CBSE Introduces Biannual Board Exams for Class 10 from 2026-27 Syllabus:Governance Effective: 2026–27 Academic Session | Student-Centric Reform Aligned with NEP 2020 Why This Matters Reduces exam stress and the “one-chance” pressure Offers students a chance to improve scores in up to 3 subjects Supports flexibility, a core aim of National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 Exam Structure First Exam (Mandatory): Mid-February Second Exam (Optional): May Applicable to students passing the first exam in at least 3 subjects Best score out of the two will be considered for the final mark sheet Eligibility and Conditions Fail in 3 or more subjects: Essential Repeat (not eligible for second exam) Fail in 1 to 2 subjects: Compartment (eligible for second exam) Sports quota students and students from snow-bound regions (e.g., Ladakh) may choose the second session Subject replacement students may reappear in failed subjects for higher education eligibility Compartment Exam Reforms Merged with Second Exam and scheduled in June (instead of July) Second and third attempts aligned with next year’s exam cycle Other Key Provisions First exam results available on DigiLocker for Class 11 admissions Provisional Class 11 admission allowed for compartment students, confirmed after second exam result With reference to the CBSE’s decision to conduct Class 10 Board Examinations twice a year starting from the 2026–27 academic session, consider the following statements: The second exam will be held only for students who have failed in up to two subjects in the first attempt. Students opting for improvement can appear in a maximum of three academic subjects in the second exam. Sports quota students who miss the first exam due to national-level commitments are barred from appearing in the second session. The best score between the two attempts is taken into account for the final result. Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. 2, 3 and 4 only Answer:B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — students who fail in 1–2 subjects (not just improvement candidates) can also take the second exam. Statement 2 is correct — students can reappear in up to 3 academic subjects. Statement 3 is incorrect — sports quota students are allowed to take the second session. Statement 4 is correct — best score is considered. ‘ECoR Yatra’ App: East Coast Railway’s Digital Leap for Rath Yatra 2025 Pilgrims Syllabus:Governance Launched By: East Coast Railway (ECoR) Platform: Available on Google Play Store Context and Significance: In preparation for the annual Rath Yatra 2025 in Puri, Odisha, the East Coast Railway (ECoR) has launched the “ECoR Yatra” mobile application. This tech-integrated solution is aimed at streamlining travel and logistics for millions of pilgrims. It represents a major advancement in digitizing public transport services during high-footfall religious events. Key Features of the ECoR Yatra App Real-Time Railway Services Live train running status and PNR tracking via the National Train Enquiry System (NTES) Dedicated list of special Rath Yatra trains operating between June 25 and July 7, 2025 Information on seat availability, fare details, and platform numbers Integration with UTS on Mobile for unreserved ticket booking Accommodation and Navigation Booking information for retiring rooms, tourist huts, and temporary shelters Integration with IRCTC for end-to-end booking and travel planning In-app navigation similar to Google Maps for navigating station premises Passenger Amenities and Accessibility Information on essential services such as drinking water kiosks, medical aid booths, public toilets, and Wi-Fi zones Accessibility features including wheelchair availability and battery-powered carts for senior citizens E-catering options and alerts on sanitation services Multilingual and Inclusive User Interface Support for multiple Indian languages Embedded educational videos for digital tools such as Automatic Ticket Vending Machines (ATVMs) and UTS for first-time users Emergency and Safety Tools Direct contact access for Railway Protection Force (RPF), medical emergencies, and lost-and-found services Push notifications for service changes, emergencies, and travel advisories Special Focus: Rath Yatra 2025 Pilgrim Management Real-time updates and operational details on special trains to manage high passenger volume Aims to reduce congestion at Puri Railway Station by promoting advance digital planning Designed to minimize dependence on physical enquiry counters through mobile-based solutions How to Access the App Open the Google Play Store Search for “ECoR Yatra” Download and install the application Objective: To provide a seamless, informed, and safe travel experience to pilgrims attending one of India’s largest religious gatherings. The app aligns with the objectives of the Digital India initiative and the Indian Railways’ modernization drive. The ‘ECoR Yatra’ app supports several government missions. Which of the following missions are most directly aligned with the app’s features? Digital India National Rail Plan Swachh Bharat Mission Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana Select the correct answer using the code below: A. 1 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, and 3 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above Answer: B. 1, 2, and 3 only Explanation: Digital India – Directly AlignedThe ‘ECoR Yatra’ app is a tech-based initiative using mobile platforms, real-time data, digital ticketing, and multilingual instructional tools. It reflects the core objectives of the Digital India Mission, which seeks to empower citizens with technology-driven governance and improve access to public services. National Rail Plan Directly Aligned The app enhances operational efficiency, passenger information systems, and mobility management, especially during high-density events like the Rath Yatra. These improvements are directly in line with the goals of the National Rail Plan, which aims for modernization, integration of digital tools, and improving passenger experience. Swachh Bharat Mission – Indirect but AlignedThe app features sanitation monitoring, alerts for cleanliness, public toilet mapping, and waste management support at stations. These services contribute to clean public spaces, which is a core pillar of the Swachh Bharat Mission. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana – Not AlignedThis scheme is focused on rural road infrastructure to connect unconnected habitations. It deals with physical rural road development and does not relate to railway digitization or pilgrim management in urban hubs
Draft Registration Bill 2025 Syllabus :GS2/Governance Why in News: The Ministry of Rural Development has invited suggestions on the Draft Registration Bill 2025.It aims to replace the 117-year-old Registration Act of 1908 with a digital, citizen-centric framework. Key Features: Online and offline registration allowed with Aadhaar or alternate identification.Expanded list of compulsory registration documents, including sale agreements and company mergers. New administrative roles created, including Additional and Assistant Inspector Generals of Registration. Registrations made on false grounds can be cancelled, with a 30-day window for appeal. Penalties reduced, with imprisonment lowered from seven to three years and applicable fines. Challenges: Cybersecurity concerns, especially for protecting e-signatures and digital records.Delegation to Common Services Centres may cause procedural issues in title transfer and stamp duty valuation. Related Initiatives: Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP): Digitizing and integrating land records since 2016. SVAMITVA Scheme: Drone-based mapping of rural properties to provide official Record of Rights. NAKSHA Programme: Modernizing urban land records using geographic information systems and digital tools. With reference to the Draft Registration Bill, 2025, consider the following statements: The Bill empowers the Inspector General to cancel registrations obtained through fraud or misrepresentation. The Bill removes the requirement for physical appearance for all categories of registration documents. Aadhaar is the only accepted identity for registration under the Bill. The Bill introduces roles such as Additional and Assistant Inspector Generals to support decentralised functioning. Which of the statements are correct? A. 1 and 4 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only Answer: A. 1 and 4 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: Both online and offline modes are permitted; physical appearance is not eliminated completely. Statement 3 is incorrect: Alternative identification documents are allowed in addition to Aadhaar. Statement 4 is correct. Fighting Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) with Insect-Based Livestock Feed Syllabus: GS2/ Health Amid escalating concerns over the overuse of antibiotics in animal husbandry, India is exploring insect-based feed alternatives to mitigate the risk of Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is leading collaborative efforts to promote AMR-resilient, sustainable food systems. What is Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)? AMR arises when microorganisms—bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites—develop resistance to antimicrobial drugs. This renders standard treatments ineffective, leading to persistent infections, increased disease transmission, and higher mortality. Current Toll: ~700,000 deaths annually Projected Impact by 2050: 10 million deaths per year, with a potential global GDP loss of 8% How Does Livestock Feed Contribute to AMR? Over 50% of antibiotics globally are used in animal agriculture, often for growth promotion rather than disease treatment. Continuous exposure fosters the development of Antibiotic Resistance Genes (ARGs) in animal gut microbes. These ARGs can transfer to humans via food chains, soil, water, and direct contact, amplifying public health risks. Insect-Based Feed: A Sustainable Alternative Curbing AMR Insects naturally produce Antimicrobial Peptides (AMPs) like defensins and cecropins, enhancing livestock immunity and reducing antibiotic dependency. Nutritional Superiority Insects offer high-quality protein, essential amino acids, and micronutrients such as zinc, iron, and calcium. They mimic the natural diet of many poultry and aquaculture species. Economic and Environmental Viability Lower production costs and better benefit-to-cost ratios than conventional feeds like fishmeal or soy. Reduces dependence on imported protein feed, fostering local agri-tech innovation and circular economy models. Global Efforts Against AMR Global Action Plan (GAP), 2015: A “One Health” framework integrating human, animal, and environmental health. World Antimicrobial Awareness Week (WAAW): Promotes awareness and stewardship globally. GLASS (2015): WHO’s surveillance initiative for antimicrobial use and resistance data. GARDP: WHO-DNDi collaboration for R&D in antibiotic development, especially for neglected diseases. India’s Initiatives on AMR NAP-AMR: India’s multi-sectoral plan based on the “One Health” approach. AMR Surveillance Network (ICMR): Tracks resistance trends and supports evidence-based policy. Red Line Campaign: Mandatory red marking on prescription-only antibiotics to prevent OTC misuse. NAC-NET (NCDC): Monitors antibiotic consumption trends in public health facilities. Operation AMRITH (Kerala): State-level intervention to restrict indiscriminate antibiotic use. Conclusion AMR poses an immediate and escalating threat to human health, agriculture, and global development. Innovations such as insect-based livestock feed offer a transformative pathway to address AMR, enhance food security, and build resilient, low-impact food systems. Urgent and sustained action—grounded in science, policy, and public awareness—is essential to combat this global crisis. With reference to the use of insects in livestock feed, consider the following statements: Insects possess antimicrobial peptides that can functionally replace antibiotics in livestock diets. Insect-based feeds are banned under the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) guidelines due to zoonotic risks. The economic viability of insect-based feed is supported by its high feed conversion efficiency and localized production models. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 Answer:BExplanation: Statement 2 is incorrect — WOAH does not ban insect-based feed; it is being increasingly accepted as a sustainable option. Statements 1 and 3 are correct. How Will Foreign Universities Impact Higher Education in India? Syllabus: GS2/ Education Context The University Grants Commission (UGC) has notified the “Setting up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign Higher Educational Institutions in India Regulations, 2023”, enabling renowned global universities to establish campuses in India. This aligns with the vision of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which promotes the internationalisation of higher education. Background Prestigious foreign institutions are now setting up branches in locations such as GIFT City (Gujarat) and Navi Mumbai. Successful models like NYU Abu Dhabi and Yale-NUS in Singapore have shown the importance of academic autonomy, strong local partnerships, and robust state support. Why Are Foreign Universities Entering India? Push Factors in the West Demographic Decline: Ageing populations in developed countries like the UK, Australia, and Canada have led to falling domestic student enrolments. Financial Stress: Declining public funding has compelled universities to depend on high-paying international students. Policy Restrictions: Stricter student visa norms and
Polity and Governance International Relations Economy Science and Technology Environment Indices and Reports Geography Security History and Culture Viksit Bharat Ka Amrit Kaal Report Syllabus: Governance Theme: Seva, Sushasan, Garib Kalyan Serving the Poor & Marginalized: Antyodaya in Action Goal: Inclusive growth through 100% welfare saturation. 81 crore received free foodgrains under PMGKY 5+ crore MUDRA loans (>50% to SC/ST/OBC) 15 crore households got tap water under Jal Jeevan Mission 4 crore houses built under PM Awas Yojana 68 lakh street vendors aided via PM SVANidhi 112+ Aspirational Districts exceeded state development averages Outcome: IMF affirms end of extreme poverty, UNDP hails MPI progress. Farmer Welfare: ‘Beej Se Bazaar Tak’ Goal: Holistic agricultural reforms ₹3.7 lakh crore via PM-KISAN MSP procurement surged: Pulses (↑7350%), Oilseeds (↑1500%) 1,473 eNAM mandis, 24 Mega Food Parks ₹1 lakh crore Agri Infra Fund Achievements: Foodgrain output: 347 MMT Milk production: ↑63.56% 1,943 agri-startups supported Processed food exports: ↑to $9.03 billion Nari Shakti: Empowerment Across Life Stages Goal: Socio-economic & digital inclusion 38 crore MUDRA loans (₹14.72 lakh crore) to women 10 crore+ women in SHGs; 3 crore becoming Lakhpati Didis Sex ratio at birth: 1020 females/1000 males 77 crore+ sanitary pads distributed via Jan Aushadhi Achievements: Paid maternity leave extended to 26 weeks Women own 73% of PMAY-Gramin homes 50,000+ startups with women directors Empowering Amrit Peedhi (Youth) Goal: Skilling, education, entrepreneurship, sports 6 crore skilled under PMKVY 6,500 new IIT seats, 23 IITs & 23 AIIMS operational 6 lakh+ startups created 6 lakh jobs 490 new universities Achievements: 8 lakh direct jobs via DPIIT startups 61 medals at Tokyo & Paris Olympics/Paralympics 94+ athletes supported under TOPS Ease of Living for the Middle Class Goal: Connectivity, digital access, housing, tax reforms 4 crore homes under PMAY Metro spread from 5 to 23 cities UPI users: 46 crore individuals, 6.5 crore merchants 5G in 6% districts within 22 months Achievements: 5 crore+ flew under UDAN ₹37,000 crore unlocked via SWAMIH 52 crore Digilocker users 2,297+ e-services via UMANG Affordable, Accessible Healthcare for All Goal: Health equity through infrastructure & digital outreach 9 crore+ Ayushman Bharat admissions (₹1.3 lakh crore) 77 crore ABHA IDs created 220+ crore COVID vaccine doses given 18 lakh MBBS, 74,000 PG seats Achievements: 16,000+ Jan Aushadhi stores saved ₹38,000 crore 37 crore e-consultations via eSanjeevani MMR dropped from 130 → 80 AIIMS in NE, 2,045 medical colleges now operational Conclusion: India’s 11-year journey under PM Modi showcases a new era of inclusive growth, digital empowerment, grassroots upliftment, and global leadership — laying the foundation for a Viksit Bharat by 2047. Consider the following statements regarding the Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP): It uses a data-driven approach focusing on 5 key sectors: Health, Education, Agriculture, Infrastructure, and Basic Financial Inclusion. Over 100 aspirational districts have shown improvement beyond the state average in development parameters. The programme is being implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development alone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3 Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only Detailed Explanation: Statement 1: Correct The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) was launched by NITI Aayog in January 2018, with the objective of quickly and effectively transforming 112 most underdeveloped districts of India across key sectors.The programme uses a data-driven approach by ranking districts based on 49 Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) across 5 core sectors: Health & Nutrition Education Agriculture & Water Resources Financial Inclusion & Skill Development Basic Infrastructure The rankings are updated monthly using the Champions of Change dashboard, enabling real-time tracking and nudging of districts towards better governance and service delivery. Relaxed Key Provisions of the SEZ Rules, 2006 Syllabus:Governance Context: The Government of India has amended key provisions of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Rules, 2006, aimed at incentivizing domestic manufacturing in the semiconductor and electronics sectors by simplifying regulatory requirements and facilitating ease of doing business. About SEZs: Legal Basis: Governed under the SEZ Act, 2005 and SEZ Rules, 2006. Objective: Promote exports, attract investment (both FDI and domestic), and boost employment through designated zones with differential regulatory and fiscal regimes. Administering Authority: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Salient Features of SEZ Rules (Pre-Relaxation): Minimum Land Requirement: 50 hectares for general SEZs; sector-specific criteria varied. Encumbrance-Free Land: Mandatory provision requiring land to be legally and administratively unencumbered. Export Orientation: Units required to maintain positive Net Foreign Exchange (NFE) over a five-year period. Single-Window Clearance: Facilitated by the Board of Approval (BoA) to streamline administrative approvals. Fiscal Incentives: Income tax holidays, customs duty exemptions, and GST-related concessions. Separate Customs Territory: SEZs function as deemed foreign territory for trade, tariff, and taxation purposes. Recent Amendments (2024–25): Land Norms Rationalized: Reduced Minimum Area: For semiconductor and electronic component SEZs, land requirement reduced from 50 hectares to 10 hectares. Purpose: Accommodate high-value, low-footprint industries like chip fabrication and electronics manufacturing. Encumbrance-Free Clause Relaxed: SEZs can now be established on land that has pending legal, administrative, or financial encumbrances. Implication: Accelerates land acquisition and development timelines for strategic sectors. Domestic Market Access Allowed: SEZ units in the semiconductor and electronics sectors may now supply to the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) upon payment of applicable duties. Impact: Enhances backward integration with domestic value chains and reduces import dependence. Significance: Aligns with India Semiconductor Mission and Make in India Encourages capital-intensive, technology-driven investments. Enhances strategic autonomy in electronics and chip supply chains. Supports India’s ambition to emerge as a global electronics hub. With reference to the recent amendments to the SEZ Rules, 2006 aimed at boosting semiconductor and electronics manufacturing in India, consider the following statements: The amended rules allow SEZs for semiconductor and electronics sectors to be established on land with legal or administrative encumbrances, provided the land lies within notified brownfield zones. The relaxation permits SEZ units in these sectors to supply to the Domestic
Digital Payments Award to India Post Payments Bank Syllabus :GS 3/Economy In News: India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has been conferred with the Digital Payments Award 2024–25 by the Ministry of Finance, recognizing its exceptional contributions to advancing digital payments and deepening financial inclusion across the country. About IPPB Ownership & Governance:IPPB is a wholly Government of India-owned entity, functioning under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications. Launch:Established in 2018, IPPB was envisioned as a transformational initiative to provide accessible, affordable, and reliable banking services, particularly to the underserved and unbanked population. Outreach Model:IPPB operates through India’s extensive postal network, leveraging over 1.65 lakh post offices and a workforce of more than 3 lakh postal employees, predominantly in rural and remote regions. Technology Backbone:Built on the India Stack, the bank offers paperless, cashless, and presence-less banking through biometric-enabled mobile devices, enabling doorstep delivery of digital financial services. Key Contributions Digital India Enabler:As a key driver of the Digital India mission, IPPB promotes financial inclusion and a transition towards a less-cash economy. Innovative Doorstep Banking:With its tech-integrated service delivery model, IPPB has significantly transformed rural banking by offering secure digital transactions at the last mile. Recent Achievements Top Rank among Payments Banks:IPPB secured the 1st position among all Payments Banks in India in the Performance Index for FY 2024–25. Recognition for Past Performance:It also received a ‘Special Mention’ award for FY 2023–24, highlighting its sustained excellence in delivering digital financial services. With reference to India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), consider the following statements: IPPB is a scheduled commercial bank under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. IPPB is fully owned by the Government of India and functions under the Department of Financial Services. IPPB leverages biometric authentication and mobile technology to provide doorstep banking services in rural India. IPPB is built on the India Stack and supports the objectives of the Digital India initiative. Which of the statements given above are correct? A.1 and 2 onlyB. 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only Answer:BExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: IPPB is a payments bank, not a scheduled commercial bank. Statement 2 is incorrect: It functions under the Department of Posts, not Financial Services. Statements 3 and 4 are correct. World Sickle Cell Day Syllabus :GS 2/Health Context World Sickle Cell Awareness Day was observed recently on June 19, 2025. The theme for this year was “Global Action, Local Impact: Empowering Communities for Effective Self-Advocacy.” About Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) Sickle Cell Disease refers to a group of inherited hemoglobin disorders caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for producing normal hemoglobin. This leads to the formation of abnormally shaped (sickle-shaped), rigid, and adhesive red blood cells (RBCs), impairing their oxygen-carrying capacity and flow through blood vessels. Most severe form: Sickle Cell Anemia Pathophysiology: Sickle-shaped RBCs tend to block capillaries and break down prematurely, leading to anemia, organ damage, and pain episodes. Clinical Manifestations SCD typically manifests in early childhood, with symptoms ranging in intensity: Chronic anemia Recurrent pain crises Swelling in extremities Jaundice due to increased hemolysis Delayed growth and puberty Increased susceptibility to infections Severe complications: stroke, acute chest syndrome, splenic sequestration, priapism Treatment Modalities While bone marrow transplantation remains the only curative option, it is often cost-intensive and associated with high risk. Current management focuses on symptom control and complication prevention: Hydroxyurea, analgesics, prophylactic antibiotics, and blood transfusions In 2024, the first patient was treated with FDA-approved gene-editing therapies like Casgevy (CRISPR-based) and Lyfgenia, marking a transformative development in SCD management. India’s Response India launched the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission on July 1, 2023, under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi, with the aim to: Eliminate Sickle Cell Disease as a public health concern by 2047 Focus on screening, awareness, counselling, and management, especially among vulnerable tribal populations. With reference to Sickle Cell Disease (SCD), consider the following statements: It is a hereditary disorder caused by a mutation in the gene encoding hemoglobin. Sickle-shaped red blood cells are less prone to breakdown than normal red blood cells. SCD can lead to complications such as stroke and acute chest syndrome. Gene editing therapies such as Casgevy and Lyfgenia are curative options recently approved. Which of the statements given above are correct?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 3 onlyD. 2, 3 and 4 only Answer:BExplanation:Statement 2 is incorrect – Sickle-shaped RBCs are more prone to breakdown (leading to anemia), not less. All other statements are correct. Bushehr plant Syllabus :GS1/Places Context: Russia’s nuclear chief, Alexei Likhachev, recently confirmed that the Bushehr Nuclear Power Plant in Iran is functioning normally and remains under full control, following reports of Israeli airstrikes targeting nuclear sites in Iran, including Bushehr, Natanz, and Isfahan. Key Nuclear Sites in Iran: Bushehr Nuclear Power Plant Location: Southern Iran, on the Persian Gulf coast, approximately 750 km south of Tehran. Significance: Iran’s only operational nuclear power plant. Constructed with Russian assistance. Represents the first civilian nuclear reactor in the Middle East. Houses thousands of kilograms of nuclear material, making it a sensitive strategic site. Natanz Nuclear Facility Location: Central Iranian Plateau, around 220 km southeast of Tehran. Importance: Iran’s main uranium enrichment site. Hosts two operational enrichment plants. Has been a focal point of international concern regarding Iran’s nuclear capabilities. Isfahan Nuclear Complex Location: Approximately 350 km southeast of Tehran. Features: Houses three Chinese-built research reactors. Contains critical laboratories and nuclear processing facilities associated with Iran’s atomic energy programme. Plays a central role in uranium conversion and fuel production. With reference to the Bushehr Nuclear Power Plant, consider the following statements: It is the only operational civilian nuclear power plant in Iran. It was constructed with technical assistance from China. It is located on the northern coast of Iran along the Caspian Sea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 2 and