to small population size. Natural predation by leopards and wolves.   Conservation Efforts Project Hangul (since 1970s) under IUCN/WWF and J&K Wildlife Department. Captive breeding initiatives under discussion. Part of Species Recovery Programme of MoEFCC.   Do You Know? Hangul is the only surviving Asiatic subspecies of Red Deer in India. State animal of Jammu & Kashmir (UT). Annual Hangul Census conducted in Dachigam since 2004. Consider the following statements about Hangul (Kashmir Stag): It is the state animal of Himachal Pradesh. Its only viable wild population survives in Dachigam National Park. It is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3  Answer: (b) 2 and 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Hangul, or Kashmir Stag, is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir, not Himachal Pradesh. The state animal of Himachal Pradesh is the snow leopard. Statement 2 is correct. The Hangul’s population has been severely fragmented due to habitat loss and poaching. Its only viable population in the wild is found within Dachigam National Park in Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 3 is correct. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has classified the Hangul as Critically Endangered. This classification highlights the species’ extremely high risk of extinction in the wild, primarily due to habitat fragmentation and a very small, declining population. Kadamb Tree (Neolamarckia cadamba) Syllabus: GS3 / Environment & Ecology Context King Charles III of the UK gifted a Kadamb (Burflower) tree to the Indian Prime Minister on his 75th birthday, symbolising cultural and ecological ties.   About Kadamb Tree Scientific Name: Neolamarckia cadamba Family: Rubiaceae Type: Evergreen, tropical tree native to South and Southeast Asia. Height: Can grow up to 45 m tall. Flowers: Fragrant, orange, dense globe-shaped clusters.   Distribution Widely found in India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Myanmar, Thailand, Indonesia. Thrives in tropical and sub-tropical climates. Cultural-Historical Significance Kadamba Dynasty (345–525 CE): Tree gave its name to the dynasty ruling from Banavasi (Karnataka). Athmallik State Emblem: Kadamba flower was used as emblem during British Raj. Associated with Lord Krishna in Indian mythology; tree often depicted in art & poetry.     Ecological Importance Improves soil fertility through leaf litter. Supports pollinators and biodiversity with fragrant flowers. Grows rapidly, making it useful for reforestation.   Conservation Status Not threatened globally; widely cultivated for timber, paper, and ornamental value.   Do You Know? Kadamb is often planted during festivals in India as an auspicious tree. In Ayurveda, Kadamb is valued for antimicrobial & anti-inflammatory properties. Consider the following statements regarding the Kadamb Tree: The Kadamb tree belongs to the family Fabaceae. It is associated with the Kadamba dynasty of Karnataka. Kadamb flowers are used as the emblem of Athmallik, a princely state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1

karthik September 20, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 20 september 2025 – Tone Academy

Seven Natural Heritage Sites Added to UNESCO Tentative List Syllabus: GS1 / Culture   Context: Seven natural heritage sites from India have been included in UNESCO’s Tentative List of World Heritage Sites, raising India’s count from 62 → 69 properties.     Newly Added Sites: Deccan Traps (Panchgani & Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra): Part of massive Deccan Traps, within Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary. Mary’s Island Cluster, Karnataka: Rare columnar basaltic rock formations (~85 million years old). Meghalayan Age Caves, Meghalaya: Mawmluh Cave – global reference point for Meghalayan Age in Holocene Epoch. Naga Hill Ophiolite, Nagaland: Exposure of ophiolite rocks → oceanic crust uplifted onto continental plates. Erra Matti Dibbalu (Red Sand Hills), Andhra Pradesh: Unique paleo-climatic coastal formations near Visakhapatnam. Tirumala Hills, Andhra Pradesh: Features the Eparchaean Unconformity and Silathoranam (Natural Arch) (1.5 billion years old). Varkala Cliffs, Kerala: Exposes Mio-Pliocene Warkalli Formation, natural springs, erosional landforms.   Do You Know? Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the nodal agency for UNESCO’s World Heritage Convention in India. India hosted the 46th Session of the World Heritage Committee in July 2024, New Delhi.   Significance: Enhances India’s cultural diplomacy and soft power. Boosts eco-tourism and local livelihoods. Promotes conservation of unique geological and natural heritage. With reference to India’s natural heritage, consider the following pairs: Mary’s Island – Columnar basalt formations Tirumala Hills – Meghalayan Age reference point Erra Matti Dibbalu – Coastal red sand dunes Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation: Mary’s Island = columnar basalt formations. Meghalayan Age reference = Mawmluh Cave, Meghalaya (not Tirumala Hills). Erra Matti Dibbalu = coastal red sand formations near Visakhapatnam. Swasth Nari, Shakti Rashtra Campaign Syllabus: GS2 / Governance, GS1 / Society   Context:On 18 September 2025, the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare launched the Swasth Nari, Shakti Rashtra campaign. The programme focuses on improving women’s health and nutrition, especially anaemia prevention and reproductive health.   About the Campaign: Flagship initiative under National Health Mission (NHM). Prioritises women’s health at Adolescent, Reproductive, Maternal & Post-natal stages. Emphasis on awareness, screening, counselling, and timely intervention. Launched during Poshan Maah 2025.     Key Features: Free distribution of Iron-Folic Acid (IFA) supplements. Promotion of regular haemoglobin testing for early detection of anaemia. Village-level Health & Wellness Camps led by ASHAs and ANMs. Focus on menstrual hygiene management and maternal nutrition. Integration with digital platforms for health record tracking.   Significance: Women’s health → directly linked to productivity, child nutrition, and social development. Aims to reduce India’s high anaemia prevalence (57% women aged 15–49, NFHS-5). Strengthens India’s commitment to SDG 3 (Good Health & Wellbeing) and SDG 5 (Gender Equality). With reference to the Swasth Nari, Shakti Rashtra campaign, consider the following statements: It has been launched under the framework of the National Health Mission (NHM). It primarily targets anaemia prevention and maternal health. It is implemented by the Ministry of Women & Child Development. Which of the above statements is/are correct?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) 1 and 2 onlyExplanation: Launched under NHM → Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (not Women & Child Development). Major focus: anaemia prevention, maternal & adolescent health. MoWCD implements Poshan Abhiyaan, not this campaign. ECI Guidelines on Deepfakes Syllabus: GS2 / Polity & Governance Context:On 19 September 2025, the Election Commission of India (ECI) issued new guidelines to curb the misuse of deepfake technology in elections. The move comes ahead of upcoming state assembly polls and the 2026 General Elections.     About the Guidelines: Political parties & candidates must not use AI-generated content that misrepresents facts or impersonates individuals. Any campaign material involving AI/deepfake must carry a clear disclosure label. Social media platforms are directed to strengthen content moderation and remove flagged deepfakes promptly. 24×7 monitoring cells to track deepfake misuse in election campaigns. Legal action under Section 171F IPC (undue influence) and IT Act provisions for violations.   Why Deepfakes are a Concern? Can spread misinformation and sway voter opinion unfairly. May damage reputations of candidates/parties through fake visuals or audio. Threatens free and fair elections and citizens’ right to informed choices.   Global Context: USA, EU, and South Korea have also introduced laws/guidelines against deepfake use in elections. India’s step aligns with the global push for AI regulation in democracy.   Significance: Strengthens electoral integrity. Enhances voter trust in democratic processes. Demonstrates India’s proactive stance in AI governance. With reference to the Election Commission of India’s guidelines on deepfakes (2025), consider the following statements: All AI-generated campaign content must carry a disclosure label. Violations can invite legal action under the Indian Penal Code and IT Act. The guidelines apply only to national political parties, not independents. Which of the above statements is/are correct?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) 1 and 2 onlyExplanation: Disclosure label mandatory for AI/deepfake content. Legal provisions: IPC & IT Act. Guidelines apply to all parties and candidates, including independents. India–Saudi Arabia Strategic Council Meeting 2025 Syllabus: GS2 / International Relations Context:On September 2025, India and Saudi Arabia held the 3rd meeting of the India–Saudi Arabia Strategic Partnership Council (SPC) in New Delhi, co-chaired by PM Narendra Modi and Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman.   About the Strategic Partnership Council (SPC): Established in 2019 during Crown Prince’s visit to India. Highest-level mechanism to steer bilateral ties.     Two sub-committees: Political, Security, Social & Cultural Committee Economy & Investment Committee   Key Outcomes of 2025 Meeting: Energy Cooperation: Long-term contracts on crude oil supply & collaboration in green hydrogen. Defence & Security: Plans for joint military exercises, counter-terrorism cooperation, and enhanced maritime security. Investment Push: Saudi committed to $50 billion+ projects in India (refineries, infrastructure, smart cities). Technology & AI: MoUs on digital transformation, AI innovation, and fintech. Diaspora Engagement: Streamlining of e-migration,

karthik September 19, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 19 september 2025 – Tone Academy

Gussadi Dance Syllabus: GS1 / Culture Context: Members of the Raj Gond Tribe from Adilabad district of Telangana are going to perform Gussadi dance for the 78th Hyderabad Liberation Day.   About Gussadi Dance Community: Traditional dance of the Raj Gond tribe, mainly from Adilabad (Telangana), also practiced in parts of Maharashtra. Group Formation: Performed by men in groups called Dandari; smaller performance units within them are called Gussadi.   Costume: Turmeric and saffron-colored attire. Bandages tied around legs and waist. Turbans decorated with peacock feathers, deer horns, and goat skins. Musical Instruments Used: Dappu, Tudumu, Pipri, and Kolikammu. Recognition: Kanaka Raju, a noted exponent, was awarded Padma Shri in 2021 for preserving and teaching the Gussadi dance.   Cultural Significance Represents tribal identity, valor, and unity. Associated with Dussehra celebrations and communal gatherings in Gond society. Helps transmit oral traditions, folklore, and spiritual beliefs. With reference to Gussadi Dance, consider the following statements: It is performed exclusively by women of the Raj Gond tribe. Instruments like Dappu and Pipri are used during the performance. Kanaka Raju, a Gussadi exponent, was awarded the Padma Shri in 2021. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a)1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 Incorrect – The dance is performed by men, not women. Statement 2 Correct – Instruments include Dappu, Tudumu, Pipri, and Kolikammu. Statement 3 Correct – Kanaka Raju received Padma Shri in 2021. India–Venezuela Pilot Projects Syllabus: GS2 / International Relations, GS3 / Economy Context: India and Venezuela have agreed to collaborate on pilot projects in priority sectors such as agriculture, pharmaceuticals, and digital public infrastructure.   Bilateral Cooperation Trade: Total Bilateral Trade: $1.8 billion Indian Exports: $216 million Indian Imports: $1.6 billion     Pharmaceuticals: Backbone of India’s exports to Venezuela. India supplies ~40% of Venezuela’s annual pharma requirement. $110 million worth of pharma products exported in 2024–25, including vaccines & essential medicines. Digital Cooperation: Exploring Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) models similar to India Stack. Agriculture: Proposed collaboration in technology transfer and food security.   About Venezuela Location: Northern end of South America. Boundaries: North – Caribbean Sea & Atlantic Ocean East – Guyana South – Brazil West – Colombia   Natural Resources: Orinoco Belt – Rich in heavy crude oil reserves (largest proven reserves globally). Lake Maracaibo – Largest lake in Latin America; one of the world’s oldest water bodies. Angel Falls – World’s highest uninterrupted waterfall, located in Canaima National Park.   Strategic Significance for India Ensures energy security via potential crude imports. Diversifies India’s Latin American partnerships (beyond Brazil & Mexico). Expands pharma & IT export markets amidst global slowdown. With reference to India–Venezuela relations, consider the following statements: Venezuela’s Orinoco Belt is known for being one of the world’s largest reserves of heavy crude oil. Lake Maracaibo, located in Venezuela, is the largest freshwater lake in Asia. India meets nearly 40% of Venezuela’s annual pharmaceutical needs. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a)1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 Correct – Orinoco Belt is a vast heavy crude oil reserve in Venezuela. Statement 2 Incorrect – Lake Maracaibo is in Venezuela (South America), not Asia. Statement 3 Correct – India supplies ~40% of Venezuela’s annual pharma demand. Ozone Hole Growth Syllabus: GS1 / Geography, GS3 / Environment Context: The ozone hole over Antarctica has expanded to 20 million sq km—larger than average but still within the decade’s normal range, according to NASA.   About Ozone Composition: Ozone (O₃) – molecule made of three oxygen atoms. Good Ozone (Stratosphere): 10–50 km above Earth; absorbs harmful UV radiation. Bad Ozone (Troposphere): Ground-level pollutant formed by reactions of vehicle/industrial emissions with sunlight; harmful to health and crops.     Ozone Hole Definition: Not a literal hole, but a region of severe ozone depletion over Antarctica during Southern Hemisphere spring (Aug–Oct). Discovery: First detected in 1985. Causes: Human-made chemicals – CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons), HCFCs, halons. Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs) aiding chemical reactions. Natural events – volcanic eruptions (e.g., Hunga Tonga 2023) intensifying depletion. Climate change strengthening the polar vortex. Impacts Increased UV radiation → skin cancer, cataracts, immune suppression. Marine ecosystems – shifting phytoplankton habitats. Crop yield losses due to UV stress.   Montreal Protocol (1987) Landmark global treaty to phase out Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS). Prevented ~0.5°C of global warming. Healing Timeline: Tropics – by 2040 Arctic – by 2045 Antarctica – by 2066   What More Needs to be Done? Strengthen global cooperation & compliance with Montreal Protocol. Monitor unreported emissions (e.g., illegal CFC-11 production). Integrate ozone protection with climate action since ODS are also greenhouse gases. With reference to ozone depletion, consider the following statements: The ozone hole is a permanent gap in the stratosphere above Antarctica. The Montreal Protocol (1987) is credited with phasing out ozone-depleting substances like CFCs. The ozone layer over Antarctica is projected to fully recover by around 2066. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a)1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 Incorrect – Ozone hole is not a permanent “gap” but a seasonal depletion. Statement 2 Correct – Montreal Protocol successfully phased out ODS. Statement 3 Correct – Recovery expected by 2066 in Antarctica. East African Crude Oil Pipeline (EACOP) Syllabus: GS2 / International Relations Context: The East African Crude Oil Pipeline (EACOP) project is facing strong opposition from environmental activists.   About the Project Length: 1,443 km long oil pipeline. Route: Connects Uganda’s Lake Albert oilfields to the port of Tanga, Tanzania, for global export.     Stakeholders: Uganda & Tanzania governments TotalEnergies (France) China National Offshore Oil Corporation (CNOOC)   Criticisms Environmental Risks: Passes through 44 protected areas and 7 biodiversity zones, threatening wildlife. Habitat fragmentation → poaching, logging, encroachment.   Climate Concerns:

karthik September 18, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 18 september 2025 – Tone Academy

Sarnath Syllabus: GS1 / Ancient History Context: India officially nominated Sarnath for the UNESCO World Heritage List for the 2025–26 cycle.   About Sarnath Location: Near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Buddhist Significance: One of the four major Buddhist pilgrimage sites (others: Lumbini, Bodh Gaya, Kushinagar). Event: Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon (“Dhammachakrapravartana” – Turning of the Wheel of Dharma) here around 528 BCE. Institutional Impact: Marked the beginning of the Buddhist Sangha (monastic order).   Key Monuments & Structures Dhamek Stupa: Built by Ashoka, commemorates Buddha’s first sermon. Chaukhandi Stupa: Spot where Buddha met his first disciples. Ashokan Pillar: Lion Capital of Ashoka (adopted as India’s National Emblem in 1950). Ruins: Monasteries, sculptures, viharas, and edicts promoting Dharma.   Ashoka’s Contribution Visited Sarnath in 3rd century BCE. Built stupas, monasteries, and inscribed edicts. Implications of UNESCO Nomination Boosts cultural diplomacy and soft power. Enhances tourism and heritage conservation. Reflects India’s commitment to safeguarding Buddhist legacy. With reference to Sarnath, consider the following statements: The Lion Capital of Ashoka from Sarnath was adopted as India’s National Emblem in 1950. Sarnath is one of the four Buddhist pilgrimage sites, along with Bodh Gaya, Lumbini, and Rajgir. The event of “Dhammachakrapravartana” at Sarnath marked the beginning of the Buddhist Sangha. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 Correct – Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath became India’s National Emblem in 1950. Statement 2 Incorrect – The four major pilgrimage sites are Lumbini, Bodh Gaya, Sarnath, Kushinagar (not Rajgir). Statement 3 Correct – First sermon led to the formation of the Buddhist Sangha. Chhath Mahaparva Syllabus: GS1 / Culture Context: India is exploring a multinational nomination of ‘Chhath’ for inscription in UNESCO’s Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.   About Chhath Mahaparva Deity: Dedicated to Sun God (Surya) and Goddess Chhathi Maiya. Regions: Bihar, Jharkhand, UP, West Bengal; diaspora communities in Mauritius, Fiji, Suriname, UAE, Netherlands. Duration: Four-day festival. Ethos: Ecological, egalitarian, sustainable, inclusive, and community-oriented. UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) India already has 15 elements inscribed (e.g., Yoga, Kumbh Mela, Durga Puja). Nodal Agency: Sangeet Natak Akademi. Requires submission of nomination dossier under the 2003 UNESCO Convention.   Do You Know? ICH Definition: Practices, expressions, knowledge, and skills that form intangible aspects of culture (songs, drama, rituals, crafts). Implications Boosts soft power diplomacy via cultural heritage. Global recognition for diaspora identity. Promotes cultural tourism & ecological ethos. With reference to Chhath Mahaparva, consider the following statements: It is primarily dedicated to the Sun God and Goddess Chhathi Maiya. It is celebrated across Bihar, Jharkhand, UP, West Bengal, and diaspora communities abroad. Chhath is already inscribed in UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural Heritage List. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only Explanation: Statement 1  Correct – Sun God and Chhathi Maiya are worshipped. Statement 2  Correct – Widely celebrated in India + diaspora. Statement 3  Incorrect – India is exploring multinational nomination, not yet inscribed. Moran Community Syllabus: GS2 / Governance Context: The Moran community in Assam launched an indefinite economic blockade demanding Scheduled Tribe (ST) status.     About the Moran Community Origin: Aboriginal tribe of Assam, historically living in the southeastern Brahmaputra valley. Political History: Once ruled parts of Assam through chiefdoms, including Matak country under chiefs like Bodousa. Religious Transformation: In the 17th century, Sri Aniruddhadeva, a disciple of Srimanta Sankardeva, converted Morans to Vaishnavism, leading to the rise of the Moamoria sect. Moamoria Rebellion (1769–1799): Anti-Ahom uprising rooted in low-caste identity + reformist religious movement, severely weakened Ahom rule. Current Status: Not included in the Scheduled Tribes list, though other Assamese communities (like the Tea Tribes, Bodos, Mishings) are recognized.   Significance of ST Demand Legal: Inclusion requires Constitutional amendment under Article 342. Social: Recognition would ensure affirmative action benefits (education, jobs, political reservations). Political: Adds to Assam’s complex ethnic politics and ST categorization debates. With reference to the Moran community of Assam, consider the following statements: They were historically associated with the Moamoria rebellion against the Ahom rulers. The community is already recognized as a Scheduled Tribe under Article 342. Their religious transformation was influenced by disciples of Srimanta Sankardeva. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 Correct – Moran community played a major role in the Moamoria rebellion. Statement 2 Incorrect – They are demanding ST status, not yet granted. Statement 3 Correct – Converted to Vaishnavism under Sri Aniruddhadeva, a disciple of Sankardeva PM Vishwakarma Scheme Syllabus: GS2 / Governance Context: On 17 September 2025, the PM Vishwakarma Scheme completed two years since its launch.   About the Scheme Type: Central Sector Scheme (100% funded by Union Government). Target Group: Traditional artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. Coverage: 18 trades (e.g., carpenter, blacksmith, potter, sculptor, tailor, cobbler, etc.).     Key Benefits Recognition: PM Vishwakarma Certificate + ID Card. Skill Upgradation: Basic Training: 5–7 days. Advanced Training: 15+ days. Stipend: ₹500/day during training.   Credit Support: Collateral-free loans up to ₹3 lakh in two tranches: ₹1 lakh (18 months tenure). ₹2 lakh (30 months tenure). Concessional interest rate: 5% (8% subvention by GoI). Marketing Support: Branding, quality certification, GeM onboarding, e-commerce promotion, advertising & market linkages.   Significance Supports Aatmanirbhar Bharat by reviving traditional occupations. Ensures social security + income diversification for artisan families. Strengthens local to global value chains by linking artisans to modern markets. With reference to the PM Vishwakarma Scheme, consider the following statements: It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme jointly funded by the Union and States. It provides collateral-free loans up to ₹3 lakh with interest capped at 5%. Only artisans in 12

karthik September 18, 2025 No Comments

Current Affairs 17 september 2025 – Tone Academy

Krishi Vigyan Kendra, Features, Objectives, Importance Syllabus:Agriculture     Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) are district-level agricultural extension centres established in 1974 under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). They act as a crucial link between agricultural research institutions and farming communities, ensuring that scientific innovations are adapted into field-level practices. With over 700 KVKs across India, they play a central role in improving productivity, food security, and rural livelihoods.   Key Features of KVKs Function as Farm Science Centres, addressing district-specific challenges. Conduct on-farm testing (OFT) and frontline demonstrations (FLD) for new technologies and crop varieties. Provide training and capacity-building for farmers, women, rural youth, and extension workers. Act as resource hubs with soil/water testing labs, seed units, and mechanization guidance. Promote sustainable practices: organic farming, integrated pest management, climate-resilient techniques. Support entrepreneurship & value addition in agriculture, enhancing rural incomes.   Objectives Technology Transfer: Adapt and demonstrate agricultural innovations to local conditions. Skill Development: Train farmers and rural youth in modern practices and agri-entrepreneurship. Advisory Services: Real-time solutions on soil health, pest management, irrigation, and climate adaptation. Diversification: Encourage allied activities—dairy, fisheries, horticulture, and agroforestry. Sustainability: Balance productivity with ecological conservation.   Importance Bridge the research–farmer gap, ensuring innovations reach the grassroots. Empower farmers with scientific knowledge and practical training. Enhance food security and climate resilience through integrated farming systems. Encourage entrepreneurship and rural employment, reducing poverty. Strengthen local participation and inclusive rural development.   Challenges Resource Constraints: Limited funding, outdated infrastructure, insufficient modern equipment. Human Resource Gaps: Shortage of trained experts in digital agriculture, precision farming, and climate-smart practices. Weak Extension Linkages: Poor coordination with agricultural universities and state departments. Awareness Gaps: Small and marginal farmers often lack access or information. Monitoring Issues: Limited evaluation of long-term impact of KVK programs. Connectivity Barriers: Remote and tribal areas remain underserved.   Way Forward Enhance funding & infrastructure Build digital platforms for wider outreach and advisory services. Strengthen research–extension–farmer linkages. Expand training in emerging areas: AI in agriculture, drones, precision farming. Implement robust monitoring and impact assessment   Conclusion: KVKs are the cornerstone of India’s agricultural extension system. By empowering farmers with innovation, skills, and sustainable practices, they are essential to achieving food security, rural empowerment, and Viksit Bharat 2047. With reference to Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs), consider the following statements: KVKs were first established based on the recommendations of the National Commission on Agriculture (1971). Each KVK is mandated to demonstrate agricultural technologies on farmers’ fields under actual farming situations. KVKs function under the administrative control of State Agricultural Universities (SAUs) only. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: a) 1 and 2 onlyExplanation: KVKs were established in 1974 under ICAR, following the NCA (1971). Demonstrations and on-farm testing are their core mandate. However, KVKs may be hosted by SAUs, ICAR institutes, NGOs, or Krishi Bhavans—not only SAUs. Blood Groups, Types, Components, Disease Links, Importance Syllabus:Science   Blood groups are fundamental biological classifications based on the presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells (RBCs). These groups, chiefly the ABO system combined with the Rh factor, play a pivotal role in transfusion medicine, maternal-fetal health, and organ transplantation. Correct identification of blood type is vital to prevent immune reactions that may otherwise prove life-threatening.   Blood Groups Overview ABO System: Classifies individuals as A, B, AB, or O depending on the antigens present on RBCs. Rh Factor: Presence (+) or absence (−) of the D antigen further divides each group into positive or negative categories, creating eight major blood types (A+, A−, B+, B−, AB+, AB−, O+, O−). Compatibility rules: O−: Universal donor. AB+: Universal recipient. These rules guide safe transfusions, organ transplantation, and emergency care.   Components of Blood Grouping Antigens (on RBC surface) A Antigen → Group A B Antigen → Group B Both A & B → Group AB None → Group O Rh Antigen (D) → Decides Rh+ / Rh− Antibodies (in plasma) Anti-A in Groups B and O Anti-B in Groups A and O None in Group AB Plasma: Fluid carrying antibodies, nutrients, hormones, and waste. Red Blood Cells: Oxygen carriers; their antigenic profile defines compatibility.   ABO System in Brief Blood Group Antigens on RBCs Antibodies in Plasma Special Note A A Anti-B — B B Anti-A — AB A and B None Universal recipient O None Anti-A & Anti-B Universal donor   Disease Associations with Blood Groups Cardiovascular Diseases: Higher risk in B and AB groups due to clotting/inflammation markers. Thrombosis: Groups A, B, AB → more prone due to elevated Factor VIII. Malaria: Group O provides resistance; Group A increases vulnerability. Gastric & Peptic Ulcers: Group O → higher risk of ulcers (H. pylori link); Group A → linked to gastric cancer. Cancer: Group A → higher risk of pancreatic and gastric cancers. Autoimmune Disorders: AB group shows slightly increased susceptibility. Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN): Occurs when Rh− mother carries Rh+ fetus; now preventable with anti-D injections.   Recently Identified Rare Blood Group Systems Beyond the ABO and Rh systems, research has revealed additional rare blood groups critical in advanced transfusion medicine: Langereis (Lan): Extremely rare, Lan-negative individuals need special donors. Junior (Jr): Found in specific ethnic populations. Vel: Vel-negative individuals face severe transfusion reactions. Er System (discovered 2022): Involves five antigens (Er1–Er5), linked to PIEZO1 protein. FORS: Characterized by Forssman antigen (FORS1), rare and geographically limited.   Significance of Blood Groups Medical Safety: Ensures compatible transfusions and reduces reaction risks. Maternal-Fetal Health: Prevents Rh incompatibility complications. Personalized Medicine: Guides treatments based on antigen-antibody profiles. Rare Blood Banking: Supports patients needing uncommon transfusions. Genetic & Evolutionary Insights: Reveals links between blood type, disease resistance, and human diversity.    In Summary: Blood groups are not just transfusion markers but windows into human health, disease susceptibility, and evolutionary biology. While ABO and Rh remain the cornerstone of clinical practice, rare blood groups like Lan, Vel, and