Author: karthik

World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector Syllabus: Georaphy/Economy                      Why in News? On May 31, 2023, the Government approved the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector, set to be implemented as a Pilot Project. This initiative aims to develop agricultural infrastructure at the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) level, including:   Construction of godowns Establishment of custom hiring centers Setting up of processing units   The project integrates various existing Government of India (GoI) schemes, such as: Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI) Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME)   Progress of the Pilot Project Under the Pilot Project, godowns have been constructed in 11 PACS across 11 States, with a total storage capacity of 9,750 Metric Tons (MT). State-wise Details of Completed Godowns S.No State District Name of PACS Capacity (MT) 1. Maharashtra Amravati Neripanglai Vividh Karyakari Sahakari Sanstha 3,000 2. Uttar Pradesh Mirzapur Bahudeshiya Prathamik Grameen Sahakari Samiti Limited, Kotwa Panday 1,500 3. Madhya Pradesh Balaghat Bahudeshiya Prathamik Krishi Saakh Sahakari Society Maryadit, Parswada 500 4. Gujarat Ahmedabad The Chandranagar Group Seva Sahakari Mandli Limited 750 5. Tamil Nadu Theni Silamarathupatti Primary Agriculture Credit Society 1,000 6. Rajasthan Sri Ganganagar Ghumudwali Gram Seva Sahakari Samiti Limited 250 7. Telangana Karimnagar Primary Agriculture Credit Society Limited, Gambhiropet 500 8. Karnataka Bidar Primary Agriculture Cooperative Federation Limited, Ekamba 1,000 9. Tripura Gomati Khilpara Primary Agriculture Credit Society Limited 250 10. Assam Kamrup 2 No. Pub Bongshar G.P.S.S Limited 500 11. Uttarakhand Dehradun Bahudeshiya Kisan Seva Sahakari Samiti Limited, Sahaspur 500 Total       9,750   Additionally, foundation stones have been laid for 500 additional PACS godowns under the Pilot Project, with a total of 575 PACS identified for implementation across various States/UTs.   Expansion and Future Goals The Ministry of Cooperation aims to establish and strengthen 2 lakh multipurpose PACS, Dairy, and Fishery Cooperative Societies across all panchayats and villages in the country. To guide this process, a Margdarshika (Standard Operating Procedure) has been introduced. In Karnataka, 128 PACS have been established against a target of 218 PACS to be formed by FY 2028-29.   Impact of the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan Decentralized Storage Capacity: 9,750 MT of storage capacity has been created at the PACS level. Reduction in Food Grain Wastage: Prevents post-harvest losses by ensuring adequate storage facilities. Strengthening of Food Security: Ensures better storage and distribution of food grains to enhance national food security. Preventing Distress Sales: Farmers can store their produce and sell it at better prices rather than being forced into distress sales. Cost Reduction in Transportation: Since PACS can function as both procurement centers and Fair Price Shops (FPS), transportation costs are reduced. Avoids the need to transport grains from procurement centers to warehouses and back to FPS. This initiative marks a major milestone in strengthening the cooperative sector and enhancing agricultural infrastructure across India. Consider the following statements regarding the “World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector”: It is being implemented exclusively under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF). The plan aims to develop agri-infrastructure at the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) level. One of the objectives of the plan is to enable PACS to operate as procurement centers as well as Fair Price Shops (FPS). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The plan is not implemented exclusively under AIF; rather, it converges multiple schemes like Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI), Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM), and Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME). Statement 2 is correct: The plan focuses on strengthening PACS by developing godowns, custom hiring centers, and processing units. Statement 3 is correct: The initiative allows PACS to function as procurement centers and Fair Price Shops (FPS), reducing transportation costs and logistical challenges. 3rd Session of India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee held in New Delhi Syllabus: IR The Third Session of the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee (JTC) was held in New Delhi on 25th-26th March 2025, marking a significant step in reinforcing trade relations between the two nations after a gap of 23 years. Both sides conducted a comprehensive review of bilateral trade and acknowledged that the current trade volume does not fully reflect the economic potential of their partnership. To address this, both countries committed to enhancing, deepening, and diversifying trade relations. A key outcome of the discussions was the proposal to establish an India-Uganda Joint Business Forum to promote direct engagement between business leaders from both nations.                                     Key Areas of Cooperation India and Uganda identified priority sectors to expand trade and investment, including: Agriculture & Allied Sectors: Coffee, cocoa products, pulses, spices, dairy products, fruits, and vegetables. Minerals & Resources: Rare Earth Elements (REE), mining, petrochemicals, and residual chemical products. Manufacturing & Industrial Growth: Plastic raw materials, essential oils, and allied products. Technology & Infrastructure: Digital infrastructure, banking, MSME growth, solar energy, rural electrification, and electric vehicles. Healthcare & Pharmaceuticals: Strengthening cooperation in health services, traditional medicine, and telemedicine. Both sides also agreed to explore and formalize Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) in Public Works, Infrastructure Development, Agriculture, Traditional Medicine, and Standardization. Additionally, discussions were held on recognizing the Indian Pharmacopoeia to facilitate pharmaceutical trade.   High-Level Participation The Indian delegation was led by Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce, Shri Ajay Bhadoo, who highlighted the strong economic partnership between the two nations and emphasized opportunities in e-commerce, pharmaceuticals, MSME cluster development, and renewable energy. The Ugandan delegation was headed by Elly Kamahungye Kafeero, Head of International Political Cooperation Department, Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Uganda, accompanied by Amb. Prof. Joyce Kikafunda Kakuramatsi, Uganda’s High Commissioner to India, and a 28-member delegation representing various ministries and Uganda’s Mission in India. The discussions were conducted in a cordial and cooperative

Sea Dragon 2025 Syllabus:Defence                 The Sea Dragon 2025 is a multilateral naval exercise focused on anti-submarine warfare (ASW). Hosted by the United States Navy’s 7th Fleet, it commenced on March 4, 2025, off the coast of Guam. This annual drill brings together key naval forces from the United States, Japan, Australia, South Korea, and India to enhance maritime security coordination in the Indo-Pacific region.                       Historical Evolution of Sea Dragon The Sea Dragon exercise originated in 2019 as a bilateral initiative between the United States Navy and the Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF). In 2020, it expanded to include Japan, South Korea, and New Zealand, broadening its scope. India joined in 2021, marking a strategic shift in its participation. By 2024, the exercise evolved into a Quad + South Korea collaboration, with Canada being excluded.   Participants in Sea Dragon 2025 The 2025 edition of the exercise features key naval forces, including the United States Navy (USN), Indian Navy (IN), Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF), Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF), and Republic of Korea Navy (ROKN). Each nation deploys advanced Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) for joint ASW training, enhancing operational coordination.   Objectives of Sea Dragon 2025 The primary objectives of the exercise are to enhance tactical coordination among participating navies and strengthen anti-submarine warfare capabilities. It aims to improve maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region by conducting simulated submarine-hunting exercises. The drill also focuses on promoting military cooperation among allied forces, ensuring seamless interoperability in maritime operations.   Nature of the Exercise Designed specifically for anti-submarine warfare, Sea Dragon involves MPRA deployments equipped with advanced sensors for real-world submarine detection training. The exercise consists of mock drills that simulate underwater threats, allowing pilots to exchange strategies and refine their submarine-tracking techniques.   Grading System and Awards The performance of participating nations is assessed based on submarine detection efficiency. The nation that achieves the highest score is awarded the Dragon Belt Award. Since 2022, the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF) has consistently won this prestigious recognition.   Significance for India and the Indo-Pacific For India, Sea Dragon 2025 enhances anti-submarine warfare skills, strengthens defence cooperation with Quad nations, and prepares the country for future joint naval operations. In the Indo-Pacific region, the exercise plays a crucial role in ensuring stability, promoting freedom of navigation, and reinforcing regional defence collaboration. Consider the following statements regarding the Sea Dragon 2025 exercise: It is hosted by the United States Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM) to enhance surface warfare capabilities. The exercise is primarily focused on anti-submarine warfare (ASW). India has been a participant in the exercise since its inception in 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3  Answer: (b) 2 only  Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The exercise is hosted by the U.S. 7th Fleet, not INDOPACOM. Additionally, it focuses on anti-submarine warfare, not surface warfare. Statement 2 is correct: Sea Dragon 2025 is explicitly designed for ASW, enhancing submarine detection and tracking. Statement 3 is incorrect: India joined the exercise in 2021, not 2019. The exercise initially started as a bilateral drill between the U.S. and Australia. Kerala Became First State To Establish Senior Citizens Commission Syllabus: Polity   Kerala has made history by becoming the first state in India to establish a Senior Citizens Commission with the passage of the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Bill, 2025. This groundbreaking initiative reflects the state’s commitment to safeguarding the rights, welfare, and dignity of elderly citizens. The commission will serve as a statutory body dedicated to addressing the needs of senior citizens while also acting as an advisory panel for policy formulation and implementation.   About the Senior Citizens Commission What is the Senior Citizens Commission? A statutory body established under the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Act, 2025. The first commission of its kind in India, focusing exclusively on elderly welfare. Functions as an advisory authority for state policies concerning senior citizens.   Objectives of the Commission Ensure the protection, welfare, and rehabilitation of elderly individuals. Safeguard the rights and dignity of senior citizens. Encourage the active participation of elderly individuals in societal development. Promote inclusive policies to integrate senior citizens into various sectors.   Key Features and Functions Policy Advisory: Develops and recommends policies for the welfare and empowerment of senior citizens. Grievance Redressal: Addresses complaints related to neglect, abuse, financial exploitation, and social exclusion. Skill Utilization: Encourages senior citizens to contribute their knowledge, skills, and experience to society. Legal Support: Provides legal assistance, particularly in cases of elder abuse, property disputes, and financial exploitation. Awareness Campaigns: Conducts public awareness programs to educate people about the rights of senior citizens and the responsibilities of families and institutions. Regular Reports: Submits periodic recommendations to the state government for necessary policy updates and improvements. With the establishment of this commission, Kerala has set a precedent for other states to prioritize elderly welfare and create a more inclusive, supportive, and dignified environment for senior citizens. With reference to the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission, consider the following statements: It is the first statutory body in India dedicated to senior citizens’ welfare. The commission has the power to issue legally binding directives on cases of elder abuse. It functions as both an advisory and grievance redressal body for elderly-related policies. The establishment of this commission was mandated under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 4 only(c) 1, 2, and 3 only(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Kerala is the first Indian state to establish a statutory Senior Citizens Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect: The commission does not have judicial powers to issue legally binding directives but can recommend legal action. Statement 3 is correct: The commission serves as an advisory and grievance redressal body. Statement

UN World Water Development Report 2025 – Mountains and Glaciers Syllabus: GS 3/Environment, Conservation   Key Findings Accelerated Glacier Melt: Glaciers are melting at an unprecedented rate, with significant mass loss in recent years. Over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice have been lost since 1975—equivalent to an ice block the size of Germany. Impurities like black carbon from wildfires and dust storms are intensifying the melting process by absorbing more solar radiation.   Permafrost Thawing: Rising temperatures are causing permafrost to melt, releasing organic carbon into the atmosphere and worsening climate change. Destabilized slopes increase the risk of landslides and other natural disasters.   Decline in Snow Cover: Snow cover in mountain regions has decreased, particularly during spring and summer. Between 1979 and 2022, there has been a 79% global decline in snow cover.   Impacts & Concerns Erratic Water Flow & Flooding Risks: Increased risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs)—responsible for over 12,000 deaths in the past 200 years. Sea Level Rise Contribution: Glacier melt accounts for 25-30% of global sea level rise, threatening millions worldwide.   Way Forward & Recommendations Mountains as Water Towers: Covering 33 million sq km, mountain regions sustain nearly 2 billion people by providing freshwater. Policy & Awareness: Urgent need for resource mobilization and strong policy frameworks to mitigate climate impacts. Increased awareness and proactive action required to protect mountain ecosystems and downstream communities. With reference to the United Nations World Water Development Report 2025, consider the following statements: The report states that glaciers have lost over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice since 1950. Black carbon from wildfires and dust storms can accelerate glacier melting by increasing solar radiation absorption. The report highlights that permafrost thawing is reducing atmospheric carbon levels, thereby mitigating climate change. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3  Answer: (b) 2 only  Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The report highlights that glaciers have lost over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice since 1975, not 1950. Statement 2 is correct: Black carbon and dust can accelerate glacier melting by increasing the absorption of solar radiation. Statement 3 is incorrect: Permafrost thawing releases organic carbon into the atmosphere, exacerbating climate change rather than mitigating it. Shaheed Diwas Syllabus: GS1/History   Context: On March 23, the nation pays tribute to Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev on Shaheed Diwas, commemorating their execution in 1931. Their sacrifice remains a powerful symbol of India’s freedom struggle.   Background: In 1928, the British government sent the Simon Commission, an all-British panel, to India to discuss constitutional reforms. This led to widespread protests as it excluded Indian representation. Lala Lajpat Rai led a protest in Lahore, where police, under Superintendent James A. Scott, brutally lathi-charged the demonstrators. Lajpat Rai succumbed to his injuries on November 17, 1928. To avenge his death, Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev targeted James Scott but mistakenly killed British officer John Saunders Arrested, tried, and sentenced to death, they became martyrs for India’s independence movement. Their execution inspired countless revolutionaries to continue the struggle for freedom.   Revolutionary Legacy: Bhagat Singh (1907–1931), Sukhdev (1907–1931), and Rajguru (1908–1931) were key members of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), a revolutionary group committed to armed resistance against British rule. Bhagat Singh was deeply influenced by Marxist and anarchist ideologies, drawing inspiration from Karl Marx, Vladimir Lenin, and Leon Trotsky. He is also remembered for the 1929 bombing of the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi, aimed at protesting against oppressive laws, without intending to cause harm. Shaheed Diwas serves as a reminder of their unwavering courage, patriotism, and ultimate sacrifice in the fight for India’s independence. Consider the following statements regarding the Simon Commission and its impact on the Indian freedom struggle: The Simon Commission was sent by the British government in 1927 to assess the need for constitutional reforms in India. The commission did not include any Indian members, leading to widespread protests across the country. Lala Lajpat Rai was fatally injured during a protest against the Simon Commission in Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 onlyd) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: a) 1 and 2 onlyExplanation: The Simon Commission was sent in 1928, not 1927. The absence of Indian representation led to widespread protests. Lala Lajpat Rai was injured in a protest in Lahore, not Kolkata. Tavasya Syllabus: GS3/Defence   Overview Tavasya, the second frigate under Project 1135.6 Additional Follow-on Ships, was launched by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL). This follows the launch of Triput in 2024, with both frigates expected to be delivered to the Indian Navy by 2026 and 2027.                                     Background In 2016, India and Russia signed an agreement for four additional Krivak-class stealth frigates. Two were imported from Russia, while two were built in India under technology transfer. Tavasya is the second of the two indigenously built follow-on Krivak-class frigates.   Key Features Symbolism: Named after Bhima’s mace, representing naval strength. Multi-Role Capability: Designed for surface, sub-surface, and air combat operations. Specifications: Length: 124.8 meters Width: 15.2 meters Draught: 4.5 meters Displacement: ~3,600 tonnes Speed: Maximum 28 knots   Indigenous Contributions Triput and Tavasya incorporate indigenous equipment, weapons, and sensors, enhancing India’s naval self-reliance. Tavasya marks a significant milestone, likely signaling the end of license-built warships as India advances toward self-designed and self-constructed naval vessels. With reference to India’s Project 1135.6, consider the following statements: The project involves the construction of four additional Krivak-class frigates, two of which were built in India under a technology transfer agreement. The Krivak-class frigates are primarily designed for amphibious assault operations. Tavasya is the first of the two follow-on stealth frigates built by Goa Shipyard Limited under this project. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3

Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act, 2005 Syllabus: GS2/Governance   Context   Over 30 civil society organizations have urged the Union government to safeguard the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, amid concerns about potential restrictions imposed by the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023.   Concerns Raised Activists caution against fully implementing amendments that may weaken the RTI Act under the DPDP Act. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act now broadly prohibits disclosing personal information, even when it serves the public interest. The government justifies the change by citing the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) case, which recognized privacy as a fundamental right.   Challenges Posed by the Amendment Restricting access to information may hinder social audits and make it difficult to uncover corruption or misuse of public funds. RTI requests have been instrumental in verifying government programs, such as food ration distribution and welfare schemes. Activists argue that the original RTI framework already balanced privacy with transparency, rejecting claims that the changes align with the Supreme Court’s privacy ruling. Right to Information Act, 2005   Objectives and Scope Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in governance by granting citizens the right to access information from public authorities. Applicable to government departments, ministries, and organizations substantially funded by the government.   Key Provisions Information Access: Citizens can request government records, documents, and other relevant data. Exemptions: Information related to national security, confidentiality, and ongoing investigations is excluded. Response Time: Public authorities must respond within 30 days, extendable to 45 days in specific cases. Penalties: Officials withholding information without valid reasons or providing false details may face penalties.   Significance of the RTI Act Empowering Citizens: Enables individuals to seek information, ensuring government transparency and accountability. Preventing Corruption: RTI has exposed fund mismanagement in schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS). Promoting Good Governance: Enhances trust in government by fostering openness in decision-making. Facilitating Social Audits: NGOs and activists use RTI to verify government service delivery, such as the Public Distribution System (PDS). Ensuring Public Access to Records: RTI requests help uncover inefficiencies and corruption in government contracts. Strengthening Democracy: Encourages citizen participation in governance and policymaking.   Criticism and Challenges Administrative Burden: High volumes of RTI requests strain public authorities, diverting resources from primary duties. Misuse of RTI: Some requests are used for harassment or personal/political agendas. Delays in Processing: Authorities struggle to meet response deadlines, leading to frustration among applicants. Lack of Training and Infrastructure: Many government offices lack the expertise and resources for effective RTI implementation. Ambiguity in Exemptions: Vaguely defined exemptions create loopholes for withholding crucial public information.   Way Forward Parliament should define “personal information” and “public interest” more precisely. Personal data disclosure should be permitted when it serves a greater public good, such as exposing corruption or verifying the misuse of funds. Any amendments to the RTI Act should involve consultations with multiple stakeholders, including RTI activists, legal experts, and data protection specialists. The government must balance privacy rights with the need for transparency to ensure democratic accountability. The RTI Act remains a cornerstone of democracy, empowering citizens and ensuring government accountability. Its preservation is crucial for upholding transparency, reducing corruption, and promoting good governance. With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements: The RTI Act applies only to government departments and ministries but not to organizations that receive substantial government funding. The Act allows disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest. The government can reject an RTI request if the information sought affects national security or ongoing criminal investigations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only   Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The RTI Act not only applies to government departments and ministries but also covers organizations that receive substantial funding from the government (such as NGOs and public-private partnerships). Statement 2 is correct: The RTI Act permits disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest, but the recent amendment under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023 has created hurdles in this regard. Statement 3 is correct: The Act exempts disclosure of information that affects national security, foreign relations, or ongoing investigations under Section 8(1). Fast Track Special Courts Syllabus: GS2/ Polity, Judiciary  Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) have emerged as a critical judicial mechanism for expediting trials related to sexual crimes, ensuring justice for survivors in a time-bound manner. With an impressive disposal rate of 28%, these courts have significantly reduced legal delays in cases under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, and rape cases.   What are Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs)? Definition: FTSCs are dedicated courts established in India to accelerate the judicial process for heinous crimes, particularly rape and child sexual abuse cases.   Establishment: Initiated in 2019 under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law & Justice.   Funding Pattern: 60:40 (Centre:States) for most states and Union Territories (UTs) with a legislature. 90:10 for Northeastern and Hilly States/UTs to ensure equitable judicial access.   Operational Target: The scheme envisions the establishment of 790 FTSCs, including specialized e-POCSO courts. Each FTSC is expected to handle 41-42 cases per quarter, ensuring the disposal of at least 165 cases annually to reduce case backlog effectively.   Rationale for FTSCs The Supreme Court of India (2019) mandated speedy disposal of POCSO cases, emphasizing that both the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) and POCSO Act, 2012, prescribe strict timelines for investigation and trial. Judicial Backlog: Overburdened courts and limited judicial resources often result in prolonged trials, delaying justice and weakening deterrence against sexual crimes. FTSCs play a crucial role in reinforcing public confidence in the judicial system by ensuring swift and effective justice.   Key Recommendations by the Indian Institute

Project Pari Syllabus: GS 1/Culture   Public Art of India (PARI) Project The PARI project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Culture to promote and enrich India’s public art landscape. It is implemented by the Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA). The project showcases the country’s diverse regional art forms, including Phad, Thangka, Gond, and Warli, featuring the work of over 200 artists. Currently, the PARI project is operational only in Delhi, where it aims to foster public engagement through artistic expression. It encourages dialogue and reflection by integrating India’s rich cultural heritage with contemporary themes. As part of the government’s broader efforts, the initiative provides incentives to talented artists, ensuring the preservation and promotion of India’s artistic traditions in modern public spaces. With reference to the “Public Art of India (PARI) Project”, consider the following statements: The project is implemented by the Ministry of Culture in collaboration with private institutions. It primarily focuses on integrating India’s ancient art traditions with modern artistic expressions. As of now, the project has been implemented in multiple cities across India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 2 and 3 only Answer: (b) 2 only Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The project is implemented by the Ministry of Culture but executed through Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), not private institutions. Statement 2 is correct: PARI aims to blend India’s rich cultural heritage with contemporary themes, making it a fusion of traditional and modern art. Statement 3 is incorrect: Currently, the project is limited to Delhi and has not yet been expanded to other cities. Swadesh Darshan Scheme Syllabus: GS2/Governance, Schemes   Context The Public Accounts Committee (PAC), chaired by C. Venugopal, has raised concerns over the poor execution of the Swadesh Darshan scheme by the Ministry of Tourism. The observations were based on a report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Despite the Ministry’s claims that most sanctioned projects were completed, the PAC identified significant discrepancies in project implementation. Swadesh Darshan Scheme Launched: 2014-15, as a flagship scheme under the Ministry of Tourism. Revamped: As Swadesh Darshan 2.0, with a focus on sustainable and responsible tourism, adopting a tourist-centric approach. Theme-Based Tourist Circuits: Spiritual Circuits (e.g., Char Dham Yatra, Buddhist Circuit) Cultural Circuits (e.g., North East Circuit, Tribal Circuit) Heritage Circuits Wildlife Circuits Coastal Circuits Funding: The Ministry of Tourism provides financial support to States and Union Territories for circuit development. Key Issues Identified by PAC Lapses in Planning: No feasibility studies were conducted before launching projects. Financial Mismanagement: Budget overruns due to inadequate planning. Approvals granted without Detailed Project Reports (DPRs). Weak Monitoring: No structured mechanism for project evaluation. Delays and incomplete projects despite claims of completion. Discrepancy in Completion Claims: The Ministry claimed 75 out of 76 projects were completed. However, PAC found that key projects like the Kanwaria Route in Bihar, Tribal Circuit in Telangana, and Sree Narayana Guru Ashram in Kerala were either incomplete or non-functional. Recommendations & Way Forward The Ministry of Tourism has been directed to physically inspect all projects and submit a detailed report within three weeks. The Ministry must provide data on: The scheme’s impact on employment generation. Changes in tourist footfall, as key indicators of the scheme’s success. About the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) Constitutional Status Not a constitutional body. Formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Composition 22 Members: 15 from Lok Sabha 7 from Rajya Sabha Elected annually by Parliament. Chairperson: Appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, typically from the opposition party. Functions Examines audit reports submitted by the CAG of India. Scrutinizes public expenditure to prevent extravagance and irregularities. Ensures accountability of the Executive to the Legislature. Works alongside CAG to uphold fiscal discipline and transparency. With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements: It is a constitutional body established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. The Chairperson of the PAC is always from the ruling party. PAC is responsible for examining the reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. The PAC can take suo-motu cognizance of financial irregularities and initiate investigations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 4 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2, and 4 only Answer: (b) 3 onlyExplanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: PAC is not a constitutional body; it is formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chairperson is usually from the opposition party, not the ruling party. Statement 3 is correct: The PAC examines audit reports of CAG and scrutinizes public expenditure. Statement 4 is incorrect: PAC cannot take suo-motu cognizance; it works based on reports submitted by the CAG. Corbett Tiger Reserve Syllabus: Environment Recent Developments The Supreme Court recently criticized the Uttarakhand government for its slow action against senior officials accused of illegal constructions within the Corbett Tiger Reserve. About Corbett Tiger Reserve Location: Situated in the foothills of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand. Establishment: Established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, making it India’s first national park. Renamed Corbett National Park in 1957 to honor Jim Corbett, a renowned conservationist and naturalist. Area: Initially designated as a national park, later expanded to cover 1,288.31 sq. km as a Tiger Reserve. Topography: Characterized by an undulating terrain with multiple valleys. Major rivers: Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi. Predominantly located in the Bhabar and lower Shivalik regions, featuring porous soil, boulder deposits, and a deep water table. Flora Dominated by Sal forests, along with Sheesham and Kanju trees, particularly along ridges. Grasslands (locally called ‘Chaur’) are remnants of abandoned settlements and clearings. Riparian vegetation thrives along riverbanks. Invasive species: Lantana, an aggressive weed, poses a significant ecological challenge. Fauna Flagship species: Tigers and elephants. Other carnivores: Leopards, small carnivores. Herbivores: Sambar,