2 june 2025 Current Affairs

AYUSH Minister Launches Ayush Suraksha Portal to Combat Misleading Ads and Ensure Drug Safety

Syllabus:Science

Union AYUSH Minister Prataprao Jadhav has launched the Ayush Suraksha Portal, a digital initiative aimed at enhancing oversight in the traditional medicine sector. The portal is designed to tackle concerns related to misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions associated with AYUSH products.
Highlighting its significance, the Minister stated that the platform will serve as a robust monitoring mechanism, acting as a watchtower to ensure that only safe, effective, and credible AYUSH products are available to consumers. This move underscores the government’s commitment to consumer safety and regulatory transparency in the expanding field of traditional healthcare.

With reference to the Ayush Suraksha Portal recently launched by the Ministry of AYUSH, consider the following statements:

The portal has been developed to function as a centralized reporting mechanism for both adverse drug reactions and misleading advertisements related to AYUSH formulations.
It grants statutory enforcement powers to the Ministry of AYUSH to directly penalize violators under the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954.
One of the key objectives of the portal is to facilitate pharmacovigilance and ensure post-marketing surveillance of AYUSH products.
The initiative is aligned with the WHO’s Traditional Medicine Strategy 2014–2023, aiming to integrate traditional medicine into national health systems through regulatory frameworks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 3, and 4 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: The Ayush Suraksha Portal aims to provide a platform for the public and stakeholders to report adverse drug reactions (ADRs) and misleading advertisements, enhancing regulatory oversight.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Ministry of AYUSH does not have statutory enforcement powers under the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954. Enforcement remains with the designated regulatory authorities such as the Drug Controller or State-level agencies.
Statement 3 – Correct: The portal is part of efforts to enhance pharmacovigilance and ensure post-marketing surveillance, a critical aspect for ensuring consumer safety in the AYUSH sector.
Statement 4 – Correct: The initiative reflects India’s commitment to the WHO Traditional Medicine Strategy, which emphasizes the integration of traditional medicine into national healthcare systems through regulation, safety, quality, and efficacy.

Rajnath Singh Grants Miniratna Status to MIL, AVNL & IOL to Boost Indigenous Defence Manufacturing

Syllabus:Defence

Recent Development:

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has approved the conferment of “Miniratna Category-I” status upon three Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs)—Munitions India Limited (MIL), Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL), and India Optel Limited (IOL).
This move represents a major step toward enhancing the autonomy, efficiency, and competitiveness of India’s state-run defence manufacturing sector.

Background:

These three entities were established in October 2021, following the dismantling of the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB).
The restructuring aimed to modernise defence production, promote specialisation, and facilitate commercial efficiency within India’s defence industrial base.

Performance Highlights:

Munitions India Limited (MIL):

Engaged in the production of diverse categories of ammunition, MIL reported a substantial revenue increase from ₹2,571.6 crore in H2 of FY 2021–22 to ₹8,282 crore in FY 2024–25.
Its exports surged from ₹55 crore to ₹3,081 crore, reflecting growing global demand and competitiveness.
Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL):AVNL manufactures main battle tanks and armoured combat vehicles.
Its revenue rose from ₹2,569.26 crore (FY 2021–22 H2) to ₹4,986 crore in FY 2024–25. The company achieved a strategic milestone by indigenising engines for T-72, T-90, and BMP-II platforms, reducing import dependency.
India Optel Limited (IOL):Specialising in opto-electronic systems for defence applications, IOL recorded exponential growth, with revenue increasing from ₹12 crore (FY 2021–22 H2) to ₹1,541.38 crore in FY 2024–25, reflecting successful indigenisation and product innovation.

Significance of Miniratna Status:

Grants enhanced financial and operational autonomy.
Permits capital investment approvals up to ₹500 crore without requiring government approval.
Enables the formation of joint ventures and strategic collaborations.
Encourages greater innovation, agility, and competitiveness within the DPSU ecosystem.
Supports Atmanirbhar Bharat by boosting indigenous defence production capabilities.
This elevation in status is poised to accelerate India’s self-reliance in defence manufacturing while fostering export-oriented, innovation-driven industrial growth.

With reference to the conferment of Miniratna Category-I status to defence PSUs in 2025, consider the following statements:

Miniratna Category-I PSUs can independently approve capital expenditure projects up to ₹1,000 crore without prior government approval.
Munitions India Limited (MIL) saw its export earnings increase by over 50 times between FY 2021–22 (H2) and FY 2024–25.
The restructuring of the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB) was primarily aimed at privatising core defence production capacities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Miniratna Category-I PSUs are empowered to approve capital expenditure projects up to ₹500 crore, not ₹1,000 crore.
Statement 2 is correct: MIL’s exports grew from ₹55 crore to ₹3,081 crore, i.e., more than 50 times.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The OFB was corporatized to improve autonomy and efficiency, not to privatise it.

Odisha Launches ANKUR Initiative to Drive Smart, Citizen-Centric Urban Growth and Prepare for Future Challenges

Syllabus:Governance

The Government of Odisha has launched ANKUR (Atal Network for Knowledge, Urbanisation and Reforms)—a strategic platform aimed at fostering smart, sustainable, and citizen-centric urban development across the state. The initiative was formalized through the signing of MoUs with six premier urban development institutions, marking a pivotal step in urban policy innovation.

Key Features of ANKUR

Collaborative Framework: Developed through extensive stakeholder consultations, ANKUR seeks to respond to Odisha’s rapid urbanisation by promoting multi-stakeholder partnerships, co-creation of resilient solutions, and scalable urban reforms.

Four Strategic Pillars:

Capacity Building
Knowledge & Research
Implementation Support
Innovation Ecosystems
Vision Alignment: The programme aligns with the national agenda of Viksit Bharat @2047, addressing the anticipated tripling of Odisha’s urban population by 2036 through proactive urban planning and governance reform.

Key State Leadership (Post-2024 Assembly Elections)

Capital: Bhubaneswar
Chief Minister: Mohan Charan Majhi (succeeding Naveen Patnaik)
Deputy Chief Ministers:V. Singhdeo and Pravati Parida
Governor: Hari Babu Kambhampati

Consider the following statements regarding the ANKUR initiative launched by the Government of Odisha:

ANKUR is designed as a vertical under the Smart Cities Mission and is funded entirely by the central government.
It emphasizes four pillars: capacity building, knowledge and research, implementation support, and innovation.
The initiative aligns with the national development vision of Viksit Bharat @2047 and anticipates tripling of Odisha’s urban population by 2036.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect—ANKUR is a state-level initiative, not a vertical of the Smart Cities Mission, nor entirely centrally funded. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
ANKUR (Atal Network for Knowledge, Urbanisation and Reforms) is an independent state-level strategic initiative launched by the Odisha government, not by the central government.
It is not a vertical or sub-programme of the Smart Cities Mission, which is a central government initiative under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Funding Structure: ANKUR is being developed through collaborative partnerships, including state-level planning, memorandums of understanding (MoUs) with knowledge partners, and likely multi-stakeholder contributions, not solely central funding.
The objective of ANKUR is to create a customised urban reform and innovation framework suited to Odisha’s needs, rather than operate under the top-down framework of centrally sponsored schemes.

AIIMS Bhopal Launches ‘Code Emergency’ App on World Emergency Day

Syllabus:Science

On the occasion of World Emergency Day, AIIMS Bhopal launched a transformative mobile application titled ‘Code Emergency’, designed as a life-saving digital tool in alignment with Madhya Pradesh’s ‘One State, One Health, One Emergency’ policy, inaugurated in 2024 by Chief Minister Mohan Yadav.
Crafted for use by both medical professionals and the general public, the app is bilingual—available in Hindi and English—and supports offline functionality after initial download, ensuring accessibility even in low-connectivity regions.

Key features include:

Audio-visual CPR guidance for all age groups, simplifying life-saving intervention during cardiac emergencies.
A dropdown menu of emergency scenarios, offering step-by-step first-aid instructions tailored to diverse medical crises, in line with the state’s unified emergency care protocol.
The ‘Code Emergency’ app will soon be available for free download on the Google Play Store, serving as a critical tool in democratizing emergency healthcare access across Madhya Pradesh.

With reference to the mobile application ‘Code Emergency’, recently launched by AIIMS Bhopal, consider the following statements:

It was developed exclusively for trained paramedics and is not intended for public use.
The application includes multilingual support and can function offline once downloaded.
It is part of the broader framework under Madhya Pradesh’s “One State, One Health, One Emergency” policy introduced in 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

“It was developed exclusively for trained paramedics and is not intended for public use.”
The Code Emergency app is designed for both healthcare professionals and the general public.
It aims to make life-saving interventions like CPR and first aid accessible to everyone, not just paramedics.
This inclusive approach aligns with the intent of broadening emergency response awareness and capacity.
The app is available in both Hindi and English, making it bilingual.
It is also capable of functioning offline once installed, ensuring usability in areas with poor internet access.

Gujarat Launches ‘Karmayogi Swasthya Suraksha Yojana’ Providing ₹10 Lakh Cashless Health Cover

Syllabus:Scheme

Gujarat Unveils ‘Karmayogi Swasthya Suraksha Yojana’ for State Employees and AIS Officers
The Government of Gujarat has launched the ‘Gujarat Karmayogi Swasthya Suraksha Yojana’, aimed at providing cashless medical treatment coverage of up to ₹10 lakh per family. The scheme is applicable to All India Services (AIS) officers, state government employees, and pensioners, and is implemented under the PMJAY “G” category card system.

Enrollment & Implementation Mechanism:

Eligibility mandates possession of a PMJAY “G” category card, issued by the State Health Agency (SHA).
The SHA serves as the nodal authority for card distribution, scheme governance, and overall implementation.

Eligibility Criteria and Family Definition:

The definition of ‘family’ for coverage varies:
For state government employees and pensioners, eligibility is governed by the Gujarat State Services (Medical Treatment) Rules, 2015.
For AIS officers and pensioners, the definition is based on the AIS (Medical Attendance) Rules, 1954.
Dependent family certificates, issued by designated authorities, are mandatory for enrollment under the scheme.
This health security initiative enhances social welfare for public servants while aligning with the broader objectives of Ayushman Bharat and state-led universal health coverage.

About Gujarat:

Capital: Gandhinagar
Chief Minister: Bhupendra Rajnikant Patel
Governor: Acharya Devvrat

With reference to the “Gujarat Karmayogi Swasthya Suraksha Yojana”, consider the following statements:

The scheme provides reimbursement-based medical assistance for AIS officers and government pensioners under the National Health Authority’s central PMJAY framework.
Possession of a PMJAY “G” category card issued by the State Health Agency (SHA) is mandatory for availing benefits under the scheme.
The scheme uniformly defines the term “family” for all categories of beneficiaries to ensure equitable treatment access.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B. 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme is cashless, not reimbursement-based, and it is implemented under the state-level PMJAY-G category, not directly under the central
Statement 2 is correct: Possession of a PMJAY “G” category card issued by the State Health Agency is mandatory for availing scheme benefits.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The definition of “family” varies:
For state employees: Gujarat State Services Rules, 2015
For AIS officers: AIS (Medical Attendance) Rules, 1954

India’s FY25 economic growth hits four-year low of 6.5%, Q4 GDP beats estimates

Syllabus:Economy

India’s economic performance in Q4 FY25 exceeded expectations, with GDP growth accelerating to 4%. However, for the entire fiscal year 2024–25, the economy expanded by 6.5%, marking the slowest pace since the Covid-19 period and a notable decline from 9.2% in FY24.
Despite global headwinds and muted private sector investment, government officials remain optimistic that India will retain its status as the fastest-growing major economy, driven by robust industrial output and sustained public expenditure.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) forecasts that India’s GDP will surpass Japan’s by the end of 2025, reaching around $4.18 trillion. Meanwhile, Gross Value Added (GVA) growth was slightly lower at 4%, indicating some divergence from headline GDP figures.

Sector-wise, performance was mixed:

Agriculture rebounded sharply, growing 6%.
Construction expanded strongly at 4%.
Manufacturing, however, decelerated to 5% year-on-year.Analysts caution that reduced subsidy disbursals may have inflated GDP relative to GVA.
On the monetary front, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cut the repo rate by 25 basis points in February 2025 to support growth.
This move was bolstered by a sharp decline in retail inflation, which dropped to 16%, a near six-year low.
Looking ahead, the RBI projects 5% GDP growth for FY26, citing easing inflationary pressures and a favorable monsoon forecast.
Nonetheless, global commodity price volatility and geopolitical uncertainties continue to pose risks to India’s economic outlook.

Consider the following statements regarding India’s economic performance in FY 2024–25:

India’s GDP growth for FY 2024–25 was the slowest since the 2008 global financial crisis.
The IMF projects India’s GDP will surpass Japan’s economy size by the end of 2025.
Gross Value Added (GVA) growth outpaced GDP growth in FY 2024–25.
Agriculture sector growth was higher than manufacturing sector growth in FY 2024–25.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2, and 3 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

India’s GDP growth for FY 2024–25 was the slowest since the 2008 global financial crisis.
This statement is incorrect because the data indicates FY 2024–25 growth at 6.5%, the slowest since the Covid era (2020-21), not since 2008.
The slowdown is relative to the post-Covid recovery period, not the 2008 financial crisis.
The IMF projects India’s GDP will surpass Japan’s economy size by the end of 2025.
This statement is correct.
The IMF projects India’s economy to reach about $4.18 trillion by the end of 2025, overtaking Japan as the third-largest economy.
Gross Value Added (GVA) growth outpaced GDP growth in FY 2024–25.
This statement is incorrect.
GVA growth was 6.4%, which is slightly below the GDP growth figure of 6.5%.
Agriculture sector growth was higher than manufacturing sector growth in FY 2024–25.
This statement is correct. Agriculture grew at 4.6% whereas manufacturing slowed to 4.5%.

Crisil Projects India’s GDP Growth at 6.5% for FY26

Syllabus:Economy

CRISIL has projected India’s GDP growth at 6.5% for FY 2026, highlighting improving domestic consumption as a key growth driver.
This outlook is supported by factors such as easing inflation, anticipated rate cuts by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), income tax relief measures, and strong agricultural growth.
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) forecasts an above-normal monsoon, estimated at 106% of the long-period average, which is expected to enhance agricultural output and help keep food inflation under control.
Additionally, subdued crude oil prices, averaging between $65 and $70 per barrel, are projected to support macroeconomic stability.

Updated GDP growth projections from various agencies are as follows:

Morgan Stanley: 6.2% for FY 2026
ICRA: 6.3% for FY 2025
United Nations: 6.3% for CY 2025 and 6.4% for CY 2026
Deloitte: 6.6% for FY 2026
S&P Global Ratings: 6.3% for FY 2026 and 6.5% for FY 2027
World Bank: 6.3% for FY 2026
International Monetary Fund (IMF): 6.2% for FY 2026 and 6.3% for FY 2027

Consider the following statements regarding India’s GDP growth projections for FY 2026:

CRISIL projects a GDP growth rate higher than that of Morgan Stanley and the IMF for FY 2026.
The IMF projects a higher GDP growth rate for FY 2027 than for FY 2026.
Deloitte’s GDP projection for FY 2026 exceeds that of S&P Global Ratings for the same fiscal year.
ICRA’s projection is for FY 2026, while the World Bank projects for FY 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, and 3 correctly compare projections from various agencies for FY26 and FY27.
Statement 4 is incorrect as it mismatches the fiscal years of projections from ICRA and the World Bank.

mNexspike

Syllabus:Science

The recent approval of the mNexspike vaccine by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) marks a significant advancement in the ongoing fight against Covid-19.
Developed by Moderna, mNexspike is not intended to replace the existing Spikevax vaccine but rather to provide an additional option tailored for specific groups.
It is primarily aimed at individuals aged 65 and older, as well as those aged 12 to 64 with underlying health conditions that increase their risk of severe illness.

About mNexspike Vaccine

mNexspike is a next-generation Covid-19 vaccine designed to be administered at a reduced dose—one-fifth the amount used in the current Spikevax vaccine. This lower dosage aims to optimize the immune response while maintaining safety and effectiveness. The vaccine is approved for adults aged 65 and above, along with younger individuals who have health risks.

Approval Process:

The FDA’s approval followed a clinical trial involving 11,400 participants aged 12 and older, comparing mNexspike to the existing Spikevax vaccine. The results demonstrated that mNexspike is safe and, in some aspects, more effective than its predecessor.

Target Population:

The vaccine targets high-risk groups: all adults over 65 and individuals aged 12 to 64 with at least one underlying health condition. This cautious approach aligns with ongoing public health priorities.

Health Risks and Side Effects:

As with any vaccine, mNexspike is not suitable for everyone. Those who have experienced severe allergic reactions to prior Covid-19 vaccines or their components should avoid it. Common side effects may include breathing difficulties, swelling, and dizziness.

Impact of Political Decisions:

The approval comes amid shifting political directives on vaccine guidance, particularly changes from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) regarding Covid-19 vaccinations for children.

Future Availability:

Moderna expects mNexspike to be available during the 2025–2026 respiratory virus season. It will be offered alongside Spikevax and mRESVIA, Moderna’s vaccine targeting respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

Public Health Context:

Covid-19 continues to pose a significant threat, with over 47,000 deaths reported in the U.S. in 2024 alone. The introduction of mNexspike is viewed as an important tool to protect vulnerable populations and address emerging Covid-19 variants.

Consider the following statements regarding the recently approved mNexspike vaccine by the U.S. FDA:

mNexspike is designed to replace the existing Spikevax vaccine entirely.
It is administered at a lower dose compared to Spikevax to optimize immune response.
The vaccine targets adults aged 65 and above as well as individuals aged 12–64 with underlying health conditions.
The FDA approval was based on clinical trials involving more than 10,000 participants aged 12 and older.
Moderna plans to make mNexspike available alongside vaccines targeting other respiratory viruses during the 2025–26 respiratory season.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Answer: C) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because mNexspike is not intended to replace Spikevax but to serve as an additional option for specific populations.
Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct, reflecting the lower dose, targeted populations, and clinical trial data.
Statement 5 is correct as Moderna plans to offer mNexspike alongside other vaccines such as mRESVIA (RSV vaccine) in 2025–26.

DHRUVA Initiative

Syllabus:Governance

Launched in 2025 by the Department of Posts, the DHRUVA initiative—Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address—represents a transformative digital policy aimed at overhauling how address information is structured, managed, and utilized across India. Building upon the foundation laid by the earlier Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN) system, DHRUVA elevates address data as a fundamental pillar of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI).

Core Features of DHRUVA

DHRUVA seeks to revolutionize address management by enabling secure, real-time sharing of verified address information among citizens, businesses, and government bodies. By promoting interoperability and standardizing address formats nationwide, the initiative ensures seamless collaboration across sectors.
A flagship innovation under DHRUVA is the introduction of Address-as-a-Service (AaaS). This service model facilitates the dynamic usage and exchange of address data while prioritizing user consent, privacy, and data security. Through a unified national framework, AaaS aims to streamline service delivery across India.

Enhancing Governance and Service Delivery

By replacing ambiguous traditional addresses with precise virtual geo-coded identifiers, DHRUVA enhances governance effectiveness, particularly in targeting government schemes and improving service outreach to rural and underserved communities. The initiative also strengthens emergency response mechanisms by enabling accurate location identification.

Benefits to the Private Sector

The initiative promises significant advantages for private enterprises, especially in e-commerce, logistics, and financial technology. Accurate and standardized address data under DHRUVA reduces delivery errors, optimizes routing, and bolsters KYC processes, thereby improving compliance and trust in digital transactions.

Empowering Citizens

Central to DHRUVA is citizen empowerment. Individuals gain full control over their digital address identities, allowing them to update information, manage access permissions, and securely share verified address data. This approach aligns with India’s commitment to data privacy and fosters inclusive digital growth.

Inclusive Stakeholder Engagement

The Department of Posts has initiated public consultations to refine the DHRUVA framework. Contributions from government agencies, technology experts, civil society, and other stakeholders will ensure the system meets diverse user needs and operates effectively.

Pioneering the Future of Spatial Intelligence

DHRUVA marks a paradigm shift by treating addresses not as static labels but as dynamic, secure data assets integral to a future-ready India. By integrating geospatial intelligence with citizen-centric design, the initiative aims to build a resilient and inclusive digital addressing ecosystem, empowering all stakeholders with reliable and efficient access to location-based services.

With reference to the DHRUVA initiative launched by the Department of Posts in 2025, consider the following statements:

It replaces the Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN) system and introduces Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) for dynamic address data sharing.
The initiative ensures interoperability and consent-based sharing of address information among citizens, government, and businesses.
DHRUVA primarily targets the enhancement of private sector logistics without significant impact on government service delivery.
It replaces traditional addresses with virtual geo-coded identifiers to improve governance and emergency response.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above

The correct answer is B) 1, 2, and 4 only.

Explanation:

Statement 1:DHRUVA builds upon and enhances the earlier Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN) system. It introduces Address-as-a-Service (AaaS), enabling dynamic, real-time sharing and usage of verified address data. This is correct.
Statement 2:DHRUVA emphasizes interoperability between citizens, government agencies, and businesses, with consent-based sharing of personal address information, ensuring privacy and security. This is also correct.
Statement 3:While DHRUVA benefits the private sector, such as logistics and fintech, its impact on government service delivery is significant, especially for targeted scheme delivery, rural governance, and emergency response. Hence, the claim that it does not significantly impact government service delivery is incorrect.
Statement 4:DHRUVA aims to replace ambiguous traditional addresses with virtual geo-coded identifiers, improving accuracy in governance and emergency services. This is correct.