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UN World Water Development Report 2025 – Mountains and Glaciers Syllabus: GS 3/Environment, Conservation   Key Findings Accelerated Glacier Melt: Glaciers are melting at an unprecedented rate, with significant mass loss in recent years. Over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice have been lost since 1975—equivalent to an ice block the size of Germany. Impurities like black carbon from wildfires and dust storms are intensifying the melting process by absorbing more solar radiation.   Permafrost Thawing: Rising temperatures are causing permafrost to melt, releasing organic carbon into the atmosphere and worsening climate change. Destabilized slopes increase the risk of landslides and other natural disasters.   Decline in Snow Cover: Snow cover in mountain regions has decreased, particularly during spring and summer. Between 1979 and 2022, there has been a 79% global decline in snow cover.   Impacts & Concerns Erratic Water Flow & Flooding Risks: Increased risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs)—responsible for over 12,000 deaths in the past 200 years. Sea Level Rise Contribution: Glacier melt accounts for 25-30% of global sea level rise, threatening millions worldwide.   Way Forward & Recommendations Mountains as Water Towers: Covering 33 million sq km, mountain regions sustain nearly 2 billion people by providing freshwater. Policy & Awareness: Urgent need for resource mobilization and strong policy frameworks to mitigate climate impacts. Increased awareness and proactive action required to protect mountain ecosystems and downstream communities. With reference to the United Nations World Water Development Report 2025, consider the following statements: The report states that glaciers have lost over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice since 1950. Black carbon from wildfires and dust storms can accelerate glacier melting by increasing solar radiation absorption. The report highlights that permafrost thawing is reducing atmospheric carbon levels, thereby mitigating climate change. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3  Answer: (b) 2 only  Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The report highlights that glaciers have lost over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice since 1975, not 1950. Statement 2 is correct: Black carbon and dust can accelerate glacier melting by increasing the absorption of solar radiation. Statement 3 is incorrect: Permafrost thawing releases organic carbon into the atmosphere, exacerbating climate change rather than mitigating it. Shaheed Diwas Syllabus: GS1/History   Context: On March 23, the nation pays tribute to Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev on Shaheed Diwas, commemorating their execution in 1931. Their sacrifice remains a powerful symbol of India’s freedom struggle.   Background: In 1928, the British government sent the Simon Commission, an all-British panel, to India to discuss constitutional reforms. This led to widespread protests as it excluded Indian representation. Lala Lajpat Rai led a protest in Lahore, where police, under Superintendent James A. Scott, brutally lathi-charged the demonstrators. Lajpat Rai succumbed to his injuries on November 17, 1928. To avenge his death, Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev targeted James Scott but mistakenly killed British officer John Saunders Arrested, tried, and sentenced to death, they became martyrs for India’s independence movement. Their execution inspired countless revolutionaries to continue the struggle for freedom.   Revolutionary Legacy: Bhagat Singh (1907–1931), Sukhdev (1907–1931), and Rajguru (1908–1931) were key members of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), a revolutionary group committed to armed resistance against British rule. Bhagat Singh was deeply influenced by Marxist and anarchist ideologies, drawing inspiration from Karl Marx, Vladimir Lenin, and Leon Trotsky. He is also remembered for the 1929 bombing of the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi, aimed at protesting against oppressive laws, without intending to cause harm. Shaheed Diwas serves as a reminder of their unwavering courage, patriotism, and ultimate sacrifice in the fight for India’s independence. Consider the following statements regarding the Simon Commission and its impact on the Indian freedom struggle: The Simon Commission was sent by the British government in 1927 to assess the need for constitutional reforms in India. The commission did not include any Indian members, leading to widespread protests across the country. Lala Lajpat Rai was fatally injured during a protest against the Simon Commission in Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: a) 1 and 2 onlyExplanation: The Simon Commission was sent in 1928, not 1927. The absence of Indian representation led to widespread protests. Lala Lajpat Rai was injured in a protest in Lahore, not Kolkata. Tavasya Syllabus: GS3/Defence   Overview Tavasya, the second frigate under Project 1135.6 Additional Follow-on Ships, was launched by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL). This follows the launch of Triput in 2024, with both frigates expected to be delivered to the Indian Navy by 2026 and 2027.                                     Background In 2016, India and Russia signed an agreement for four additional Krivak-class stealth frigates. Two were imported from Russia, while two were built in India under technology transfer. Tavasya is the second of the two indigenously built follow-on Krivak-class frigates.   Key Features Symbolism: Named after Bhima’s mace, representing naval strength. Multi-Role Capability: Designed for surface, sub-surface, and air combat operations. Specifications: Length: 124.8 meters Width: 15.2 meters Draught: 4.5 meters Displacement: ~3,600 tonnes Speed: Maximum 28 knots   Indigenous Contributions Triput and Tavasya incorporate indigenous equipment, weapons, and sensors, enhancing India’s naval self-reliance. Tavasya marks a significant milestone, likely signaling the end of license-built warships as India advances toward self-designed and self-constructed naval vessels. With reference to India’s Project 1135.6, consider the following statements: The project involves the construction of four additional Krivak-class frigates, two of which were built in India under a technology transfer agreement. The Krivak-class frigates are primarily designed for amphibious assault operations. Tavasya is the first of the two follow-on stealth frigates built by Goa Shipyard Limited under this project. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3

Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act, 2005 Syllabus: GS2/Governance   Context   Over 30 civil society organizations have urged the Union government to safeguard the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, amid concerns about potential restrictions imposed by the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023.   Concerns Raised Activists caution against fully implementing amendments that may weaken the RTI Act under the DPDP Act. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act now broadly prohibits disclosing personal information, even when it serves the public interest. The government justifies the change by citing the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) case, which recognized privacy as a fundamental right.   Challenges Posed by the Amendment Restricting access to information may hinder social audits and make it difficult to uncover corruption or misuse of public funds. RTI requests have been instrumental in verifying government programs, such as food ration distribution and welfare schemes. Activists argue that the original RTI framework already balanced privacy with transparency, rejecting claims that the changes align with the Supreme Court’s privacy ruling. Right to Information Act, 2005   Objectives and Scope Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in governance by granting citizens the right to access information from public authorities. Applicable to government departments, ministries, and organizations substantially funded by the government.   Key Provisions Information Access: Citizens can request government records, documents, and other relevant data. Exemptions: Information related to national security, confidentiality, and ongoing investigations is excluded. Response Time: Public authorities must respond within 30 days, extendable to 45 days in specific cases. Penalties: Officials withholding information without valid reasons or providing false details may face penalties.   Significance of the RTI Act Empowering Citizens: Enables individuals to seek information, ensuring government transparency and accountability. Preventing Corruption: RTI has exposed fund mismanagement in schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS). Promoting Good Governance: Enhances trust in government by fostering openness in decision-making. Facilitating Social Audits: NGOs and activists use RTI to verify government service delivery, such as the Public Distribution System (PDS). Ensuring Public Access to Records: RTI requests help uncover inefficiencies and corruption in government contracts. Strengthening Democracy: Encourages citizen participation in governance and policymaking.   Criticism and Challenges Administrative Burden: High volumes of RTI requests strain public authorities, diverting resources from primary duties. Misuse of RTI: Some requests are used for harassment or personal/political agendas. Delays in Processing: Authorities struggle to meet response deadlines, leading to frustration among applicants. Lack of Training and Infrastructure: Many government offices lack the expertise and resources for effective RTI implementation. Ambiguity in Exemptions: Vaguely defined exemptions create loopholes for withholding crucial public information.   Way Forward Parliament should define “personal information” and “public interest” more precisely. Personal data disclosure should be permitted when it serves a greater public good, such as exposing corruption or verifying the misuse of funds. Any amendments to the RTI Act should involve consultations with multiple stakeholders, including RTI activists, legal experts, and data protection specialists. The government must balance privacy rights with the need for transparency to ensure democratic accountability. The RTI Act remains a cornerstone of democracy, empowering citizens and ensuring government accountability. Its preservation is crucial for upholding transparency, reducing corruption, and promoting good governance. With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements: The RTI Act applies only to government departments and ministries but not to organizations that receive substantial government funding. The Act allows disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest. The government can reject an RTI request if the information sought affects national security or ongoing criminal investigations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only   Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The RTI Act not only applies to government departments and ministries but also covers organizations that receive substantial funding from the government (such as NGOs and public-private partnerships). Statement 2 is correct: The RTI Act permits disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest, but the recent amendment under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023 has created hurdles in this regard. Statement 3 is correct: The Act exempts disclosure of information that affects national security, foreign relations, or ongoing investigations under Section 8(1). Fast Track Special Courts Syllabus: GS2/ Polity, Judiciary  Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) have emerged as a critical judicial mechanism for expediting trials related to sexual crimes, ensuring justice for survivors in a time-bound manner. With an impressive disposal rate of 28%, these courts have significantly reduced legal delays in cases under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, and rape cases.   What are Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs)? Definition: FTSCs are dedicated courts established in India to accelerate the judicial process for heinous crimes, particularly rape and child sexual abuse cases.   Establishment: Initiated in 2019 under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law & Justice.   Funding Pattern: 60:40 (Centre:States) for most states and Union Territories (UTs) with a legislature. 90:10 for Northeastern and Hilly States/UTs to ensure equitable judicial access.   Operational Target: The scheme envisions the establishment of 790 FTSCs, including specialized e-POCSO courts. Each FTSC is expected to handle 41-42 cases per quarter, ensuring the disposal of at least 165 cases annually to reduce case backlog effectively.   Rationale for FTSCs The Supreme Court of India (2019) mandated speedy disposal of POCSO cases, emphasizing that both the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) and POCSO Act, 2012, prescribe strict timelines for investigation and trial. Judicial Backlog: Overburdened courts and limited judicial resources often result in prolonged trials, delaying justice and weakening deterrence against sexual crimes. FTSCs play a crucial role in reinforcing public confidence in the judicial system by ensuring swift and effective justice.   Key Recommendations by the Indian Institute

Project Pari Syllabus: GS 1/Culture   Public Art of India (PARI) Project The PARI project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Culture to promote and enrich India’s public art landscape. It is implemented by the Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA). The project showcases the country’s diverse regional art forms, including Phad, Thangka, Gond, and Warli, featuring the work of over 200 artists. Currently, the PARI project is operational only in Delhi, where it aims to foster public engagement through artistic expression. It encourages dialogue and reflection by integrating India’s rich cultural heritage with contemporary themes. As part of the government’s broader efforts, the initiative provides incentives to talented artists, ensuring the preservation and promotion of India’s artistic traditions in modern public spaces. With reference to the “Public Art of India (PARI) Project”, consider the following statements: The project is implemented by the Ministry of Culture in collaboration with private institutions. It primarily focuses on integrating India’s ancient art traditions with modern artistic expressions. As of now, the project has been implemented in multiple cities across India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 2 and 3 only Answer: (b) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The project is implemented by the Ministry of Culture but executed through Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), not private institutions. Statement 2 is correct: PARI aims to blend India’s rich cultural heritage with contemporary themes, making it a fusion of traditional and modern art. Statement 3 is incorrect: Currently, the project is limited to Delhi and has not yet been expanded to other cities. Swadesh Darshan Scheme Syllabus: GS2/Governance, Schemes   Context The Public Accounts Committee (PAC), chaired by C. Venugopal, has raised concerns over the poor execution of the Swadesh Darshan scheme by the Ministry of Tourism. The observations were based on a report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Despite the Ministry’s claims that most sanctioned projects were completed, the PAC identified significant discrepancies in project implementation. Swadesh Darshan Scheme Launched: 2014-15, as a flagship scheme under the Ministry of Tourism. Revamped: As Swadesh Darshan 2.0, with a focus on sustainable and responsible tourism, adopting a tourist-centric approach. Theme-Based Tourist Circuits: Spiritual Circuits (e.g., Char Dham Yatra, Buddhist Circuit) Cultural Circuits (e.g., North East Circuit, Tribal Circuit) Heritage Circuits Wildlife Circuits Coastal Circuits Funding: The Ministry of Tourism provides financial support to States and Union Territories for circuit development. Key Issues Identified by PAC Lapses in Planning: No feasibility studies were conducted before launching projects. Financial Mismanagement: Budget overruns due to inadequate planning. Approvals granted without Detailed Project Reports (DPRs). Weak Monitoring: No structured mechanism for project evaluation. Delays and incomplete projects despite claims of completion. Discrepancy in Completion Claims: The Ministry claimed 75 out of 76 projects were completed. However, PAC found that key projects like the Kanwaria Route in Bihar, Tribal Circuit in Telangana, and Sree Narayana Guru Ashram in Kerala were either incomplete or non-functional. Recommendations & Way Forward The Ministry of Tourism has been directed to physically inspect all projects and submit a detailed report within three weeks. The Ministry must provide data on: The scheme’s impact on employment generation. Changes in tourist footfall, as key indicators of the scheme’s success. About the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) Constitutional Status Not a constitutional body. Formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Composition 22 Members: 15 from Lok Sabha 7 from Rajya Sabha Elected annually by Parliament. Chairperson: Appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, typically from the opposition party. Functions Examines audit reports submitted by the CAG of India. Scrutinizes public expenditure to prevent extravagance and irregularities. Ensures accountability of the Executive to the Legislature. Works alongside CAG to uphold fiscal discipline and transparency. With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements: It is a constitutional body established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. The Chairperson of the PAC is always from the ruling party. PAC is responsible for examining the reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. The PAC can take suo-motu cognizance of financial irregularities and initiate investigations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 4 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 4 only Answer: (b) 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: PAC is not a constitutional body; it is formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chairperson is usually from the opposition party, not the ruling party. Statement 3 is correct: The PAC examines audit reports of CAG and scrutinizes public expenditure. Statement 4 is incorrect: PAC cannot take suo-motu cognizance; it works based on reports submitted by the CAG. Corbett Tiger Reserve Syllabus: Environment Recent Developments The Supreme Court recently criticized the Uttarakhand government for its slow action against senior officials accused of illegal constructions within the Corbett Tiger Reserve. About Corbett Tiger Reserve Location: Situated in the foothills of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand. Establishment: Established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, making it India’s first national park. Renamed Corbett National Park in 1957 to honor Jim Corbett, a renowned conservationist and naturalist. Area: Initially designated as a national park, later expanded to cover 1,288.31 sq. km as a Tiger Reserve. Topography: Characterized by an undulating terrain with multiple valleys. Major rivers: Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi. Predominantly located in the Bhabar and lower Shivalik regions, featuring porous soil, boulder deposits, and a deep water table. Flora Dominated by Sal forests, along with Sheesham and Kanju trees, particularly along ridges. Grasslands (locally called ‘Chaur’) are remnants of abandoned settlements and clearings. Riparian vegetation thrives along riverbanks. Invasive species: Lantana, an aggressive weed, poses a significant ecological challenge. Fauna Flagship species: Tigers and elephants. Other carnivores: Leopards, small carnivores. Herbivores: Sambar,

World Puppetry Day About World Puppetry Day World Puppetry Day is observed annually on March 21st to celebrate puppetry as a global art form and to honor puppeteers worldwide. This day highlights the significance of puppetry in cultural storytelling, entertainment, and artistic expression across various mediums, including stage, television, and film.   Understanding Puppetry Puppetry is an ancient performing art that involves crafting and manipulating puppets—figures representing humans, animals, or abstract forms—without mechanical aid. Puppets are controlled manually to create theatrical performances that engage audiences through storytelling and social commentary.   Puppetry in India India has a rich tradition of puppetry, deeply rooted in folklore, mythology, and artistic expression. The art has been used for centuries to narrate historical epics, moral tales, and social issues.            Major Types of Puppetry in India String Puppets (Kathputli): Predominantly found in Rajasthan and Gujarat, these puppets are manipulated using strings and often depict folk tales and traditional narratives. Shadow Puppets: Crafted from leather, these puppets are used to cast shadows on a screen. This form is especially popular in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. Rod Puppets: Controlled with rods, these puppets are commonly used in West Bengal and Assam, often portraying mythological stories. Glove Puppets: Worn on the puppeteer’s hands, these puppets are particularly known in Kerala (Pavakathakali), blending elements of classical dance with puppetry. The celebration of World Puppetry Day emphasizes the cultural importance of puppetry and encourages the preservation and promotion of this unique art form. With reference to puppetry in India, consider the following statements: The Kathputli form of puppetry, primarily found in Rajasthan, is a type of rod puppetry. Shadow puppetry is practiced in states such as Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh. Pavakathakali, a type of glove puppetry, is influenced by Kathakali dance traditions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Kathputli is not rod puppetry but a string puppetry form, primarily found in Rajasthan and Gujarat. (Statement 1 is incorrect.) Shadow puppetry is a traditional art form seen in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh, where leather puppets cast shadows on a screen. (Statement 2 is correct.) Pavakathakali, a glove puppet tradition from Kerala, is inspired by Kathakali dance, incorporating similar costume styles and expressions. (Statement 3 is correct.) APAAR ID Syllabus: GS2/ Education APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry) ID is a unique 12-digit identifier designed to digitally store, manage, and access a student’s academic records, including scorecards, mark sheets, grade sheets, degrees, diplomas, certificates, and co-curricular achievements. This initiative is part of the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ program introduced by the Ministry of Education, aligning with the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The APAAR ID is generated through the Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) portal, which maintains a database of schools, teachers, and students, along with regional academic statistics. Concerns Raised Despite being voluntary, activists and parents have expressed concerns over the rapid push by schools to create APAAR IDs for students, raising questions about privacy, data security, and informed consent. With reference to the APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry) ID, consider the following statements: APAAR ID is a 12-digit unique academic identifier launched under the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative. It is mandatory for all students enrolled in government and private educational institutions. The ID is generated through the Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) It aligns with the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: (B) 1, 3, and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The APAAR ID is a 12-digit unique identifier for students. Statement 2 is incorrect: While some schools are actively pushing for APAAR ID registration, it remains voluntary and not mandatory. Statement 3 is correct: The ID is generated through the UDISE+ portal, which compiles educational data. Statement 4 is correct: APAAR aligns with the NEP 2020, aiming to digitize academic records and improve student mobility. Implementation of Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission Syllabus: GS 3/Economy The Union Cabinet has approved the Revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) with an additional allocation of ₹1,000 crore, increasing the total budget to ₹3,400 crore for the period 2021-2026 under the 15th Finance Commission. Launched in December 2014, RGM aims to conserve and develop indigenous bovine breeds. It is implemented by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, focusing on genetic upgradation, enhancement of milk production and productivity, and improving the profitability of dairy farming for farmers.   The scheme includes several key components. The Nationwide Artificial Insemination Program seeks to boost milk productivity, while Progeny Testing and Pedigree Selection focus on producing high-genetic-merit bulls, particularly of indigenous breeds. The implementation of In-Vitro Fertilization (IVF) technology plays a crucial role in genetic upgradation within a single generation. Sex-Sorted Semen Production has been established at five government semen stations in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh. Additionally, the Multi-purpose Artificial Insemination Technicians in Rural India (MAITRIs) initiative trains and equips technicians to deliver quality artificial insemination services directly to farmers. The revised mission will now function as a Central Sector component under the Development Programmes scheme. Two new initiatives have been introduced: a 35% capital assistance provision for setting up Heifer Rearing Centres and a 3% interest subvention on loans for purchasing High-Genetic-Merit (HGM) IVF heifers. The core activities of strengthening artificial insemination networks, supporting breed improvement programs, and establishing Centres of Excellence will continue. The mission has significantly contributed to India’s dairy sector. Over the past decade, milk production has increased by 63.55%, with per capita milk availability rising from 307 grams/day in 2013-14 to 471 grams/day in 2023-24. The Nationwide Artificial Insemination Programme has covered over 8.39 crore animals, benefiting 5.21 crore farmers.