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6 june 2025 Current Affairs

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karthik June 6, 2025 No Comments

6 june 2025 Current Affairs

Socotra Island Syllabus :Geography Ecological Importance: Socotra Island, located about 340 km southeast of Yemen in the Indian Ocean, is often called the Galápagos of the Indian Ocean due to its unique biodiversity. A UNESCO World Heritage Site since 2008, it hosts over 37% endemic plant species, including the iconic Dragon’s Blood tree and frankincense.     Geography and Environment: Spanning 3,796 sq km, the island features coastal plains, a limestone plateau, and the Hagghier Mountains. Its semi-desert climate and strong monsoonal winds have helped preserve its distinct ecosystem.   Political and Strategic Context: Socotra is officially part of Yemen but is heavily influenced by UAE-backed forces and the Southern Transitional Council. The UAE maintains a military presence, citing humanitarian and security roles.   Local Economy: The island’s economy is based on fishing, pearl diving, livestock herding, and small-scale farming. However, isolation and limited resources pose economic challenges.   Health Emergency: Socotra faces a severe health crisis, especially among women and children. Global Acute Malnutrition (GAM) affects 10.9% of children under five, with 1.6% suffering from Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM).   Humanitarian Response: A joint two-year programme by the UAE and WHO aims to reduce maternal and child mortality due to malnutrition. It includes: Strengthening healthcare infrastructure Training local medical staff Enhancing access to essential medications Improving emergency preparedness and disease surveillance   Sustainable Goals: Community awareness campaigns and upgraded health systems are key components. The initiative supports long-term resilience and improved health security for Socotra and contributes to broader healthcare development across Yemen. Consider the following statements regarding Socotra Island: It lies closer to the Horn of Africa than to the Arabian Peninsula. Its designation as a UNESCO World Heritage Site was primarily based on its cultural significance. The island’s endemic biodiversity is attributed in part to historical isolation caused by strong monsoonal winds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer:B Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect – Socotra’s UNESCO status is based on ecological (not cultural) significance. Geographical Location: Socotra Island is situated approximately 340 km southeast of Yemen, and geographically, it is closer to the Horn of Africa, particularly Somalia, than it is to the Arabian Peninsula. The island lies in the northwestern Indian Ocean, making its position strategically and ecologically significant. Bar Council of India Decision to Allow Foreign Lawyers Syllabus: Polity Chief Justice of India (CJI) B.R. Gavai lauded the Bar Council of India (BCI) for amending its 2022 rules to permit foreign lawyers and law firms to practice in India in a limited capacity, particularly in areas of international law and arbitration. The revised rules allow foreign legal professionals to practice foreign and international law and to participate in arbitration proceedings held in India. However, they are explicitly prohibited from appearing before Indian courts, tribunals, or practicing Indian law. This reform is driven by the need to enhance arbitration standards as India positions itself as a global arbitration destination—highlighted by its 5th rank globally in arbitration case volume, according to the ICC Report 2024. It also facilitates the globalization of legal services, enabling reciprocal market access for Indian lawyers abroad.     Furthermore, the inclusion of foreign firms is expected to strengthen India’s growing institutional arbitration ecosystem—such as the MCIA in Mumbai, DIAC in Delhi, and IIAC in New Delhi—through increased credibility and caseloads. The reform addresses talent shortages in niche legal areas like climate litigation, technology law, and cross-border commercial arbitration by allowing international collaboration and knowledge transfer. Nevertheless, its implementation faces significant challenges. Domestic protectionism raises concerns among Indian legal professionals over potential job displacement in elite advisory sectors. Reciprocity and regulatory complexities arise due to restrictive legal entry rules in many foreign jurisdictions, potentially hindering mutual legal access. Moreover, foreign firms’ access to greater capital and a global clientele might create unequal competition, putting Indian law firms at a disadvantage. Effective oversight is essential to ensure foreign lawyers operate strictly within non-litigious boundaries. Despite these concerns, the reform holds considerable significance. It supports India’s ambition to become a global arbitration hub, especially in sectors like infrastructure and international trade. The policy also promotes bilateral legal engagement, as demonstrated at the Indo-UK Arbitration Conference, and acts as a catalyst for legal modernization by exposing Indian practitioners to global standards and technologies. Importantly, the amendment upholds the Advocates Act, 1961, by preserving the prohibition on foreign lawyers practicing Indian law, thereby safeguarding national legal sovereignty. Additionally, under reciprocity provisions, Indian advocates may now register to practice foreign law abroad without surrendering their right to practice in India. In conclusion, the Bar Council’s measured liberalization of foreign legal practice reflects a progressive shift in India’s legal framework. With adequate regulatory vigilance, clarity of rules, and international cooperation, this initiative could significantly elevate India’s global standing in legal consultancy and arbitration. With reference to the Bar Council of India’s (BCI) regulatory reforms allowing foreign legal professionals in India, consider the following statements: The amended BCI rules permit foreign law firms to appear before Indian courts and tribunals in matters pertaining to international commercial disputes. Under the revised framework, foreign legal practitioners may advise on international law and participate in arbitration proceedings seated in India, without the requirement of reciprocity from their home jurisdictions. The reform aims to enhance India’s position as a global arbitration hub while explicitly preserving the sanctity of the Advocates Act, 1961. Indian advocates may now register to practice foreign law abroad, provided they renounce their right to practice in Indian courts under the principle of exclusive domestic jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 2, 3 and 4 only Answer: C. 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: The revised BCI rules do not permit foreign firms to appear before Indian courts or tribunals. Their scope is limited strictly to non-litigious matters such as advising on foreign/international law and arbitration.

karthik June 5, 2025 No Comments

5 june 2025 Current Affairs

India elected to Economic, Social Council of United Nations for 2 years beginning 2026 Syllabus:Environment India has been elected to the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) for the term 2026–2028. ECOSOC is a principal UN body responsible for promoting sustainable development across its three key pillars: economic, social, and environmental. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar expressed gratitude to UN member states for their strong support and trust in India. In a social media message, he reaffirmed India’s commitment to advancing development priorities and strengthening the role of ECOSOC. As a vital organ of the UN, ECOSOC plays a central role in formulating and recommending global policies on economic and social matters. India’s election to the ECOSOC for the 2026–2028 term signifies which of the following? Recognition of India’s leadership in sustainable development. Automatic assumption of veto power within the Council. A rotational tenure granted only to permanent Security Council members. India’s commitment to the three pillars of sustainable development. Select the correct answer using the code below: A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 3, and 4 only D. All of the above Answer: A Explanation: India’s election to ECOSOC reflects international recognition of its growing role and efforts in promoting sustainable development, including its contributions to climate action, poverty reduction, health, and education. ECOSOC does not have a veto system like the UN Security Council. There is no veto power granted to any ECOSOC member, whether elected or permanent. ECOSOC membership is based on elections held in the UN General Assembly. The Council consists of 54 members elected for three-year terms, with representation from different regional groups. It is not exclusive to permanent Security Council members (P5), and any UN member state can be elected. ECOSOC focuses on economic, social, and environmental India’s election signals its dedication to all three dimensions, aligning with national and global developmental goals. India, Norway bilateral talks focus on powering Green Maritime Technologies Syllabus:IR Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal, held high-level bilateral meetings with Norway’s Minister of Transport, Jon-Ivar Nygård, and Minister of Fisheries and Ocean Policy, Marianne Sivertsen Næss, on the sidelines of the Nor-Shipping 2025 event in Oslo. These discussions focused on strengthening the maritime partnership between the two countries, especially in the areas of green shipping, digital transformation, ocean management, and sustainable development.     Advancing Green Maritime Technologies During his meeting with Transport Minister Nygård, Shri Sonowal highlighted India’s progress under the Maritime India Vision 2030 and Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, which aim to modernise port infrastructure with a strong focus on sustainability. He reiterated India’s commitment to green shipping, digitalisation, and public-private partnerships (PPPs) in port development. Both sides agreed to collaborate on ferry electrification, building on Norway’s global leadership in the field. He noted, “Under PM Modi ji’s leadership, Indian ports are becoming hubs of clean energy transition, supporting offshore wind, green hydrogen, and low-carbon logistics.”   Synergy in Smart and Clean Maritime Systems Building on initiatives like the Green Coastal Shipping Programme and Green Voyage 2050, both countries explored joint efforts in: Electrification of the ferry system Smart logistics and digital port ecosystems Green tug transitions and e-methanol bunkering Hydrogen-powered and electric vessels India’s MAITRI initiative and Norway’s innovations in AI-driven port management and alternative fuels are seen as key areas for collaboration. Expanding Cooperation in Ocean Economy   In his meeting with Fisheries and Ocean Policy Minister Marianne Sivertsen Næss, Shri Sonowal discussed expanding cooperation in: Ship recycling and green technologies Seafarers’ training and skill development Sustainable fisheries and ocean resource management Offshore renewable energy and hydrocarbons He emphasized the potential of Gujarat’s Alang Ship Recycling Yard as a key site for environmentally sound ship-breaking practices. Commitment to Gender Equity and Blue Economy Growth Shri Sonowal highlighted India’s efforts to promote gender equity in the maritime sector through the ‘Saagar Mein Samman’ initiative and encouraged Norwegian support in seafarer training, particularly in advanced areas like polar navigation, cybersecurity, and Arctic operations.   He invited Norwegian firms to invest in joint ventures related to: Ocean renewable energy (wind and tidal) Sustainable aquaculture Deep-sea exploration Northern Sea Route and Arctic Cooperation India also proposed a joint feasibility study with Norway to operationalise the Northern Sea Route (NSR). This collaboration would focus on: Safe and sustainable Arctic navigation R&D in Arctic shipping technologies Design and construction of ice-class vessels Minimising environmental impacts in polar regions Strengthening Bilateral Maritime Ties Shri Sonowal expressed confidence in the growing partnership between India and Norway, calling it a reflection of shared values and a joint commitment to sustainable maritime development. He noted the significance of the recent EFTA-India Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement in strengthening economic ties. He concluded, “India and Norway are working together towards building a sustainable and inclusive global maritime order. Our partnership is well-positioned to drive innovation, sustainability, and mutual prosperity in the maritime domain.” With reference to India-Norway maritime cooperation, consider the following statements: Norway is the first country India has partnered with under the MAITRI initiative for hydrogen-powered vessel manufacturing. The Green Voyage 2050 initiative is a bilateral agreement exclusively between India and Norway. Gujarat’s Alang Ship Recycling Yard was discussed as a key site for promoting environmentally sound ship-breaking practices. India and Norway plan to jointly develop ice-class vessels under Arctic cooperation. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, and 4 only  Answer: C. 3 and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: MAITRI is an Indian initiative, but Norway is not the only partner nor the first, and the context doesn’t confirm that it is focused on hydrogen-powered vessels. Statement 2 – Incorrect: Green Voyage 2050 is not an exclusive bilateral agreement; it’s a broader IMO-led global initiative involving multiple nations. Statement 3 – Correct: Alang was specifically mentioned as a potential site for green ship recycling Statement 4 – Correct: Joint efforts on

karthik June 4, 2025 No Comments

4 june 2025 Current Affairs

Landslide Hits Army Station in Sikkim Syllabus:Geography A devastating landslide triggered by heavy rainfall struck a military camp in Sikkim’s Lachen district, leading to casualties and significant property damage. A landslide is the sudden movement of rock, soil, or debris down a slope due to gravity, commonly occurring in steep terrains, especially where the soil is saturated or structurally weak. The causes of landslides can be both natural and human-induced. Natural causes include heavy rainfall, which increases soil saturation and weight, triggering slope failure; erosion, which weakens slopes by removing cohesive elements; earthquakes, which destabilize land through ground shaking; and volcanic activity, where debris and tremors lead to slope instability. Human-induced factors include deforestation, which weakens soil stability by removing vegetation; unplanned development, which increases construction risk in hilly areas; and unregulated excavation such as mining and quarrying, which destabilize land masses. India ranks among the top five landslide-prone countries, with approximately 12.6% of its area (excluding snow-bound regions) vulnerable. Of this, 66.5% lies in the north-western Himalayas, 18.8% in the north-eastern Himalayas, and 14.7% in the Western Ghats. The Indian plate’s northward movement at 5 cm/year accumulates stress, contributing to slope instability. The government has taken several measures to address this hazard. The Disaster Management Act (2005) provides a legal and institutional framework for disaster response. The National Landslide Risk Management Strategy (2019) outlines a comprehensive approach to risk reduction. The NDMA Guidelines (2009) set protocols for hazard mitigation. Landslide Hazard Zonation Maps developed by GSI and NRSC help identify high-risk zones. Early warning systems, such as the Ensemble Prediction System, support better weather forecasting. The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) provides training and capacity-building support. Going forward, it is essential to regularly update hazard maps using technologies like LiDAR, drones, and GIS. Eco-restoration through native reforestation and bioengineering techniques can stabilize slopes. Building climate-adaptive infrastructure and improving drainage systems will enhance resilience. Additionally, raising community awareness, enforcing zoning laws, and planning land use wisely are key to reducing future risks. Consider the following statements regarding landslide-prone zones in India: The Landslide Atlas of India identifies Western Ghats as the most landslide-prone region in the country. Tectonic movement of the Indian Plate contributes to landslide vulnerability in both the Himalayas and the Western Ghats. Snow-covered areas in the higher Himalayas are excluded from India’s official landslide vulnerability mapping due to low population density. Which of the above statements is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer:BExplanation: Western Ghats are vulnerable but not the most vulnerable—the North-Western Himalayas are. Statement 2 is correct—tectonic activity affects both regions. Statement 3 is also correct—snow-covered areas are typically excluded. India and Japan Agrees to Deepen Maritime Relations Syllabus: GS2/ International Relations   Recent Developments: India and Japan have formalized an agreement to deepen cooperation in the maritime sector, emphasizing regional collaboration and sustainable development.   Key Areas of Maritime Cooperation: Smart Islands & Renewable Energy: Japan supports transforming Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands into smart, green islands with renewable energy, disaster-resilient infrastructure, and sustainable maritime ecosystems. Port Digitisation & Emission Reduction: Both countries aim to implement digital technologies in port operations to boost efficiency, lower logistical costs, and reduce carbon emissions, aligning with India’s Smart Port initiative. Employment & Skilling: Japan seeks to recruit from India’s large pool of trained seafarers (over 154,000), addressing its maritime labor shortage. Maritime Infrastructure Investment: Japan’s Imabari Shipbuilding plans a greenfield shipyard in Andhra Pradesh to strengthen India’s shipbuilding capacity, supporting the Maritime India Vision 2030. R&D & Technology Transfer: Joint efforts with Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) focus on next-gen ship design, clean fuel vessels, automation, and sustainable maritime technologies.   Significance of the Maritime Agreement: Enhances India’s strategic position in Indo-Pacific maritime security and port logistics. Supports India’s vision for carbon-neutral maritime logistics under Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047. Creates employment opportunities by utilizing India’s skilled maritime workforce globally. Facilitates technology transfer, boosting innovation in the maritime sector.   Overview of India–Japan Relations Historical & Cultural Foundation: Rooted in ancient cultural ties, especially through shared Buddhist heritage. Early post-WWII goodwill: India was among the first to sign a peace treaty with Japan in 1952, waiving war reparations.   Strategic Partnership: Shared vision for a “Free and Open Indo-Pacific” (FOIP) and the “Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative” (IPOI), promoting regional stability. Active collaboration in the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) with the US and Australia. Partnership under the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) to diversify supply chains and counterbalance China. Growing defense cooperation including joint exercises (JIMEX, Dharma Guardian), 2+2 ministerial talks, and logistics agreements like ACSA; focus on co-production of defense tech.   Economic Engagement: Bilateral trade reached US$ 22.85 billion in FY 2023-24. Japan targets investments worth five trillion yen (₹3.2 lakh crore) in India by 2027. Japan ranks as India’s fifth-largest source of FDI, hosting over 1,400 Japanese companies. The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA, 2011) aims to enhance trade, though full potential remains untapped. Japan has been India’s largest bilateral Official Development Assistance (ODA) donor since 1958, backing key infrastructure projects.   Infrastructure Development: Japan is a key partner in flagship projects like the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train and metro systems across major Indian cities. Active investments in Northeast India support the Act East Policy with road, bridge, and urban infrastructure projects. Emphasis on the “Partnership for Quality Infrastructure” promoting sustainable, high-quality development.   Energy & Technology Collaboration: Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (2017) fosters collaboration in peaceful nuclear energy. Joint space missions such as ISRO-JAXA Lunar Polar Exploration. Promotion of Japanese environmental technologies and sustainable industrial practices.   People-to-People Ties: Skill development initiatives like the Technical Intern Training Programme (TITP) and Specified Skilled Worker (SSW) program facilitate skilled Indian labor migration to Japan’s aging economy. Ongoing cultural exchanges, academic collaborations, and increasing youth engagement deepen bilateral ties. Consider the following statements regarding landslide-prone zones in India: The North-Western Himalayas account for the highest percentage of landslide vulnerability in India. The tectonic upliftment and

karthik June 3, 2025 No Comments

3 june 2025 Current Affairs

Reserve Bank of India Levies Penalties on 353 Banks and Regulated Entities in FY25 Syllabus:Economy The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed 353 penalties totaling ₹54.78 crore on Regulated Entities (REs) for statutory violations during the year ending March 31, 2025.   Key Areas of Non-Compliance: Cybersecurity frameworks in banks, Exposure norms and IRAC norms, KYC guidelines, Fraud classification and reporting, CRILC reporting, Submission to Credit Information Companies (CICs)   Penalties by Entity Type: Cooperative Banks: 264 penalties, ₹15.63 crore NBFCs/ARCs: 37 penalties, ₹7.29 crore Housing Finance Companies: 13 penalties, ₹83 lakh Public Sector Banks: 8 banks, ₹11.11 crore Private Sector Banks: 15 banks, ₹14.8 crore Foreign Banks: 6 banks (amount not disclosed)   Purpose of Enforcement: To ensure regulatory compliance and strengthen the integrity and stability of the financial sector.   About RBI Established: April 1, 1935 Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra Governor: Sanjay Malhotra Which of the following statutory responsibilities of the Reserve Bank of India are directly reinforced through its imposition of penalties on Regulated Entities (REs)? Ensuring adherence to capital adequacy norms under Basel III Enforcing compliance with cyber security and reporting frameworks Overseeing monetary policy transmission in cooperative banking institutions Monitoring submission of large credit exposures to centralized repositories Select the correct answer using the code below:A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer:BExplanation: Capital adequacy and monetary policy transmission are not directly targeted by penalty imposition. Penalties are primarily enforcement mechanisms for compliance (e.g., cybersecurity, CRILC). UPI Transactions Reach Record High in May, Surpass ₹25 Trillion Mark for First Time Syllabus:Economy Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions reached a record high in May 2025, with 68 billion transactions amounting to ₹25.14 trillion in value.   Month-on-Month Growth: Volume: Increased by 4% (from 17.89 billion in April to 18.68 billion) Value: Increased by 5% (from ₹23.95 trillion in April to ₹25.14 trillion) This surpassed the previous peak recorded in March 2025, which stood at 3 billion transactions worth ₹24.77 trillion.   Daily Averages: Daily transaction volume rose from 596 million (April) to 602 million (May) Daily transaction value increased from ₹79,831 crore to ₹81,106 crore   Drivers of UPI Growth: Government’s post-demonetisation push for digital payments Widespread smartphone adoption Active participation of major private players such as Google Pay, PhonePe, and Paytm To further support low-value digital transactions, the Union Cabinet approved a ₹1,500 crore incentive scheme aimed at subsidizing the cost burden within the UPI ecosystem.   Policy Appeal from the Industry: The Payments Council of India (PCI), representing digital payment companies, urged the Prime Minister to: Reintroduce the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) on UPI and RuPay debit card transactions Proposed 3% MDR for large UPI merchants Suggested a nominal MDR on RuPay debit card payments across merchant categories The request aims to ensure the sustainability of digital payment infrastructure while maintaining affordability for users. Consider the following statements regarding UPI transaction trends in May 2025: The daily average transaction value exceeded ₹82,000 crore. May 2025 marked the highest-ever recorded monthly volume and value in UPI history. The month-on-month growth in UPI transaction value was greater than that of transaction volume. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 The correct answer is: B. 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1: “The daily average transaction value exceeded ₹82,000 crore.”From the data:Daily transaction value in May 2025 = ₹81,106 crore This is less than ₹82,000 crore Statement 2: “May 2025 marked the highest-ever recorded monthly volume and value in UPI history.” Volume: 68 billion Value: ₹25.14 trillion   Previous high (March 2025): Volume: 3 billion Value: ₹24.77 trillion Statement 3: “The month-on-month growth in UPI transaction value was greater than that of transaction volume.”   From the data: Growth in volume: April: 17.89 billion → May: 18.68 billion Growth: ~4.4% Growth in value: April: ₹23.95 trillion → May: ₹25.14 trillion Growth: ~5% Asian Development Bank unveils $10 billion scheme to revamp India’s urban infrastructure and services Syllabus:Economy Asian Development Bank’s $10 Billion Urban Transformation Plan for India The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has announced a $10 billion initiative aimed at catalyzing India’s urban transformation, aligning with the nation’s Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.   Key Highlights of the Initiative Announced following a three-day visit by ADB President Masato Kanda, during which he met Prime Minister Narendra Modi.   The package comprises: Sovereign loans Private sector financing Third-party capital mobilization Anchored by India’s flagship Urban Challenge Fund (UCF), supported by ADB to attract private sector investments into critical urban infrastructure. Project Scope and Preparation   Analytical groundwork has been completed for: Growth hubs Creative city redevelopment Water and sanitation upgrades These initiatives span 100 cities across India, forming the foundation for UCF deployment. ADB is extending $3 million in technical assistance to help design bankable urban projects and build capacity in state governments and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). Urbanization Trends and ADB’s Role By 2030, over 40% of India’s population is expected to reside in urban areas, increasing the urgency for infrastructure development. ADB has already engaged with 110+ cities in 22 states, implementing projects in: Water supply Sanitation Affordable housing Solid waste management Current ADB Portfolio in Urban Sector ADB’s active urban portfolio in India includes 27 loans totaling $5.15 billion.   About Asian Development Bank (ADB) Established: 1966 Headquarters: Mandaluyong, Metro Manila, Philippines President: Masato Kanda Membership: 69 countries With reference to the Asian Development Bank’s (ADB) recent urban development initiative in India, consider the following statements: The initiative includes only sovereign loans from ADB, excluding private sector financing. It is aligned with India’s long-term vision of becoming a developed nation by 2047. The Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) supported by ADB is solely focused on expanding rural infrastructure in peri-urban zones. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 3 only Answer:BExplanation: Statement 1 is

karthik June 2, 2025 No Comments

2 june 2025 Current Affairs

AYUSH Minister Launches Ayush Suraksha Portal to Combat Misleading Ads and Ensure Drug Safety Syllabus:Science Union AYUSH Minister Prataprao Jadhav has launched the Ayush Suraksha Portal, a digital initiative aimed at enhancing oversight in the traditional medicine sector. The portal is designed to tackle concerns related to misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions associated with AYUSH products. Highlighting its significance, the Minister stated that the platform will serve as a robust monitoring mechanism, acting as a watchtower to ensure that only safe, effective, and credible AYUSH products are available to consumers. This move underscores the government’s commitment to consumer safety and regulatory transparency in the expanding field of traditional healthcare. With reference to the Ayush Suraksha Portal recently launched by the Ministry of AYUSH, consider the following statements: The portal has been developed to function as a centralized reporting mechanism for both adverse drug reactions and misleading advertisements related to AYUSH formulations. It grants statutory enforcement powers to the Ministry of AYUSH to directly penalize violators under the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954. One of the key objectives of the portal is to facilitate pharmacovigilance and ensure post-marketing surveillance of AYUSH products. The initiative is aligned with the WHO’s Traditional Medicine Strategy 2014–2023, aiming to integrate traditional medicine into national health systems through regulatory frameworks. Which of the statements given above are correct? A) 1, 3, and 4 onlyB) 2 and 4 onlyC) 1 and 2 onlyD) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: A) 1, 3, and 4 only Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: The Ayush Suraksha Portal aims to provide a platform for the public and stakeholders to report adverse drug reactions (ADRs) and misleading advertisements, enhancing regulatory oversight. Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Ministry of AYUSH does not have statutory enforcement powers under the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954. Enforcement remains with the designated regulatory authorities such as the Drug Controller or State-level agencies. Statement 3 – Correct: The portal is part of efforts to enhance pharmacovigilance and ensure post-marketing surveillance, a critical aspect for ensuring consumer safety in the AYUSH sector. Statement 4 – Correct: The initiative reflects India’s commitment to the WHO Traditional Medicine Strategy, which emphasizes the integration of traditional medicine into national healthcare systems through regulation, safety, quality, and efficacy. Rajnath Singh Grants Miniratna Status to MIL, AVNL & IOL to Boost Indigenous Defence Manufacturing Syllabus:Defence Recent Development: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has approved the conferment of “Miniratna Category-I” status upon three Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs)—Munitions India Limited (MIL), Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL), and India Optel Limited (IOL). This move represents a major step toward enhancing the autonomy, efficiency, and competitiveness of India’s state-run defence manufacturing sector.   Background: These three entities were established in October 2021, following the dismantling of the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB). The restructuring aimed to modernise defence production, promote specialisation, and facilitate commercial efficiency within India’s defence industrial base.   Performance Highlights: Munitions India Limited (MIL): Engaged in the production of diverse categories of ammunition, MIL reported a substantial revenue increase from ₹2,571.6 crore in H2 of FY 2021–22 to ₹8,282 crore in FY 2024–25. Its exports surged from ₹55 crore to ₹3,081 crore, reflecting growing global demand and competitiveness. Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL):AVNL manufactures main battle tanks and armoured combat vehicles. Its revenue rose from ₹2,569.26 crore (FY 2021–22 H2) to ₹4,986 crore in FY 2024–25. The company achieved a strategic milestone by indigenising engines for T-72, T-90, and BMP-II platforms, reducing import dependency. India Optel Limited (IOL):Specialising in opto-electronic systems for defence applications, IOL recorded exponential growth, with revenue increasing from ₹12 crore (FY 2021–22 H2) to ₹1,541.38 crore in FY 2024–25, reflecting successful indigenisation and product innovation.   Significance of Miniratna Status: Grants enhanced financial and operational autonomy. Permits capital investment approvals up to ₹500 crore without requiring government approval. Enables the formation of joint ventures and strategic collaborations. Encourages greater innovation, agility, and competitiveness within the DPSU ecosystem. Supports Atmanirbhar Bharat by boosting indigenous defence production capabilities. This elevation in status is poised to accelerate India’s self-reliance in defence manufacturing while fostering export-oriented, innovation-driven industrial growth. With reference to the conferment of Miniratna Category-I status to defence PSUs in 2025, consider the following statements: Miniratna Category-I PSUs can independently approve capital expenditure projects up to ₹1,000 crore without prior government approval. Munitions India Limited (MIL) saw its export earnings increase by over 50 times between FY 2021–22 (H2) and FY 2024–25. The restructuring of the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB) was primarily aimed at privatising core defence production capacities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Answer: AExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Miniratna Category-I PSUs are empowered to approve capital expenditure projects up to ₹500 crore, not ₹1,000 crore. Statement 2 is correct: MIL’s exports grew from ₹55 crore to ₹3,081 crore, i.e., more than 50 times. Statement 3 is incorrect: The OFB was corporatized to improve autonomy and efficiency, not to privatise it. Odisha Launches ANKUR Initiative to Drive Smart, Citizen-Centric Urban Growth and Prepare for Future Challenges Syllabus:Governance The Government of Odisha has launched ANKUR (Atal Network for Knowledge, Urbanisation and Reforms)—a strategic platform aimed at fostering smart, sustainable, and citizen-centric urban development across the state. The initiative was formalized through the signing of MoUs with six premier urban development institutions, marking a pivotal step in urban policy innovation.   Key Features of ANKUR Collaborative Framework: Developed through extensive stakeholder consultations, ANKUR seeks to respond to Odisha’s rapid urbanisation by promoting multi-stakeholder partnerships, co-creation of resilient solutions, and scalable urban reforms.   Four Strategic Pillars: Capacity Building Knowledge & Research Implementation Support Innovation Ecosystems Vision Alignment: The programme aligns with the national agenda of Viksit Bharat @2047, addressing the anticipated tripling of Odisha’s urban population by 2036 through proactive urban planning and governance reform.   Key State Leadership (Post-2024 Assembly Elections) Capital: Bhubaneswar Chief Minister: Mohan Charan Majhi