30th may 2025 Current Affairs

Government Notifies Inter-services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Rules, 2025

Syllabus: GS3/ Defence

In News:

The Ministry of Defence has notified the ISO Rules, 2025 under the Inter-Services Organisations (ISO) Act, 2023, effective May 27, 2025.
Background – ISO Act, 2023: Enacted to support seamless functioning of Joint Commands and Inter-Service Establishments; aims to enhance coordination among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Objectives of ISO Rules, 2025: Unified Command – streamline control across services; Efficient Discipline – speed up case disposal, reduce duplication; Interoperability – legally and administratively align the three services.
Key Provisions of the ISO Act & Rules: Creation of ISOs – Central Govt. empowered to form joint structures with personnel from two or more services; Command Authority – Commander-in-Chief (CiC), Officer-in-Command (OiC), and Commanding Officers (COs) have full disciplinary and administrative powers over all personnel, regardless of service; Retention of Service Acts – personnel remain governed under respective Acts (Army, Navy, Air Force); Residuary Powers – unaddressed issues to be resolved by Central Govt; Chain of Command – temporary replacements permitted during leave/absence or emergencies.
Implementation Challenges: Cultural Integration – possible resistance due to differing service traditions; Jurisdiction Overlap – risk of confusion between ISO and parent service authority; Legal Complexity – harmonising distinct service laws may pose difficulties.

With reference to the Inter-Services Organisations (ISO) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

The ISO Act enables the formation of Inter-Service Organisations composed exclusively of personnel from the Army and Navy.
Under the ISO Rules, 2025, the Commander-in-Chief (CiC) of a Joint Services Command can exercise administrative control over civilian personnel posted to that command.
The ISO Act overrides the Army, Navy, and Air Force Acts with respect to disciplinary powers in Joint Commands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None

Answer: D. None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because ISOs can be composed of personnel from two or more services, not just Army and Navy.
Statement 2 is incorrect as ISO Rules empower control over service personnel, not civilian staff.
Statement 3 is incorrect; the respective Service Acts still apply to individuals; the ISO Act does not override them.

Importance of the Deputy Speaker in Lok Sabha

Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance

The position of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha has remained vacant for over six years, raising significant concerns regarding constitutional compliance and democratic governance.
The Deputy Speaker serves as the second-ranking presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, subordinate only to the Speaker. As per Article 95(1) of the Constitution, the Deputy Speaker performs the functions of the Speaker in their absence or when the post is vacant. In joint sittings of both Houses, the Deputy Speaker presides in the absence of the Speaker.
The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members, as mandated under Article 93. Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha empowers the Speaker to fix the date for the election.
Conventionally, the Deputy Speaker is chosen from the Opposition to maintain representational balance; however, from 1952 to 1969, all four Deputy Speakers were from the ruling party.
Notably, the 17th Lok Sabha (2019–2024) witnessed a complete absence of a Deputy Speaker. When officiating as Speaker, the Deputy Speaker enjoys all powers of the Speaker, including maintaining order and interpreting rules.
He/she cannot vote in the first instance but holds a casting vote in case of a tie. When not presiding, the Deputy Speaker functions as a regular member, retaining the right to speak and vote.
A special privilege conferred upon the Deputy Speaker is that he/she automatically becomes the chairperson of any Parliamentary Committee they are nominated to. The Deputy Speaker can be removed by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by an effective majority, i.e., a majority of the total membership excluding vacant seats.
Such a motion requires a 14-day advance notice. During consideration of the removal motion, the Deputy Speaker cannot preside over the House but may remain present.
The prolonged vacancy of the Deputy Speaker undermines constitutional propriety and parliamentary norms, weakens the balance between the ruling party and Opposition, compromises democratic inclusiveness, and risks legislative paralysis in the absence of the Speaker.
This also reflects the erosion of institutional integrity and neglect of a constitutional office.
The Deputy Speaker’s office is a constitutional mandate, not a discretionary appointment.
Its continued vacancy violates the spirit of the Constitution and democratic principles. Immediate corrective action is essential to uphold parliamentary integrity and restore institutional balance.

With reference to the office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority of the members present and voting in the Lok Sabha.
The Constitution explicitly mandates the time frame within which the Deputy Speaker must be elected.
The Deputy Speaker, when not presiding over the House, retains the right to vote on any question before the House.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only

Answer:D
Explanation:

The Constitution (Article 93) mandates that the House “shall, as soon as may be” choose the Deputy Speaker, but does not specify a time frame (Statement 2 incorrect).
When not presiding, the Deputy Speaker can vote like any ordinary member (Statement 3 correct).
Deputy Speaker is elected by Lok Sabha, typically by consensus or voice vote; not necessarily only by a simple majority (Statement 1 not fully accurate for UPSC level precision).

Experiential Learning

Syllabus: GS2/Education

Context:

India’s current education system necessitates a shift towards experiential learning to remain relevant in a rapidly transforming digital and global landscape.
The Evolving Nature of Learning: Humans are inherently designed to learn, yet the modern digital environment has revolutionized access to information.
With AI and bots now capable of imparting conceptual understanding, the traditional role of schools—as mere content delivery centers—is increasingly under threat.

What is Experiential Learning?

Experiential learning is a learner-centered pedagogical approach involving learning through direct experience, reflection, and application. Pioneered by David A. Kolb, this theory emphasizes a cyclical learning process, often represented by the Kolb Learning Cycle: Concrete Experience → Reflective Observation → Abstract Conceptualization → Active Experimentation. Unlike passive methods like rote memorization or lectures, experiential learning emphasizes “learning by doing” and focuses on the process over the outcome.

Benefits of Experiential Learning:

Enhances critical thinking and problem-solving abilities. Boosts student engagement and intrinsic motivation. Encourages collaboration, communication, and peer learning. Promotes real-world skill development that is transferable across contexts.

Challenges in Implementation

Requires extensive planning, infrastructure, and trained educators. Difficult to scale in overcrowded or under-resourced classrooms. Student readiness for self-guided learning can vary significantly.

Need for Reform in India

Indian schools face persistent issues such as infrastructure deficits, teacher shortages, and uneven access, particularly in rural and marginalized areas. The system remains exam-oriented, encouraging rote memorization at the cost of creativity and critical thinking. Advances in neuroscience (e.g., neuroplasticity) affirm the brain’s ability to adapt through diverse, hands-on learning experiences.

Global Best Practices

Finland: Emphasizes student well-being, minimal academic pressure, and play-based learning in early years. Focus on creativity, problem-solving, and critical thinking.
Singapore: Renowned for world-leading PISA rankings in maths, reading, and science. Features a rigorous, structured curriculum and high investment in teacher training.
Japan: Emphasizes discipline, uniformity, and moral education. Students participate in classroom cleaning, fostering responsibility and character development.

Conclusion

The Indian education system’s limitations are deep-rooted, but not insurmountable. A transformative shift requires policy intervention at the national and state levels, community involvement and awareness, teacher empowerment and training, and integration of technology and innovation. By embracing inclusive, adaptive, and learner-centric reforms, India can create an education system that truly prepares its citizens for the challenges and opportunities of the 21st century.

With reference to the office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members by a simple majority vote.
The Constitution prescribes a definite time limit within which the Deputy Speaker must be elected after the general election of the Lok Sabha.
The Deputy Speaker, when presiding over the House, can only exercise a casting vote in case of a tie.
A motion for the removal of the Deputy Speaker requires a special majority of the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha members. While the Constitution (Article 93) mandates that the Lok Sabha choose the Deputy Speaker “as soon as may be,” it does not explicitly prescribe the mode of voting. In practice, the election can be by consensus, voice vote, or simple majority.
“simple majority” is broadly accepted as a practical method, but unanimity or voice vote may also occur.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify a fixed time limit for electing the Deputy Speaker after the general election. The phrase “as soon as may be” is open-ended.
Statement 3 is correct: When presiding, the Deputy Speaker has the powers of the Speaker and votes only to break a tie (casting vote)
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by an effective majority, i.e., a majority of the total membership of the House excluding vacancies, not necessarily a special majority (which is a higher threshold requiring two-thirds majority).

India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise Nomadic Elephant

Syllabus:Defence

Context:

The 17th edition of the India-Mongolia joint military exercise, Nomadic Elephant, is scheduled to take place in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia, from 31st May to 13th June 2025.
This bilateral military engagement alternates annually between the two nations, with the previous edition held in Umroi, Meghalaya in July 2024.

About the Exercise:

Nomadic Elephant is a bilateral military training initiative between the Indian Army and the Mongolian Armed Forces, aimed at enhancing operational synergy in counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency operations, particularly under a UN mandate. It serves as a critical platform for exchanging tactical knowledge, sharing operational best practices, and strengthening defence ties.

Participating Forces:

India: 45 personnel from the Arunachal Scouts Battalion, a unit skilled in high-altitude and mountain warfare.
Mongolia: A 150-strong Special Forces team.

Objectives and Training Modules:

The exercise is designed to develop interoperability in semi-conventional warfare within mountainous terrain and includes endurance drills, reflex shooting, room intervention techniques, rock craft training, small team tactics, and cyber warfare simulations (a new feature in this edition).

Tactical Drills and Operations:

The joint training will feature key operational exercises such as joint counter-terrorism responses, establishment of a combined command post, special heliborne operations, drone deployment and anti-drone tactics, insertion and extraction missions for small units, and landing zone security.
These drills aim to refine coordination between the two forces in multi-domain operational environments.

Historical Context:

Initiated in 2004, Nomadic Elephant has evolved into a significant pillar of bilateral defence cooperation. The inaugural edition was hosted by Mongolia, and the exercise has since seen alternate hosting by both nations, with increased scope and complexity over the years.

Broader India-Mongolia Defence Engagement:

Joint Working Group (JWG) on Defence Cooperation meets annually to review strategic collaboration.
India actively participates in Mongolia’s Khan Quest, a multinational military exercise.
This sustained engagement underscores the shared commitment of both nations to regional security, counter-terrorism preparedness, and strategic stability in the Indo-Pacific.

Conclusion:

The 17th edition of Nomadic Elephant reflects the growing strategic alignment between India and Mongolia. Through advanced tactical training and enhanced military collaboration, the two nations continue to foster a robust defence partnership anchored in mutual respect and regional peace.

With reference to Exercise Nomadic Elephant, consider the following statements:

It is a trilateral exercise involving India, Mongolia, and Russia under a UN peacekeeping mandate.
The exercise alternates annually between India and Mongolia since its inception in 2004.
The Arunachal Scouts, participating from India, are specially trained in amphibious warfare for riverine operations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Nomadic Elephant is bilateral, not trilateral.
Statement 2 is correct: It has alternated annually between India and Mongolia since 2004.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Arunachal Scouts specialize in high-altitude and mountain warfare, not amphibious operations.

Niveshak Shivir Initiative

Syllabus:Governance

Context

On June 1, 2025, the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) launched the pilot edition of Niveshak Shivir, an investor-centric outreach program. Held in Pune, this initiative seeks to promote financial inclusion and facilitate resolution of long-standing issues related to unclaimed dividends and shares.

Purpose and Objectives

The primary aim of Niveshak Shivir is to empower investors through direct engagement with companies and Registrars and Transfer Agents (RTAs), bypassing bureaucratic hurdles. The initiative provides a one-stop solution for:
Recovery of unclaimed dividends and shares held for 6–7 years
On-the-spot KYC and nomination updates
Redressal of pending investor claims with IEPFA

Structure and Implementation

Dedicated kiosks operated by participating companies and RTAs form the operational backbone of the Shivir. These counters enable real-time, face-to-face interaction between investors and concerned stakeholders, thereby eliminating intermediaries and enhancing both transparency and grievance redressal efficiency.

Significance of the Problem

According to IEPFA, India currently holds over ₹1 lakh crore worth of unclaimed shares (over 1.1 billion shares), along with unclaimed dividends totaling ₹6,000 crore. This vast pool of dormant investments underscores the critical need for interventions like Niveshak Shivir, which seek to restore investor access and rights over their financial assets.

Strategic Vision and Expansion Plan

The Pune event is the first in a series of similar camps planned across cities identified as hubs for unclaimed investments. Future Shivir events will not only facilitate claims processing but also emphasize financial literacy and investor education, thereby strengthening grassroots financial awareness.

Technological Advancements

In a move to digitize and streamline the investor grievance redressal process, IEPFA plans to launch an integrated portal by August 2025. This portal will provide:
Real-time tracking of claims
Direct interface with companies and RTAs
Automated data validation through integration with PAN, bank databases, and depositories

IEPFA’s Broader Commitment

The Niveshak Shivir initiative is emblematic of IEPFA’s commitment to building a secure, transparent, and investor-friendly financial ecosystem in India. Through sustained engagement with market participants and targeted outreach programs, the authority aims to elevate the standard of investor protection and empowerment

With reference to the Niveshak Shivir initiative launched in 2025, consider the following statements:

It is a program exclusively implemented by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
It provides for direct investor interaction with companies and Registrars and Transfer Agents (RTAs).
The program primarily aims to recover unclaimed dividends and shares lying with private banks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The initiative is launched by IEPFA, not SEBI.
Statement 2 is correct: A key feature of the initiative is facilitating direct interaction between investors, companies, and RTAs.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The dividends and shares are not limited to private banks; they pertain to listed entities across sectors.

Tropical Cyclones and Their Impact on Infant Mortality

Syllabus:Geography

Context:

Emerging research has highlighted a disturbing link between tropical cyclones and elevated infant mortality rates in low- and middle-income countries.
Infants who experience tropical cyclones during their first year of life are found to face significantly higher risks of death, underscoring the urgent need for robust child health safeguards and improved disaster response mechanisms, particularly in the face of climate change.

Understanding Tropical Cyclones

Tropical cyclones are powerful weather systems that form over warm tropical oceans.
Characterised by low atmospheric pressure, high-velocity winds, and intense rainfall, they are known by different names globally—hurricanes in the Atlantic and typhoons in the western Pacific.
The development of such storms depends on warm sea surface temperatures, atmospheric instability, and specific humidity and wind patterns.

Infant Mortality and Cyclone Exposure

The study reveals an average 11% rise in infant mortality following cyclone exposure, equating to approximately 4.4 additional deaths per 1,000 live births.
The mortality spike is most prominent within the first year after the storm event and tends to normalise by the second year.
The exact mechanisms driving this increase remain unclear and require further investigation.

Cross-Country Variations

Data from seven countries—Bangladesh, Madagascar, Cambodia, the Philippines, the Dominican Republic, and Haiti—showed wide disparities.
Bangladesh and Haiti experienced mortality increases of over 10 additional deaths per 1,000 births, while some countries showed negligible change.
These differences are attributed to variables such as geographic vulnerability, quality of housing, and resilience of public health systems.

Determinants Beyond Nutrition and Healthcare

Interestingly, the study found that access to healthcare and nutritional status did not significantly worsen due to cyclone exposure, indicating that other indirect factors—like environmental stress, breakdowns in caregiving networks, or infrastructure disruption—may be central to the mortality rise.
Identifying these determinants is critical for formulating targeted, evidence-based interventions.

Climate Change and Escalating Cyclone Threats

Climate change is expected to increase both the frequency and severity of tropical cyclones, intensifying risks to already vulnerable populations, especially infants. This amplifies the need for integrated disaster preparedness strategies that include maternal and child health as a core component of climate resilience frameworks.

Conclusion:

The nexus between tropical cyclones and infant mortality presents a pressing global health challenge. In the context of escalating climate threats, it is imperative to prioritise investments in disaster-resilient healthcare systems, strengthen community-based support mechanisms, and develop comprehensive child protection strategies to mitigate future risks.

With reference to recent findings on the impact of tropical cyclones on infant mortality in low- and middle-income countries, consider the following statements:

The highest increase in infant mortality is observed within the first year following a tropical cyclone.
Undernutrition and limited access to healthcare were identified as the primary causes of increased mortality post-cyclone.
The mortality rate tends to stabilize within two years after cyclone exposure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 only

Answer:A
Explanation: Statement 1 and 3 are correct based on the study’s findings. Statement 2 is incorrect because the study found that undernutrition and healthcare access were not directly affected by cyclone exposure, suggesting other factors at play.

What are TR1 Cells?

Syllabus:ScienceBottom of Form

Recent scientific research has uncovered critical insights into the immune system’s response to malaria, spotlighting a previously underappreciated subset of immune cells known as TR1 cells.
Published in April 2025, the study emphasizes the pivotal role these cells play in orchestrating an effective immune defence against Plasmodium falciparum, the parasite responsible for the most severe form of malaria.
These findings carry profound implications for the development of next-generation vaccines and may reshape strategies for combating other persistent infectious diseases.
The human immune system comprises two principal arms—innate and adaptive immunity. Innate immunity offers immediate, non-specific protection, whereas adaptive immunity generates a targeted response and retains immunological memory, enabling a more robust reaction upon subsequent exposures to the same pathogen.
Within this adaptive framework, CD4+ T-cells are central players, further divided into multiple functional subsets, including helper T-cells that assist in activating B-cells and other immune mechanisms.
The research particularly focused on TR1 cells, a lesser-known subset of CD4+ T-cells, revealing their integral role in malaria immunity.
Conducted in Uganda, a region with endemic malaria transmission, the study examined children with repeated malaria infections.
Despite constituting only a small fraction of the total CD4+ T-cell population, TR1 cells were found to contribute significantly to the immune response.
The research employed cutting-edge methodologies, including single-cell RNA sequencing, enabling precise tracking of T-cell genetic barcodes over time.
This allowed researchers to monitor the expansion, longevity, and memory potential of TR1 cells during and after malaria episodes.
The longitudinal design of the study offered valuable insights into how TR1 cells respond dynamically and specifically to the malaria parasite. A key revelation was that TR1 cells exhibit robust long-term memory and sustain their functionality across successive infections.
Unlike other T-cell subsets, these cells demonstrated expansion upon reinfection, underscoring their specificity and adaptability in recognizing and responding to the pathogen.
The discovery opens new avenues for vaccine development, as targeting TR1 cells could enhance the effectiveness of immune responses elicited by immunization.
Rather than directly targeting the parasite, future vaccines and therapies might instead modulate the immune system by stimulating these highly responsive cells.
Beyond malaria, the insights derived from studying TR1 cells may inform immunological approaches to a broader range of infectious diseases.
The ability of TR1 cells to maintain memory and adaptability across multiple infections makes them a promising target for therapeutic interventions aimed at bolstering host immunity against complex pathogens.

With reference to TR1 cells recently studied in the context of malaria, consider the following statements:

TR1 cells are a subset of CD8+ T-cells that mediate cytotoxic responses in malaria infections.
TR1 cells exhibit immunological memory and expand upon reinfection with Plasmodium falciparum.
The function of TR1 cells was discovered using gene-editing techniques like CRISPR-Cas9.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: TR1 cells are a subset of CD4+ T-cells, not CD8+.
Statement 2 is correct: The study found that TR1 cells exhibit memory and expand on reinfection.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The study used single-cell RNA sequencing, not CRISPR-Cas9.

RBI Balance Sheet Growth and Economic Outlook 2025

Syllabus:Economy

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reported an 8.2% expansion in its balance sheet for the financial year 2024–25, bringing the total to ₹76.25 lakh crore.
This increase reflects the robust performance of India’s central banking system amid a turbulent global economic landscape, reinforcing India’s position as the fastest-growing major economy projected for 2025–26.
The RBI’s income increased by 22.77%, driven primarily by gains in foreign exchange operations and higher returns from gold and domestic investments.
Total expenditure grew at a relatively moderate 7.76%. The overall surplus rose by 27.37%, reaching ₹2.69 trillion, enabling a significant transfer to the Central Government.
Gold holdings increased by 52.09%, marking the highest contribution to asset expansion.
Domestic investments grew by 14.32%, reflecting active open market operations and liquidity management.
Foreign investments saw marginal growth of 1.70%, indicative of steady foreign exchange reserve management.
As of 31 March 2025, domestic assets accounted for 25.73% of total assets, while foreign currency assets, gold, and loans to financial institutions made up 74.27%. On the liabilities side, notes issued increased by 6.03%, revaluation accounts by 17.32%, and other liabilities by 23.31%.
The value of banknotes in circulation rose by 6%, with ₹500 notes remaining the most circulated denomination despite a slight decline in their share.
Withdrawal of ₹2000 notes continued, with 98.2% returned to banks. The value of coins in circulation increased by 9.6%.
The e-rupee saw a surge in usage by 334%, signaling greater acceptance of digital currency. While counterfeit notes generally declined, increases were observed in ₹200 notes by 13.9% and ₹500 notes by 37.3%.
The RBI reaffirmed its commitment to macroeconomic stability, citing easing supply chain pressures, robust agricultural output, and a favorable inflation trajectory, with confidence in aligning headline inflation with the 4% target over the next 12 months.
The report advised commercial banks to strengthen their risk management frameworks, especially concerning interest rate risk exposure, mitigation of trading and banking book risks, and preserving net interest margins amid a moderating yield environment.

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) balance sheet for the financial year 2024-25:

Gold holdings contributed the highest percentage increase to the RBI’s asset expansion during the year.
Domestic assets constitute less than one-third of the total assets of the RBI as of March 31, 2025.
The increase in foreign investments was the primary driver of the RBI’s balance sheet expansion in 2024-25.
Revaluation accounts form a part of the liabilities side and increased by more than 15% in 2024-25.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above

Answer:A

Explanation:

Gold holdings increased by 52.09%, the largest contributor to asset growth; domestic assets were 25.73%, less than one-third; foreign investments rose marginally by 1.7%, not the primary driver; revaluation accounts on liabilities rose by 17.32%, over 15%.