TOne Academy

Monthly Current Affairs April 2025

Brazil’s Proposal for a UN-Backed Global Climate Action Council

Syllabus: Environment

 

Context:

In a bid to catalyze global climate governance, Brazil has proposed the establishment of a Global Climate Action Council under the aegis of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). This initiative is expected to take center stage at the upcoming 30th Conference of the Parties (COP30), scheduled to be held in Belém, Brazil, in November 2025.

 

Key Features of the Proposal:

  1. Objective and Vision:
  • The proposed Global Climate Action Council is envisioned as a streamlined, agile mechanism to complement existing UNFCCC structures.
  • It aims to simplify decision-making, accelerate implementation, and enhance coordination among nations for climate action.
  • The council is intended to reduce bureaucratic inertia, often criticized in the current multilateral negotiation process.

 

  1. Core Functions:
  • Expedite Climate Implementation: Bridge the gap between climate commitments made at COPs and their ground-level execution.
  • Global Coordination Hub: Serve as a platform for synchronizing national efforts, aligning them with global climate targets.
  • Monitoring and Accountability: Facilitate transparent review of climate pledges and their progress through periodic assessments.
  • Minimize Procedural Complexity: Create a more result-oriented and responsive institutional framework within the UNFCCC ecosystem.

 

Strategic Significance of COP30:

  • Brazil’s proposal gains particular salience as it prepares to host COP30—an opportunity to showcase its leadership in climate diplomacy.
  • The Belém summit is expected to deliberate extensively on the feasibility, structure, and potential mandate of the council.

 

Global Response and Emerging Divergences:

Supportive Positions:

  • Countries like Germany, the Netherlands, and Sweden have shown support, citing the need to reform and expedite climate governance mechanisms.
  • These countries see the council as a corrective step to overcome the sluggish pace of existing frameworks.

Cautious Voices:

  • Several developed nations have expressed measured interest, voicing concern over the creation of a parallel institutional structure.
  • There are apprehensions that such a council could dilute the authority of the UNFCCC or create institutional overlap, adding more complexity rather than resolving it.

 

Current Status and Way Forward:

  • As of now, Brazil’s proposal remains informal and under exploratory discussion.
  • It is expected to feature prominently in COP30 deliberations, where its structure, legitimacy, and compatibility with existing frameworks will be critically assessed.

 

Broader Implications:

  • The proposal underscores the growing urgency of climate action amidst increasing global climate crises.
  • It also highlights Brazil’s aspiration to reposition itself as a climate leader, especially from the Global South, advocating for a more agile and responsive global climate architecture.

With reference to Brazil’s proposal for a Global Climate Action Council under the UNFCCC, consider the following statements:

  1. The council, if created, would function as a legally binding body parallel to the COP structure.
  2. One of its primary objectives is to ensure time-bound implementation of climate decisions made during COP meetings.
  3. The proposal has received universal support among developed countries due to its efficiency-oriented focus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 2 and 3 only

 

Answer: B. 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The proposal is currently informal and not legally binding. It aims to complement, not replace or parallel, the COP.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The core aim is to speed up implementation of COP decisions, enhancing global response efficiency.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: While some developed nations support the initiative (e.g., Germany, Sweden), others have expressed concerns over redundancy and bureaucratic overlap.

Brazil’s Proposal for a UN-Backed Global Climate Action Council

Syllabus: Environment

 

Context:

In a bid to catalyze global climate governance, Brazil has proposed the establishment of a Global Climate Action Council under the aegis of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). This initiative is expected to take center stage at the upcoming 30th Conference of the Parties (COP30), scheduled to be held in Belém, Brazil, in November 2025.

Key Features of the Proposal:

  1. Objective and Vision:
  • The proposed Global Climate Action Council is envisioned as a streamlined, agile mechanism to complement existing UNFCCC structures.
  • It aims to simplify decision-making, accelerate implementation, and enhance coordination among nations for climate action.
  • The council is intended to reduce bureaucratic inertia, often criticized in the current multilateral negotiation process.

 

  1. Core Functions:
  • Expedite Climate Implementation: Bridge the gap between climate commitments made at COPs and their ground-level execution.
  • Global Coordination Hub: Serve as a platform for synchronizing national efforts, aligning them with global climate targets.
  • Monitoring and Accountability: Facilitate transparent review of climate pledges and their progress through periodic assessments.
  • Minimize Procedural Complexity: Create a more result-oriented and responsive institutional framework within the UNFCCC ecosystem.

Strategic Significance of COP30:

  • Brazil’s proposal gains particular salience as it prepares to host COP30—an opportunity to showcase its leadership in climate diplomacy.
  • The Belém summit is expected to deliberate extensively on the feasibility, structure, and potential mandate of the council.

Global Response and Emerging Divergences:

Supportive Positions:

  • Countries like Germany, the Netherlands, and Sweden have shown support, citing the need to reform and expedite climate governance mechanisms.
  • These countries see the council as a corrective step to overcome the sluggish pace of existing frameworks.

Cautious Voices:

  • Several developed nations have expressed measured interest, voicing concern over the creation of a parallel institutional structure.
  • There are apprehensions that such a council could dilute the authority of the UNFCCC or create institutional overlap, adding more complexity rather than resolving it.

Current Status and Way Forward:

  • As of now, Brazil’s proposal remains informal and under exploratory discussion.
  • It is expected to feature prominently in COP30 deliberations, where its structure, legitimacy, and compatibility with existing frameworks will be critically assessed.

Broader Implications:

  • The proposal underscores the growing urgency of climate action amidst increasing global climate crises.
  • It also highlights Brazil’s aspiration to reposition itself as a climate leader, especially from the Global South, advocating for a more agile and responsive global climate architecture.

With reference to Brazil’s proposal for a Global Climate Action Council under the UNFCCC, consider the following statements:

  1. The council, if created, would function as a legally binding body parallel to the COP structure.
  2. One of its primary objectives is to ensure time-bound implementation of climate decisions made during COP meetings.
  3. The proposal has received universal support among developed countries due to its efficiency-oriented focus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 2 and 3 only

 

Answer: B. 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The proposal is currently informal and not legally binding. It aims to complement, not replace or parallel, the COP.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The core aim is to speed up implementation of COP decisions, enhancing global response efficiency.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: While some developed nations support the initiative (e.g., Germany, Sweden), others have expressed concerns over redundancy and bureaucratic overlap.

Biomass Mission

Syllabus: GS 3/Environment 

In News:

  • The European Space Agency (ESA) is set to launch the Biomass Mission on April 29, 2025, under its Earth Explorer programme.

Need for the Mission:

  • Forests act as major carbon sinks, absorbing nearly 16 billion metric tonnes of CO₂ annually and storing about 861 gigatonnes of carbon.
  • In 2023, approximately 3.7 million hectares of tropical forests were lost, contributing to 6% of global CO₂ emissions.
  • Accurate data on forest biomass and carbon storage is essential to evaluate climate change impacts and improve carbon accounting models.

About the Biomass Mission:

Objective:

  • To map and monitor the world’s forests and understand their role in the global carbon cycle, particularly in terms of biomass and carbon sequestration.

 

  • Orbit Type:
    It will operate in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO) at an altitude of 666 km, allowing consistent lighting conditions for data capture.
  • Technology Used:
  • The mission will deploy a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) operating in the P-band frequency, capable of penetrating dense forest canopies.
  • Biomass will be the first satellite to use P-band SAR for such applications.

Applications:

  • Measuring above-ground biomass and carbon storage.
  • Creating 3D maps of forest height and structure.
  • Monitoring ice sheet movements in Antarctica.
  • Generating terrain models in heavily vegetated regions.

Earth Explorer Programme:

  • The Biomass mission is the seventh mission in the ESA’s Earth Explorer series, which provides crucial scientific data on Earth’s dynamic systems (e.g., atmosphere, biosphere, hydrosphere, cryosphere).

Previous missions include:

  • GOCE (Gravity field and steady-state Ocean Circulation Explorer) – 2009 to 2013
  • EarthCARE (Earth Clouds, Aerosols and Radiation Explorer) – launched in 2024

With reference to the European Space Agency’s (ESA) Biomass Mission, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the first satellite to use P-band synthetic aperture radar for measuring forest biomass.
  2. It aims to provide high-resolution data on forest canopy carbon only in the tropical belt.
  3. The mission will operate from a Sun-Synchronous Orbit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Biomass is the first satellite to use P-band SAR for this purpose.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It will map global forests, not just tropical ones.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The satellite will be placed in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO)

CM Dhami Launches Bhagirath App for Water Conservation in Uttarakhand

  Syllabus: Environment

  • In a significant move towards sustainable water resource management, Uttarakhand Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami launched the Bhagirath mobile app as part of the Jal Sanrakshan Abhiyan 2025.
  • The initiative aims to promote citizen involvement in conserving the state’s natural water heritage.

 

Key Features of the Initiative:

Bhagirath App:

  • Designed to encourage public participation in water conservation.
  • Enables users to report endangered water sources like Naulas, Dharaas, and rain-fed rivers.
  • Facilitates timely government response for restoration and protection.

 

Campaign Theme:

  • “Dhara Mera, Naula Mera, Gaon Mera, Prayas Mera” — emphasizes collective responsibility and grassroots involvement in water conservation.
  • A detailed brochure outlining the campaign strategy was also released.

 

Spring and River Rejuvenation Authority (SARA):

  • Key nodal agency overseeing water conservation in the state.
  • Achievements include storing 12 million cubic meters of rainwater and conserving over 6,500 water sources.
  • Working in collaboration with the Central Ground Water Board to improve groundwater recharge, especially in plains.

 

River Rejuvenation Projects:

In partnership with IIT Roorkee and NIH Roorkee, DPRs are being developed for the rejuvenation of rivers such as:

  • Nayar
  • Song
  • Uttarvahini Shipra
  • Gauri

Community Engagement and Governance:

  • A Dhara-Naula Conservation Committee formed at the village level.
  • Statewide campaign to build awareness and train Gram Panchayats through workshops in sustainable water management techniques.

Government’s Vision:

  • CM Dhami reiterated the importance of natural water sources in ensuring ecological balance and sustainable development.
  • Emphasis on people-led governance and local resource mobilization for long-term water security.

Consider the following statements about the Bhagirath mobile app:

  1. It is launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti under the National Water Mission.
  2. It enables citizens to report endangered water sources like Naulas and Dharaas.
  3. It aims to facilitate public participation in water conservation in Uttarakhand.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The app was launched by the Uttarakhand Government, not the Ministry of Jal Shakti. It enables citizens to report local water sources under threat and promotes public participation in water conservation.

Nilgiri Tahr Census

Syllabus:Environment

  • The Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius), an endangered mountain ungulate, is endemic to the southern Western Ghats of India and serves as the state animal of Tamil Nadu.
  • Culturally revered and referenced in ancient Tamil literature, adult males are colloquially known as “Saddlebacks” due to the distinct light grey saddle-shaped patch on their backs.

 

2024 Census Initiative

  • In a joint initiative commemorating the 50th anniversary of Eravikulam National Park, a comprehensive Nilgiri Tahr census is scheduled from April 24 to 27 across 89 blocks in Kerala and 176 blocks in Tamil Nadu.
  • The operation will involve forest officials and trained volunteers, utilizing camera traps and pellet sampling to facilitate genetic studies.
  • The ‘bounded count’ method will be employed to estimate the species’ population density accurately.

Habitat and Distribution

  • The species is primarily found in the montane grasslands, Shola forests, and high-altitude rocky terrains of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
  • The largest contiguous population is located in Eravikulam National Park, Kerala, which offers the species a cold, wet, and rugged terrain ideal for survival.
  • The Nilgiri Tahr is diurnal and exhibits a high degree of ecological resilience and adaptability.

 

Conservation Status

  • Listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
  • Protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • The population has declined significantly due to habitat degradation, poaching, and anthropogenic pressures.
  • As per a 2015 WWF assessment, the wild population stood at an estimated 3,122 individuals, indicating a major contraction from its historical range.

 

Project Nilgiri Tahr

  • Launched in December 2022 by the Tamil Nadu Government, Project Nilgiri Tahr is a five-year conservation initiative with a financial outlay of ₹25.14 crore. The project’s key objectives include:
  • Conducting systematic population surveys.
  • Implementing radio telemetry studies.
  • Reintroducing the species to historical habitats.
  • Mitigating immediate threats such as habitat encroachment and climate vulnerability.

With reference to the Nilgiri Tahr, consider the following statements:

  1. It is found only in Tamil Nadu and nowhere else in India.
  2. It inhabits both tropical montane grasslands and Shola forests.
  3. Adult males are commonly referred to as “Saddlebacks” due to a light grey patch on their back.
  4. The Nilgiri Tahr is nocturnal and prefers dry scrublands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

 

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: While the largest population is in Tamil Nadu, it is also found in Kerala, especially in Eravikulam National Park.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It inhabits tropical montane grasslands, Shola forests, and high-altitude rocky areas.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Adult males are called “Saddlebacks” due to the light grey saddle-shaped patch.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The Nilgiri Tahr is diurnal, not nocturnal, and does not prefer dry scrublands.

Cabinet Approves Modernization of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM)

Syllabus:Environment

  • In a significant policy intervention aimed at augmenting agricultural water-use efficiency and productivity, the Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved a new sub-scheme titled Modernization of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM) under the overarching umbrella of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY).
  • The scheme, with a total outlay of ₹1,600 crore, will be operational during FY 2025–26 and is envisaged as a precursor to a comprehensive national plan aligned with the 16th Finance Commission cycle, set to commence in April 2026.

Key Components and Strategic Objectives

  • Sub-scheme under PMKSY, the flagship irrigation and water resource management programme.
  • Financial Outlay: ₹1,600 crore for 2025–26.
  • Modernize backend irrigation infrastructure, specifically targeting canal-based systems, to ensure seamless water delivery from source to farm gate.
  • Emphasis on micro-irrigation compatibility through pressurized underground piping networks, enabling coverage of up to 1 hectare per farmer.

Technological Interventions

  • To drive precision and efficiency, the sub-scheme proposes integration of:
  • SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) systems for automated monitoring.
  • IoT (Internet of Things) solutions for:
  • Real-time water management
  • Water accounting
  • These technologies aim to optimize Water Use Efficiency (WUE) at the field level.

Implementation Model: Pilots with Innovation Incentives

  • Pilot Projects to be implemented across diverse agro-climatic zones to ensure replicability and contextual adaptability.
  • Adopted through a Challenge Fund mechanism, encouraging inter-state competitiveness and innovation.

Community Engagement and Institutional Synergy

  • Promotes Irrigation Management Transfer (IMT) to Water User Societies (WUS).
  • Five-year handholding period, with linkages to:
  • Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs)
  • Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
  • This fosters local ownership, accountability, and long-term sustainability.

Youth Participation and Future Orientation

  • The scheme aims to incentivize youth involvement in agriculture via technologically enabled irrigation solutions.
  • Insights from the pilot phase will inform a National Command Area Development and Water Management Plan beginning April 2026.

Significance

  • M-CADWM aligns with the government’s vision of “Per Drop More Crop”, addressing climate resilience, food security, and sustainable resource use.
  • It marks a paradigm shift from conventional irrigation models towards smart, tech-driven, and community-led irrigation governance.

Consider the following statements with reference to the M-CADWM sub-scheme:

  1. It adopts a top-down, centralized implementation strategy.
  2. It will provide irrigation support up to 5 hectares per farmer through open canal systems.
  3. It promotes community-level ownership through Water User Societies.
  4. Learnings from this pilot phase will be used to develop a National Plan from FY 2026 onward.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer:B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: M-CADWM uses a decentralized, challenge-funding model to promote state innovation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The irrigation support is up to 1 hectare per farmer, not 5.

Statements 3 and 4 are correct: The scheme promotes Water User Societies and feeds into a national plan starting April 2026.

Plastic Parks in India

Syllabus: GS 3/Environment 

  • The Plastic Parks Scheme is gaining prominence as a strategic initiative to promote industrial development and environmental sustainability within India’s plastics sector.

What are Plastic Parks?

  • Plastic Parks are dedicated industrial zones developed specifically for plastic processing and allied industries. These parks aim to:
  • Consolidate and synergize the fragmented plastic processing sector.
  • Attract investments and boost production and exports.
  • Generate employment and enhance technological innovation.
  • Promote environmentally sustainable practices through integrated waste management and recycling systems.

Significance and Progress:

  • Plastic Parks form a critical component of India’s broader strategy for plastic waste management and circular economy.
  • India is now 12th globally in plastic exports, with figures rising from $8.2 billion in 2014 to $27 billion in 2022, largely due to proactive policy measures like this scheme.
  • So far, 10 Plastic Parks have been approved across various states.

 

Challenges in the Sector:

  • The Indian plastics industry, though substantial, is highly fragmented, dominated by micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs).
  • These units often lack the infrastructure and scale to compete globally or implement sustainable practices effectively.

 

Government Interventions:

  • The Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals is implementing the scheme to establish state-of-the-art infrastructure for plastic parks.
  • A cluster development approach is used to enable shared common facilities, including recycling and innovation hubs.
  • The Government of India provides financial assistance up to 50% of the project cost, subject to a maximum of ₹40 crore per park.

 

Conclusion:

The Plastic Parks Scheme represents a transformative initiative to bolster India’s plastic processing industry by promoting scale, sustainability, and competitiveness. As India’s share in global plastic trade expands, these parks will be pivotal in ensuring inclusive, innovative, and eco-conscious growth, aligning with national objectives of ‘Make in India’ and sustainable development.

Consider the following statements regarding the Plastic Parks Scheme:

  1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
  2. The scheme provides 100% central assistance for the development of parks.
  3. It aims to promote cluster development and common infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The scheme is indeed implemented by the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals, under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The GoI provides financial assistance up to 50%, not 100%, with a cap of ₹40 crore per park.
  • Statement 3 is correct: It adopts a cluster development approach to build shared infrastructure and common facilities.

Six New Scarab Beetles Discovered in India

Syllabus:Environment

  • India’s remarkable biodiversity continues to unfold as scientists report the discovery of six new species of scarab beetles from two of the country’s premier ecological regions—Northeast India and the Western Ghats.
  • The findings, recently published in the peer-reviewed journal Zootaxa, emphasize the critical need for sustained conservation, research, and biodiversity mapping.

New Species Identified (Subfamily: Sericinae)

The newly documented beetles belong to the subfamily Sericinae, known for their roles in ecosystem functioning. The six species are:

  • Maladera champhaiensis – Discovered in Champhai, Mizoram
  • Maladera barasingha – Named after the swamp deer (barasingha) due to its antler-like structure
  • Maladera lumlaensis – Found in Lumla, Arunachal Pradesh
  • Maladera onam – Located in Kerala; named after the Onam festival
  • Neoserica churachandpurensis – Identified in Churachandpur, Manipur
  • Serica subansiriensis – From Subansiri, Arunachal Pradesh

 

Research Team & Collaborative Effort

The species were described by:

  • Devanshu Gupta
  • Debika Bhunia
  • Dirk Ahrens
  • Kailash Chandra

This research represents a collaborative endeavor between the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) and Germany’s Museum Alexander Koenig, highlighting the importance of international cooperation in taxonomy and conservation science.

 

Regions of Discovery

  • Five species were discovered in Northeast India, a region falling within the Eastern Himalayas—an area celebrated for its endemic diversity and evolutionary significance.
  • One species was found in Kerala, part of the Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its exceptional biodiversity.

 

Methodology & Additional Findings

The discoveries were based on the examination of specimens housed in the National Zoological Collection maintained by the ZSI. As a result of this detailed survey, 28 new state-level distribution records were also established. Notable examples include:

  • Maladera bengalensis recorded for the first time in Goa
  • Maladera seriatoguttata in Maharashtra

 

Ecological Significance of Sericinae Beetles

Beetles of the Sericinae subfamily are ecologically important, playing key roles in:

  • Soil aeration
  • Nutrient cycling
  • Natural pest regulation

While some species are agricultural pests, many contribute significantly to maintaining soil health and ecosystem stability.

 

Why It Matters

  • This discovery not only enriches the understanding of India’s insect biodiversity but also:
  • Reinforces the ecological significance of India’s biodiversity hotspots
  • Urges the need for deeper scientific exploration and documentation
  • Emphasizes the importance of preserving fragile ecosystems amid growing environmental threats.

Which of the following biodiversity hotspots are associated with the recent discovery of six new Sericinae scarab beetle species in India?

  1. Eastern Himalayas
  2. Sundarbans
  3. Western Ghats
  4. Indo-Gangetic Plains

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: India is home to four biodiversity hotspots as recognized globally:

Eastern Himalayas

  • Indo-Burma (includes parts of Northeast India)
  • Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
  • Sundaland (includes Nicobar Islands)

In the recent discovery published in Zootaxa, six new Sericinae scarab beetle species were identified. Their locations are:

Five species were discovered in Northeast India, which falls within the Eastern Himalayas hotspot. These include:

  • Maladera champhaiensis (Mizoram)
  • Maladera barasingha
  • Maladera lumlaensis (Arunachal Pradesh)
  • Neoserica churachandpurensis (Manipur)
  • Serica subansiriensis (Arunachal Pradesh)

One species, Maladera onam, was found in Kerala, part of the Western Ghats, another biodiversity hotspot.

Six New Scarab Beetles Discovered in India

Syllabus:Environment

  • India’s remarkable biodiversity continues to unfold as scientists report the discovery of six new species of scarab beetles from two of the country’s premier ecological regions—Northeast India and the Western Ghats.
  • The findings, recently published in the peer-reviewed journal Zootaxa, emphasize the critical need for sustained conservation, research, and biodiversity mapping.

New Species Identified (Subfamily: Sericinae)

The newly documented beetles belong to the subfamily Sericinae, known for their roles in ecosystem functioning. The six species are:

  • Maladera champhaiensis – Discovered in Champhai, Mizoram
  • Maladera barasingha – Named after the swamp deer (barasingha) due to its antler-like structure
  • Maladera lumlaensis – Found in Lumla, Arunachal Pradesh
  • Maladera onam – Located in Kerala; named after the Onam festival
  • Neoserica churachandpurensis – Identified in Churachandpur, Manipur
  • Serica subansiriensis – From Subansiri, Arunachal Pradesh

 

Research Team & Collaborative Effort

The species were described by:

  • Devanshu Gupta
  • Debika Bhunia
  • Dirk Ahrens
  • Kailash Chandra

This research represents a collaborative endeavor between the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) and Germany’s Museum Alexander Koenig, highlighting the importance of international cooperation in taxonomy and conservation science.

 

Regions of Discovery

  • Five species were discovered in Northeast India, a region falling within the Eastern Himalayas—an area celebrated for its endemic diversity and evolutionary significance.
  • One species was found in Kerala, part of the Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its exceptional biodiversity.

 

Methodology & Additional Findings

The discoveries were based on the examination of specimens housed in the National Zoological Collection maintained by the ZSI. As a result of this detailed survey, 28 new state-level distribution records were also established. Notable examples include:

  • Maladera bengalensis recorded for the first time in Goa
  • Maladera seriatoguttata in Maharashtra

 

Ecological Significance of Sericinae Beetles

Beetles of the Sericinae subfamily are ecologically important, playing key roles in:

  • Soil aeration
  • Nutrient cycling
  • Natural pest regulation

While some species are agricultural pests, many contribute significantly to maintaining soil health and ecosystem stability.

 

Why It Matters

  • This discovery not only enriches the understanding of India’s insect biodiversity but also:
  • Reinforces the ecological significance of India’s biodiversity hotspots
  • Urges the need for deeper scientific exploration and documentation
  • Emphasizes the importance of preserving fragile ecosystems amid growing environmental threats.

Which of the following biodiversity hotspots are associated with the recent discovery of six new Sericinae scarab beetle species in India?

  1. Eastern Himalayas
  2. Sundarbans
  3. Western Ghats
  4. Indo-Gangetic Plains

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: India is home to four biodiversity hotspots as recognized globally:

Eastern Himalayas

  • Indo-Burma (includes parts of Northeast India)
  • Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
  • Sundaland (includes Nicobar Islands)

In the recent discovery published in Zootaxa, six new Sericinae scarab beetle species were identified. Their locations are:

Five species were discovered in Northeast India, which falls within the Eastern Himalayas hotspot. These include:

  • Maladera champhaiensis (Mizoram)
  • Maladera barasingha
  • Maladera lumlaensis (Arunachal Pradesh)
  • Neoserica churachandpurensis (Manipur)
  • Serica subansiriensis (Arunachal Pradesh)

One species, Maladera onam, was found in Kerala, part of the Western Ghats, another biodiversity hotspot.

Shifting Cheetahs From Kuno Park to Gandhi Sagar

Syllabus :GS 3/ Environment

  • The Cheetah Project Steering Committee has approved the relocation of cheetahs from Kuno National Park to Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh, ~300 km away.
  • Aim: To establish a metapopulation of 60–70 cheetahs across the Kuno-Gandhi Sagar landscape, covering parts of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Project Cheetah – Overview

  • Launched in 2022 with 8 cheetahs from Namibia and 12 from South Africa
  • Since then, 8 adult cheetahs and 5 cubs have died

Implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under MoEF&CC, in partnership with:

  • Madhya Pradesh Forest Department
  • Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
  • Cheetah experts from Namibia & South Africa

Did You Know?

  • Cheetahs are the world’s fastest land animals (60–70 mph)
  • Adapted with a slender build, long limbs, and semi-retractable claws
  • Once widespread in Africa and Asia, now found in only 10% of their original range
  • A critically endangered population exists in Iran
  • Declared extinct in India in 1952

 

Cheetah Status at Kuno (2025):

  • 26 cheetahs total
  • 17 in the wild, 9 in enclosures
  • Relocation group yet to be decided

 

About Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary

  • Located in eastern Madhya Pradesh, along the Chambal River, near Gandhi Sagar Dam
  • Part of the Khathiar-Gir Dry Deciduous Forests eco-region
  • Features mixed dry deciduous vegetation
  • Houses the Chaturbhuj Nala rock shelters with prehistoric cave paintings

With reference to cheetah conservation efforts in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The relocation of cheetahs from Kuno National Park to Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is aimed at enhancing genetic diversity within a confined breeding population.
  2. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary lies within the Central Indian Highlands and belongs to the Northern Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests eco-region.
  3. Project Cheetah is implemented solely by the National Tiger Conservation Authority without international collaboration.
  4. Cheetahs have been reintroduced into India despite being globally classified as extinct in the wild.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. None of the above

Answer: D. None of the above

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because the relocation aims to establish a metapopulation across a landscape to ensure population stability and resilience, not merely to enhance genetic diversity within a confined group.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect as Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary falls under the Khathiar-Gir Dry Deciduous Forests eco-region, not the Northern Tropical Moist Deciduous type.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect because Project Cheetah is being implemented by the NTCA in collaboration with the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department, Wildlife Institute of India, and international experts from Namibia and South Africa.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect as cheetahs are not globally extinct in the wild; they are present in parts of Africa and Iran. They were declared extinct in India in 1952, not globally.

Karad Sanitary Waste Management Model

Syllabus:Environment

 

What is it?:

  • Karad city in Maharashtra’s Satara district has pioneered a comprehensive system for the safe segregation, collection, and disposal of sanitary and biomedical waste.
  • This model sets a national benchmark for waste management.

 

 

How it Works:

  • Collection: Red bins are strategically placed at public toilets, and garbage vehicles are equipped with dedicated bins specifically for sanitary waste.
  • Processing: The collected waste is transported to a Common Biomedical Waste Treatment Facility (CBWTF) managed by the Karad Hospital Association. The waste is incinerated at temperatures of up to 1200°C to ensure safe disposal.
  • Monitoring: The State Pollution Control Board ensures real-time oversight, guaranteeing compliance with environmental standards.
  • Community Engagement: The model promotes women’s health through awareness campaigns led by women. Schools are equipped with sanitary facilities, such as vending machines and incinerators.
  • PPP Model: The municipal council handles waste collection, while the hospital association is responsible for the incineration process, which is offered free of cost to citizens.

 

Significance: The Karad model promotes hygiene, enhances women’s health, and ensures environmental safety. It serves as a scalable solution for smaller and medium-sized cities looking to improve sanitary waste management efficiently.

Consider the following statements regarding Karad city’s sanitary waste management model:

  1. The model is based on a public-private partnership (PPP) framework where the municipal council handles the waste collection and the hospital association is responsible for incineration.
  2. The sanitary waste is incinerated at temperatures of up to 500°C in the Common Biomedical Waste Treatment Facility (CBWTF).
  3. The initiative has led to significant improvements in hygiene, women’s health, and environmental safety, serving as a scalable model for small and medium cities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. The model operates on a public-private partnership (PPP) structure, where the municipal council handles the collection of sanitary waste, while the hospital association is responsible for the incineration
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The waste is incinerated at temperatures up to 1200°C, not 500°C, to ensure safe and complete disposal.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The model promotes hygiene, improves women’s health, and ensures environmental safety. It has also proven to be a scalable model for other small and medium cities to adopt for efficient sanitary waste management.

Agasthyamalai landscape

Syllabus: GS3/Environment and Conservation

Context:

  • The Supreme Court of India has directed the Central Empowered Committee (CEC) to conduct a comprehensive survey of the Agasthyamalai landscape to identify non-forestry activities and encroachments.

 

Purpose of the Directive:

  • To initiate restoration of degraded forest areas.
  • To protect critical tiger habitats and wildlife sanctuaries in the region.
  • The survey will cover the Periyar Tiger Reserve, Srivilliputhur, Meghamalai, and Thirunelveli sanctuaries.
  • It will include a comparative analysis between current forest cover and historical records to assess forest depletion and degradation.

 

About the Central Empowered Committee (CEC):

  • Established in 2002, reconstituted in 2008, following the landmark T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India case.
  • Functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  • Composition: Member Secretary and three expert members (civil servants) appointed by MoEFCC.
  • Role: Advises the Supreme Court on forest and environmental conservation matters.

 

Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve:

  • Located in the southern Western Ghats, straddling Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • Recognized by UNESCO in 2016 as part of its World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
  • Encompasses Shendurney, Peppara, Neyyar sanctuaries, and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR).
  • Named after sage Agasthya Muni, with a statue at the 1,868m peak — a revered pilgrimage site.
  • Inhabited by the Kani tribes (approx. 30,000 people) across both states.
  • Ecological richness includes over 2,000 species of medicinal plants, many used in Ayurvedic medicine, along with rare fauna and endemic biodiversity.

With reference to the Central Empowered Committee (CEC), consider the following statements:

  1. It was constituted under Article 338A of the Constitution of India.
  2. It functions independently of any central ministry.
  3. It was originally established by a directive of the Supreme Court of India.
  4. Its members are appointed by the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C. 3 only

Explanation:

  • The CEC was established by the Supreme Court in the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India case (2002) — Statement 3 is correct.
  • It functions under the administrative control of MoEFCC, hence not fully independent — Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Article 338A refers to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes — Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Members are appointed by MoEFCC, not the CJI — Statement 4 is incorrect.

Agricultural Land Contaminated by Toxic Heavy Metal Pollution

Syllabus: GS3/ Environment

A recent study has highlighted the significant impact of soil pollution from toxic heavy metals and metalloids on crop yields and food safety globally.

 

Key Highlights:

  • The research reveals that 14% to 17% of the world’s agricultural soils (about 242 million hectares) exceed safe limits for at least one hazardous metal.
  • This contamination affects between 900 million and 1.4 billion people living in high-risk areas.
  • A heavily polluted region has been identified across low-latitude Eurasia, covering southern Europe, the Middle East, South Asia, and southern China.
  • Common contaminants include cadmium, arsenic, cobalt, nickel, and chromium.

 

Causes of Heavy Metal Accumulation:

Anthropogenic Causes: Mining, smelting, industrial activities, and intensive agriculture (especially the overuse of fertilizers and pesticides).

Natural Causes: Metal-rich bedrock and low rainfall in some areas that facilitate the accumulation of pollutants.

Impact of Metal Contamination:

Food Chain Contamination: Crops grown in polluted soils absorb heavy metals such as cadmium, arsenic, lead, and mercury, which then enter the human body through food consumption.

Bioaccumulation: Continuous ingestion of low doses of these metals leads to bioaccumulation, causing chronic health issues, including neurological and developmental disorders.

Biodiversity Loss: Toxic metals harm vital soil organisms like earthworms, insects, and microbes, reducing biodiversity both in the soil and above ground.

Land Degradation: Persistent pollution can make soils barren, contributing to land degradation and desertification.

 

Concerns:

Data Gaps: Limited data from regions like sub-Saharan Africa, northern Russia, and parts of central India may indicate that the contamination is even more widespread.

Food Trade Risks: Global food trade can inadvertently spread contamination from high-risk regions to low-risk ones, posing a threat to global food security.

Rising Demand for Metals: Increasing industrial demand for metals may worsen the contamination problem without urgent mitigation actions.

Government Initiatives for Soil Conservation:

Soil Health Card Scheme: Provides farmers with reports on soil nutrient status to encourage balanced fertilizer use and improve productivity.

Promotion of Organic Farming: Programs like Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) promote organic farming practices to maintain soil health.

National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA): Focuses on improving soil health through integrated farming systems and agroforestry.

 

Global Initiatives:

Global Soil Partnership (GSP): A FAO-led initiative aimed at improving global soil governance and promoting sustainable soil management.

United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD): Works to prevent land degradation and promotes sustainable land management practices globally. The UNCCD has set a goal of land degradation neutrality (LDN) by 2030.

4 per 1000 Initiative: Aims to increase soil carbon stocks by 0.4% annually to fight climate change and enhance soil health.

Way Forward:

Soil Health Observatories: Establish regional soil health observatories and expand soil survey coverage.

Phytoremediation: Use hyperaccumulator plants and microbes to clean up contaminated soils.

Circular Economy: Promote the recycling and management of e-waste and industrial waste to prevent further soil contamination.

Farmer Awareness Programs: Educate farmers about the risks of heavy metal contamination, safe agricultural practices, and alternative cropping systems.

Consider the following statements regarding soil pollution caused by toxic heavy metals and metalloids:

  1. A significant proportion of the world’s agricultural soils, between 14% and 17%, exceed safe thresholds for at least one hazardous metal, affecting approximately 900 million to 1.4 billion people.
  2. The primary anthropogenic causes of heavy metal accumulation in soils are mining, smelting, and the use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture.
  3. Bioaccumulation due to heavy metal ingestion only affects agricultural workers, not the general population.
  4. The region identified as the most heavily contaminated by toxic metals includes sub-Saharan Africa, northern Russia, and central India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – Studies indicate that 14-17% of global agricultural soils exceed safe limits for hazardous metals, affecting a significant global population.
  • Statement 2: Correct – Anthropogenic activities such as mining, industrial processes, and fertilizer overuse are primary causes of soil metal contamination.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – Bioaccumulation from heavy metals affects both agricultural workers and the general population through contaminated food chains.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect – The most heavily polluted region identified does not include sub-Saharan Africa or northern Russia; it primarily affects regions like southern Europe, the Middle East, South Asia, and southern China.

Towards a new approach for green hydrogen production

GS3(Environment)

  • Researchers have developed advanced insights into proton adsorption behavior on catalyst surfaces, providing a foundational step toward designing efficient electrocatalysts for green hydrogen production.
  • While various heterostructures have been studied for hydrogen generation, metal-oxide-semiconductor (MOS) based p–n heterojunctions stand out due to their robust built-in electric field (BIEF), arising from asymmetric electronic environments.

  • Recent research emphasizes the critical role of BIEF at material interfaces, with key parameters such as work function differences, BIEF strength, and Gibbs free energy of adsorption (∆G) being central to understanding the hydrogen evolution reaction (HER) The work function differential initiates charge redistribution, creating the BIEF, which significantly influences proton adsorption and desorption dynamics.
  • A team from the Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali, synthesized a CuWO₄–CuO heterostructure by depositing CuWO₄ nanoparticles on a Cu(OH)₂ precursor. This structure was then analyzed for its electrochemical behavior and ∆G profile across various regions. Remarkably, the depletion region and interface zone showed distinct adsorption energies compared to the bulk, forming a gradient that favors enhanced proton adsorption and release.

 

Their findings revealed that:

  • CuO regions exhibit high proton adsorption affinity.
  • CuWO₄ regions facilitate proton desorption.
  • The system demonstrates negative cooperativity, where increased proton coverage reduces further adsorption affinity, thereby optimizing HER under alkaline conditions.
  • Published in Advanced Energy Materials (2025), this study showcases how the interplay between BIEF and thermodynamics can be engineered to significantly boost catalytic performance. The research paves the way for the design of next-generation electrocatalysts, contributing to sustainable energy transitions through green hydrogen technology.

Consider the following statements regarding the CuWO₄–CuO heterostructure developed by the Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali:

  1. The heterostructure was synthesized by depositing CuWO₄ nanoparticles onto a Cu(OH)₂ precursor.
  2. The built-in electric field (BIEF) at the p–n junction significantly influences proton adsorption and desorption dynamics.
  3. The system exhibits positive cooperativity, where increased proton coverage enhances further adsorption affinity.
  4. The study was published in Advanced Energy Materials in 2025.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Options:

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The CuWO₄–CuO heterostructure was synthesized by depositing CuWO₄ nanoparticles onto a Cu(OH)₂ precursor, as reported by INST, Mohali.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The built-in electric field (BIEF) at the p–n junction plays a crucial role in modulating proton adsorption and desorption dynamics, enhancing the hydrogen evolution reaction (HER) efficiency.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The system exhibits negative cooperativity, not positive cooperativity. This means that as proton coverage increases, the affinity of the catalyst’s surface for additional proton adsorption decreases, facilitating efficient desorption and promoting HER under alkaline conditions.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The findings were published in Advanced Energy Materials in 2025, contributing valuable insights into electrocatalytic hydrogen production.

AIM4NatuRe initiative

Syllabus:Environment

Context: The FAO, with support from the UK, launched the AIM4NatuRe initiative to enhance global monitoring of ecosystem restoration efforts, aligning with the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

 

About AIM4NatuRe Initiative:

  • The Accelerating Innovative Monitoring for Nature Restoration (AIM4NatuRe) is a global initiative designed to improve the monitoring and reporting of ecosystem restoration efforts.
  • Launched By: The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
  • Funding Partner:The United Kingdom, which contributed GBP 7 million.

 

Objective:

  • The initiative aims to strengthen countries’ capabilities to monitor and report on restoration progress, supporting the achievement of Target 2 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, which calls for restoring at least 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030.

 

Key Features:

  • Technology-Driven: Utilizes advanced satellite and data analysis tools to monitor ecosystem restoration efforts.
  • Global Dataset Creation: Aims to create a harmonized global dataset to track restoration activities across the world.
  • Capacity Development: Provides training to countries on using data-driven methods to track restoration progress.
  • Data Interoperability: Establishes standardized data formats for seamless integration and comparison across nations.
  • Inclusivity Focus: Supports Indigenous Peoples’ monitoring efforts, with pilot projects in Brazil and Peru.
  • Expansion: Expands beyond the forest sector (building on FAO’s AIM4Forests program) to include all ecosystems, such as wetlands, grasslands, and marine areas.

 

Significance:

  • Transparency & Accountability: Encourages clear reporting and ownership of restoration targets.
  • Filling Data Gaps: Addresses significant data and reporting gaps identified by 80% of countries in the CBD capacity survey.
  • Nature-Based Solutions: Supports solutions that tackle climate change, biodiversity loss, and land degradation.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the AIM4NatuRe initiative launched by the FAO:

  1. AIM4NatuRe aims to restore 50% of degraded ecosystems globally by 2030, in line with the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
  2. The initiative uses advanced technologies, including satellite and data analysis tools, to improve the monitoring and reporting of ecosystem restoration efforts.
  3. AIM4NatuRe is funded exclusively by the United Nations, with the UK providing only technical assistance.
  4. The initiative includes pilot projects in Brazil and Peru to support Indigenous Peoples’ involvement in ecosystem monitoring.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The target set by the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework is to restore at least 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030, not 50%.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The AIM4NatuRe initiative employs cutting-edge technologies, including satellite and data analysis tools, to monitor and report ecosystem restoration progress.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The initiative is funded by the UK with a GBP 7 million contribution, alongside FAO’s efforts, not exclusively by the UN.
  • Statement 4 is correct. AIM4NatuRe includes pilot projects in Brazil and Peru, focusing on Indigenous Peoples’ contributions to ecosystem restoration monitoring.

Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025

 Syllabus:Environment

 

Context:

  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has released the Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025, to implement India’s Carbon Credit Trading Scheme and support the achievement of its climate commitments.

 

About Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025:

The GEI Target Rules, 2025 set mandatory targets for reducing emissions intensity in energy-intensive industries, forming a crucial part of India’s strategy to foster low-carbon industrial growth.

Released By:  Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India.

 

Objectives:

  • Emission Reduction: Aim to reduce the greenhouse gas emissions intensity in key industrial sectors.
  • Carbon Credit Trading: Operationalize the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), 2023.
  • Climate Commitment: Help India meet its Paris Agreement target to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030, relative to 2005 levels.
  • Promote Sustainable Practices: Encourage climate-resilient and innovative industrial practices.

 

Key Features:

  • Baseline Year: The baseline for emissions intensity is set at 2023–24 levels.
  • Reduction Timeline: Targets apply for the periods 2025–26 and 2026–27.
  • Sector Focus: The rules target energy-intensive industries, including aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper sectors.
  • Coverage: The rules cover 282 industrial units, including:
  • 13 aluminium plants
  • 186 cement plants
  • 53 pulp & paper plants
  • 30 chlor-alkali plants
  • Compliance Mechanism: Carbon credits are awarded for emission reductions, with penalties imposed for non-compliance.
  • Trading Platform: Carbon credits will be traded within the Indian Carbon Market, supervised by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
  • Enforcement Authority: The Central Pollution Control Board will monitor compliance and enforce penalties for non-compliance.
  • These rules are central to India’s efforts in reducing industrial emissions and creating a robust market for carbon credits, helping the country meet its climate commitments under the Paris Agreement.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Draft Greenhouse Gases Emissions Intensity (GEI) Target Rules, 2025:

  1. The GEI Target Rules primarily focus on reducing emissions intensity across the energy-intensive sectors, including aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper industries.
  2. The rules are designed to help India achieve its Paris Agreement target of reducing emissions intensity of GDP by 40% by 2030, relative to 2005 levels.
  3. The compliance mechanism includes awarding carbon credits for emissions reductions and imposing penalties for industries failing to meet their targets.
  4. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is tasked with overseeing the trading of carbon credits under the Indian Carbon Market.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The rules focus on reducing emissions intensity in energy-intensive industries such as aluminium, cement, chlor-alkali, and pulp & paper.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The target in the Paris Agreement is to reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45%, not 40%.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The rules include carbon credits for emission reductions and penalties for non-compliance.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) monitors the carbon credits under the Indian Carbon Market, not the CPCB.

Arsenic Pollution

Syllabus: Environment

 

Context:

A recent study published in The Lancet Planetary Health warns that climate change may increase arsenic levels in rice, posing serious health risks in Asia by 2050.

What is Arsenic (As)?

  • A naturally occurring trace element, commonly found in combination with sulfur and metals in minerals
  • Highly toxic in its inorganic form

Health Impacts of Arsenic Exposure:

  • Long-term exposure may lead to:
  • Cancer, skin lesions, cardiovascular disease, and diabetes
  • Early-life exposure (in-utero or childhood):
  • Impaired cognitive development
  • Increased mortality in young adults
  • Blackfoot Disease (Taiwan):
  • A severe vascular condition linked to arsenic, leading to gangrene

Permissible Limits:

  • WHO Guideline:01 mg/l (10 μg/l)
  • India (in absence of alternative):05 mg/l (50 μg/l)

Arsenic Contamination in India:

  • First identified in West Bengal (1980)
  • Widespread contamination in the Ganga–Brahmaputra alluvial plains
  • Affects millions of people through contaminated groundwater

Government Initiatives:

  • National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP):
  • Focuses on providing safe drinking water
  • Targets removal of contaminants like arsenic and fluoride

 

‘AMRIT’ Technology by IIT-Madras:

  • Innovative method to remove arsenic and metal ions from water
  • Supports affordable, scalable water purification

Consider the following statements about arsenic contamination in India:

  1. The highest concentrations of arsenic are found in hard rock aquifers of peninsular India.
  2. The permissible limit of arsenic in drinking water is stricter in India than the WHO standard.
  3. Arsenic contamination is predominantly an issue in alluvial plains.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: B. 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The highest concentrations are found in alluvial aquifers (Ganga–Brahmaputra plains), not hard rock aquifers.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s permissible limit (0.05 mg/l) is more lenient than the WHO standard (0.01 mg/l).
  • Statement 3 is correct: Arsenic contamination is a major issue in the alluvial plains due to geological and hydrological factors.

Nature-Based Solutions for Coastal Cities’ Resilience

Syllabus:Environment

  • With the rising challenges of flooding and climate change, Indian coastal cities such as Mangaluru and Chennai are turning to nature-based solutions (NbS) as a more resilient and sustainable response to growing urban environmental vulnerabilities.
  • A recent study by the Centre for Study of Science, Technology and Policy (CSTEP) highlights the critical role these solutions can play in future-proofing cities.

 

Definition of Nature-Based Solutions

  • Nature-based solutions (NbS) involve the use of natural systems and processes to address urban challenges.
  • These include methods such as wetland restoration, rooftop greening, and the installation of permeable pavements.
  • In addition to restoring ecosystems, these strategies offer practical benefits like flood control, enhancement of biodiversity, and improvements in air and water quality.

 

Urban Challenges in Chennai and Mangaluru

  • Both Chennai and Mangaluru face significant urban planning and environmental issues.
  • These include a sharp decline in green spaces, encroachment on natural water bodies, and an increase in extreme weather events such as intense rainfall and cyclones.
  • Traditional grey infrastructure, such as concrete stormwater drainage systems, has proven insufficient in managing these multifaceted problems.

Key Insights from the CSTEP Report

  • The CSTEP report evaluated 23 municipal wards in Chennai and four in Mangaluru. The findings revealed that rooftop greening could increase the area covered by NbS by approximately 76 percent in Chennai and 80 percent in Mangaluru.
  • Moreover, the implementation of permeable pavements could enhance stormwater drainage capacity by about five percent, reducing surface runoff and lowering the risk of urban flooding.

 

Economic Viability of Nature-Based Solutions

  • The study demonstrated that NbS are not only environmentally advantageous but also economically feasible.
  • In Chennai, an investment of approximately 2,203 crore rupees could result in annual savings of 505.31 crore rupees in avoided flood-related damages.
  • Similarly, in Mangaluru, a smaller investment of around 172.97 crore rupees could yield annual savings of 11.62 crore rupees.

 

Implementation Strategy

  • The report recommends a phased approach to implementing NbS across urban areas.
  • This includes launching pilot projects in vulnerable zones, conducting awareness campaigns to increase public support, encouraging community participation to enhance ownership, and integrating NbS into official urban planning policies.
  • It also emphasizes the need for dedicated funding for NbS through urban development programs.

 

Importance of Community Engagement

  • Community involvement is essential to the success of nature-based solutions. By engaging local residents, city authorities can promote a sense of ownership, tap into local knowledge, and ensure the long-term maintenance and sustainability of these projects.
  • Local governments are urged to lead by example by initiating scalable NbS projects and embedding them in broader climate resilience strategies.

 

Conclusion

  • As environmental risks intensify, nature-based solutions offer a viable path for cities to address urban flooding and ecological degradation.
  • Through strategic investment, updated planning frameworks, and strong community involvement, cities such as Chennai and Mangaluru have the potential to evolve into climate-resilient and environmentally sustainable urban spaces.

Which of the following urban challenges are commonly experienced by coastal cities such as Chennai and Mangaluru?

  1. Decline in green cover
  2. Encroachment of natural water bodies
  3. Heavy snowfall occurrences
  4. Increased intensity of cyclonic events

Select the correct answer:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

  • Explanation:
    Chennai and Mangaluru, being coastal cities, are increasingly facing urban stressors such as shrinking green spaces, loss of natural water systems, and more frequent and intense cyclones due to climate change. Snowfall is not a relevant concern in these regions due to their tropical climate.

Project Secure

Syllabus: Environment

 

  • Project SeaCURE is an ambitious initiative launched on England’s south coast, designed to enhance the ocean’s role in addressing climate change.
  • This pioneering pilot project, based in Weymouth, aims to extract carbon dioxide (CO₂) directly from seawater.
  • Funded by the UK government, it explores cutting-edge technologies to improve the ocean’s ability to absorb and store CO₂.

 

The Project’s Goal

  • SeaCURE targets the ocean as a powerful carbon sink, where CO₂ concentrations are higher than in the atmosphere.
  • By removing carbon from seawater, the project seeks to develop a scalable, cost-effective solution to reduce atmospheric CO₂ levels.
  • It is part of the UK’s broader strategy to explore and scale up carbon capture technologies that can mitigate climate change.

How It Works

  • The process begins by pumping seawater into a specialized facility, where it undergoes acidification.
  • This treatment helps convert dissolved carbon into gas, which is then captured before it escapes back into the atmosphere.
  • The captured CO₂ is concentrated using sustainable materials, such as charred coconut husks, for safe and secure storage.
  • Afterward, the treated seawater is neutralized and returned to the ocean, ready to absorb more CO₂.

Potential Impact

  • SeaCURE has the potential to remove vast amounts of CO₂. If just 1% of the world’s surface seawater were processed, estimates suggest that up to 14 billion tonnes of CO₂ could be removed from the atmosphere each year.
  • For this to be viable, however, the entire operation would need to be powered by renewable energy, such as floating solar panels, ensuring that the carbon removal process itself doesn’t contribute to further emissions.

Challenges and Concerns

  • While SeaCURE holds promise, it faces several challenges.
  • The process of generating the acid and alkaline materials needed for carbon extraction is energy-intensive.
  • If the required energy is not sourced sustainably, the environmental benefits could be diminished or even undone.
  • Additionally, there are concerns about the potential ecological impact of releasing large volumes of altered seawater back into the ocean, which could affect marine ecosystems.

 

The Issue of Ocean Acidification

  • Project SeaCURE also highlights the growing problem of ocean acidification.
  • As the oceans absorb increasing amounts of CO₂, their pH levels drop, making them more acidic.
  • This shift in the ocean’s chemistry can negatively affect marine life, especially organisms that rely on carbon for essential processes, such as coral reefs and shellfish.
  • Managing this balance is crucial to ensuring that solutions like SeaCURE do not unintentionally harm marine ecosystems.

Looking Ahead

  • SeaCURE is one of 15 pilot projects funded by the UK’s carbon capture program, with experts seeing it as a crucial step toward achieving net-zero emissions.
  • By refining and scaling up ocean-based carbon capture techniques, the ocean could become a more deliberate tool in the fight against climate change—provided the environmental challenges are carefully managed.
  • The future of SeaCURE and similar projects could significantly shape how we address the climate crisis on a global scale.

Which of the following trade-offs must be managed to ensure the success and sustainability of Project SeaCURE?

  1. Energy consumption vs. net carbon reduction
  2. Ocean chemistry balance vs. sequestration efficiency
  3. Technological scalability vs. ecological sensitivity
  4. Freshwater availability vs. seawater usage

Select the correct code: 

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. All of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are valid trade-offs in SeaCURE:

  • The process must be powered sustainably (1).
  • Altering ocean chemistry through repeated treatment could affect marine life (2).
  • Expanding the project globally must consider ecological risks (3).
  • Statement 4 is incorrect because SeaCURE uses seawater, not freshwater, so freshwater availability isn’t a direct concern.

Telangana Becomes First State to Implement SC Sub-Categorisation

Syllabus:Polity

  • On April 14, 2025—coinciding with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s birth anniversary—the Government of Telangana issued a historic Government Order (GO) to implement the Telangana Scheduled Castes (Rationalization of Reservations) Act, 2025, making it the first state in India to operationalize sub-categorisation among Scheduled Castes (SCs).
  • This move aims to equitably redistribute the existing 15% SC reservation by dividing 59 SC sub-castes into three groups based on relative backwardness, ensuring targeted affirmative action.

 

Key Legislative and Legal Timeline

  • Act Passed by Assembly: March 18, 2025
  • Governor’s Assent: April 8, 2025
  • GO Issued: April 14, 2025 (Ambedkar Jayanti)
  • SC Judgment Enabling Sub-Categorisation: August 1, 2024
  • Commission Appointed: October 2024
  • Commission Head: Justice Shamim Akhtar (Retd.)

 

Basis for Grouping

  • Population size
  • Literacy and education access
  • Employment rates
  • Financial assistance received
  • Political participation
  • Representations: Over 8,600 received by the commission

 

Government Justifications

Health Minister Damodar Raja Narasimha:

  • “Not a final solution, but a corrective tool for equitable upliftment. Education, skill training, and financial aid are key.”

Civil Supplies Minister N. Uttam Kumar Reddy:

  • “No dilution of existing benefits. No creamy layer within SCs. Reservation may rise post-2026 Census (SC population: 17.5%).”

Judicial and Commission Backing

  • SC Judgment (Aug 2024): Legally permitted sub-categorisation within SCs
  • Justice Shamim Akhtar Commission: Conducted wide consultations and data-driven analysis

 

Historical Committees Referenced:

  • Lokur Committee (1965)
  • Justice Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996)
  • Usha Mehra Commission (2007)

 

Political and Social Reactions

  • CPI MLA K. Sambasiva Reddy: Criticized the Rella community’s classification into Group 3
  • AIMIM MLA Majid Hussain: Suggested increasing SC reservation to 18% and creating 4 sub-categories
  • Govt Stand: 3-group system strikes balance—2 groups would underrepresent the most backward; 4 would complicate policy

Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court judgment dated August 1, 2024, regarding SC sub-categorisation:

  1. It declared sub-categorisation within SCs unconstitutional.
  2. It laid the legal foundation for Telangana’s move to classify SCs into three groups.
  3. It emphasized that sub-categorisation cannot be implemented without Parliament’s approval.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: B
Explanation:

  • The SC upheld the validity of sub-categorisation within SCs by states under Article 15(4) and 16(4), enabling Telangana’s Act.
  • The Supreme Court, in its August 1, 2024 judgment, did not declare sub-categorisation unconstitutional.
  • In fact, it upheld the validity of sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes by individual states under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), provided it is done rationally and based on empirical data.

Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act

Syllabus: GS2/Governance

 

New Data Protection Rules and Impact on the RTI Act

Recent Development

  • The Union Minister for Information and Technology clarified that personal information required to be disclosed under existing laws will continue to be available under the RTI Act even after the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules are implemented.

 

Key Changes to the RTI Act

  • Amendment Trigger: The RTI Act will be amended following the notification of DPDP rules.
  • Section 8(1)(j) Update: Now includes a blanket restriction on disclosing personal information, even if public interest is involved.
  • Government’s Stand: Disclosure is still allowed where it is legally mandated. The amendment is justified in light of the 2017 Supreme Court ruling that affirmed the right to privacy as a part of Article 21.

 

Concerns Raised

  • Reduced Transparency: May hinder access to critical information needed for social audits and exposing corruption or fund misuse.
  • Civil Society View: The amendment undermines the balance between privacy and transparency established in the original Act.
  • Pending Status: The amendment is not yet in effect; civil society groups are urging the government to revise the draft DPDP rules.

 

Related Reforms and Rules

RTI Amendment Act, 2019

  • Tenure: Reduced tenure of CICs and ICs to 3 years (from 5).
  • Service Conditions: Salaries and terms now set by the Central Government, no longer linked to Election Commissioners.
  • RTI Rules, 2022
  • Encourages online filing of RTI applications.
  • Streamlined appeal and complaint

 

RTI Act, 2005 – Overview

Purpose

  • To promote transparency and hold public authorities accountable by giving citizens the right to access information.

 

 

Scope

  • Covers government bodies and any organization substantially funded by the government.

 

Key Features

  • 30-day response period (extendable to 45 days in some cases).
  • Penalties for non-compliance or false information.
  • Exemptions include matters affecting national security, confidentiality, or ongoing investigations.

 

Significance of RTI

  • Empowers citizens and encourages democratic participation.
  • Critical in exposing corruption, e.g., in NREGS and PDS.
  • Facilitates social audits by NGOs and activists.
  • Improves transparency in government contracts and projects.

 

Challenges

  • Burden on authorities due to high volume of requests.
  • Misuse by individuals for personal vendettas.
  • Delays in processing applications.
  • Inadequate training and infrastructure in public offices.
  • Ambiguous exemptions sometimes used to deny legitimate information.

 

Way Forward

  • RTI remains a cornerstone for good governance and democratic accountability.
  • The upcoming DPDP Rules must ensure that transparency is not compromised.
  • A careful balance is needed between the right to privacy and the citizen’s right to information.
  • Civil society’s input should be incorporated before finalizing the rules to safeguard the RTI Act’s original intent.

Consider the following statements regarding the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019:

  1. It fixed the tenure of CIC and ICs at both central and state levels to three years.
  2. Salaries of CICs and ICs are now equated with the Chief Election Commissioner.
  3. The amendment grants the Central Government power to determine service conditions of Information Commissioners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:C
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect — the amendment removed equivalence with Election Commissioners. Now, the Centre decides their salary and terms. Statement 1 and 3 are correct.

UP’s Zero Poverty Scheme to be Named After Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Syllabus:   Scheme

 

  • On the occasion of Bharat Ratna Dr. B. R. Ambedkar’s 135th birth anniversary, Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath announced that the state’s ambitious ‘Zero Poverty’ Mission will be named in honor of Baba Saheb.
  • The declaration was made at a commemorative event held at the Ambedkar Mahasabha campus in Lucknow on April 14, 2025.

 

Honoring a Visionary

  • Paying tribute to Dr. Ambedkar, the architect of the Indian Constitution, CM Yogi emphasized the BJP government’s commitment to upholding his ideals.
  • He also criticized opposition parties for failing to respect and preserve Ambedkar’s legacy, asserting that the current government is actively working to realize his vision of social justice and equality.

 

Mission Objectives

  • The newly named Zero Poverty Scheme aims to eradicate poverty across Uttar Pradesh—the most populous state in India—by uplifting every underprivileged and deprived individual above the poverty line.
  • The initiative will follow a saturation-based approach, ensuring that every eligible family receives the full range of government welfare benefits.

 

Target Communities

  • The scheme will prioritize assistance to marginalized and tribal groups, including:
  • Musahar
  • Vantangia
  • Tharu
  • Sahariya
  • Gond
  • Kol

 

Comprehensive Benefits

  • Under the initiative, beneficiaries will receive a host of essential amenities, including:
  • Land allotment
  • Housing
  • Toilets under the Swachh Bharat Mission
  • Pensions
  • Ration cards
  • Ayushman Bharat health cards

 

Implementation Strategy

  • The state government plans to cover 14 to 15 lakh families in a single phase. Gram Panchayats will play a key role in implementation by identifying 20–25 families in each village who are still excluded from existing welfare schemes.

 

Support from Central Initiatives

  • CM Yogi highlighted the synergy between the new scheme and ongoing central government programs launched under Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s leadership:
  • Free ration for 80 crore citizens
  • Health insurance for 50 crore people under Ayushman Bharat
  • Construction of 12 crore toilets
  • Clean cooking fuel for 10 crore households under Ujjwala Yojana
  • 45 crore Jan Dhan bank accounts
  • 4 crore houses provided under various housing schemes

 

Political Reactions

  • On the same day, BSP chief Mayawati and SP president Akhilesh Yadav also paid homage to Dr. Ambedkar, presenting alternative perspectives on Dalit welfare and his vision for an egalitarian society. Their statements underscored the ongoing political significance of Ambedkar’s legacy in contemporary Indian politics.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the ‘Zero Poverty’ Mission announced in Uttar Pradesh?

  1. The scheme is named after Bharat Ratna Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
  2. It aims to ensure benefits reach only Scheduled Castes.
  3. The implementation is based on a saturation approach.
  4. The scheme will cover 80 crore beneficiaries across India.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme targets multiple marginalized and tribal communities, not just Scheduled Castes. Statement 4 refers to a central scheme, not the UP-specific mission.

SC Laid Down 3 Month Deadline For President To Assent Bill Reserved By Governor

  • In a constitutional milestone, the Supreme Court of India, through its 2023 judgment in State of Tamil Nadu vs. Governor of Tamil Nadu, addressed long-standing ambiguities surrounding Article 201 of the Constitution—pertaining to Presidential assent on State Bills.
  • For the first time, the Court introduced a time-bound framework and clarified the scope of constitutional propriety in such matters, thereby reinforcing the values of cooperative federalism and curbing executive arbitrariness.

Key Constitutional Provisions Involved

Article 201: Empowers the President to grant or withhold assent to State Bills reserved by the Governor.

Article 143: Allows the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on legal or constitutional questions.

 

Major Judicial Pronouncements

  1. Mandating a Time Frame for Presidential Action
  • The Court ruled that the President must decide within three months of receiving a State Bill under Article 201.
  • Previously, no deadline existed, often resulting in legislative deadlock.
  • The Court emphasized that indefinite inaction is arbitrary and violates the Constitution’s spirit.
  1. Prohibition of an “Absolute Veto”
  • The President cannot withhold assent indefinitely, as this would effectively amount to an unconstitutional absolute veto.
  • Presidential decisions must be communicated to the State and be legally justified, not based on political grounds.

 

Judicial Remedies for States

  • States are entitled to file writ petitions (e.g., mandamus) in case of prolonged executive inaction on reserved Bills.
  • This offers a constitutional check on executive delays, ensuring legislative sovereignty of State Assemblies.

 

Use of Article 143: Seeking SC’s Advisory Opinion

  • In instances where a Governor reserves a Bill citing constitutional invalidity, the Court advised that the President should invoke Article 143 to consult the Supreme Court.
  • Though advisory, such opinions are of high persuasive value.
  • This mechanism would prevent the enactment of unconstitutional laws, thereby conserving judicial and legislative resources.

 

Governor vs. President: A Critical Distinction

  • If a Governor returns a Bill and it is re-passed by the State Legislature, he is constitutionally bound to assent.
  • The President, however, is not similarly bound under Article 201, reinforcing the need for judicial oversight in cases of delay.
  • Policy vs. Constitutionality
  • The Supreme Court will intervene only when legal or constitutional issues are involved—not when the matter pertains to policy or socio-economic discretion.
  • This delineation prevents judicial overreach into legislative or executive domains.

 

Supporting Recommendations

Sarkaria Commission (1988) and Punchhi Commission (2010):

  • Recommended fixed timelines for Presidential decisions under Article 201.
  • Advocated invoking Article 143 in cases of constitutional doubts.

MHA Office Memorandums (2016) also prescribed a 3-month timeline, which the Court reinforced through this judgment.

 

Conclusion

  • This judgment marks a transformative moment in Indian federalism by injecting clarity, accountability, and constitutional discipline into the often opaque process of Presidential assent.
  • It restores balance between the Union and the States and strengthens the federal fabric envisioned by the Constitution.

Which of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s interpretation of Article 201 in State of Tamil Nadu vs. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2023) is/are correct?

  1. The President must act on a reserved State Bill within a constitutionally mandated time frame of three months.
  2. The Supreme Court held that the President has absolute discretion to withhold assent without providing reasons.
  3. The judgment enables States to seek judicial remedy if there is prolonged inaction by the President.
  4. The Governor is not constitutionally bound to assent even if a Bill is re-passed by the State Legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Court mandated a 3-month deadline for Presidential action.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court explicitly rejected the idea of an “absolute veto”.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The judgment allows States to approach courts via writs in case of prolonged inaction.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: It is the Governor who must assent if the Bill is re-passed.

Telangana Becomes First State to Implement SC Sub-Categorisation

Syllabus:Polity

  • On April 14, 2025—coinciding with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s birth anniversary—the Government of Telangana issued a historic Government Order (GO) to implement the Telangana Scheduled Castes (Rationalization of Reservations) Act, 2025, making it the first state in India to operationalize sub-categorisation among Scheduled Castes (SCs).
  • This move aims to equitably redistribute the existing 15% SC reservation by dividing 59 SC sub-castes into three groups based on relative backwardness, ensuring targeted affirmative action.

 

Key Legislative and Legal Timeline

  • Act Passed by Assembly: March 18, 2025
  • Governor’s Assent: April 8, 2025
  • GO Issued: April 14, 2025 (Ambedkar Jayanti)
  • SC Judgment Enabling Sub-Categorisation: August 1, 2024
  • Commission Appointed: October 2024
  • Commission Head: Justice Shamim Akhtar (Retd.)

 

Basis for Grouping

  • Population size
  • Literacy and education access
  • Employment rates
  • Financial assistance received
  • Political participation
  • Representations: Over 8,600 received by the commission

 

Government Justifications

Health Minister Damodar Raja Narasimha:

  • “Not a final solution, but a corrective tool for equitable upliftment. Education, skill training, and financial aid are key.”

Civil Supplies Minister N. Uttam Kumar Reddy:

  • “No dilution of existing benefits. No creamy layer within SCs. Reservation may rise post-2026 Census (SC population: 17.5%).”

Judicial and Commission Backing

  • SC Judgment (Aug 2024): Legally permitted sub-categorisation within SCs
  • Justice Shamim Akhtar Commission: Conducted wide consultations and data-driven analysis

 

Historical Committees Referenced:

  • Lokur Committee (1965)
  • Justice Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996)
  • Usha Mehra Commission (2007)

 

Political and Social Reactions

  • CPI MLA K. Sambasiva Reddy: Criticized the Rella community’s classification into Group 3
  • AIMIM MLA Majid Hussain: Suggested increasing SC reservation to 18% and creating 4 sub-categories
  • Govt Stand: 3-group system strikes balance—2 groups would underrepresent the most backward; 4 would complicate policy

Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court judgment dated August 1, 2024, regarding SC sub-categorisation:

  1. It declared sub-categorisation within SCs unconstitutional.
  2. It laid the legal foundation for Telangana’s move to classify SCs into three groups.
  3. It emphasized that sub-categorisation cannot be implemented without Parliament’s approval.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: B
Explanation:

  • The SC upheld the validity of sub-categorisation within SCs by states under Article 15(4) and 16(4), enabling Telangana’s Act.
  • The Supreme Court, in its August 1, 2024 judgment, did not declare sub-categorisation unconstitutional.
  • In fact, it upheld the validity of sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes by individual states under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), provided it is done rationally and based on empirical data.

Thangjing Hills

Syllabus: Geography

 

Context:

  • The annual pilgrimage by Meitei devotees to the sacred Thangjing Hills in Manipur was recently halted due to objections from the Kuki-Zo community, highlighting the underlying ethnic tensions in the region.

 

About Thangjing Hills:

  • Location:
    Situated in the Churachandpur district of western Manipur, forming part of the Thangjing Hill Range.

Topography:

  • Elevation: Approximately 2,100 meters (6,900 feet) above sea level.
  • Characterized by dense forests, high ridges, and steep terrains.
  • Acts as a natural boundary between the Meitei-dominated Imphal Valley and the Kuki-Zo-inhabited hill districts.

 

Hydrology: The region is watered by rivers such as Leimatak, Tuila, Lanva, and Khuga, with tributaries supporting both hill and valley settlements.

 

Geopolitical Sensitivity:Lies within a buffer zone that has historically witnessed ethnic contestation and competing claims over land, identity, and religious rights.

 

 

Religious and Cultural Significance:

  • Sacred Geography:Revered by the Meitei community as the divine abode of Eputhou Thangjing, a principal deity and protector of southern Manipur.
  • Annual Pilgrimage:Conducted during the Meitei lunar month of Sajibu (typically April), especially around the full moon day.
  • Mythological Connection:The site is deeply embedded in Meitei cosmology, featuring in cultural epics such as the legendary love story of Khamba and Thoibi.

Which of the following is the primary religious significance of Thangjing Hills in Manipur?

  1. It is considered the sacred abode of the Meitei deity Eputhou Thangjing.
  2. The hills are considered a symbol of unity between the Meitei and Kuki-Zo communities.
  3. The pilgrimage to Thangjing Hills is a part of the Kuki-Zo religious tradition.
  4. The site is linked to the Khamba-Thoibi legend, central to Meitei mythology.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 4 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

 

Answer: A) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Thangjing Hills is regarded as the sacred abode of Eputhou Thangjing, a central Meitei deity.
  • It is also linked to the Khamba-Thoibi myth, which is integral to Meitei folklore.
  • The opposition from the Kuki-Zo community is rooted in ethnic tensions rather than religious unity, hence the other options are incorrect.

Tamil Nadu Forms High-Level Committee To Strengthening State Autonomy

Syllabus:Polity

  • In a significant assertion of federal principles, Tamil Nadu Chief Minister K. Stalin announced the formation of a three-member high-powered committee on April 15, 2025, tasked with a comprehensive review of Centre–State relations, constitutional allocations of power, and intergovernmental fiscal dynamics.
  • The move underscores persistent concerns over centralisation and erosion of State autonomy in India’s federal architecture.

Committee Overview

  • Constituted by: Tamil Nadu Government
  • Chaired by: Justice Kurian Joseph (Retired Supreme Court Judge)
  • Other Members:
  • Ashok Vardhan Shetty, Retd. IAS & former Vice-Chancellor, Indian Maritime University
  • Naganathan, Former Vice-Chairman, Tamil Nadu State Planning Commission
  • Interim Report: Due by January 2026
  • Final Recommendations: Within two years

Mandate and Scope

  • The committee will:
  • Scrutinize constitutional provisions, statutes, and policies governing Centre–State relations.
  • Recommend the re-transfer of subjects from the Concurrent List to the State List.
  • Suggest reforms to enhance administrative and fiscal autonomy of States while maintaining national integrity.
  • Examine the Rajamannar Committee (1969), Sarkaria Commission (1983), and Punchhi Commission (2007) reports for precedent and relevance.

Historical Context

  • Rajamannar Committee (1969), appointed by DMK founder M. Karunanidhi, had flagged excessive centralisation.
  • In 1974, the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly formally adopted its recommendations—many of which remain unimplemented.

 

Key Federal Grievances Raised

  • NEET Controversy
  • Seen as infringing on State’s education policy autonomy.
  • Allegedly disadvantages students from marginalized backgrounds in Tamil Nadu.
  • State legislation exempting NEET was withheld Presidential assent, sparking constitutional friction.
  • National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
  • The three-language formula is perceived as Hindi imposition.
  • Funds worth ₹2,500 crore under Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan reportedly withheld.
  • Renewed demand to move Education back to the State List.
  • Fiscal Centralisation via GST
  • Tamil Nadu, a net contributor, receives only ₹0.29 for every rupee it contributes.
  • The GST regime has allegedly eroded States’ revenue-raising powers.
  • Tamil Nadu’s objections during GST Council deliberations were reportedly disregarded.

Delimitation 2026

  • Based on population, it may reduce Tamil Nadu’s parliamentary seats.
  • Seen as punishing states with successful population control policies, violating cooperative federalism norms.
  • This institutional move marks a serious federal challenge to the existing Centre-State dynamic. It could serve as a reference point for other states concerned with over-centralisation and the rebalancing of India’s quasi-federal structure.

With reference to the Tamil Nadu High-Level Committee on Centre–State Relations (2025), consider the following statements:

  1. The committee includes members from both the judiciary and civil services.
  2. One of its mandates is to recommend restoration of subjects from the Union List to the State List.
  3. The move revives themes earlier discussed by the Rajamannar and Punchhi Commissions.
  4. The committee is mandated to submit its final report before the 2026 delimitation process begins.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – The committee is chaired by a retired Supreme Court judge and includes a retired IAS officer.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect – The recommendation concerns Concurrent List to State List, not Union List.
  • Statement 3: Correct – The mandate explicitly refers to past federal commissions, including Rajamannar and Punchhi.
  • Statement 4: Incorrect – The committee will submit its interim report by Jan 2026, while final report is due within two years, i.e., after the 2026 delimitation exercise.

Justice BR Gavai Next CJI of India as Successor to Chief Justice Sanjiv Khanna

Syllabus:Polity

 

  • On April 16, 2025, Chief Justice of India (CJI) Sanjiv Khanna formally recommended Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai, the senior-most puisne judge of the Supreme Court, as his successor.
  • The recommendation was sent to the Union Ministry of Law and Justice in accordance with established constitutional convention.
  • Upon receiving presidential assent, Justice Gavai will assume office as the 52nd Chief Justice of India following the retirement of CJI Khanna on May 13, 2025.
  • Judicial Profile: Justice B.R. Gavai

 

 

Early Life and Legal Career

  • Birthplace: Amravati, Maharashtra.
  • Commencement of Practice: Enrolled with the Bar in 1985.
  • Worked under Raja S. Bhonsale, former Advocate General of Maharashtra and later a Bombay High Court judge.
  • Practised primarily before the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court, specialising in constitutional and administrative law.

 

Government Appointments

  • Appointed as Assistant Government Pleader and Additional Public Prosecutor in 1992–93.
  • Promoted to Government Pleader and Public Prosecutor in 2000.
  • Judicial Appointments
  • Appointed as an Additional Judge of the Bombay High Court in November 2003.
  • Made Permanent Judge of the Bombay High Court in November 2005.
  • Elevated to the Supreme Court of India in May 2019.

 

Key Judicial Contributions

  • Demonetization Verdict (January 2023)
  • Justice Gavai was part of the majority in a 4:1 Supreme Court verdict upholding the constitutionality of the Central Government’s 2016 decision to demonetize ₹500 and ₹1,000 notes. The judgment emphasized Parliament’s legislative competence and the Reserve Bank of India Act framework.

 

Sub-Categorization within SCs and STs (August 2024)

  • In a significant case involving affirmative action, Justice Gavai supported the application of the “creamy layer” principle to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. His opinion aimed to ensure targeted benefits for the most disadvantaged within these groups.

 

Abrogation of Article 370 (December 2019)

  • As a member of the Constitution Bench, Justice Gavai upheld the Centre’s decision to abrogate Article 370, thereby revoking the special status granted to the erstwhile state of Jammu & Kashmir. The bench reaffirmed Parliament’s power under Article 356 and Article 370(3).

 

Critique of Bulldozer Demolitions (November 2024)

  • Justice Gavai, in a two-judge bench, condemned the practice of extra-legal demolitions of properties linked to alleged criminals. He emphasized that due process of law must prevail, and state action must adhere to constitutional principles.

 

Significance of the Appointment

  • Justice Gavai’s elevation is not only significant due to his legal acumen but also because he is set to become the second Dalit Chief Justice of India, following Justice K.G. Balakrishnan. His appointment reaffirms the inclusive and meritocratic foundations of India’s higher judiciary.

Consider the following statements regarding Justice B.R. Gavai and his contributions to Indian constitutional jurisprudence:

  1. Justice Gavai, in his verdict on the abrogation of Article 370, relied primarily on the doctrine of basic structure to uphold the revocation.
  2. He has been a strong proponent of sub-categorization within Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, arguing for the application of the creamy layer doctrine to improve intra-group equity.
  3. As part of the Demonetization verdict, Justice Gavai held that the government had exceeded its authority under Section 26(2) of the RBI Act, thereby dissenting from the majority.
  4. In 2024, Justice Gavai raised constitutional concerns over the use of bulldozers for punitive demolitions, highlighting violations of the principles of natural justice and rule of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A. 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: Justice Gavai upheld the abrogation of Article 370 but did not rely on the basic structure doctrine to support the decision. Instead, the judgment was rooted in a textual and procedural interpretation of Article 370(3) and the constitutional provisions relating to Presidential powers during President’s Rule (Article 356).
  • Statement 2 – Correct: In the August 2024 case, Justice Gavai supported sub-categorization within SC/STs and proposed the application of the creamy layer principle, a significant judicial position aimed at equitable distribution of affirmative action benefits.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: Justice Gavai was part of the majority (not dissent) in the 2023 Demonetization verdict. He ruled that the government’s action under Section 26(2) of the RBI Act was constitutionally valid and within the framework of delegated legislation.
  • Statement 4 – Correct: Justice Gavai indeed raised concerns in a 2024 judgment against bulldozer-driven demolitions that bypassed due legal process, terming such actions unconstitutional and in violation of Article 14 (equality before the law) and Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty).

Justice Kurian Joseph Committee

  1. Syllabus:Polity
  • In a significant political and constitutional development, Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M.K. Stalin has constituted a high-level committee chaired by former Supreme Court judge Justice Kurian Joseph to reassess Centre–State relations.
  • This initiative is aimed at safeguarding the constitutional rights and autonomy of states within the Indian Union, reflecting a long-standing concern over the erosion of federal principles.

 

Historical Precedent: The Rajamannar Committee (1969)

  • This move echoes the path laid down by former Tamil Nadu Chief Minister C.N. Annadurai, whose government established the Centre–State Relations Inquiry Committee under the chairmanship of Dr. P.V. Rajamannar in 1969. This was the first comprehensive state-level review of federal dynamics in India.
  • The Rajamannar Committee concluded that while the Constitution embodies a federal framework, its operational reality reflects excessive centralisation. It identified Articles 256, 257, and 365—which empower the Centre to issue directions to states—as central to this imbalance.

 

Key Recommendations:

  • Repeal of Article 356: The Committee called for the abolition of the provision enabling the imposition of President’s Rule in states, viewing it as a tool of political misuse.
  • Creation of a Permanent Inter-State Council: To institutionalize Centre–State dialogue and reduce unilateralism.
  • Limiting Central Institutions’ Overreach: It criticized the discretionary powers of bodies like the Planning Commission (now defunct), which undermined the constitutionally mandated Finance Commission and increased state dependency.
  • The Committee rejected the notion that centralisation equates to national strength, warning that such overreach erodes the Union’s integrity. It instead advocated for cooperative federalism, anchored in constitutional restraint and respect for state sovereignty.

 

Contemporary Context and Political Undercurrents

  • The formation of the new committee comes amid intensifying disputes between Tamil Nadu and the Union Government, especially on contentious issues such as:
  • NEET (medical entrance policy),
  • GST compensation delays, and
  • Language imposition
  • These tensions signal growing concerns over asymmetrical federalism, particularly in opposition-led states.

 

The Road Ahead: Restoring the Federal Balance?

  • The new committee is expected to study constitutional provisions, institutional mechanisms, and recent central policies to recommend steps that restore the federal balance. However, implementation remains uncertain, given the historical neglect of earlier commission reports, including the Rajamannar Committee and the Sarkaria Commission (1983) and Punchhi Commission (2007).
  • Nonetheless, the formation of this committee underscores a renewed call for federal revitalisation—placing autonomy, fiscal empowerment, and cooperative governance at the centre of India’s democratic discourse.

With reference to the Rajamannar Committee’s recommendations on Centre–State relations, consider the following statements:

  1. The committee argued that the Finance Commission’s role had been constitutionally diluted due to the discretionary powers exercised by the Planning Commission.
  2. It endorsed the use of Article 356 as a necessary constitutional safeguard against political instability in the states.
  3. The committee proposed the establishment of an Inter-State Council to institutionalize federal dialogue beyond mere administrative coordination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Rajamannar Committee highlighted how the Planning Commission’s discretionary grant-giving powers diminished the relevance of the constitutionally mandated Finance Commission.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The committee opposed Article 356 and recommended its repeal, arguing that it undermined federalism.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The committee advocated for a permanent and empowered Inter-State Council to facilitate structured Centre–State dialogue.

Fisheries Development Initiatives Under PM Matsya Sampada Yojana

Syllabus:Scheme

  • Launched in 2020, the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) is a flagship initiative aimed at transforming India’s fisheries sector through modernization, sustainability, and socio-economic empowerment of stakeholders.
  • With a total outlay of ₹20,050 crore, the scheme is set to operate until 2025, representing one of the most comprehensive government efforts to harness the potential of the blue economy.

Structural Components of PMMSY

The scheme is bifurcated into two implementation models:

  • Central Sector Scheme (CS): Entirely financed by the Union Government, this component undertakes national-level activities like policy reforms, deep-sea fishing, and technology adoption.
  • Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS): Jointly funded by the Centre and States/UTs, this component covers diverse projects such as infrastructure development, post-harvest management, and fisher welfare.

 

Recent Developments and Innovative Interventions

In Karaikal, the Union Minister George Kurian recently launched several PMMSY initiatives, including:

  • Establishment of artificial reefs to enhance marine biodiversity and coastal livelihoods.
  • Financial support for mechanized boats, life-saving equipment, and climate-resilient housing.
  • Collaboration with institutions such as IIT-Madras to advance R&D in sustainable fisheries practices.
  • These steps align with the scheme’s thrust on resilience, technology adoption, and community empowerment.

Broad-Based Beneficiary Coverage

  • PMMSY targets a wide stakeholder base, including:
  • Traditional and inland fishers, aquaculture farmers, and processing workers.
  • Cooperatives, self-help groups, and entrepreneurial entities involved in the fisheries value chain.
  • Special attention is given to marginalized coastal and inland communities, ensuring inclusive development.

Macroeconomic Relevance

  • The fisheries sector contributes significantly to India’s Gross Value Added (GVA) and exports.
  • In FY 2022–23, India achieved 175.45 lakh tonnes in fish production, making it the third-largest producer globally.
  • The sector supports around 30 million people, offering both livelihood security and nutritional support.

Vision and Future Roadmap

  • PMMSY is aligned with the government’s long-term goal of “Viksit Bharat @2047” and envisions:
  • Doubling fish production and boosting exports to ₹1 lakh crore.
  • Enhancing income of fishers and reducing post-harvest losses.
  • Creating a climate-smart, resilient, and technology-enabled fisheries ecosystem.

Technology as a Force Multiplier

  • Deployment of drone technology for inland fish seed transportation.
  • Utilization of ISRO’s satellite data to help fishermen identify Potential Fishing Zones (PFZs).
  • Emphasis on digital traceability, eco-labelling, and smart cold-chain logistics.

In the context of PMMSY, which of the following technological interventions serve both ecological and livelihood objectives?

  1. Establishment of artificial reefs
  2. Use of ISRO’s satellite-based Potential Fishing Zone data
  3. Drone deployment for inland seed transportation
  4. Climate-resilient housing for fishers

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: All four interventions mentioned contribute to both ecological and socio-economic goals. Artificial reefs improve marine biodiversity and fish stock, benefiting coastal livelihoods. ISRO’s satellite data enhances fish catch efficiency. Drone tech supports inland aquaculture logistics. Climate-resilient housing reduces disaster vulnerability for fishers. Together, they integrate environmental sustainability with economic resilience.

PEN-Plus Strategy Enhances NCD Care in Africa

Syllabus:Schemes

  • In recent years, non-communicable diseases (NCDs) have emerged as a significant public health challenge across the WHO African Region.
  • A recent report by the World Health Organization (WHO) has highlighted the effectiveness of the PEN-Plus strategy—an integrated, decentralised approach to managing severe NCDs at the primary and secondary healthcare levels.
  • Since its adoption, 20 African nations have strengthened their healthcare systems, enhancing access to life-saving services for populations historically underserved.

Understanding Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs):

  • NCDs are long-term chronic conditions not caused by infectious agents.
  • Their progression is often slow and influenced by genetic predisposition, environmental exposures, and behavioural risk factors.
  • Major NCDs include cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, chronic respiratory illnesses, and cancers.
  • While NCDs account for 71% of global mortality, their contribution to overall deaths in African countries ranges widely—from 27% to 88%, underscoring deep disparities in healthcare access and disease burden.

 

The PEN-Plus Framework:

  • The PEN-Plus initiative builds upon the WHO’s broader Package of Essential Non-communicable Disease Interventions (PEN), extending its scope to cover severe and chronic NCDs.
  • Originating in Rwanda, the model focuses on bringing essential diagnostics, treatment, and psychosocial care closer to communities—particularly those living in extreme poverty.
  • It empowers mid-level healthcare providers at district hospitals and health centres through structured training programmes, ensuring that severe conditions are not excluded from primary care systems.

 

Implementation and Tangible Outcomes:

  • The strategy has gained traction in countries such as Liberia, Malawi, and Rwanda, with encouraging results.
  • As of January 2025, over 15,000 patients have received care under the PEN-Plus model.
  • In Malawi, national roll-out has seen the training of over 440 clinicians, with six district-level facilities currently managing more than 300 patients with complex NCDs.
  • This marks a significant shift toward health equity in the region.

 

Persistent Challenges and Strategic Priorities:

  • Despite measurable progress, substantial gaps remain.
  • Many children and young adults continue to succumb to preventable and treatable NCDs, primarily due to delayed diagnosis and lack of local treatment options.
  • The WHO report calls for sustained investment, inter-governmental coordination, and prioritisation of NCDs in national and international policy agendas.
  • Strengthening political will and mobilising global partnerships are imperative to ensure long-term success.

 

Building Resilient Health Systems:

  • At the core of PEN-Plus lies a vision for sustainable, decentralised health systems.
  • The approach emphasises the need for standardised clinical protocols, reliable access to essential medicines and technologies, and scalable infrastructure at district-level hospitals.
  • By bridging the treatment gap for severe NCDs, the model contributes significantly to universal health coverage (UHC) and the broader goals of health justice in sub-Saharan Africa.

With reference to the PEN-Plus strategy endorsed by the WHO for managing non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in Africa, consider the following statements:

  1. The PEN-Plus model focuses exclusively on communicable diseases with chronic manifestations such as tuberculosis.
  2. The strategy is designed to deliver care for severe NCDs at secondary and tertiary hospitals only.
  3. A core feature of PEN-Plus is the empowerment of mid-level healthcare providers at district-level facilities through structured training.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because PEN-Plus is specifically targeted at severe non-communicable diseases, not communicable diseases like tuberculosis.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect as the model decentralises care by focusing on primary and secondary health facilities, not tertiary hospitals alone.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The strategy emphasises training mid-level providers at district hospitals to ensure equitable delivery of care to underserved populations.

Judicial Cooperation Between India and Nepal

Syllabus :GS 2/IR/Governance 

 

About the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU):

  • The Supreme Court of India and the Supreme Court of Nepal have signed an MoU aimed at enhancing judicial cooperation between the two nations.
  • The MoU seeks to promote exchange of information, mutual judicial interactions, and capacity-building programs such as training for judges and court officials.
  • It emphasizes the adoption of technology to improve judicial efficiency, streamline court procedures, reduce case backlogs, and enhance citizen-centric services.
  • A Joint Working Group (JWG) will be constituted to devise actionable plans and monitor the progress of initiatives under this cooperation framework.
  • The MoU also envisions collaboration through judicial exchanges, joint research projects, seminars, and official visits to foster deeper mutual understanding.

Noteworthy Highlights:

  • Chief Justice of India (CJI), Sanjiv Khanna, termed the MoU as a “new milestone” in strengthening judicial ties between India and Nepal.
  • He highlighted the reciprocal influence of judicial decisions between the two countries—citing Nepal’s adoption of India’s Basic Structure Doctrine and parallels such as the decriminalization of Section 377 of the IPC influencing judicial discourse.

With reference to the recent MoU signed between the Supreme Courts of India and Nepal, consider the following statements:

  1. The MoU mandates the creation of a permanent judicial tribunal for cross-border legal disputes.
  2. One of the key aims of the MoU is to promote the use of technology to enhance judicial service delivery and reduce pendency.
  3. The MoU includes provisions for joint research, training programs, and reciprocal visits of judicial officers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The MoU is focused on cooperation, not adjudication; it does not establish a judicial tribunal for cross-border disputes.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Emphasis on the adoption of technology is a key feature—to streamline procedures and reduce backlog.
  • Statement 3 is correct: It includes joint research, training, seminars, and judicial exchange programs

10 Years Of PM MUDRA Yojana

Schemes

Objective:

  • To provide collateral-free institutional credit to micro and small enterprises, especially in rural and semi-urban areas, promoting entrepreneurship and self-employment.

 

 Loan Categories under MUDRA

  • Shishu: Up to ₹50,000 – For startups and early-stage businesses
  • Kishor: ₹50,001 – ₹5 lakh – For growing small businesses
  • Tarun: ₹5 lakh – ₹20 lakh – For business expansion and established unitsKey Statistics (As of April 2025)
  • Total Loans Sanctioned: 52+ crore
  • Total Disbursed Amount: ₹32.61 lakh crore
  • Women Beneficiaries: 68%
  • SC/ST/OBC Beneficiaries: 50%
  • Trend: Rise in Kishor and Tarun categories → Increasing entrepreneurial ambition

Recognition & Impact

Recognized by: International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Key Impacts:

  • Enhanced credit access to MSMEs
  • Empowered first-generation entrepreneurs
  • Shift towards job creators over job seekers
  • Promoted inclusive growth and gender equity

 Implementing Agencies

  • Apex Body: MUDRA (Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency)
  • Loan Disbursal Partners:
  • Public Sector Banks (PSBs)
  • Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
  • Cooperative Banks
  • Microfinance Institutions (MFIs)
  • Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)

Consider the following statements regarding the MUDRA Yojana:

  1. It provides credit guarantees to medium-scale industries.
  2. It focuses exclusively on urban entrepreneurial ecosystems.
  3. It supports first-generation entrepreneurs through institutional finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only

 

Correct Answer: B) 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect:The MUDRA Yojana is aimed at micro and small enterprises, not medium-scale industries. It provides collateral-free credit to small entrepreneurs but does not provide credit guarantees. Credit guarantees are typically handled by separate schemes like CGTMSE (Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect:The scheme does not focus exclusively on urban areas. In fact, one of its primary objectives is to empower entrepreneurs in rural and semi-urban regions, where access to formal credit is limited. It plays a crucial role in promoting inclusive growth in underdeveloped areas.
  • Statement 3 is correct:MUDRA supports first-generation entrepreneurs—those without any prior business background—by offering institutional finance through banks and financial institutions. This helps them start or expand micro/small businesses without collateral, fostering self-employment and entrepreneurship.

The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024

Overview of the Amendments

  • The government has reintroduced the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 in Parliament, aiming to reform the Waqf Act, 1995, which governs the management of Waqf properties in India.

 

Major Amendments in the Bill

Elimination of “Waqf by Use” Concept:

  • The Bill removes the long-standing concept of “Waqf by Use,” under which properties continuously used for religious purposes (such as mosques) were automatically considered Waqf.
  • Now, for a property to be recognized as Waqf, official documentation (Waqfnama) is mandatory.

Restructuring the Waqf Property Survey Mechanism:

  • The Survey Commissioner will be replaced by the District Collector or another senior government officer.
  • These officials will now oversee the identification and survey of Waqf properties.

Changes in the Composition of Waqf Boards:

  • The Bill allows for the appointment of non-Muslim Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) and members in state Waqf Boards, a major shift from the current framework.

Application of the Limitation Act, 1963:

  • The Bill deletes Section 107 of the Waqf Act, 1995, making the Limitation Act, 1963, applicable to Waqf properties.
  • This means that if a person unlawfully occupies a Waqf property for over 12 years, they may claim legal ownership through adverse possession.

 

Rationale Behind the Amendments

  • The government argues that the Waqf Act, 1995, has several loopholes, particularly concerning land title disputes and unauthorized occupations.
  • A unified digital registry of Waqf properties will be introduced to improve transparency and minimize legal conflicts.

 

Criticism and Controversies

  • The amendments give the government greater authority to determine whether a property qualifies as Waqf.
  • Instead of the Waqf Tribunal, the District Collector will now decide disputes over Waqf properties. Until the dispute is resolved, such properties will be treated as government-owned.
  • Opposition parties have strongly criticized the Bill, arguing that it dilutes the rights of the Muslim community in managing Waqf properties.

 

Did You Know?

  • Waqf refers to properties dedicated exclusively for religious or charitable purposes under Islamic law. Such properties cannot be sold or repurposed.

In India, the concept of Waqf dates back to the Delhi Sultanate. Sultan Muizuddin Sam Ghaor was among the first to dedicate land for Waqf when he assigned two villages to support the Jama Masjid of Multan, entrusting its management to the Shaikhul Islam.

Consider the following statements regarding the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024:

  1. It removes the concept of Waqf by Use, requiring official documentation for a property to be recognized as Waqf.
  2. The Survey Commissioner is now replaced by the District Collector for overseeing the identification of Waqf properties.
  3. The Bill introduces new exemptions under the Limitation Act, 1963, preventing adverse possession claims over Waqf properties.
  4. It mandates a state-wide digital registry of Waqf properties to enhance transparency and reduce legal disputes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2, and 4 only
(C) 1, 3, and 4 only
(D) 2, 3, and 4 only

 

 Answer: (B) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Bill removes the concept of “Waqf by Use,” meaning even religious properties (e.g., mosques) must have official documentation (Waqfnama) to be recognized.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The District Collector now replaces the Survey Commissioner for Waqf property surveys.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. Instead of exempting Waqf properties from adverse possession, the Bill applies the Limitation Act, 1963, meaning unlawful occupants can claim ownership after 12 years.
  • Statement 4 is correct. A digital registry of Waqf properties will be introduced to ensure transparency and reduce legal conflicts.

Lakhpati Baideo’ Programme

Syllabus:Government Schemes

  • The Assam government has launched the ‘Lakhpati Baideo’ programme, a transformative initiative aimed at empowering women entrepreneurs through financial support and skill training.
  • Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma introduced the scheme, targeting 40 lakh women from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to enhance financial independence and rural entrepreneurship.

 

Objectives of the Lakhpati Baideo Scheme

  • To financially empower women by providing structured monetary support.
  • To promote entrepreneurship among SHG members.
  • To enhance economic self-reliance in rural Assam.
  • Financial Assistance & Implementation Structure
  • The scheme follows a tiered financial assistance model to ensure gradual business growth:
  • Total estimated cost: ₹4,000 crore.
  • E-commerce support: The Assam government will facilitate online platforms for women-led businesses.
  • Business Plan Requirement: Beneficiaries must submit a structured business proposal to access funds, ensuring strategic planning and sustainability.

 

Eligibility Criteria & Population Control Measures

The scheme aligns with Assam’s population control policy by setting eligibility limits based on family size:

  • General & OBC categories: Maximum three
  • SC & ST categories: Maximum four

This initiative integrates economic empowerment with population management, promoting responsible family planning.

 

Additional Support: Health & Education Initiatives

  • Healthcare: Special health camps to offer affordable medical care.
  • Education: Financial aid for students from economically weaker families to support tuition and learning resources.

 

Impact & Future Prospects

The Lakhpati Baideo scheme is expected to revolutionize women’s economic participation in Assam. By fostering entrepreneurship and financial independence, the government aims to:

  • Transform rural economies.
  • Encourage self-reliance among women.
  • Promote sustainable development.

 

This initiative underscores Assam’s commitment to holistic socio-economic progress through women-led growth and self-sufficiency.

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Lakhpati Baideo’ scheme launched by Assam:

  1. It aims to provide financial assistance and training to male and female entrepreneurs from SHGs.
  2. The scheme is structured with a three-tier financial assistance model over three years.
  3. To be eligible, all beneficiaries must submit a business plan.
  4. The scheme is exclusively for women from SC and ST categories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • The scheme is exclusively for women; hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The financial assistance follows a structured three-tier model (₹10,000, ₹25,000, ₹50,000), making Statement 2 correct.
  • Beneficiaries must submit a business plan to access funds, ensuring Statement 3 is correct.
  • The scheme is not limited to SC/ST categories but includes General and OBC women as well, making Statement 4 incorrect.

Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025

Context:

  • NITI Aayog, in collaboration with the Press Information Bureau, has released the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025, evaluating the financial health of Indian states.

 

About FHI 2025:

  • The index measures the fiscal sustainability of states based on key financial indicators.
  • Covers 18 major states that significantly impact India’s GDP, public expenditure, and fiscal stability.

 

Sub-indices include:

  • Quality of Expenditure – Efficiency in public spending.
  • Revenue Mobilization – Effectiveness of tax and non-tax revenue collection.
  • Fiscal Prudence – Adherence to budgetary discipline.
  • Debt Index – The level and management of state debt.
  • Debt Sustainability – The state’s ability to repay its debt without financial distress.
  • Data sourced from the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) for the 2022-23 financial year.

 

Key Findings:

  • Top Performers: Odisha ranks 1st, followed by Chhattisgarh, Goa, Jharkhand, and Gujarat.
  • Public Finance Role: Indian states account for two-thirds of public spending and one-third of total revenue, directly influencing national economic stability.
  • Debt Challenges: West Bengal and Punjab report high debt burdens with worsening debt-to-GSDP ratios, raising concerns over fiscal sustainability.

Consider the following statements regarding the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025:

  1. It is released annually by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  2. The index includes indicators such as Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilization, and Debt Sustainability.
  3. It evaluates all Indian states and Union Territories based on fiscal performance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (b) 2 only

 Explanation:

The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 is released by NITI Aayog and the Press Information Bureau (PIB), not the RBI. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

It assesses states based on sub-indices such as Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilization, Debt Index, and Debt Sustainability, making Statement 2 correct.

The index does not cover all states and UTs; it evaluates only 18 major states, making Statement 3 incorrect.

SC Observations on Disqualification

Syllabus :GS 2/Governance 

 

In News:

  • The Supreme Court of India recently addressed petitions concerning the prolonged delay in disqualification proceedings of 10 Telangana MLAs who defected to the ruling Congress party.

Legal Provisions Governing Disqualification:

  1. Constitutional and Statutory Framework:
  • Article 102 of the Indian Constitution and Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP) Act, 1951 govern the disqualification of sitting legislators.
  • The RP Act, 1951, while listing offenses leading to disqualification, does not specify the authority responsible for declaring a legislator disqualified.
  • Article 103 of the Constitution mandates that the President of India decides on disqualification if a sitting MP is convicted of certain offenses, based on the Election Commission’s advice.
  1. Grounds for Disqualification:

A legislator is disqualified if they:

  • Are convicted of specific offenses and sentenced to at least two years of imprisonment (under Section 8 of the RP Act).
  • Are found guilty of offenses such as promoting enmity, bribery, corruption, and sexual crimes (Section 8 of the RP Act).

Supreme Court’s Key Rulings on Disqualification:

  1. Lily Thomas Case (2013):
  • Struck down Section 8(4) of the RP Act, which previously allowed convicted sitting members a three-month window to appeal before disqualification took effect.
  • The Court ruled that Parliament cannot provide special privileges to sitting members, as both candidates and incumbents must be treated equally under Article 102.
  1. Recent Supreme Court Observations (2024-25):
  • The Speaker cannot indefinitely delay disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) to undermine the law’s purpose.
  • Courts have the power to ensure disqualification petitions are resolved within a reasonable timeframe, although they cannot dictate how the Speaker should decide.
  • The Supreme Court has previously intervened in similar cases to compel Speakers to expedite pending disqualification decisions.

Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule):

  • Introduced in 1985 via the 52nd Constitutional Amendment to address political instability caused by frequent defections of legislators, which often led to government collapses.

Disqualifies legislators who:

  • Voluntarily give up party membership or
  • Vote against their party’s directives (whip) in the legislature.
  • Amendment in 2003:
  • Removed the provision (Paragraph 3) that previously allowed one-third of a party’s members to split and form a separate group.
  • Strengthened the anti-defection law by allowing only mergers approved by two-thirds of the party’s members.

Consider the following statements regarding the disqualification of legislators in India:

  1. Article 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of members of Parliament, whereas Article 191 applies to members of State Legislatures.
  2. The President of India has the final authority to decide on the disqualification of MPs under all circumstances.
  3. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that a Speaker cannot indefinitely delay disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 102 deals with disqualification of MPs, while Article 191 applies to MLAs.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The President decides disqualification only in cases of holding an office of profit, mental unsoundness, insolvency, or foreign citizenship. However, for disqualification under the Representation of the People Act (RP Act) or the Tenth Schedule, the decision is taken by the Election Commission (for criminal convictions) or the Speaker (for defections).

Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court has ruled that Speakers cannot indefinitely delay disqualification proceedings and courts have the power to enforce a timely decision.

Consider the following statements regarding the disqualification of legislators in India:

  1. Article 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of members of Parliament, whereas Article 191 applies to members of State Legislatures.
  2. The President of India has the final authority to decide on the disqualification of MPs under all circumstances.
  3. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that a Speaker cannot indefinitely delay disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 102 deals with disqualification of MPs, while Article 191 applies to MLAs.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The President decides disqualification only in cases of holding an office of profit, mental unsoundness, insolvency, or foreign citizenship. However, for disqualification under the Representation of the People Act (RP Act) or the Tenth Schedule, the decision is taken by the Election Commission (for criminal convictions) or the Speaker (for defections).

Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court has ruled that Speakers cannot indefinitely delay disqualification proceedings and courts have the power to enforce a timely decision.

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)

Recent Developments:

  • The latest Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) report, titled ‘Prevention and Mitigation of Vehicular Air Pollution in Delhi,’ has raised critical concerns regarding:
  • Air Quality Monitoring Deficiencies – Inadequate real-time tracking of pollution levels.
  • Vehicular Emissions – Lack of stringent regulatory enforcement to curb pollution from automobiles.
  • Government Accountability – Gaps in policy implementation and administrative oversight in tackling air pollution.

 

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India

  • The CAG of India serves as the guardian of public finances, ensuring financial accountability in government expenditures. It oversees audits of financial transactions at both the central and state levels to uphold transparency and efficiency in governance. 

Constitutional Status and Authority

  • The CAG is a constitutional authority, established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. It plays a pivotal role in maintaining fiscal discipline and ensuring that government spending is in accordance with legal provisions.

 

Key Constitutional Provisions:

  • Article 148 – Outlines the appointment, term, and conditions of service of the CAG.
  • Article 149 – Defines the duties and powers of the CAG in auditing government accounts.
  • Article 150 – Empowers the President to prescribe government accounting standards based on CAG’s advice.
  • Article 151 – Mandates that the CAG’s audit reports be tabled in Parliament and State Legislatures.
  • Article 279 – Assigns the CAG the responsibility of certifying the “net proceeds” of taxes and duties for revenue-sharing between the Centre and States.
  • Sixth Schedule – Requires the CAG to audit the accounts of District and Regional Councils in autonomous tribal areas.

 

Appointment, Tenure, and Removal

  • Appointing Authority: The President of India appoints the CAG through a formal warrant.
  • Term: The CAG serves for six years or until reaching 65 years of age, whichever comes earlier.
  • Resignation: The CAG may resign by submitting a letter to the President of India.
  • Removal Process: The CAG can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge—through impeachment by Parliament requiring a special majority in both Houses.

 

Ensuring Independence of the CAG

To maintain neutrality and prevent executive influence, the CAG enjoys several constitutional safeguards:

  • Security of Tenure: Cannot be removed at the discretion of the executive.
  • Post-Tenure Restrictions: The CAG cannot hold any other government office under the Centre or State governments after retirement.

 

Financial Autonomy:

  • Salary is fixed by Parliament and is equal to that of a Supreme Court judge.
  • Administrative expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring operational independence.

No Executive Control:

  • The CAG does not report to any minister.
  • No minister can represent the CAG in Parliament.

 

Duties and Powers of the CAG

The CAG Act, 1971 (with amendments in 1976, 1984, and 1987) outlines the statutory responsibilities of the CAG:

  1. Audit of Government Expenditure
  • Scrutinizes spending from the Consolidated Fund of India and State Consolidated Funds.
  • Audits revenues, expenditures, loans, and debts of the government.
  1. Oversight of Public Sector Enterprises
  • Audits financial statements of Government-Owned Companies and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
  • Ensures transparency in government transactions and proper utilization of funds.
  1. Certification of Tax Revenues
  • Certifies net proceeds of taxes collected by the government under Article 279.
  • Plays a crucial role in determining tax revenue distribution between the Centre and States.
  1. Parliamentary Accountability
  • Submits audit reports to the President, which are then tabled in Parliament and examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
  • Conducts propriety audits to ensure that government spending is not wasteful or extravagant.

 

CAG in India vs. CAG in the UK

  • Unlike the UK’s Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), who controls fund disbursements, the Indian CAG serves purely as an auditor. It does not exercise direct control over financial transactions, maintaining a clear separation between auditing and expenditure management.

 

CAG’s Role in International Audits

  • The CAG of India is entrusted with auditing the financial transactions of global organizations, reinforcing India’s credibility in financial governance.
  • International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) (2022-2027) – Ensuring financial accountability in nuclear energy governance.
  • Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) (2020-2025) – Overseeing financial audits related to global food security programs.

 

Conclusion

  • The CAG of India is a critical institution in ensuring financial transparency and accountability. With constitutional protections, an independent mandate, and a wide scope of responsibilities, it plays an essential role in upholding democratic governance and preventing fiscal mismanagement.

Would you like additional details on CAG reforms or contemporary challenges faced by the institution?

  1. The independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is ensured by various constitutional and statutory provisions. Which of the following provisions contribute to the CAG’s autonomy?
  2. The CAG cannot be removed from office except in a manner similar to a Supreme Court judge.
  3. The salary and allowances of the CAG are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
  4. The CAG is appointed by the President but must be ratified by the Parliament.
  5. After retirement, the CAG is ineligible for further government office under the Central or State governments.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

 Explanation: The CAG is appointed by the President without requiring parliamentary ratification. However, provisions like security of tenure, financial autonomy, and post-retirement restrictions ensure its independence.

Bihar’s Mukhya Mantri Vidyut Upbhokta Sahayta Yojana

Syllabus GS2/Governance

  • The Bihar Cabinet, chaired by the Chief Minister, has approved a subsidy of ₹15,995 crore under the Mukhya Mantri Vidyut Upbhokta Sahayta Yojana for the financial year 2025-26. This allocation is ₹652 crore more than the subsidy granted in the previous year.

 

  • Mukhya Mantri Vidyut Upbhokta Sahayta Yojana: Introduced in Bihar, this scheme aims to provide significant electricity subsidies to ease the financial burden on consumers and promote fair access to power throughout the state.

 

  • The subsidy is designed to reduce the per-unit cost of electricity for consumers, and will be directly provided to the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) through the Reserve Bank of India.

 

  • The subsidy will be reflected in consumers’ monthly energy bills, covering the period from April 2025 to March 2026. This move is intended to offset the impact of rising electricity tariff rates.

 

  • Did You Know? The Government of India launched the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA) in October 2017, with the goal of achieving universal household electrification.

 

  • This initiative provides electricity connections to all willing un-electrified households in rural areas and to poor households in urban areas across the country.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Mukhya Mantri Vidyut Upbhokta Sahayta Yojana:

  1. The scheme provides subsidies directly to consumers through the Reserve Bank of India to reduce their electricity bills.
  2. The subsidy aims to alleviate the financial burden on consumers by lowering per-unit electricity costs and is allocated for the period from April 2025 to March 2026.
  3. The subsidy under the scheme is specifically aimed at reducing the electricity tariffs for commercial consumers in Bihar.
  4. The Bihar Government has allocated ₹15,995 crore for the scheme in 2025-26, which is an increase of ₹652 crore from the previous year’s budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – The subsidy is provided through the Reserve Bank of India directly to the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC), which helps reduce the per-unit cost for consumers.
  • Statement 2: Correct – The subsidy will indeed be for the period from April 2025 to March 2026, aimed at reducing the per-unit electricity costs.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – The scheme primarily targets domestic consumers, not commercial consumers.
  • Statement 4: Correct – The Bihar government has allocated ₹15,995 crore, which is an increase of ₹652 crore over the previous year’s allocation.

Judiciary Can’t Function as Super Parliament: Vice President

Syllabus:Polity

Vice President’s Criticism

  • Accused the judiciary of acting as a “super Parliament”.
  • Criticized Article 142 of the Constitution, calling it a “nuclear missile against democratic forces”, available to the judiciary 24×7.
  • The remarks came after the Supreme Court set a 3-month deadline for the President to act on bills pending with state governors and invoked Article 142 to deem 10 bills as approved.

What is Article 142?

  • Grants the Supreme Court the power to “pass any order necessary to do complete justice” in any pending case.
  • Originally intended as an extraordinary provision to ensure justice in situations where the law is silent or inadequate.

Example:

  • Vishaka Guidelines (1997) – issued in the absence of sexual harassment laws, later formed the basis for the PoSH Act (2013).
  • Concerns about Article 142
  • Vague Definition: The term “complete justice” is subjective and lacks a precise definition.
  • Judicial Overreach: Allows the judiciary to potentially interfere in the domains of the legislature or executive.
  • Violation of Separation of Powers: Risks converting judicial activism into judicial legislation.

Judicial Activism vs Judicial Overreach

Judicial Activism

Judicial Overreach

Upholds rights and ensures justice

Judiciary enters legislative or executive domains

Based on constitutional provisions

Often seen as creating “judge-made” laws

Example: Vishaka Guidelines

Example: Striking down NJAC (2015)

India’s Manuscripts in UNESCO Memory of the World Register

Newly Added:

Bhagavad Gita:Dialogue between Krishna and Arjuna, dated to the 2nd or 1st century BCE.

  • Contains 700 verses across 18 chapters; serves as a spiritual and philosophical guide.

 

Natyashastra by Bharatmuni:

  • Ancient Sanskrit treatise on drama, music, dance, and aesthetics.
  • Regarded as the foundation of Indian performing arts, dated around the 2nd century BCE.

UNESCO Memory of the World Programme

  • Launched in 1992.
  • Aims to preserve and promote access to documentary heritage of outstanding universal value.
  • Other Indian Inscriptions in the Register:
  • Rig Veda, Gilgit Manuscripts, Works of Abhinavagupta, Maitreyayvarakarana (Pala period), among others.

 

Global Entry:

  • Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) is also newly included in the register.

Consider the following statements regarding the Vishaka Guidelines:

  1. They were issued by the Supreme Court using Article 142.
  2. They formed the basis for the PoSH Act, 2013.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: “They were issued by the Supreme Court using Article 142.” – Correct
  • The Vishaka Guidelines were laid down by the Supreme Court in 1997 in the case Vishaka & Others v. State of Rajasthan & Others, to address sexual harassment of women at the workplace. At the time, there was no legislation in India specifically dealing with workplace sexual harassment. The Supreme Court invoked Article 142 of the Constitution to formulate binding guidelines, ensuring “complete justice” in the absence of statutory law.
  • Statement 2: “They formed the basis for the PoSH Act, 2013.” – Correct.
  • The Vishaka Guidelines acted as a legal framework for preventing and redressing sexual harassment at workplaces for over a decade.In 2013, Parliament passed the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, commonly known as the PoSH Act, which was largely based on the Vishaka Guidelines.

Years of SVAMITVA Scheme

Syllabus :GS 2/Governance 

  • Launched: April 24, 2020 (National Panchayati Raj Day)
  • Ministry: Ministry of Panchayati Raj

Objective:

  • Provide legal ownership papers for houses and land in villages using drones and mapping technology.
  • Facilitate access to loans, dispute resolution, and support better planning.

Implementation:

  • Led by the Survey of India
  • Tech Partner: National Informatics Centre Services Inc. (NICSI)
  • Budget: ₹566.23 crores (FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25, with extension to FY 2025-26)

Progress:

  • 42 Crore property cards created.
  • 61 Lakh villages covered.
  • Drone surveys completed in 3.20 Lakh villages.
  • 68,122 sq. km area covered.

Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) scheme:

  1. Launched on April 24, 2020, by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
  2. Aims to provide legal ownership documents for rural properties using drone and mapping technology.
  3. Implemented solely by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, with no involvement from state governments.
  4. As of July 2024, drone surveys have been completed in approximately 3.12 lakh villages, covering 2.03 crore property cards.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 4 only

B) 1, 3, and 4 only

C) 2 and 4 only

D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: A) 1, 2, and 4 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct. The SVAMITVA scheme was launched on April 24, 2020, by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj on National Panchayati Raj Day.​
  • Statement 2: Correct. The scheme aims to provide legal ownership documents for rural properties using drone and mapping technology, facilitating access to loans and reducing property disputes.​
  • Statement 3: Incorrect. While the Ministry of Panchayati Raj is the nodal ministry, the implementation involves collaboration with state governments, state revenue departments, and the Survey of India.​
  • Statement 4: Correct. As of July 2024, drone surveys have been completed in approximately 3.12 lakh villages, and 2.03 crore property cards have been prepared in 1.30 lakh villages.

 

PoshanTracker Application

Syllabus: GS2/ Governance

  • The Poshan Tracker is a mobile-based, ICT-enabled application developed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD) under Mission Poshan 2.0.
  • It serves as a comprehensive tool for Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) to monitor and manage maternal and child nutrition services in real time.​

Awards and Recognition

  • In 2024, the Poshan Tracker received the National Award for e-Governance (Gold), recognizing its excellence in digital governance and innovation in public administration. ​

 

Key Features and Functionality

  • Real-Time Monitoring: Enables Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) to track daily activities such as Growth Measurement, Take Home Ration (THR) distribution, and Hot Cooked Meals (HCM).
  • Comprehensive Beneficiary Management: Manages data for pregnant women, lactating mothers, children (0-6 years), and adolescent girls, ensuring timely interventions.
  • Data Integration: Integrates with platforms like the RCH and UWIN portals, facilitating seamless coordination across health and welfare services.
  • Multilingual Support: Available in 22 regional languages, making it accessible to a diverse user base.
  • Beneficiary Communication: Features SMS alerts to beneficiaries upon delivery of THR, ensuring transparency and accountability.

Impact and Reach

  • Coverage: As of 2024, the application has been adopted by over 14 lakh Anganwadi Workers.
  • Beneficiary Onboarding: More than 7 crore beneficiaries have been onboarded, with over 1.24 crore THR distributions and 68.79 lakh HCMs tracked.
  • Growth Monitoring: Utilizes WHO growth charts to assess children’s growth, aiding in the early identification of malnutrition issues.

Integration with Other Initiatives:

  • Poshan Maah and Poshan Pakhwada: Annual campaigns to raise awareness about nutrition, during which activities are recorded on the Poshan Tracker’s Jan Andolan Dashboard.
  • PM Gati Shakti Portal: Geo-mapping and onboarding of Anganwadi Centres to enable focused interventions.

Conclusion

  • The Poshan Tracker exemplifies India’s commitment to leveraging technology for enhancing public health services, ensuring that nutritional interventions reach the most vulnerable populations effectively and efficiently.

Consider the following statements regarding the Poshan Tracker initiative under Mission Poshan 2.0:

 

  1. The Poshan Tracker application is utilized exclusively by Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) to monitor the growth of children aged 0–6 years.​
  2. The application integrates with the RCH and UWIN portals to facilitate comprehensive monitoring of nutritional services.​
  3. The Ministry of Women and Child Development won the National Award for e-Governance 2024 (Gold) for the Poshan Tracker initiative.​
  4. As of September 2024, the Poshan Tracker has covered over 8.9 crore children, with 8.57 crore measured in a single month through routine monthly growth measurements.​

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only

B) 2, 3, and 4 only

C) 1, 3, and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 

Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct. The Poshan Tracker is primarily used by Anganwadi Workers to monitor the growth of children aged 0–6 years, ensuring timely interventions for nutritional issues.
  • Statement 2: Correct. The application integrates with platforms like the RCH and UWIN portals, facilitating seamless coordination across health and welfare services.​
  • Statement 3: Correct. The Ministry of Women and Child Development won the National Award for e-Governance 2024 (Gold) for the Poshan Tracker initiative, recognizing its excellence in digital governance and innovation in public administration.​
  • Statement 4: Correct. As of September 2024, the Poshan Tracker has covered over 8.9 crore children, with 8.57 crore measured in a single month through routine monthly growth measurements, showcasing its extensive reach and impact.

EVolutionS Programme

Syllabus:Scheme

  • The Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India, has launched an ambitious initiative titled ‘Electric Vehicle Solutions led by Startups (EVolutionS)’.
  • This programme is designed to strengthen India’s electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing ecosystem by promoting innovation-driven startups and reducing dependence on imported components.

 

Objective and Vision

  • The primary goal of EVolutionS is to assist Indian startups in transforming innovative EV-related prototypes into commercially viable and market-ready products.
  • By doing so, the programme seeks to develop a self-reliant and robust domestic supply chain for EVs.
  • It targets a broad spectrum of the EV ecosystem, encompassing two-wheelers, three-wheelers, four-wheelers, e-buses, and public charging infrastructure.

 

Support Mechanism and Funding

  • Under the EVolutionS programme:
  • Startups with demonstrated potential in indigenous development of EV materials and components will receive financial assistance.
  • Each selected startup is eligible for up to ₹50 lakh, of which ₹30 lakh will be provided through equity-linked instruments.
  • The funding aims to help startups progress from Technology Readiness Levels (TRL) 3–4 to TRL 6–8, facilitating prototype testing, validation, and pilot demonstrations.

 

Strategic Significance

  • India’s EV sector currently relies heavily on imported components, making it vulnerable to global supply chain disruptions. The EVolutionS programme is strategically significant in its attempt to:
  • Localize production of critical EV components
  • Enhance technological capabilities of Indian startups
  • Stimulate domestic innovation and reduce reliance on foreign technology

 

Collaborative Framework

  • The programme is implemented in coordination with:
  • The Ministry of Heavy Industry, and
  • The Automotive Component Manufacturers Association of India (ACMA)
  • This collaborative model is designed to bridge the gap between R&D innovations and industry requirements, fostering faster adoption of indigenous EV solutions in the market.

 

Scope and Component Coverage

  • The EVolutionS programme encompasses a wide range of components essential for the EV ecosystem, including:
  • Electric motors, battery management systems, and controllers
  • Charging infrastructure for public and private use
  • Sub-systems for e-rickshaws, e-carts, and electric buses
  • By targeting these critical components, the programme not only enhances infrastructure readiness but also addresses strategic vulnerabilities in India’s path toward sustainable mobility

With reference to the ‘Electric Vehicle Solutions led by Startups (EVolutionS)’ programme recently launched by the Department of Science and Technology, consider the following statements:

  1. The programme provides financial assistance only in the form of outright grants to eligible startups.
  2. It aims to reduce India’s dependence on imports by promoting indigenous development of EV components.
  3. The programme covers only two- and four-wheeled electric vehicles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

 

Answer:B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Funding under EVolutionS includes ₹30 lakh via equity-linked instruments, not just outright grants.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The programme’s core objective is to promote indigenous innovation and reduce reliance on imports.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The scope includes two-wheelers, three-wheelers, four-wheelers, e-rickshaws, e-carts, e-buses, and public charging infrastructure.

India and Russia Approved Strategic Projects

Syllabus: GS 2/IR

India–Russia Strategic Cooperation: Key Highlights

In the News

  • India and Russia have agreed to initiate six new strategic investment projects during the 8th Session of the India-Russia Working Group on Priority Investment Projects (IRWG-PIP), held in New Delhi.

 

Background: Evolution of the Partnership

  • The foundation of modern India-Russia relations was laid with the “Declaration on Strategic Partnership” signed in October 2000, during President Vladimir Putin’s visit to India.
  • In 2010, the partnership was further elevated to a “Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership,” reflecting deepening engagement across various sectors—defense, economic cooperation, science & technology, and cultural exchange.

 

8th IRWG-PIP Session: Key Outcomes

Six new strategic projects were approved, focusing on:

  • Trade and commerce
  • Technological innovation
  • Economic development and investment
  • The IRWG-PIP functions under the India-Russia Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological, and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC).

 

Strategic Significance

  • Enhancing Economic Resilience: Promotes diversification of trade and investment, reducing dependence on traditional partners.
  • Strategic Autonomy: Aligns with India’s foreign policy of balancing major powers in a multipolar world.
  • Boost to Domestic Initiatives: Supports ‘Make in India’ and Atmanirbhar Bharat through technology transfer and local manufacturing.
  • Geopolitical Advantage: Expands India’s engagement with Eurasia, enhancing its strategic footprint.

 

India–Russia Economic Relations

  • Historical Ties: Bilateral trade has grown from USD 1.4 billion in 1995 to approximately USD 65.7 billion in FY 2023–24.

 

Trade Composition:

  • India’s exports: Pharmaceuticals, agricultural products, chemicals, and machinery.
  • Russia’s exports: Crude oil, fertilizers, mineral fuels, and metals.
  • Target: Both nations aim to achieve USD 100 billion in bilateral trade by 2030.

 

Institutional Mechanisms Supporting Ties

  • IRIGC-TEC: Comprises 15 Working Groups and 6 Sub-Groups, covering diverse sectors.
  • India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue (IRSED): Facilitates high-level economic coordination.

Multilateral Cooperation

  • India and Russia maintain close coordination at major international forums:
  • United Nations (UN)
  • BRICS
  • Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
  • G20
    India’s presidency of the G20 and SCO in 2023 facilitated numerous bilateral meetings on the sidelines.

Defence and Strategic Cooperation

  • India and Russia have a robust defense partnership characterized by both supply and co-development projects:
  • S-400 Triumf missile systems
  • Licensed production of T-90 tanks and Su-30 MKI aircraft
  • Supply of MiG-29s, Kamov helicopters
  • INS Vikramaditya (formerly Admiral Gorshkov)
  • AK-203 assault rifles (joint production in India)
  • BrahMos missiles (jointly developed and exported)

With reference to the India-Russia Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), consider the following statements:

  1. It includes more than ten Working Groups and multiple Sub-Groups to facilitate sectoral cooperation.
  2. The IRIGC-TEC is a ministerial-level mechanism that reports directly to the UN Security Council.
  3. One of its objectives is to coordinate economic cooperation aligned with the BRICS development agenda.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 1 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct – The IRIGC-TEC includes 15 Working Groups and 6 Sub-Groups.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – It is a bilateral mechanism between India and Russia, not linked to the UN Security Council.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect – While India and Russia coordinate within BRICS, the IRIGC-TEC is not designed explicitly to align with the BRICS development agenda.

India Ends Transshipment for Bangladesh Exports

Syllabus: GS2/IR

 

Context

  • India has officially withdrawn the transshipment facility that previously allowed Bangladesh to export goods to third countries via Indian land customs stations, ports, and airports, marking a significant development in regional trade logistics.

About the Transshipment Agreement

  • Introduced in 2020 by India’s Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).
  • Aimed at enhancing regional trade cooperation and logistics efficiency for Bangladesh by enabling its cargo to transit through Indian infrastructure.
  • Facilitated seamless Bangladeshi exports to Europe, West Asia, and other global destinations via India’s multimodal transport network.

 

Why Was It Revoked?

  • Primary Concern: Rising logistical congestion at Indian airports and ports.

Resulted in:

  • Delays in India’s own export consignments.
  • Backlogs in cargo handling.
  • Escalation in operational costs for Indian exporters.
  • Decision aligns with India’s need to prioritize domestic trade efficiency amidst increasing global trade competitiveness.

 

Implications for Bangladesh

  • Expected to increase logistics costs and transit time for Bangladeshi exports, especially to Western markets.
  • Could potentially divert Bangladesh’s trade alignment toward alternate regional corridors, possibly involving Chinese infrastructure partnerships.

 

India-Bangladesh Relations: A Comprehensive Overview

Historical Foundations

  • 1971 Liberation War: India’s support for the Bengali nationalist movement laid the groundwork for robust bilateral ties.
  • Land Boundary Agreement (2015): Resolved a 70-year-old dispute by exchanging enclaves and streamlining borders.
  • Connectivity Milestones

 

Rail Connectivity:

  • Revival of five pre-1965 rail links.
  • Operational trains: Maitri Express, Bandhan Express, Mitali Express.

Cross-Border Infrastructure:

  • Inauguration of Akhaura–Agartala rail link improves access to Northeast India.
  • Economic Interdependence

Trade Volume (FY 2023–24):

  • Total Bilateral Trade: US$ 12.90 billion
  • Indian Exports to Bangladesh: US$ 11.06 billion
  • Bangladesh is India’s largest trading partner in South Asia; India is Bangladesh’s second largest partner in Asia.
  • Trade Frameworks

 

Multilateral Trade Agreements:

  • Asia-Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA)
  • SAARC Preferential Trade Agreement (SAPTA)
  • South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA)
  • Regional and Strategic Cooperation
  • Active participation in SAARC and BIMSTEC.

 

Joint Military Exercises:

  • Sampriti (Army)
  • Milan (Navy)

 

Energy Security:

  • Bangladesh imports ~2,000 MW of electricity from India.

Challenges in Bilateral Engagement

Border Security Issues:

  • Despite LBA, illegal crossings, smuggling, and occasional border skirmishes

Teesta Water Dispute:

  • Long-pending issue causing political tension and water stress.

Trade Imbalance:

  • Heavy tilt in favor of India triggers economic anxieties in Bangladesh.

Cross-border Migration:

  • Sensitive issue in Indian domestic politics, especially in Assam and West Bengal.

Security Threats:

  • Extremist groups and cross-border smuggling require continuous vigilance.

China’s Expanding Footprint:

  • Strategic investments in Bangladesh’s infrastructure and defense seen as a challenge to India’s traditional sphere of influence.

Way Forward

  • India must balance national logistics interests with its commitment to regional cooperation.
  • Bangladesh remains a critical strategic ally in South Asia:
  • Shares the longest land boundary with India.
  • Acts as a gateway to the Northeast.

Strategic roadmap should include:

  • Revitalizing dialogue on water sharing and trade.
  • Collaborating on green logistics and port infrastructure.
  • Enhancing people-to-people ties and cultural diplomacy.

Conclusion

  • India-Bangladesh relations are a blend of shared history, economic interdependence, and strategic cooperation.
  • While the revocation of the transshipment facility signals logistical recalibration, sustained diplomatic engagement and policy innovation are essential to ensure that the bilateral relationship continues to evolve on the pillars of mutual respect, economic pragmatism, and regional integration.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the transshipment facility extended by India to Bangladesh:

  1. It allowed Bangladeshi goods to transit through Indian ports and airports for export to third countries.
  2. It was introduced by India’s Ministry of External Affairs in 2020.
  3. The facility was revoked primarily due to strategic concerns over China’s growing influence in Bangladesh.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A) 1 only

  • Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct – the facility allowed Bangladeshi cargo to transit through Indian infrastructure to reach global markets.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – the scheme was introduced by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), not the Ministry of External Affairs.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect – the facility was revoked due to logistical congestion, not directly because of geopolitical concerns.

The Magic of Indian Silk

Syllabus: GS3/ Economy

 

India’s Silk Sector: An Introduction

  • India’s raw silk production has witnessed a consistent upward trajectory, increasing from 31,906 metric tonnes (MT) in 2017–18 to 38,913 MT in 2023–24, reflecting strategic interventions and government support.

 

What is Sericulture?

  • Sericulture refers to the cultivation of silkworms for silk production. The process involves:
  • Rearing silkworms primarily on mulberry, oak, castor, and arjun
  • Within a month, the worms spin cocoons.
  • The cocoons are harvested, boiled to loosen the threads, and silk fibers are reeled, twisted into yarn, and woven into fabrics.

 

Lifecycle of the Silkworm Moth:

  • Egg →
  • Larva (caterpillar/silkworm) →
  • Pupa (inside cocoon) →
  • Moth (adult stage)

India’s Position in the Global Silk Industry

  • India is the second-largest producer and consumer of silk
  • Despite this, silk comprises only 2% of total global textile production.
  • India produces four varieties of natural silk:
  • Mulberry (dominant)
  • Eri
  • Tasar
  • Muga
  • Major Silk-Producing States
  • Karnataka (largest producer)
  • Followed by: Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh

Silk Production & Export Trends

  • Exports of silk and silk goods increased from ₹1,649.48 crore in 2017–18 to ₹2,027.56 crore in 2023–24.
  • In 2023–24, India exported 3,348 MT of silk waste, which includes leftover or imperfect silk such as broken fibers and cocoon fragments.

 

Key Government Initiatives

  1. Silk Samagra Scheme
  • Launched to enhance silk production and quality, while empowering underprivileged and rural families through sericulture.

It includes four key components:

  • Research & Development, Training, Technology Transfer, and IT Initiatives
  • Seed Production and Supply Chains
  • Market Coordination and Infrastructure Development
  • Quality Certification, Export Branding, and Technology Upgradation

 

  1. North East Region Textile Promotion Scheme (NERTPS)
  • Specifically targets sericulture development in North-Eastern States.
  • Focus on promoting Eri and Muga silk, which are indigenous to the region.
  • Aims to revive, diversify, and expand silk-based livelihoods in the region.

 

  1. Indian Silk Export Promotion Council (ISEPC)
  • Sponsored by the Ministry of Textiles.
  • Apex body for exporters, manufacturers, and traders of silk.

Functions:

  • Explore international markets
  • Organize trade fairs, buyer-seller meets
  • Resolve trade disputes
  • Strengthen export competitiveness

Conclusion

  • Sericulture in India is more than an industry—it’s a source of sustainable rural livelihood, cultural heritage, and economic growth. Through dedicated schemes like Silk Samagra and institutional support via ISEPC, India continues to boost its silk production, quality, and global outreach, with a strong focus on inclusive development and traditional skills.

Consider the following statements regarding the varieties of silk produced in India:

  1. Eri and Muga silks are exclusively reared on mulberry leaves.
  2. Mulberry silk accounts for the majority share in India’s overall silk output.
  3. Muga silk is traditionally associated with Assam and is known for its golden sheen.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Eri and Muga silkworms are non-mulberry varieties. Mulberry leaves are specific to Mulberry silk.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Mulberry is the dominant variety produced in India.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Muga silk, native to Assam, is noted for its natural golden luster and is culturally significant in the region.

Naxalmukt Bharat Abhiyan: From Red Zones to Growth Corridors

Syllabus: GS3/ Internal Security

Genesis of the Naxalite Movement

  • The Naxalite movement traces its roots to Naxalbari village in West Bengal (1967), where a radical leftist uprising emerged advocating land redistribution and tribal rights.
  • Drawing ideological inspiration from Maoist doctrines, it rapidly transformed into an armed insurgency targeting the Indian state.

Geographical Spread: The Red Corridor

  • The insurgency expanded across the “Red Corridor”, encompassing parts of:
  • Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Maharashtra
  • West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
  • Madhya Pradesh, Kerala

This region has historically been marked by socio-economic backwardness, poor governance, and tribal marginalization—fertile ground for extremist ideologies.

Nature and Modus Operandi

Naxalite groups engage in:

  • Guerrilla warfare and ambushes targeting state forces and infrastructure
  • Extortion and taxation of local populations
  • Child recruitment and radicalization
  • Sabotage of developmental initiatives to maintain control

While projecting themselves as protectors of the oppressed, their methods often perpetuate fear and lawlessness.

Consequences of Naxalism

  1. Political Impacts
  • Erodes state authority and weakens democratic institutions
  • Creates governance vacuums, making administration ineffective
  1. Economic Impacts
  • Disrupts agriculture, mining, and infrastructure projects
  • Escalates public expenditure on security, crowding out development
  • Deters private investment in high-risk regions
  1. Social Impacts
  • Fuels alienation and mistrust among tribal and rural communities
  • Hampers access to healthcare, education, and public services
  • Undermines human development indices in affected zones

India’s Progress Against LWE

Significant Improvements (2010–2024):

  • Reduction in LWE-affected districts: From 126 in 2010 to 38 in 2024
  • Violence down by 81%: From 1,936 incidents in 2010 to 374 in 2024
  • Over 8,000 cadre surrenders in the last decade

Enhanced developmental outreach, with visible improvements in:

  • Connectivity
  • Healthcare and education
  • Governance and administrative presence

Key Government Initiatives

  1. Security Related Expenditure (SRE) Scheme
  • Sub-scheme under the Modernization of Police Forces (MPF)
  • Reimbursement of security-related costs for LWE-affected districts
  1. SAMADHAN Strategy
  • A multi-pronged approach:
  • Smart Leadership
  • Aggressive Strategy
  • Motivation and Training
  • Actionable Intelligence
  • Dashboard-based Monitoring (KPIs/KRAs)
  • Harnessing Technology
  • Localized Action Plans
  • Financial Deprivation of Extremist Networks
  1. Fortified Police Stations
  • 612 stations built in high-risk zones to enhance security and outreach
  1. Aspirational Districts Programme
  • The Ministry of Home Affairs oversees 35 LWE-affected districts
  • Focus on health, education, infrastructure, and livelihood generation
  1. Special Central Assistance (SCA)
  • ₹30 crore/year to most-affected districts
  • ₹10 crore/year to “Districts of Concern”
  • Aimed at bridging infrastructure gaps and accelerating development

Way Forward

  • Community Engagement
  • Empower tribal institutions and promote participatory governance
  • Initiate confidence-building measures with local populations
  • Education and Employment
  • Provide skill development, education, and employment avenues
  • Target youth populations to prevent radicalization and recruitment
  • Technological Integration
  • Deploy advanced surveillance, communication systems, and intelligence tools
  • Promote e-governance and digital inclusion

Conclusion: Towards a Naxal-Free India

  • The Government of India aims to eliminate Left-Wing Extremism by March 31, 2026, recognizing it as a key barrier to inclusive growth in tribal and remote regions.
  • The success of the “Naxalmukt Bharat Abhiyan” rests on a balanced strategy that combines:
  • Robust security operations
  • Sustainable development
  • Empowered local governance
  • With sustained political will, administrative coordination, and local participation, the vision of a LWE-free India is well within reach.

Which of the following elements of the Government’s SAMADHAN Strategy directly aim at dismantling the financial and operational capacity of Naxalite groups?

  1. Actionable Intelligence
  2. Harnessing Technology
  3. No Access to Financing
  4. Action Plans for Each Theatre

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation: Actionable intelligence helps in intercepting extortion networks, while harnessing technology enables tracking of financial channels and movements. “No Access to Financing” explicitly targets the economic backbone of LWE. “Action Plans for Each Theatre” is operational, not financial.

India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC)

Syllabus:Summits

Why in News?

  • India and Italy have reaffirmed their commitment to enhancing strategic cooperation across critical sectors, following a high-level meeting in April 2025 between External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar and Italian Deputy Prime Minister Antonio Tajani.
  • The dialogue centered around the Joint Strategic Action Plan (JSAP) 2025–2029, a comprehensive roadmap unveiled during the bilateral meeting between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Italian Prime Minister Giorgia Meloni in November 2024, on the sidelines of the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro.

 

Key Pillars of India–Italy Cooperation under JSAP (2025–2029)

The strategic agenda aims to diversify and deepen collaboration in the following domains:

  • Trade and Investment
  • Defence and Security
  • Clean Energy Transition
  • High-Technology and Digital Infrastructure
  • Space and Scientific Research
  • People-to-People and Educational Exchanges
  • Emerging sectors for enhanced synergy include:
  • Artificial Intelligence (AI)
  • Cybersecurity and Telecommunications
  • Renewable Energy and Biofuels
  • Higher Education and Youth Mobility

 

India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC)

  • The India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) is a landmark multimodal connectivity initiative aimed at enhancing trade and transport infrastructure between India, the Middle East, and Europe.

 

Launch and Strategic Significance

  • Officially launched during the G20 Summit in New Delhi (2023) through a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) involving:
    India, UAE, Saudi Arabia, France, Germany, Italy, the European Union, and the United States.
  • IMEEC is embedded within the broader Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII), an initiative introduced at the G7 Summit 2021 (UK).
  • It is widely perceived as a strategic alternative to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), offering a transparent and rules-based infrastructure framework.

 

Structure of IMEEC

  • The Corridor is divided into two major components:
  • Eastern Corridor – Linking India with the Gulf region via maritime and railway routes.
  • Northern Corridor – Connecting Gulf countries to Europe, primarily through land and port infrastructure.

 

Conclusion

  • The deepening of India–Italy relations and the operationalization of IMEEC underscore India’s proactive approach to multilateral connectivity, strategic autonomy, and global trade realignment.
  • Together, these developments reflect India’s evolving role in shaping a multipolar, rules-based international order anchored in inclusive growth and sustainable infrastructure.

With reference to the India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a transcontinental connectivity initiative announced at the G20 Summit in New Delhi.
  2. The United States is a signatory and full infrastructure partner in the IMEEC.
  3. The corridor aims to link India to Europe via Central Asia and Afghanistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A) 1 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct – IMEEC was announced during the G20 Summit in New Delhi in 2023.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – The US is a strategic partner in the initiative, not a full infrastructure partner.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect – IMEEC connects India to Europe via the Middle East (UAE, Saudi Arabia), not through Central Asia or Afghanistan.

India–Norway Marine Pollution Initiative

Syllabus:IR

  • The India–Norway Marine Pollution Initiative (INMPI) has played a pivotal role in reducing plastic waste and enhancing waste circularity in Agra, significantly minimizing plastic leakage into the Yamuna River.
  • Notably, the initiative has achieved successes in managing petha and footwear waste, contributing to improved local environmental practices.

About the India–Norway Marine Pollution Initiative (INMPI)

  • The INMPI is a bilateral collaboration between the Government of India and the Government of Norway.
  • The initiative primarily aims to address marine litter, with a focus on microplastics (MPs) and macroplastics that originate from land-based sources.
  • Launched: 2019, under the framework of the India–Norway Ocean Dialogue.

Objectives:

  • Reduce plastic and microplastic pollution in aquatic ecosystems, especially in rivers and oceans.
  • Support the circular economy through efficient waste management practices.
  • Promote policy reform, local action, and scientific research to combat plastic pollution.
  • Assist municipalities with evidence-based strategies to reduce plastic leakage.

Key Features of the INMPI

  • Technical Support: The initiative provides technical assistance to Indian cities through leading environmental organisations, including the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE).
  • Pilot Projects: The initiative has conducted pilot projects in riverine cities like Agra, focusing on waste management and plastic pollution reduction.

Research Focus: It includes studies on:

  • Pre-consumer industrial waste.
  • Plastic drainage leakage.
  • Microplastic contamination in water bodies.
  • Policy Influence: The initiative uses tools such as brand audits, polymer categorisation, and scientific sampling to inform policy decisions and foster sustainable solutions.

With reference to the India–Norway Marine Pollution Initiative (INMPI), consider the following statements:

  1. It aims exclusively at reducing marine litter from ocean-based sources such as fishing vessels and oil rigs.
  2. The initiative operates under the broader umbrella of the India–Norway Ocean Dialogue and promotes circular economy principles.
  3. It provides direct financial aid to Indian municipal corporations for implementing plastic waste management reforms.
  4. One of its key components includes conducting scientific assessments such as brand audits and polymer categorisation to inform policy action.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 2 and 4 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

 

Answer: A) 2 and 4 only

  • Statement 1: “It aims exclusively at reducing marine litter from ocean-based sources such as fishing vessels and oil rigs.”
  • Statement 2: “The initiative operates under the broader umbrella of the India–Norway Ocean Dialogue and promotes circular economy principles.”
  • Statement 3: “It provides direct financial aid to Indian municipal corporations for implementing plastic waste management reforms.”
  • Statement 4: “One of its key components includes conducting scientific assessments such as brand audits and polymer categorisation to inform policy action.”

Japan’s High-Speed Train Collaboration with India

Syllabus:IR

  • India is poised to advance its high-speed rail infrastructure with strategic support from Japan, which has agreed to provide two Shinkansen trains—models E5 and E3—free of cost. These trains will serve as test platforms for the Mumbai–Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (MAHSR) corridor, India’s inaugural bullet train project.

 

Shinkansen: Hallmark of Technological Precision

  • The Shinkansen, Japan’s pioneering high-speed rail network, commenced operations in 1964, aligning with the Tokyo Olympics. Known globally for their operational excellence, these trains combine high velocity (up to 320 km/h for E5) with unparalleled safety standards. The E3 model, while an older generation, continues to demonstrate reliable engineering and robust safety features.

 

 

Strategic Deployment and Data-Driven Development

  • The E5 and E3 units, scheduled for delivery to India in early 2026, will be outfitted with advanced inspection and data acquisition systems. These systems will monitor diverse environmental and operational conditions in Indian terrain. Insights from this testing phase will inform the design of the next-generation E10 trains, projected to enter service in the early 2030s.

 

Financial Architecture of the MAHSR Project

  • The Mumbai–Ahmedabad corridor is predominantly financed through a concessional loan provided by the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA), covering nearly 80% of the project’s initial estimated cost of 1.8 trillion yen. With cost escalations over time, both nations are negotiating a revised funding framework to sustain project momentum.

 

Historical Legacy of Shinkansen

  • The Tokyo–Osaka Shinkansen line, the world’s first of its kind, dramatically reduced intercity travel time and set the global benchmark for high-speed rail systems. Since then, Japan’s network has expanded extensively, integrating major urban centres through a system renowned for punctuality, safety, and technological resilience.

 

Engineering Challenges and Innovations

  • Japan’s seismic vulnerability has necessitated state-of-the-art rail engineering, with Shinkansen trains incorporating seismic detection and automatic braking systems. Notably, no fatal derailments have occurred due to earthquakes since the system’s inception, underscoring its rigorous safety protocols.

 

Global Technological Diffusion

  • The Shinkansen model has had a transformative influence on global rail systems. Countries such as France, China, and Spain have adopted or adapted similar technologies. China, in particular, has developed the world’s most extensive high-speed rail network, often building on foundational research from nations like Japan.

 

Future Trajectories: From ALFA-X to Maglev

  • Japan continues to push the boundaries of rail innovation. The ALFA-X prototype, currently under testing, aims to reach operational speeds of 400 km/h. Furthermore, Japan’s maglev (magnetic levitation) project—the Chuo Shinkansen—is set to revolutionise intercity travel, significantly reducing journey times through ultra-high-speed, contactless rail systems.

With reference to India’s collaboration with Japan on high-speed rail technology, consider the following statements:

  1. The Shinkansen E5 and E3 models provided to India will be used exclusively for passenger operations on the Mumbai–Ahmedabad corridor after 2026.
  2. The concessional loan from the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) initially financed over three-fourths of the Mumbai–Ahmedabad bullet train project’s total cost.
  3. Japan’s ALFA-X and maglev train projects represent the next phase in high-speed rail, but both are already operational on select domestic routes.
  4. India’s adoption of Shinkansen technology is intended not only to reduce travel time but also to test resilience under seismic and environmental stress, based on local terrain.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: B. 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The E5 and E3 Shinkansen units being provided to India are not intended for direct passenger use but for testing purposes, particularly for environmental data collection and system calibration for the Mumbai–Ahmedabad bullet train corridor.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The project is majorly funded by a low-interest loan from JICA, covering approximately 80 percent (or over three-fourths) of the original estimated cost of the bullet train corridor, making this a correct assessment of the financial architecture.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. Although Japan is developing advanced systems like ALFA-X and maglev trains, neither is yet operational for commercial service. They remain in testing or construction phases, especially the Chuo Shinkansen maglev project.
  • Statement 4 is correct. One of the key objectives behind adopting and modifying Shinkansen technology for India is to evaluate how it performs in the Indian environmental and seismic context, especially given the subcontinent’s diverse topography and climatic conditions.

India’s Trade Deficit with China Widened

Syllabus: GS2/IR

 

  • India’s trade deficit with China reached an all-time high of $99.2 billion in the fiscal year 2024–25, raising economic, strategic, and policy concerns.

 

Overview of Trade Dynamics

  • Bilateral trade between India and China totaled $127.7 billion in 2024–25, making China India’s second-largest trading partner after the United States.
  • Imports from China: Rose to $113.5 billion, driven by demand for electronics, solar components, and batteries.
  • Exports to China: Fell sharply to $14.3 billion, deepening the trade imbalance.

 

Causes of India’s Rising Trade Deficit with China

  • High Dependence on Chinese Imports:
  • Key sectors such as electronics, pharmaceuticals (APIs), chemicals, and textiles rely heavily on intermediate goods and raw materials from China.
  • Dominance in Capital and Consumer Goods:
  • China is a primary source for electrical machinery, telecom equipment, and mobile phones, owing to its cost competitiveness and manufacturing scale.
  • Narrow and Low-Value Export Basket:
  • India’s exports are largely primary commodities like iron ore, cotton, and copper, with minimal value addition and limited diversification.

 

Market Access Barriers:

  • Indian products face regulatory restrictions, non-tariff barriers, and weak consumer demand in the Chinese domestic market.

 

Global Supply Chain Positioning:

  • Chinese firms have deep integration in global value chains, supplying diverse and competitively priced goods worldwide.

 

India’s Evolving Industrial Base:

  • Despite initiatives like ‘Make in India’, domestic manufacturing—especially in high-tech and industrial machinery—is still not at par with China’s capabilities.

Concerns Arising from the Trade Imbalance

  • Rising Imports Forecast: Chinese imports are projected to increase by 20% as exporters seek alternative markets amid rising tariffs in the U.S.
  • MSME Vulnerability: Influx of low-cost Chinese goods adversely impacts India’s MSME sector, leading to job losses, reduced competitiveness, and industrial stagnation.
  • Strategic and Cyber security Risks: Heavy imports of telecom and surveillance equipment raise alarms about data security and national cybersecurity.
  • Macro-Economic Pressure: The trade deficit exacerbates the Current Account Deficit (CAD), putting downward pressure on the rupee and straining foreign exchange reserves.
  • Geopolitical Paradox: Dependence on China for critical imports appears strategically contradictory, given ongoing border tensions and strained diplomatic ties.
  • Innovation Gap: Reliance on Chinese technology underscores India’s lag in high-tech R&D and manufacturing, challenging long-term economic sovereignty.

Government Initiatives to Address the Deficit

  • Trade Remedies: The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) monitors and counters unfair trade practices.
  • ‘Vocal for Local’ Campaign: Aims to generate consumer awareness and promote domestically manufactured goods.
  • Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme: Covers 14 strategic sectors, providing financial support to boost domestic manufacturing and export capacity.

 

Export Promotion Schemes:

  • TIES (Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme) and MAI (Market Access Initiatives) enhance export readiness.
  • APEDA supports agro-exporters through financial aid.
  • MPEDA promotes marine exports via infrastructure upgrades, lab testing, and technical assistance.
  • Districts as Export Hubs:Focuses on identifying district-level export potential, resolving bottlenecks, and empowering local manufacturers.

Conclusion and Way Forward

  • India’s growing trade dependence on China has supported cost-effective production and consumer affordability but has also created significant economic vulnerabilities.

To ensure strategic autonomy and economic resilience, India must:

  • Diversify its import sources to reduce over-reliance.
  • Strengthen domestic manufacturing through the Make in India mission and PLI schemes.
  • Enhance technological capabilities to boost high-value exports.
  • Import substitution must not mean protectionism but a balanced trade framework rooted in competitiveness, innovation, and strategic foresight.

Which of the following sectors contributes significantly to India’s trade deficit with China due to import dependence on intermediate or capital goods?

  1. Pharmaceuticals
  2. Solar energy
  3. Textiles
  4. Telecommunications

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer😀
Explanation:

  • APIs (Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients) in pharma
  • Solar components like PV cells
  • Textile machinery and raw inputs (like dyes, synthetics)
  • Telecom hardware (routers, 5G, mobile handsets).All these are imported heavily from China, contributing to the deficit.

22nd Amendment to the U.S. Constitution state

Syllabus: GS2/ International issues

 

Context: The 22nd Amendment to the U.S. Constitution has resurfaced in public discourse following former President Donald Trump’s comments regarding the two-term limit for U.S. Presidents.

 

About the 22nd Amendment:
The 22nd Amendment imposes a restriction on the number of terms an individual can serve as President of the United States.

 

Key Provision:
It states that no person shall be elected to the office of the President more than twice.

 

Historical Background:

Ratified in 1951, the amendment was introduced in response to President Franklin D. Roosevelt’s unprecedented four-term presidency (1932–1944), which broke the longstanding tradition of a two-term limit.

Successor Clause: If a person assumes the presidency and serves more than two years of a term to which another was elected (e.g., a Vice President succeeding a President), they may be elected only once more.

 

Maximum Possible Tenure:

  • A person may thus serve as President for a maximum of 10 years (2 years as a successor + 2 full 4-year terms).
  • The amendment reflects a constitutional safeguard aimed at preventing the concentration of power and reinforcing the principle of democratic rotation in office.

With reference to the 22nd Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. It was introduced in response to Franklin D. Roosevelt’s decision to serve more than two terms as President.
  2. The amendment completely bars any individual from holding the office of the U.S. President for more than eight years under all circumstances.
  3. A Vice President who succeeds to the presidency and serves less than two years of the predecessor’s term may be elected to the presidency for two additional terms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The 22nd Amendment was indeed passed following FDR’s four-term presidency, breaking the informal two-term precedent.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: A person can serve up to 10 years—if they succeed to the presidency and serve less than two years, they can still be elected twice.
  • Statement 3 is correct: This clause explicitly allows a Vice President or successor to complete less than two years of a term and still be elected twice.

President Murmu Receives City Key of Honour

Syllabus: IR

  • President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu, undertook a significant state visit to Portugal on April 7, 2025, marking the golden jubilee of diplomatic relations between India and Portugal.
  • The visit underscored the shared aspirations of both nations to advance as knowledge-based, innovation-driven economies, while further consolidating historical and cultural bonds.

Key Outcomes and Strategic Engagements

  1. Symbolic Recognition: City Key of Honour

President Murmu was conferred the prestigious ‘City Key of Honour’ by the Mayor of Lisbon at City Hall.

In her address, she lauded Lisbon’s values of:

  • Cultural openness and diversity
  • Democratic tolerance
  • Progressiveness in digital transformation and innovation ecosystems
  1. Techno-Digital Partnership

Lisbon was acknowledged as an emerging European hub for digital innovation, notably in:

  • Digital public infrastructure
  • Smart city solutions
  • Startup accelerators

President Murmu identified these sectors as high-potential areas for India–Portugal cooperation, aligning with India’s Digital India and Start-up India missions.

  1. State Banquet at Palacio da Ajuda
  • Hosted by Portuguese President H.E. Marcelo Rebelo de Sousa, the banquet reflected the warmth of bilateral relations.

President Murmu reiterated the countries’ deep-rooted cultural connections, referencing:

  • Architectural influences
  • Historical maritime linkages
  • Culinary and linguistic imprints
  1. Commemorating 50 Years of Diplomatic Relations (1975–2025)

The visit served as a platform to transform historical ties into a visionary partnership, expanding into modern sectors such as:

  • Science and technology
  • Defence cooperation
  • Education and research collaboration
  • Information Technology and innovation ecosystems
  • Cultural and academic exchange

India’s Aspirational Identity as a Knowledge Economy

President Murmu emphasized India’s focus on:

  • Innovation-led growth
  • Robust digital infrastructure
  • Inclusive and sustainable development

Portugal was identified as a strategic and like-minded partner in achieving this vision, particularly through collaboration in emerging tech sectors.

Portugal’s Role in India–EU Engagement

Acknowledged Portugal’s leadership in fostering India–EU relations, citing:

  • 2000: Hosting of the first India–EU Summit under Portugal’s EU Presidency.
  • 2021: Facilitation of the “India–EU Plus 27” Leaders’ Meeting, a landmark multilateral engagement.

Vision for the Future

President Murmu expressed optimism regarding:

  • A broadened bilateral agenda, encompassing global challenges.
  • A mutually beneficial partnership that contributes to regional and international peace, prosperity, and innovation.

Consider the following statements regarding India–Portugal bilateral relations in the context of the 2025 Presidential visit:

  1. The conferment of the ‘City Key of Honour’ on President Murmu was a symbolic act representing civic appreciation for India’s leadership in smart city governance.
  2. Portugal’s role in hosting both the first India–EU Summit in 2000 and the India–EU Plus 27 Summit in 2021 indicates its centrality in fostering multilateral EU engagements with India.
  3. Lisbon’s emergence as a hub of digital public infrastructure and startup accelerators was explicitly recognized as complementary to India’s goals under Digital India and Start-up India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: While the ‘City Key of Honour’ symbolized mutual respect and strong ties, it wasn’t awarded for India’s smart city governance specifically.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Portugal hosted the first India–EU Summit (2000) and the India–EU Plus 27 Summit (2021).
  • Statement 3 is correct: Lisbon’s innovation ecosystem aligns with India’s flagship missions — Digital India and Start-up India.

IIM-Ahmedabad to Set Up Campus in Dubai

Syllabus:IR

  • In a landmark move toward global expansion, the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Ahmedabad will establish its first international campus in Dubai, following a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed with the UAE government.
  • This strategic initiative aims to enhance India’s global footprint in management education.

Campus Details

  • Location: Dubai International Academic City (DIAC) – Phase 1
  • Permanent Campus: Operational by 2029 on land allocated by the UAE government
  • Launch Date: September 2025
  • Program Highlights
  • Course Offered: One-year full-time MBA
  • Target Audience: Global working professionals & entrepreneurs
  • Curriculum: Five-term structure with broad electives and international exposure

 

 Strategic Significance

  • Dubai’s global position as a hub for innovation, investment, and talent makes it ideal for the new campus
  • Aligns with IIM Ahmedabad’s vision of delivering world-class education with global accessibility

 Institutional & Government Backing

  • Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan welcomed the MoU as a step toward globalizing Indian higher education
  • IIM-A Director Bharat Bhaskar emphasized its potential for academic excellence and research collaboration
  • Dubai Economic Development Corp. CEO Hadi Badri and Indian Ambassador Sunjay Sudhir praised the initiative for strengthening bilateral ties and knowledge exchange

Broader Impact

  • Reinforces India’s image as an emerging education powerhouse
  • Enhances IIM Ahmedabad’s global reputation
  • Fosters cross-cultural exchange and prepares leaders for the international business landscape

With reference to IIM Ahmedabad’s overseas expansion, consider the following statements:

  1. The Dubai campus will be IIM Ahmedabad’s second international campus after Singapore.
  2. The MBA program to be offered in Dubai will cater primarily to undergraduate students seeking international placements.
  3. The campus is being established in collaboration with the UAE government, with a permanent facility planned by 2029.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:B

Explanation: IIM Ahmedabad is opening its first international campus (not second), and the MBA program is designed for working professionals and entrepreneurs, not undergraduates. Statement 3 is correct.

India and Russia Approved Strategic Projects

Syllabus: GS 2/IR

India–Russia Strategic Cooperation: Key Highlights

In the News

  • India and Russia have agreed to initiate six new strategic investment projects during the 8th Session of the India-Russia Working Group on Priority Investment Projects (IRWG-PIP), held in New Delhi.

 

Background: Evolution of the Partnership

  • The foundation of modern India-Russia relations was laid with the “Declaration on Strategic Partnership” signed in October 2000, during President Vladimir Putin’s visit to India.
  • In 2010, the partnership was further elevated to a “Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership,” reflecting deepening engagement across various sectors—defense, economic cooperation, science & technology, and cultural exchange.

 

8th IRWG-PIP Session: Key Outcomes

Six new strategic projects were approved, focusing on:

  • Trade and commerce
  • Technological innovation
  • Economic development and investment
  • The IRWG-PIP functions under the India-Russia Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological, and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC).

 

Strategic Significance

  • Enhancing Economic Resilience: Promotes diversification of trade and investment, reducing dependence on traditional partners.
  • Strategic Autonomy: Aligns with India’s foreign policy of balancing major powers in a multipolar world.
  • Boost to Domestic Initiatives: Supports ‘Make in India’ and Atmanirbhar Bharat through technology transfer and local manufacturing.
  • Geopolitical Advantage: Expands India’s engagement with Eurasia, enhancing its strategic footprint.

 

India–Russia Economic Relations

  • Historical Ties: Bilateral trade has grown from USD 1.4 billion in 1995 to approximately USD 65.7 billion in FY 2023–24.

 

Trade Composition:

  • India’s exports: Pharmaceuticals, agricultural products, chemicals, and machinery.
  • Russia’s exports: Crude oil, fertilizers, mineral fuels, and metals.
  • Target: Both nations aim to achieve USD 100 billion in bilateral trade by 2030.

 

Institutional Mechanisms Supporting Ties

  • IRIGC-TEC: Comprises 15 Working Groups and 6 Sub-Groups, covering diverse sectors.
  • India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue (IRSED): Facilitates high-level economic coordination.

Multilateral Cooperation

  • India and Russia maintain close coordination at major international forums:
  • United Nations (UN)
  • BRICS
  • Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
  • G20
    India’s presidency of the G20 and SCO in 2023 facilitated numerous bilateral meetings on the sidelines.

Defence and Strategic Cooperation

  • India and Russia have a robust defense partnership characterized by both supply and co-development projects:
  • S-400 Triumf missile systems
  • Licensed production of T-90 tanks and Su-30 MKI aircraft
  • Supply of MiG-29s, Kamov helicopters
  • INS Vikramaditya (formerly Admiral Gorshkov)
  • AK-203 assault rifles (joint production in India)
  • BrahMos missiles (jointly developed and exported)

With reference to the India-Russia Intergovernmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), consider the following statements:

  1. It includes more than ten Working Groups and multiple Sub-Groups to facilitate sectoral cooperation.
  2. The IRIGC-TEC is a ministerial-level mechanism that reports directly to the UN Security Council.
  3. One of its objectives is to coordinate economic cooperation aligned with the BRICS development agenda.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 1 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct – The IRIGC-TEC includes 15 Working Groups and 6 Sub-Groups.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – It is a bilateral mechanism between India and Russia, not linked to the UN Security Council.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect – While India and Russia coordinate within BRICS, the IRIGC-TEC is not designed explicitly to align with the BRICS development agenda.

President of Chile Visit to India

 

Context:

  • The President of Chile is on a state visit to India, marking 76 years of diplomatic relations between the two nations.

 

Key Discussions:

Trade and Economic Relations:

  • Emphasis on expanding the India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA), which was last updated in 2017.
  • Initiation of negotiations for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) to enhance economic and trade integration.

Mining and Critical Minerals Cooperation:

  • Strengthened collaboration in critical minerals essential for emerging technologies and clean energy.
  • A major bilateral agreement was concluded between CODELCO (Chile’s National Copper Corporation) and Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL).
  • Chile, home to the world’s largest copper reserves, aims to expand its market in India and reduce dependency on China.

 

Antarctic Cooperation:

  • A Letter of Intent was signed to deepen scientific exchanges and Antarctic research collaboration.

About Chile:

Geography:

  • A long, narrow country on the west coast of South America.
  • Coastline: Extends over 6,437 km, but its width is only ~91 km.
  • Cape Horn: The southernmost point of South America, infamous for extreme weather and treacherous seas.

Atacama Desert: The driest desert in the world, located in northern Chile.

 

Geological Features:

  • Chile is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, making it seismically active due to the subduction of the Nazca and Antarctic plates beneath the South American plate.
  • Home to Escondida, the largest copper mine in the world, which contributes over 5% of global copper production.
  • Rich in lithium and other strategic minerals, vital for battery technology and clean energy.
  • This visit marks a strategic milestone in India-Chile relations, fostering economic integration, resource cooperation, and scientific collaboration

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA):

  1. The agreement was first signed in 2006 and expanded in 2017 to include more tariff concessions.
  2. Under the PTA, both countries have agreed to eliminate tariffs on all traded goods over a 10-year period.
  3. Chile is India’s largest trade partner in South America.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

The India-Chile PTA was first signed in 2006 and expanded in 2017, increasing the number of tariff concessions.

However, not all traded goods are duty-free, as PTAs generally cover only selected goods with reduced tariffs (Statement 2 is incorrect).

Chile is India’s largest trade partner in South America, particularly in the mining sector, where India imports copper and other minerals (Statement 3 is correct).

Baku to Belem Roadmap

Syllabus: GS2/ IR

 

In News

  • India has urged BRICS nations to rally behind the ‘Baku to Belém Roadmap’, a strategic climate finance initiative aimed at mobilizing USD 1.3 trillion annually to help developing countries achieve their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).

What is the Baku to Belém Roadmap?

  • Adopted during COP29 (2024), the Baku to Belém Roadmap serves as a framework to guide global climate negotiations and action, focusing on:
  • Establishing a New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) on climate finance post-2025.
  • Enhancing the predictability, adequacy, and accessibility of climate finance for the Global South.
  • Supporting low-carbon and climate-resilient development
  • Facilitating the effective implementation of countries’ NDCs under the Paris Agreement.

Why BRICS Matters in Climate Action

  • The BRICS grouping—Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa, and six recently added members—plays a critical role in shaping global climate outcomes because:
  • They collectively represent 47% of the global population and 36% of the global GDP (PPP).
  • As emerging economies, they face shared developmental challenges and environmental vulnerabilities.
  • Their cooperation is key to ensuring a just, inclusive, and equitable climate transition, especially for the Global South.

Why the Roadmap is Urgent and Significant

  • The $100 billion/year climate finance goal (established in 2009) has consistently fallen short.
  • New assessments indicate that developing countries will require over $1.3 trillion annually by 2030 to fulfill their NDC commitments.
  • The Baku to Belém Roadmap aims to fill this critical finance gap, aligning climate ambition with actual support.

With reference to the ‘Baku to Belém Roadmap’ adopted at COP29, consider the following statements:

  1. It sets a legally binding global cap on carbon emissions for developed countries post-2025.
  2. It proposes the formulation of a New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) on climate finance.
  3. It focuses on enhancing climate resilience in developing countries through increased access to finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: The roadmap does not set legally binding carbon caps; it is a finance-focused framework, not an emissions treaty.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The roadmap includes efforts to establish a New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) on climate finance post-2025.
  • Statement 3 is correct: A core aim is to ensure climate finance accessibility and resilience for developing nations.

Ottawa Convention

Syllabus :GS 2/IR

In News

  • Poland, Finland, and the three Baltic states—Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania—have announced their intention to withdraw from the 1997 Ottawa Convention banning anti-personnel landmines, citing escalating security threats from Russia.
  • Withdrawal would allow these states to resume the production, stockpiling, and use of anti-personnel mines.

 

About the Ottawa Convention

  • Formal Name: Convention on the Prohibition of the Use, Stockpiling, Production and Transfer of Anti-Personnel Mines and on their Destruction.
  • Adopted: 1997 at a diplomatic conference in Oslo.
  • Opened for Signature: Later in 1997 in Ottawa, Canada.
  • Came into Force: March 1, 1999.
  • Objective: Complete elimination of anti-personnel landmines by prohibiting their use, development, transfer, and stockpiling.

 

Key Achievements

  • Over 40 million stockpiled landmines have been destroyed since the Convention’s enforcement.
  • Substantial reduction in global production and use of anti-personnel mines.
  • Enhanced support for mine victims, including medical care, rehabilitation, and social reintegration.
  • Accelerated mine clearance efforts, improving safety and enabling productive land use in previously contaminated regions.
  • Integrated victim assistance within the broader framework of disability rights and humanitarian aid.

Significance

The Ottawa Convention has played a pivotal role in:

  • Advancing humanitarian disarmament efforts.
  • Reducing civilian casualties caused by landmines.
  • Promoting international cooperation on mine clearance, victim assistance, and post-conflict reconstruction.
  • Enhancing global norms against indiscriminate weapons.

Which of the following statements regarding the Ottawa Convention are correct?

  1. It permits the use of anti-tank mines under specific conditions.
  2. It came into force prior to the Convention on Cluster Munitions.
  3. India is a signatory but has not ratified the Convention.
  4. The Convention allows state parties to withdraw after a formal notice of six months.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ottawa Convention bans anti-personnel mines, but it does not cover anti-tank mines—however, it does not permit anti-personnel landmines under any condition.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Ottawa Convention entered into force in 1999, while the Convention on Cluster Munitions was adopted in 2008.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not a signatory to the Ottawa Convention.
  • Statement 4 is correct: A State Party may withdraw from the treaty six months after giving written notice.

150th Assembly of Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU)

 

In News

Lok Sabha Speaker Shri Om Birla is heading the Indian Parliamentary Delegation to the 150th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), being held in Tashkent, Uzbekistan from April 5–9, 2025.

 

 About the 150th IPU Assembly

Theme: “Parliamentary Action for Social Development and Justice”

Focus areas include:

  • Poverty eradication
  • Promotion of decent work
  • Social inclusion
  • Participation of marginalized and vulnerable groups in decision-making processes

 

 Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU): Overview

  • Founded: 1889
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland (with offices in New York & Vienna)
  • Membership: 181 national parliaments + 15 associate members

 

Objectives & Mandate

  • Promote peace, democracy, and sustainable development
  • Strengthen parliamentary diplomacy and cooperation
  • Empower parliaments to address global challenges through dialogue

 

Advocate for:

  • Democratic governance
  • Human rights
  • Gender equality & youth empowerment
  • Climate action
  • Funding
  • Primarily funded by contributions from its member parliaments.

Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU):

  1. It was established as a United Nations organ in the aftermath of World War II.
  2. It has observer status at the United Nations General Assembly.
  3. The IPU’s funding comes predominantly from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The IPU was founded in 1889, long before the UN was established.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The IPU holds observer status in the UN General Assembly.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It is funded mainly by contributions from its member parliaments, not UNDP.

Bandung Conference

Syllabus: GS2/ International Relations

This year marks 70 years since the historic Bandung Conference, a landmark moment in the rise of the Global South as a political force.

 

About the Bandung Conference (1955)

  • Held in Bandung, Indonesia, the conference brought together 29 newly independent Asian and African nations.
  • It aimed to confront the challenges of decolonization, assert sovereignty, and offer an alternative voice in a world dominated by Cold War superpowers.
  • The event laid the groundwork for the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) and promoted Afro-Asian solidarity through economic and cultural cooperation.
  • It opposed colonialism, imperialism, and neocolonialism in all forms.

Bandung’s Ten Principles (Dasasila Bandung)

  • Respect for human rights and the UN Charter
  • Sovereignty and territorial integrity of all nations
  • Equality of all races and nations
  • Non-interference in internal affairs
  • Right to self-defense per the UN Charter
  • No use of collective defense to serve big power interests
  • No aggression or use of force
  • Peaceful settlement of disputes
  • Promotion of mutual interests and cooperation
  • Respect for justice and international obligations

Legacy and Relevance

  • The Bandung Conference is remembered as a powerful assertion of self-determination and dignity for post-colonial nations.Its vision continues to inspire efforts toward a just, multipolar world order in an era of global realignments.

What is the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)?

  • Definition: A group of developing countries that remained independent of Cold War power blocs.
  • Origins: Traces back to Bandung (1955); formally established in 1961 in Belgrade, Yugoslavia.
  • Founding Leaders:
  • Jawaharlal Nehru (India)
  • Gamal Abdel Nasser (Egypt)
  • Josip Tito (Yugoslavia)
  • Sukarno (Indonesia)
  • Kwame Nkrumah (Ghana)
  • Structure:
  • No permanent secretariat or binding charter
  • Second-largest international grouping after the United Nations
  • Membership:
  • 120 member countries:
  • 53 from Africa
  • 39 from Asia
  • 26 from Latin America & the Caribbean
  • 2 from Europe
  • Includes Palestine and 17 observer states

With reference to the Bandung Principles, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. They allowed for collective defense only under UN authorization.
  2. They prohibited any nation from using its military strength to exert influence on smaller nations.
  3. They emphasized cultural cooperation over economic cooperation among Afro-Asian countries.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)    
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Bandung principles align with the UN Charter, allowing defense only in conformity with it.
  • Statement 2 is correct: One of the ten principles specifically opposes the use of power to dominate smaller nations.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The conference emphasized both economic and cultural cooperation, not prioritizing one over the other.

PM State Visit to Saudi Arabia

Syllabus: GS2/IR

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid a state visit to Saudi Arabia, marking a significant step in strengthening bilateral ties through new strategic and sectoral partnerships.

Key Outcomes of the Visit

  • Strategic Partnership Council (SPC)
  • 2nd Leaders’ Meeting co-chaired by both nations.

New Committees Formed Under SPC:

  • Defence Cooperation Committee – reflecting enhanced military collaboration.
  • Tourism and Cultural Cooperation Committee – to boost people-to-people ties.

Existing Committees:

  • Political, Consular & Security Cooperation
  • Economy, Energy, Investment & Technology
  • High-Level Task Force on Investment (HLTF)
  • Saudi Arabia reaffirmed commitment to invest USD 100 billion in India.
  • Agreed to collaborate on two refinery projects in India.

MoUs Signed

  • Space Cooperation: MoU between Saudi Space Agency & India’s Department of Space.
  • Health Sector Cooperation: MoU between Ministries of Health.

 

Overview of Bilateral Relations

  • Political Ties
  • Diplomatic relations since 1947.
  • Key Agreements:
  • Delhi Declaration (2006)
  • Riyadh Declaration (2010): Elevated ties to strategic level.
  • SPC Agreement (2019): Created a high-level council for steering relations.

Economic Engagement

  • Bilateral trade (FY 2023–24): USD 42.98 billion
  • Indian exports: USD 11.56 billion
  • Imports (primarily energy): USD 31.42 billion
  • India is Saudi Arabia’s 2nd largest trading partner; Saudi Arabia is India’s 4th largest.

 

Energy Cooperation

  • Crude Oil: 33.35 MMT imported in FY 2023–24 (14.3% of India’s imports).
  • LPG: 3rd largest source (18.2% of India’s LPG imports).
  • Diaspora & Remittances
  • 7 million Indians reside in Saudi Arabia (2024), second only to Bangladeshis.
  • Significant source of remittances, bolstering India’s forex reserves.

Defence & Security Cooperation

  • Focus on Self-Reliance: Aligning Vision 2030 (Saudi) with Make in India.
  • Saudi Arabia shifting from defence importer to localised production target of 50%.

Contracts signed:

  • $250 mn ammunition deal with Munitions India Limited
  • Procurement of ATAGS from Bharat Forge

Joint Military Exercises

  • Sada Tanseeq – Inaugural army exercise (2024)
  • Al Mohed Al Hindi – Naval bilateral exercise (since 2022)

Strategic Significance

  • Saudi Arabia plays a pivotal role in Middle Eastern geopolitics.
  • Stable relations help India navigate West Asian diplomacy.
  • Key area for enhancing India’s energy security and economic diversification.

Way Forward

  • Joint ventures in defence manufacturing, AI, cybersecurity, and critical technologies.
  • Strategic alignment of Vision 2030 (Saudi) with Make in India opens vast potential.
  • Collaboration in renewable energy, digital infrastructure, and tourism to further broaden ties.

With reference to Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s recent state visit to Saudi Arabia and the strengthening of bilateral ties, consider the following statements:

  1. The Strategic Partnership Council (SPC) created in 2019 is a key mechanism that guides India-Saudi relations, steering cooperation in various sectors such as defense, energy, and technology.
  2. Saudi Arabia has committed to investing USD 100 billion in India, which is aimed at diversifying India’s energy sources and enhancing defense cooperation, including joint ventures in manufacturing defense equipment.
  3. The creation of the Tourism and Cultural Cooperation Committee aims to enhance people-to-people ties but does not include any initiatives related to educational exchanges or collaborations between the two countries.
  4. The Resistance Front (TRF), a terrorist group, emerged as a reaction to the strategic relationship between India and Saudi Arabia, which has intensified following the revocation of Article 370 in Jammu and Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Strategic Partnership Council (SPC), established in 2019, is indeed a key bilateral framework that governs relations between India and Saudi Arabia. It focuses on fostering cooperation in a wide range of sectors, including defense, energy, technology, and economic development, and helps steer high-level bilateral engagements such as the Leaders’ Meeting between both nations.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Saudi Arabia has indeed reaffirmed its commitment to invest USD 100 billion in India. This investment is aimed at boosting various sectors, particularly energy (oil, LPG), defense, and infrastructure, including joint ventures in defense manufacturing and technology sectors like AI, cybersecurity, and critical technologies.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Tourism and Cultural Cooperation Committee was formed to enhance people-to-people ties, it does not exclude educational initiatives. In fact, such committees typically include cultural exchanges, educational collaborations, and opportunities for tourism promotion. Educational cooperation is often a key aspect of such partnerships, and the formation of such committees generally focuses on broadening diplomatic and cultural outreach between the two nations.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The Resistance Front (TRF) is a terrorist group that emerged in Jammu and Kashmir, and it has no direct connection with the India-Saudi Arabia bilateral relationship. The TRF’s rise is largely tied to regional politics, particularly following the revocation of Article 370 in Jammu and Kashmir, and has no specific ties to the evolving India-Saudi strategic relations. Therefore, its creation and activities are independent of the diplomatic developments between India and Saudi Arabia.

Pahalgam Terror Attack and Suspension of the Indus Waters Treaty

Syllabus:IR

  • The Cabinet Committee on Security, chaired by PM Narendra Modi, has approved a 5-point action plan in response to a terrorist attack in Baisaran Valley (Pahalgam), Jammu and Kashmir, which claimed the lives of 26 civilians.
  • The Resistance Front (TRF), a proxy group of the Pakistan-based Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT), claimed responsibility.
  • TRF emerged in 2020 following the elimination of LeT’s leadership in 2018 and the revocation of Article 370 in 2019.
  • It was designated a terrorist organization under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 in 2023.

India’s 5-Point Action Plan After the Pahalgam Terror Attack

  • Suspension of the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT):India has suspended the 1960 treaty, leveraging water diplomacy to pressure Pakistan to end cross-border terrorism.
  • Closure of the Attari-Wagah Border:The Integrated Check Post at Attari, Punjab has been shut, halting all movement of people and goods.
  • Only those who crossed over legally can return by May 1, 2025.
  • Revocation of SAARC Visa Exemption for Pakistan:India has cancelled SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES) for Pakistani nationals.
  • All existing visas under this scheme are now void.
  • Expulsion of Pakistani Military Advisors:Pakistan’s Defence, Naval, and Air Advisors in India have been declared persona non grata.
  • India will also recall its military advisors from Islamabad.
  • Diplomatic Downgrade:India will reduce its diplomatic staff in Islamabad from 55 to 30 by May 1, 2025, effectively freezing bilateral dialogue.

Geopolitical Factors Behind the Attack

  • India’s Kashmir Policy: Pakistan perceives the revocation of Article 370 and Kashmir’s integration into India as a threat to its claim over Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).

International Isolation of Pakistan:

  • Diminished support from traditional allies (U.S., Gulf countries, even China).
  • Post-2021 U.S. withdrawal from Afghanistan reduced Pakistan’s strategic importance.
  • Economic Instability:
  • Severe inflation, institutional weaknesses, and rising Baloch insurgency.
  • Declining investor confidence and worsening GDP outlook.

 

Global Messaging:

  • The attack coincided with PM Modi’s visit to Saudi Arabia and the U.S. Vice President’s trip to India—suggesting Pakistan’s attempt to reassert regional influence.

The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) – Background and Significance

  • Signed in 1960, mediated by the World Bank after 9 years of negotiation.

Water Allocation:

  • Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) – India
  • Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) – Pakistan
  • Set up a Permanent Indus Commission and a multi-level dispute resolution mechanism.

 

India’s Recent Actions:

  • 2023 & 2024: Issued notices to modify the IWT due to disputes over projects like Kishanganga and Ratle.
  • Suspension Justified Under: Article 62 of the Vienna Convention, allowing treaty withdrawal due to fundamental changes in circumstances (i.e., cross-border terrorism).

Implications of IWT Suspension

For India:

  • Gains freedom in river management and can:
  • Conduct reservoir flushing outside the monsoon period.
  • Fast-track hydroelectric projects on western rivers.
  • Deny project inspections to Pakistan.
  • Note: Suspension won’t immediately affect Pakistan’s water supply due to India’s current infrastructure limits.

For Pakistan:

  • Major water security risks—80% of agriculture depends on Indus waters.
  • Threats to:
  • Food and water supply
  • Power generation
  • Economic stability (Indus system fuels 25% of Pakistan’s GDP)
  • May seek World Bank arbitration, and approach allies like China—but economic constraints limit retaliation.

India’s Key Dams on the Indus System

  • Kishanganga (Jhelum): Operational since 2018; diverts water from a key Mangla Dam tributary.
  • Ratle (Chenab): Under construction; could reduce flow to Pakistan’s Punjab.
  • Shahpurkandi (Ravi): Diverts Ravi water to Indian channels.
  • Ujh (Ravi): Planned dam to further reduce Pakistan’s water access.

India’s Long-Term Strategic Roadmap

  • Strengthen Deterrence
  • Enhance border security with high-tech surveillance and smart fencing.
  • Maintain a modern, responsive military presence.
  • Leverage Global Forums
  • Highlight Pakistan’s support for terrorism at the UN Security Council.
  • Use Article 51 of the UN Charter to advocate for collective action.
  • Push for FATF blacklisting of Pakistan for terror financing.
  • Internal Security & Social Cohesion
  • Deploy counter-radicalization efforts in border regions.
  • Promote unity through public awareness on pluralism and peace.

With reference to the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT), consider the following statements:

  1. The IWT allocates the three eastern rivers to Pakistan and the three western rivers to India.
  2. The Treaty allows India unrestricted use of western rivers for hydroelectricity, subject to specific design constraints.
  3. Article XII of the Treaty provides for its suspension in case of material breach by either party.
  4. India’s suspension of the IWT in 2025 is the first such instance since the treaty’s inception.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B. 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) are allocated to India, and the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan.
  • Statement 2 is correct: India is allowed limited non-consumptive use of western rivers, such as for hydroelectric projects, but subject to design limitations.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no provision in Article XII for suspension due to material breach. However, under Article XII(3), the treaty can be modified through mutual agreement. India’s recent action is being justified under Article 62 of the Vienna Convention, not under IWT itself.
  • Statement 4 is correct: This is indeed the first time since 1960 that India has suspended the treaty.

SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme

Syllabus:IR

  • Following the terror attack in Pahalgam, Jammu & Kashmir, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) has revoked the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES) for Pakistani nationals.
  • This move is a firm diplomatic measure in response to Pakistan’s continued sponsorship of cross-border terrorism.

 

What is the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES)?

  • Launched: 1992, based on a decision from the 4th SAARC Summit (1988, Islamabad).
  • Objective: To promote regional integration and people-to-people connectivity among SAARC nations.
  • Mechanism: Eligible individuals are issued a Special Travel Document (Visa Sticker) that permits visa-free travel within member states.

Coverage

  • Applicable to 24 categories, including:
  • Heads of State
  • Parliamentarians
  • Judges
  • Senior officials
  • Businesspersons
  • Journalists
  • Sportspersons, etc.
  • Visa Stickers are typically valid for one year, issued by the home country, and subject to immigration clearance.
  • India-Specific Provisions under SVES
  • Nepal and Bhutan citizens: Visa-exempt under longstanding bilateral agreements.

Pakistani nationals:

  • Initially granted multiple-entry business visas for 10 locations.
  • In 2015, India revised the rules to extend visa validity up to three years and expanded access to 15 designated cities for special-category Pakistani businessmen.
  • Sri Lanka: Eligible for India’s e-Tourist Visa facility.
  • India: Its citizens enjoy visa-free entry into Nepal and Bhutan, and are eligible for business visas in other SAARC countries.

India’s Revocation of SVES for Pakistan

  • As per CCS notification:
  • All SVES visas issued to Pakistani nationals stand cancelled.
  • Those currently in India under SVES must exit the country.
  • This decision effectively freezes high-level and non-official travel between India and Pakistan under the SAARC framework.
  • Note: The Kartarpur Corridor Agreement (2019)—a separate bilateral initiative—allows visa-free pilgrimage for Indian citizens to the Gurdwara Darbar Sahib in Pakistan. This remains unaffected for now.

About the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)

Composition:

  • Chairperson: Prime Minister of India
  • Members: Ministers of Defence, Home Affairs, External Affairs, and Finance
  • Attendees: May include Chiefs of Defence Staff, service chiefs, and senior national security officials.
  • Role: Apex decision-making body on matters related to:
  • National security
  • Defence policy
  • Strategic foreign affairs
  • Internal law and order
  • Historical Significance
  • First convened during the 1947–48 Indo-Pak War under PM Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • Institutionalized post the 1999 Kargil conflict, becoming a formally structured entity.

Key meetings during:

  • 1971 Indo-Pak War
  • 1999 Kandahar hijack (IC-814)
  • Major cross-border terror incidents and strategic crises.

Following the terror attack in Pahalgam, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) revoked the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES) for Pakistani nationals. With reference to the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. The SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES) was launched in 1992 to promote regional integration among SAARC nations.
  2. The SVES allows visa-free travel for a select group of individuals across SAARC countries.
  3. India has revoked the SVES for Pakistani nationals, freezing all travel under this scheme for them.
  4. The Kartarpur Corridor Agreement of 2019 is unaffected by the revocation of SVES.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1, 2, 3, and 4
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1 and 4 only

Answer: B) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES) was launched in 1992 based on the decision from the 4th SAARC Summit (1988) to promote regional integration and people-to-people connectivity among SAARC nations.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Under the SVES, 24 categories of individuals (including heads of state, parliamentarians, senior officials, businesspersons, journalists, etc.) are eligible for a Special Travel Document (Visa Sticker) that permits visa-free travel within SAARC countries.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Following the terror attack in Pahalgam, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) has revoked the SVES for Pakistani nationals. This decision cancels all SVES visas and mandates that those currently in India under the SVES must exit the country.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The Kartarpur Corridor Agreement (2019), which allows visa-free pilgrimage for Indian citizens to the Gurdwara Darbar Sahib in Pakistan, remains unaffected by the revocation of the SVES.

Pakistan Shuts Airspace, Snaps Trade Relations with India

Syllabus: GS2/International Relations; GS3/Security

  • The recent terror attack in Pahalgam has sharply intensified tensions between India and Pakistan, prompting both nations to take a series of strong retaliatory measures.

Key Measures Taken

By India:

  • Suspension of the Indus Waters Treaty
  • Closure of the Attari-Wagah Border
  • Cancellation of the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES Visas)
  • Expulsion of Pakistani Military Advisors
  • Reduction in Diplomatic Personnel

By Pakistan:

  • Closure of Airspace for Indian aircraft
  • Suspension of Bilateral Trade
  • Reduction in India’s High Commission staff
  • Suspension of the Simla Agreement and all bilateral treaties
  • Visa restrictions, with exceptions for Sikh pilgrims traveling to the Kartarpur Corridor
  • Characterization of India’s Indus Treaty suspension as an ‘act of war’

Pakistan’s Airspace Closure: Implications

  • Understanding Airspace Rights
  • Countries hold sovereignty over their airspace, as per domestic aviation laws and international agreements.
  • In India, the DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation) governs airspace restrictions.
  • Airspace closures are officially communicated through NOTAMs (Notice to Airmen).

 

International Framework

  • Governed by the Chicago Convention, 1944 under the ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization).
  • Article 1 affirms a nation’s full control over its airspace.
  • Impact of Airspace Ban
  • Flight rerouting to Europe, North America, and the Middle East via longer paths is increasing fuel usage and costs.
  • International airfares may rise by 8–12%, burdening passengers.
  • Reflects the 2019 closure post-Balakot airstrikes, which cost Indian airlines over ₹700 crore.

Simla Agreement (1972)

Overview

  • A bilateral treaty signed on July 2, 1972, by Indian PM Indira Gandhi and Pakistani President Zulfikar Ali Bhutto after the 1971 India-Pakistan war, which followed India’s intervention in East Pakistan’s liberation movement.

 

Key Provisions

  • All disputes, including Kashmir, to be resolved bilaterally, without third-party mediation.
  • Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and political independence.
  • The 1971 ceasefire line in Jammu and Kashmir was converted into the Line of Control (LoC), with both sides agreeing not to alter it unilaterally.
  • Restoration of diplomatic, trade, and cultural ties, including communication and travel.
  • India released 93,000 Pakistani POWs, one of the largest wartime releases ever.
  • India also returned over 13,000 km² of captured territory, except for strategic areas like the Chorbat Valley.

With reference to the Simla Agreement of 1972, consider the following statements:

  1. It was signed between India and Pakistan after the Kargil War.
  2. The agreement mandated third-party mediation in resolving the Kashmir dispute.
  3. It led to the conversion of the ceasefire line into the Line of Control (LoC).
  4. India retained all territories it had captured during the 1971 war.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

Answer: B. 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Simla Agreement was signed after the 1971 war, not the Kargil War (1999).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement explicitly rejected third-party involvement, stressing bilateral resolution of disputes.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The 1971 ceasefire line was renamed as the Line of Control (LoC).
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: India returned over 13,000 km² of captured territory but retained only strategic parts like the Chorbat Valley.

India Needs an Ecosystem That Better Enables Deep-tech Innovation

        Syllabus :GS 3/Economy 

 

InNews: It the Startup Mahakumbh event, Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal urged Indian startups to shift their focus from consumer-oriented services like food delivery and online betting to high-tech, innovation-driven sectors such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), semiconductors, and electric vehicles (EVs), drawing a sharp contrast with China’s approach.

 

Startup Mahakumbh: Context and Vision

  • A flagship national event promoting innovation and entrepreneurship in India.
  • Themed “Startup India @2047: Unfolding the Bharat Story”, the event envisions India as a global startup powerhouse by the centenary of independence.
  • It aims to foster global partnerships, spotlight Indian innovation, and accelerate sectoral diversification beyond consumer apps.

 

Key Challenges in India’s Startup Ecosystem

  • Innovation Deficit: Despite Indian-origin CEOs leading tech giants globally, India lacks corresponding domestic innovation depth.
  • Funding Disparities: Long-gestation sectors like deep tech receive less VC attention than short-term consumer apps.
  • Educational Gaps: Many graduates lack employable skills; R&D output from Indian universities remains globally marginal.
  • Brain Drain: Talented individuals often pursue better-funded opportunities abroad.
  • Risk Aversion in VC Culture: Conservative funding norms limit breakthrough tech investments.
  • Domestic Market Lock-In: Startups like Swiggy and Zomato primarily serve the Indian market with limited international expansion.

 

Opportunities and Strengths

  • India is now the world’s third-largest startup ecosystem, with over 57 lakh DPIIT-recognized startups and more than 100 unicorns.
  • Tier II and III cities now contribute over 51% of startups, indicating a strong grassroots entrepreneurial movement.

Notable success in:

  • SaaS (e.g., Zoho, Freshworks),
  • Digital payments (e.g., UPI, Paytm, PhonePe),
  • Space tech (e.g., Digantara, Skyroot, Agnikul),
  • Cybersecurity (though acquisition risk persists).
  • Deep-tech investments surged by 78% in 2024, reaching $1.6 billion.

 

 

Way Forward: From Consumer Apps to Core Tech Leadership

  • India’s startup growth, while commendable in sectors like fintech and SaaS, must evolve toward strategic tech dominance. Bridging the innovation and funding gap requires:
  • Policy Support: Long-term frameworks for AI, semiconductors, defence tech, and climate innovation.
  • Investment Boldness: Prioritize high-risk, high-reward deep-tech ventures through sovereign funds and incentivized VC models.
  • Educational Reforms: Align curricula with global R&D standards and foster academic-industry partnerships.
  • Global Integration: Expand Indian startups’ global presence through diplomatic, trade, and venture collaborations.

 

Conclusion

  • India stands at a defining moment in its startup journey. To emerge as a global technology leader, the country must pivot from consumer-centric ventures to deep-tech innovation.
  • Achieving this vision demands structural reforms, cultural transformation, and visionary leadership to catalyze a new era of knowledge-driven growth.

With reference to the comparison between Indian and Chinese startup ecosystems, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. India has invested more in technology and innovation than China between 2014 and 2024.
  2. China leads globally in electric vehicles and AI innovation.
  3. India ranks below China in the Global Innovation Index 2024.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: India invested ~$160B vs China’s ~$845B in tech between 2014 and 2024.
  • Statement 2 is correct: China leads in EVs and AI (e.g., Deepseek).
  • Statement 3 is correct: India ranks 39th, while China is 11th on the Global Innovation Index 2024.

Weaponization of Trade and Finance

Syllabus: GS2-International Relations / GS3-Economy

  • The Defence Minister of India recently emphasized the growing erosion of global order and multilateralism, driven by the weaponization of trade, finance, and emerging technologies.

 

What is the Weaponization of Trade and Finance?

  • Weaponization of trade and finance refers to the strategic use of trade policies and economic measures by countries to exert political or economic pressure on others. This marks a departure from the traditional role of trade and finance as tools for cooperation and globalization.

Tools of Trade Weaponization:

  • Tariffs and Sanctions
  • Export Restrictions: Limiting the export of critical technologies or materials.
  • Currency Manipulation

 

Recent Incidents of Trade and Finance Weaponization:

  • Tariff War 2.0: The ongoing trade friction between the US and China has led to high tariffs and investment restrictions aimed at securing supply chains and gaining strategic advantages.
  • Financial Sanctions: The West’s exclusion of Russia from the SWIFT network and freezing its central bank reserves following the Ukraine invasion is a classic example of financial weaponization.
  • Technology Denial Regimes: Restrictions on semiconductor exports to China, and controls over technologies like AI and quantum computing hardware, demonstrate the weaponization of technology.

 

Consequences of Economic Weaponization:

  • Erosion of Multilateral Institutions: The WTO’s dispute settlement mechanism is losing credibility due to the increasing use of unilateral tariffs. Other institutions like the IMF and World Bank are also seen as being Western-dominated, leading to legitimacy crises.
  • Decline of Rules-Based Global Order: Unilateral actions are becoming more common, with countries prioritizing national interests over international norms and treaties.
  • Economic Fragmentation: The world is experiencing “geo-economic decoupling,” with regional trading blocs like RCEP and IPEF gaining importance, further weakening global economic integration.
  • Global Inequality: The disruptions in global supply chains, such as those triggered by the pandemic and the Ukraine war, have exacerbated global inequalities.

 

Steps Taken Against Trade Weaponization:

  • Regional Trade Agreements (RTAs): Countries are forging regional agreements like the CPTPP and RCEP to reduce dependence on major economies and enhance cooperation.
  • Alternative Financial Systems: Russia’s SPFS, China’s CIPS, and proposals for a BRICS payment system are alternative solutions to the SWIFT network. Additionally, Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) are being developed to achieve monetary independence.
  • Mineral Security Partnership (MSP): This initiative aims to diversify and stabilize the global supply chains of critical minerals.
  • Reform of the WTO: Ongoing reforms to the World Trade Organization aim to improve its dispute resolution mechanisms and address challenges posed by unilateral trade actions.
  • Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF): This framework counters economic coercion, promoting a more equitable and rules-based trading system.

 

ConcludingRemarks:

  • The weaponization of trade and finance signals the beginning of a new era of geopolitical contestation, where economic interdependence no longer guarantees peace.
  • For India, which has always advocated for multilateralism and global cooperation, navigating this fractured world order requires strategic clarity, resilient institutions, and a robust technological foundation.

With reference to the weaponization of trade and finance, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Weaponization of trade refers to the strategic use of trade policies to foster cooperation and globalization.
  2. Financial sanctions, such as the exclusion of Russia from the SWIFT network, are an example of economic weaponization.
  3. The weaponization of technology includes restricting the export of critical technologies like semiconductors and AI hardware.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The weaponization of trade marks a departure from cooperation and globalization, as it involves using trade policies and economic measures for political and economic pressure.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Financial sanctions, like the exclusion of Russia from the SWIFT network and freezing its central bank reserves, are a clear example of financial weaponization.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The restriction on critical technologies, such as semiconductors and AI hardware, reflects the weaponization of technology.

Powering India’s Participation in Global Value Chains Report

Syllabus: GS3/Indian Economy

Overview

  • NITI Aayog has released a comprehensive report analyzing the status, opportunities, and challenges of India’s automotive industry.
  • The document outlines a strategic roadmap to position India as a major contributor to global automotive value chains (GVCs).

 

Key Highlights

Global Trends in the Automotive Sector

  • Shift in Supply Chains: Emergence of battery manufacturing hubs in Europe and the U.S. is reshaping traditional supply chains.
  • Industry 4.0 Revolution: Advanced technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), Machine Learning (ML), Internet of Things (IoT), and robotics are enabling smart factories and connected vehicles, redefining manufacturing paradigms.
  • Rising Input Costs: Semiconductor costs per vehicle are projected to increase from $600 to $1,200 by 2030.
  • Global Auto Component Market: Estimated at $2 trillion (2022), with $700 billion traded globally.
  • Global Automobile Production: Approximately 94 million units manufactured globally, growing at 4–6% annually.

India’s Position

  • India ranks as the 4th-largest automobile producer, after China, the U.S., and Japan.
  • Annually, India produces nearly 6 million vehicles.
  • Stronghold in small cars and utility vehicle segments, with robust domestic and export demand.
  • Under the ‘Make in India’ initiative, India is increasingly becoming a global manufacturing hub.

Challenges

  • Limited Share in Component Trade: Despite its production strength, India contributes only 3% to the global automotive component trade (valued at ~$20 billion).
  • Low Precision Manufacturing Share: India accounts for only 2–4% in high-value segments like engine components and transmission systems.
  • Structural Barriers: High operational costs, infrastructural deficiencies, low R&D expenditure, and limited integration with global value chains hinder competitiveness.

Key Recommendations

  • Opex and Capex Support: Government support for manufacturing scale-up, especially tooling, infrastructure, and die-making.
  • Skill Development: Developing a skilled workforce aligned with technological advances.
  • R&D, IP, and Branding: Incentives for R&D, international branding efforts, and IP transfers to support MSMEs and drive innovation.
  • Cluster-Based Development: Creating automotive clusters with shared R&D and testing infrastructure to strengthen the supply chain ecosystem.
  • Adoption of Industry 4.0: Promoting digitalization, smart manufacturing, and compliance with international standards.
  • International Collaboration: Fostering joint ventures, foreign direct investment, and leveraging Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) for market expansion.
  • Ease of Doing Business: Streamlining regulatory mechanisms, promoting flexible labour norms, and enhancing supplier networks.

Way Forward

Production and Export Targets:

  • Auto component production expected to grow to $145 billion.
  • Exports projected to triple to $60 billion, leading to a trade surplus of $25 billion.
  • Employment Generation: Estimated to create 2–2.5 million jobs.
  • GVC Integration: India aims to enhance its global value chain participation from 3% to 8%.

Conclusion

  • India stands at a critical juncture with the potential to become a global leader in the automotive industry. Strategic interventions, collaborative policymaking, and technology adoption are essential to overcome structural constraints.
  • By capitalizing on global trends and domestic strengths, India can drive inclusive, sustainable, and innovation-led growth in the automotive sector.

With reference to India’s automotive sector, consider the following statements:

  1. India is the third-largest global automobile producer, just behind China and the United States.
  2. India’s share in the global automotive component trade is significantly higher than its share in complete automobile exports.
  3. The majority of India’s automotive exports are in the heavy commercial vehicles and luxury sedan categories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. None
D. 1 and 2 only

Answer: C. None

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: India is the fourth-largest automobile producer after China, USA, and Japan.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: India has a modest share (~3%) in the global component trade, whereas it performs better in complete vehicle exports, especially in small cars and utility vehicles.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India’s strengths lie in small cars and utility vehicles, not in heavy commercial or luxury segments.

India’s Trade Dynamics in FY25 Surplus with US Widens, Deficit with China Deepens

Syllabus:Economy

  • India’s trade performance in FY2024–25 reveals contrasting trends with its two major trading partners—the United States and China.
  • While exports to the US surged, reinforcing India’s trade surplus with Washington, the trade deficit with China widened considerably, underscoring persistent import dependence.

  1. Trade with the United States: Growing Surplus
  • Exports to the US:Reached $86.5 billion, marking an 59% increase from $77.5 billion in FY2023–24.
  • Imports from the US:Rose to $45.3 billion, a 44% rise from $42.19 billion the previous year.
  • Trade Surplus:Expanded to $41.2 billion, up from $35.4 billion in FY2023–24, further cementing the US as India’s largest export market.
  1. Trade with China: Widening Deficit
  • Exports to China:Declined sharply to $14.25 billion, registering a 49% fall from $16.66 billion in FY2023–24.
  • Imports from China:Rose significantly to $113.45 billion, up 52% from $101.7 billion in the previous fiscal year.
  • Trade Deficit:Ballooned to $99.2 billion, compared to $85.1 billion in FY2023–24.
  • Major Import Drivers:Electronics, solar cells, electric vehicle (EV) batteries, and critical industrial components continue to dominate the import basket from China.
  1. Policy Implications and Trends
  • The sharp rise in imports from China is partly attributed to the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes, which are driving domestic manufacturing and, paradoxically, increasing short-term demand for imported components.
  • While the United States strengthens its position as India’s top export destination, the dependence on Chinese industrial inputs highlights

Consider the following statements regarding India’s bilateral trade with the United States and China in FY2024–25:

  1. India’s trade surplus with the United States increased primarily due to a fall in US exports to India.
  2. The widening trade deficit with China can partly be attributed to the import of intermediate goods linked to India’s PLI-driven manufacturing push.
  3. China retained its position as India’s top export destination and import source in FY2024–25.
  4. Despite higher trade with China, India’s export growth to the US outpaced its import growth from the US.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 and 4 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 2 only

Correct Answer: A) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 — Incorrect:The increase in India’s trade surplus with the US was driven by higher exports to the US (↑11.59%), not a fall in imports. In fact, imports from the US also increased (↑7.44%).
  • Statement 2 — Correct:Imports from China rose due to rising demand for electronic components, EV batteries, and solar cells, much of which are intermediate goods required under Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes. This highlights India’s import-intensive manufacturing base, especially in emerging tech.
  • Statement 3 — Incorrect:China remained India’s top import source, but not the top export destination. That title belongs to the United States, with exports worth $86.5 billion compared to $14.25 billion to China.
  • Statement 4 — Correct:India’s exports to the US grew by 11.59%, outpacing the 44% growth in imports from the US. This led to a widening trade surplus with the US.

India’s Exports Rise Marginally by 0.7% in March 2025

Syllabus: Economy

  • India’s foreign trade data for March 2025 and the full fiscal year 2024–25 indicates a delicate balancing act between marginal export growth and a sharp uptick in imports, resulting in a widening trade deficit and potential pressure on the current account position.

March 2025 Snapshot

  • Merchandise Exports: $41.97 billion↳ Year-on-Year (YoY) growth: 7%, reflecting subdued global demand.
  • Merchandise Imports: $63.51 billion↳ YoY growth: 3%, driven by rising consumption of energy products, electronics, and intermediate industrial goods.
  • Trade Deficit: $21.54 billion↳ Marked deterioration from previous months due to a sharper import surge.

FY2024–25 Cumulative Trends (April 2024–March 2025)

  • Total Goods Exports: $437.42 billion↳ Nominal YoY growth: 08%, signaling export stagnation despite global reopening.
  • Total Goods Imports: $720.24 billion↳ YoY growth: 62%, reflecting resilient domestic demand and supply chain realignment.
  • Overall Exports (Goods + Services): $820.93 billion↳ YoY growth: 5%, driven primarily by the services sector.
  • Trade Deficit (Goods): Elevated due to strong import demand and weak manufacturing exports.

Drivers Behind the Trade Pattern

  • Muted Global Demand: Particularly for labor-intensive and low-tech manufactured exports.
  • High Base Effect: March 2024 exports were comparatively strong, muting YoY growth.
  • Import Acceleration: Surge in crude oil, semiconductors, renewable energy components, and capital goods.
  • Services Sector Resilience: IT, business process outsourcing, and financial services provided a buffer.

Macroeconomic Implications

  • Current Account Pressure: Persistent trade deficits can widen the Current Account Deficit (CAD) and weaken external sector stability.
  • Forex Implications: Rising import bills may lead to depletion of foreign exchange reserves if not offset by capital inflows.
  • Policy Imperatives:
  • Promote export diversification toward high-value and green technologies.
  • Accelerate import substitution in electronics, energy components, and critical minerals.
  • Strengthen logistics and trade facilitation to enhance cost competitiveness.

With reference to India’s trade performance in FY 2024–25, consider the following statements:

  1. India’s merchandise exports declined year-on-year compared to FY 2023–24.
  2. The services sector played a crucial role in sustaining overall export growth.
  3. The trade deficit in March 2025 narrowed due to reduced imports.
  4. Electronics and industrial inputs were key drivers of India’s import surge.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B. 2 and 4 only

Statement 1 is incorrect (exports showed marginal growth of 0.08%).

Statement 3 is incorrect (trade deficit widened due to rising imports).

Explanation:

  • According to official data, India’s merchandise exports in FY 2024–25 amounted to $437.42 billion, which reflects a marginal increase of 0.08% over the previous year.
  • While this growth is minimal and signals stagnation, it is still a positive figure, not a decline.
  • Despite slow growth in goods exports, India’s services exports remained strong, leading to a 5.5% rise in total exports (goods + services) in FY 2024–25.
  • Sectors like IT, BPO, and financial services contributed significantly to maintaining export momentum.
  • In March 2025, imports rose sharply by 11.3%, while exports increased only slightly (0.7%).
  • This led to a widening of the trade deficit to $21.54 billion, up from earlier months.
  • Therefore, the trade deficit did not narrow — it widened due to increased import demand.

NITI AAYOG Launched Unlocking $25+ Billion Export Potential Report

With reference to the recent NITI Aayog report “Unlocking $25+ Billion Export Potential – India’s Hand & Power Tools Sector”, consider the following statements:

  1. The report projects that achieving the $25 billion export target in hand and power tools could generate over 3 crore jobs, primarily in services and IT sectors.
  2. India currently holds a greater global market share in power tools exports than in hand tools exports.
  3. China accounts for nearly half of the global exports in both hand and power tools, significantly dominating the sector.
  4. The report recommends that any cost disadvantage faced by Indian manufacturers should be offset through increased direct fiscal subsidies over the long term, regardless of policy reforms.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
    B. 3 only
    C. 2 and 4 only
    D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B. 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: While the report does project the creation of 35 lakh (3.5 million) jobs, these are primarily in the manufacturing and export sectors, not services or IT.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: India’s global market share in hand tools (1.8%) is currently higher than that in power tools (0.7%).
  • Statement 3 – Correct: China is indeed the dominant global exporter, accounting for ~50% of hand tools and ~40% of power tools exports—an accurate representation of the competitive landscape.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect: The report states that direct fiscal subsidies are not required if structural reforms are implemented. Bridge cost support (₹8,000 crore) is only a contingency plan if reforms are delayed, not a long-term recommendation.

Which of the following is the primary religious significance of Thangjing Hills in Manipur?

  1. It is considered the sacred abode of the Meitei deity Eputhou Thangjing.
  2. The hills are considered a symbol of unity between the Meitei and Kuki-Zo communities.
  3. The pilgrimage to Thangjing Hills is a part of the Kuki-Zo religious tradition.
  4. The site is linked to the Khamba-Thoibi legend, central to Meitei mythology.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 4 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

 

Answer: A) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Thangjing Hills is regarded as the sacred abode of Eputhou Thangjing, a central Meitei deity.
  • It is also linked to the Khamba-Thoibi myth, which is integral to Meitei folklore.
  • The opposition from the Kuki-Zo community is rooted in ethnic tensions rather than religious unity, hence the other options are incorrect.

National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM)

Syllabus:Budget

  • Driving India’s Strategic Mineral Security & Sustainability
  • Launched in: Union Budget 2024–25
  • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Mines, Government of India

Objective: To ensure a secure, resilient, and sustainable supply of critical minerals vital for:

  • Clean energy transition
  • Technological innovation
  • Defence and strategic sectors
  • Achieving Net Zero 2070 and Atmanirbhar Bharat goals

 

Key Focus Areas:

Exploration and Mining

  • Over 1200 mineral exploration projects
  • Auction of more than 100 mineral blocks for commercial mining

Overseas Asset Acquisition

  • Facilitates Indian entities in acquiring mineral assets in countries such as Argentina, Australia, and Chile

Recycling and Circular Economy

  • Development of Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) and incentives for recycling
  • Aims to reduce import dependency and minimize environmental impact

Research and Innovation

  • Establishment of Centres of Excellence (CoEs)
  • Promotes advanced research in extraction, beneficiation, and processing technologies

Skill Development

  • Introduction of new academic programs, training modules, and scholarships
  • Focus on building a skilled workforce for the critical minerals sector

Infrastructure Development

  • Development of mineral processing parks
  • Creation of national stockpiles for strategic storage and distribution

With reference to the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM), consider the following statements:

  1. The Mission mandates that all critical mineral block auctions be restricted to public sector undertakings to ensure strategic resource control.
  2. One of the objectives of the Mission is to reduce import dependence through both domestic exploration and incentivized recycling mechanisms.
  3. The establishment of Centres of Excellence (CoEs) under the Mission is aimed exclusively at promoting downstream manufacturing of critical mineral-based products.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The NCMM does not mandate that auctions be restricted to public sector undertakings. Instead, it promotes both public and private sector participation in exploration and commercial mining to boost the domestic supply of critical minerals.
  • Statement 2 is correct. A key objective of NCMM is to reduce India’s import dependency. This is to be achieved through extensive mineral exploration and the promotion of recycling via SOPs and incentives—both of which form integral parts of the circular economy strategy.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. While CoEs are being established under the Mission, their focus is not limited to downstream manufacturing. They are primarily intended to drive advanced research and innovation in extraction, beneficiation, and processing technologies related to critical minerals.

Cap-and-Trade India

Syllabus:Economy

  • Context: A recent study published in The Quarterly Journal of Economics confirmed that Surat’s Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS), the world’s first market for particulate emissions, successfully reduced pollution by 20–30% and lowered compliance costs by 11%.

What is Cap-and-Trade?

  • Cap-and-Trade is a market-driven environmental policy in which the government sets a maximum limit (cap) on total pollution levels emitted by industries. The system works as follows:
  • Pollution Permits: Companies are allocated pollution permits, each allowing them to emit a specific amount of pollutants. If a company emits less than its allotted share, it can sell the unused permits to other firms that are exceeding their limits.
  • Financial Incentive: This system encourages companies to reduce emissions efficiently and invest in cleaner technologies, as reducing emissions can generate profit through the sale of unused permits.

 

How Cap-and-Trade Works:

  • Regulatory Cap Setting: The government sets an emissions ceiling based on environmental goals, such as improving air quality or meeting climate targets.
  • Permit Distribution: Emission permits are distributed through:
  • Free allocation based on historical emissions (grandfathering).
  • Auctioning a portion of permits, allowing the market to determine their price.
  • Trading System Among Firms: Companies that can cut emissions cost-effectively will do so and sell their excess permits. Firms facing high abatement costs can purchase permits to comply instead of investing in costly technology upgrades.
  • Penalties for Non-Compliance: Firms that fail to secure enough permits to match their emissions face financial penalties. This incentivizes compliance, making it cheaper to either reduce pollution or purchase additional permits than to pay fines.

Challenges to the Cap-and-Trade Model:

  • Monitoring Gaps: Successful cap-and-trade relies on accurate, real-time emissions data, which requires continuous oversight and maintenance of monitoring systems. For instance, Surat’s success depended on the installation of Continuous Emissions Monitoring Systems (CEMS).
  • High Initial Setup Cost: Implementing systems like CEMS can be expensive, especially for small industries. In Surat, 317 industries had to install CEMS.
  • Market Manipulation Risks: Without stringent regulations, industries could manipulate permit prices by hoarding them. Surat addressed this issue by introducing weekly auctions to prevent hoarding.
  • Sectoral Variations: Pollution abatement costs differ across industries, which may create uneven opportunities for firms to profit from permit trading.
  • Policy Instability: Frequent changes in emission caps or trading rules can discourage long-term investments in clean technologies. Surat adjusted its emission cap from 280 to 170 tonnes/month after reviewing pilot phase data.

Way Ahead:

  • Expand ETS to Other Cities: Scaling up ETS to other heavily polluted cities like Delhi and Ahmedabad can maximize the impact and establish a nationwide pollution control framework.
  • Include More Pollutants: The ETS could be extended to cover other pollutants such as sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) for a more comprehensive approach to industrial pollution.
  • Invest in CEMS Technology: Further investment in tamper-proof and reliable CEMS technology will ensure greater transparency and regulatory efficiency.
  • Set Dynamic Emission Caps: Emission caps should be adjusted to accommodate seasonal pollution variations and industrial production cycles for greater effectiveness.
  • Enhance Stakeholder Engagement: Active collaboration between industries, local bodies, and citizens through awareness campaigns can ensure broader acceptance and success of the system.

 

Conclusion:

  • Surat’s Emissions Trading Scheme showcases how market-based solutions can effectively balance industrial growth with environmental sustainability. Expanding and refining such initiatives across India could be pivotal in achieving national clean air targets while improving industrial efficiency.

With reference to the Cap-and-Trade model implemented in Surat’s Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS), consider the following statements:

  1. The government’s role in Cap-and-Trade involves setting a maximum pollution limit and ensuring continuous oversight of emissions data through systems like CEMS.
  2. The market for pollution permits under Cap-and-Trade is primarily driven by a free allocation method, without the involvement of auctions.
  3. Surat’s success in implementing the Cap-and-Trade model was dependent on the installation of Continuous Emissions Monitoring Systems (CEMS), which provided real-time data for regulatory enforcement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The government sets an emissions ceiling (cap) and plays an essential role in ensuring continuous oversight of emissions through monitoring systems like CEMS. This system is vital for accurate data collection, which underpins the Cap-and-Trade.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Cap-and-Trade system also involves auctioning a portion of pollution permits, which allows the market to determine their price.

Statement 3 is correct: Surat’s successful implementation of the ETS is largely attributed to the installation of CEMS, which provided accurate, real-time emissions data crucial for monitoring and enforcement.

Ambedkar’s Contributions to Indian Economy

Syllabus:Economy

On the occasion of Ambedkar Jayanti 2025, renewed focus is being given to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s pivotal role in shaping India’s economic framework. His contributions in various domains laid the foundation for modern Indian economic policy, especially in the areas of monetary policy, labour rights,  land reforms, and Dalit empowerment.

Key Contributions to India’s Economic Thought:

  • Monetary Policy and the Reserve Bank of India: Ambedkar’s 1923 work The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and Its Solution proposed a gold exchange standard, which influenced the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India in 1934.
  • Pioneering Fiscal Federalism:His thesis on Provincial Decentralisation of Imperial Finance in British India (1921) conceptualized financial decentralization, laying the groundwork for the creation of India’s Finance Commission.
  • Labour Welfare Reforms:As a Labour Member in the Viceroy’s Executive Council, Ambedkar introduced major labour reforms, including the 8-hour workday, maternity benefits, and dispute resolution boards. He also set up employment exchanges across India to reduce unemployment.
  • Water and Power Resource Development: Ambedkar’s vision extended to infrastructure, where he spearheaded projects like the Central Water Commission, the Damodar Valley Project, and the Hirakud Dam, linking water management to economic progress.
  • Land Reforms and Dalit Empowerment: He advocated for land distribution among Dalits and the creation of separate settlements to ensure economic independence. His proposals included nationalization of land and collectivization of agriculture.
  • Economic Justice and Social Democracy: Ambedkar strongly argued that economic empowerment is essential for social dignity, asserting that true social democracy cannot exist without economic justice.
  • Industrialization and Modernization: Supporting state-led industrialization, Ambedkar saw it as a way to create employment opportunities and address caste-based occupational segregation.
  • Anti-Inflationary Policies:He recognized inflation as a major issue that disproportionately impacts the poor, advocating for responsible monetary policies—a principle reflected in India’s modern inflation-targeting framework, such as the 2016 Monetary Policy Framework.
  • Ambedkar’s economic vision laid the groundwork for a more inclusive, equitable economic structure, advocating policies that prioritized both social and economic justice.

Consider the following statements regarding Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s contributions to India’s economic thought:

  1. Ambedkar’s work on monetary policy directly influenced the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India in 1934.
  2. He proposed the nationalization of agriculture to break caste-based occupational immobility.
  3. Ambedkar’s vision of fiscal federalism focused solely on centralized financial control to ensure efficient resource distribution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Dr. Ambedkar’s The Problem of the Rupee (1923) advocated for a gold exchange standard, which directly influenced the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India in 1934.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Dr. Ambedkar advocated for land reforms, including land redistribution and the collectivization of agriculture, to empower Dalits and ensure their economic independence.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Ambedkar’s vision of fiscal federalism was focused on decentralization, and he conceptualized financial decentralization through the creation of the Finance Commission, not centralizing financial control.

India’s Global Pharmaceutical Footprint

Syllabus: GS3/ Economy

Context

  • With the vision of establishing India as the world’s leading provider of affordable and high-quality medicines, the Department of Pharmaceuticals has catalyzed a remarkable transformation in India’s global pharmaceutical footprint.

Current Status of the Pharmaceutical Sector

  • Market Size (FY 2023–24): Valued at USD 50 billion, comprising:
  • Domestic consumption: USD 23.5 billion
  • Exports: USD 26.5 billion

 

Global Standing:

  • India is the largest provider of generic medicines, accounting for 20% of global supply by volume.
  • Ranked third globally in terms of Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API) production, holding an 8% share of the global API industry.
  • Contribution to Economy: The pharmaceutical sector contributes approximately 72% of India’s GDP.

 

Key Segments: Generic drugs, over-the-counter (OTC) medicines, bulk drugs, vaccines, biosimilars, biologics, and contract research & manufacturing.

India: The ‘Pharmacy of the World’

India has earned this title owing to its low-cost, high-quality medicines.

A global leader in vaccine production, India is:

  • UNICEF’s largest supplier, meeting 55–60% of its vaccine demand.
  • Fulfilling 99% of WHO’s DPT, 52% of BCG, and 45% of measles vaccine
  • Foreign Investment:
    The sector attracted US$ 22.52 billion in FDI (2000–2024), highlighting investor confidence and global reliance.

Medical Devices Sector: An Emerging Engine of Healthcare

  • An integral part of India’s healthcare system, covering:
  • Electro-medical equipment, implants, diagnostics, disposables, and surgical instruments.
  • FDI Inflows (April–December 2024):₹11,888 crore across pharmaceuticals and medical devices.

Government Interventions and Policy Support

Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Schemes:

  • For Pharmaceuticals: To boost high-value products and innovation.
  • For Medical Devices: To reduce import dependency and scale manufacturing.
  • For Bulk Drugs (APIs/KSMs/DIs): To strengthen self-reliance in critical raw materials.
  • Bulk Drug Parks Scheme (2020–26):Aims to develop common infrastructure to lower production costs and promote domestic API manufacturing.
  • Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP):Ensures the availability of affordable quality generic medicines through a network of dedicated retail outlets.

Conclusion and Outlook

  • India’s pharmaceutical and medical devices sectors exemplify the country’s strengths in science, innovation, affordable healthcare, and manufacturing prowess. With supportive policies, growing FDI, and global recognition, the sector is poised to reach USD 130 billion by 2030.
  • Ensuring robust regulatory frameworks, boosting R&D capabilities, and strengthening supply chains will be critical to sustaining this momentum and reinforcing India’s position as a global healthcare leader.

Consider the following statements regarding India’s pharmaceutical exports:

  1. India supplies more than 50% of global demand for vaccines through UNICEF.
  2. The majority of India’s pharma exports are patented drugs.
  3. India fulfills over 90% of WHO’s demand for DPT vaccines.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: India supplies 55–60% of vaccines procured by UNICEF.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: India primarily exports generic, not patented, medicines.
  • Statement 3 is correct: India supplies 99% of WHO’s DPT vaccine demand.

NAFTA (North American Free Trade Agreement)

Syllabus: GS2/ International, GS3/ Economy

Context

  • To accelerate progress on a potential trade agreement with the United States and avert the imposition of 26% reciprocal tariffs, India’s Ministry of Commerce and Industry has expanded its NAFTA division.

North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)

  • The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) was a trilateral trade pact between the United States, Canada, and Mexico, in effect from 1994 to 2020.
  • It created one of the world’s largest free trade areas by eliminating tariffs and reducing trade barriers to foster deeper economic integration.
  • In 2020, NAFTA was replaced by the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA), which introduced updated provisions, particularly in digital trade, labor standards, and environmental protection.

 

Key Challenges in India-US Trade Negotiations

Data Localisation Requirements

  • The S. Trade Representative (USTR) has raised concerns over India’s data localisation norms, which require financial institutions and payment service providers to store data exclusively within India’s borders—a policy seen as restrictive by U.S. tech and financial companies.

Intellectual Property (IP) Issues
India remains on the USTR’s Priority Watch List due to multiple IP-related concerns, including:

  • Absence of a dedicated trade secrets law.

Delays in patent approvals.

  • Inconsistent enforcement of IP protections across jurisdictions.
  • Labour and Environmental Standards

India has not finalized a comprehensive trade agreement with any Western country, largely due to divergent stances on:

  • Labor rights, particularly regarding enforcement mechanisms.
  • Environmental regulations, where developed countries demand more stringent commitments than India is currently prepared to adopt.

The replacement of NAFTA by USMCA in 2020 primarily aimed to address which of the following gaps in the original agreement?

  1. Outdated digital trade provisions
  2. Weak labor and environmental commitments
  3. Absence of an investment dispute resolution mechanism
  4. Tariff barriers among member states

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • USMCA modernized NAFTA by adding provisions on digital trade, enhancing labor protections, and strengthening environmental standards.
  • NAFTA already had dispute resolution and tariff elimination mechanisms.
    Statement 3 is incorrect—both NAFTA and USMCA contain dispute mechanisms; the change was not their introduction but refinement.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect—NAFTA had already removed most tariffs.

MoSPI Released “Women and Men in India 2024” Report

Syllabus: GS3/ Economy

Context:

  • The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has released the 26th edition of its annual publication titled “Women and Men in India 2024: Selected Indicators and Data”, providing a statistical snapshot of gender-based progress and disparities across the country.

Overview

  • The publication compiles gender-disaggregated data across critical sectors such as population, education, health, labour, finance, entrepreneurship, political participation, and gender-based violence, drawing from diverse government and institutional sources.

Key Findings

Education

  • The Gender Parity Index (GPI) for both primary and higher secondary enrolments has improved in FY 2024 compared to the two previous years, suggesting rising female participation in formal education.
  • Enrolment rates at upper primary and elementary levels are now nearly equal between boys and girls.

 

Labour Force Participation

The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for women aged 15 and above has significantly risen from 49.8% in 2017–18 to 60.1% in 2023–24, highlighting greater integration of women into the workforce and formal economy.

 

Financial Inclusion

  • Women account holders now comprise 2% of all bank accounts nationwide.
  • They contribute 7% of total deposits, with rural women accounting for 42.2% of all rural account holders—indicating increased financial agency in rural India.

 

Entrepreneurship and Economic Independence

  • Female-headed proprietary establishments in manufacturing, trade, and services sectors have shown consistent growth from 2021–22 through 2023–24.
  • Startups with at least one woman director (DPIIT-recognized) grew from 1,943 in 2017 to 17,405 in 2024—an over 800% increase in just seven years.

 

Political Participation

  • Female voter turnout peaked at 2% in 2019, followed by a slight dip to 65.8% in 2024, yet remaining comparable to male turnout—indicating sustained political engagement among women.

 

Violence Against Women

  • 9% of married women aged 18–49 report having experienced spousal violence.

States with the highest reported prevalence include:

  • Karnataka:4%
  • Bihar:5%
  • Manipur:6%

With reference to the trends presented in the “Women and Men in India 2024” report, consider the following statements:

  1. The Gender Parity Index (GPI) at the primary and higher secondary levels showed a declining trend from FY22 to FY24.
  2. Female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for women aged 15+ has exceeded 60% as of FY 2023–24.
  3. Rural women constitute a majority of India’s total bank deposit holders.
  4. Startups with at least one woman director have grown more than 700% between 2017 and 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only

Answer: A. 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect: GPI has shown an increasing trend at both primary and higher secondary levels, not declining.

Statement 2 – Correct: The LFPR for women 15+ rose to 60.1% in 2023–24, a significant improvement.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: While rural women account for 42.2% of bank accounts, this doesn’t imply they form the majority of total deposit holders.

Statement 4 – Correct: Startups with at least one woman director increased from 1,943 (2017) to 17,405 (2024), i.e., over 800% growth.

Government Securities

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy 

 

Context:

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced an infusion of ₹80,000 crore into the financial system through the purchase of government securities, citing the need to address “evolving liquidity conditions.”

 

Understanding Government Securities (G-Secs):

  • Government Securities (G-Secs) are tradeable financial instruments issued by the Central and State Governments to acknowledge their debt obligations.

These securities are classified into:

  • Short-term G-Secs (Treasury Bills): Have maturities of less than one year.
  • Long-term G-Secs (Government Bonds/Dated Securities): Have an original maturity of one year or more.

 

G-Sec Issuance in India:

  • The Central Government issues both Treasury Bills and Bonds/Dated Securities.
  • State Governments issue only Bonds/Dated Securities, referred to as State Development Loans (SDLs).

 

Significance of G-Secs:

  • Risk-Free Investment: G-Secs have virtually zero default risk, making them gilt-edged securities.
  • RBI’s Role: The Reserve Bank of India acts as the debt manager for both the Central and State Governments, managing their borrowing programs and bond issuances.
  • This move by the RBI aims to enhance liquidity in the financial markets and ensure monetary stability.

Consider the following statements regarding Government Securities (G-Secs) in India:

  1. Both the Central and State Governments issue Treasury Bills.
  2. G-Secs are considered risk-free because they are backed by the government’s guarantee.
  3. The Reserve Bank of India acts as the debt manager for the Central Government but not for the State Governments.
  4. State Development Loans (SDLs) are a form of short-term borrowing by State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – Only the Central Government issues Treasury Bills; State Governments cannot issue them.

Statement 2 is correct – G-Secs are considered risk-free because they are backed by the sovereign guarantee of the Government of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect – The RBI acts as the debt manager for both the Central and State Governments.

Statement 4 is incorrect – State Development Loans (SDLs) are long-term bonds issued by State Governments, not short-term instruments.

World Bank: India’s Extreme Poverty Drops to 2.3%

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy 

According to the World Bank’s Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs), India has made remarkable strides in reducing extreme poverty, with the proportion of people living in extreme poverty dropping from 16% in 2011–12 to just 2.3% in 2022–23. This substantial reduction represents a major milestone in the country’s ongoing efforts to combat poverty.

About the Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs)

The Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs) are biannual reports published by the World Bank. These reports provide a snapshot of trends in poverty, inequality, and shared prosperity across over 100 developing countries. The PEBs are released during the Spring and Annual Meetings of the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Their goal is to keep the issue of poverty reduction central to global policy discussions.

Key Indicators and Measurement

  • The PEBs track several important indicators to assess poverty and inequality:
  • Poverty rates based on both national and international poverty lines (e.g., $2.15/day in 2017 PPP terms, $3.65 for lower-middle-income countries, and $6.85 for upper-middle-income countries).
  • The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which considers deprivations in areas such as education, basic services, and nutrition in addition to income poverty.
  • Inequality is measured using the Gini Index, a tool that gauges income or consumption inequality in a population.

India’s Recent Poverty Trends (2022–23)

  • India has witnessed a sharp decline in extreme poverty, with significant reductions across both rural and urban areas:
  • Extreme poverty, measured at $2.15 per day (PPP), fell from 16% in 2011–12 to 3% in 2022–23, lifting 171 million people above the poverty line.
  • Rural areas saw a drop in extreme poverty from 4% to 2.8%, while urban areas experienced a decline from 10.7% to 1.1%, significantly narrowing the rural-urban poverty gap.
  • When measured against the $3.65/day threshold for lower-middle-income countries, poverty declined from 8% to 28.1%, with an additional 378 million people moving above this line.

The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which includes factors such as education and basic services, showed a significant decrease in non-monetary poverty, dropping from 53.8% in 2005–06 to 15.5% in 2022–23.

Regional Distribution of Poverty

  • India’s most populous states—Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, and Madhya Pradesh—continue to account for a large portion of the country’s poverty:
  • These five states accounted for 54% of India’s extreme poor in 2022–23, and 51% of the multidimensionally poor in 2019–21.
  • Despite making significant strides, these states still represent a key focus area for poverty alleviation efforts, although they have also driven much of India’s poverty reduction, contributing to two-thirds of the overall decline.

Inequality and Employment Challenges

  • Despite the remarkable reduction in poverty, inequality remains a pressing issue in India:
  • Wage inequality is high, with the top 10% of earners making 13 times more than the bottom 10%.
  • The Gini Index, which measures consumption inequality, improved from 8 to 25.5, indicating a reduction in consumption inequality, but income inequality rose sharply, with the Gini for income increasing from 52 to 62.
  • India also faces challenges in the youth labor market:
  • Youth unemployment stands at 3%, and graduate unemployment is significantly higher at 29%. The majority of employment remains in the informal sector, particularly in agriculture.
  • Female employment remains low at 31%, with a 234 million gap compared to male employment. However, employment rates have been rising since the 2021–22 fiscal year.

Conclusion

  • While India has made significant progress in reducing both monetary and multidimensional poverty, challenges persist.
  • The growing inequality, particularly in income, and issues such as youth unemployment and gender disparities in employment require continued focus.
  • The progress made in poverty reduction is encouraging, but sustained efforts are necessary to ensure that the benefits of growth reach all sections of society, particularly those in the most vulnerable regions and

Consider the following statements regarding India’s poverty reduction as per the World Bank’s Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs):

  1. India’s extreme poverty rate dropped from 16% in 2011–12 to 2.3% in 2022–23.
  2. The decline in poverty was equally distributed between rural and urban areas, with both showing identical reductions in extreme poverty.
  3. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which includes factors like education and access to basic services, showed a steady decrease in non-monetary poverty from 2005–06 to 2022–23.
  4. The five most populous states—Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, and Madhya Pradesh—accounted for 54% of the country’s extreme poor in 2022–23.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3, and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – Extreme poverty has decreased from 16% in 2011–12 to 2.3% in 2022–23, marking significant progress.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect – The decline in extreme poverty was not equally distributed. Rural areas saw a drop from 18.4% to 2.8%, while urban areas saw a decrease from 10.7% to 1.1%, showing a significant rural-urban gap.
  • Statement 3: Correct – The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) showed a steady decline in non-monetary poverty from 53.8% in 2005–06 to 15.5% in 2022–23.
  • Statement 4: Correct – Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, and Madhya Pradesh accounted for 54% of India’s extreme poor in 2022–23, and they had contributed to two-thirds of the overall decline in poverty.

Overseas Remittances by Indians under LRS were Down 29%

Syllabus: GS3/Economy

  • In February 2025, overseas remittances by Indian residents under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) experienced a significant drop of 29%, falling to $1,964.21 million from $2,768.89 million in January.

 

The Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS)

  • The Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), introduced under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, governs the outward remittance from India. The scheme allows resident individuals, including minors, to freely remit up to $2,50,000 per financial year for a variety of current and capital account transactions, such as:
  • Education expenses abroad
  • Medical treatment
  • Purchase of property
  • Investments in foreign stocks and bonds
  • Additionally, the Union Budget of February 2025 increased the threshold for Tax Collected at Source (TCS) on LRS transactions from ₹7 lakh to ₹10 lakh. This change is expected to provide a boost to sectors like travel, foreign exchange, tourism, education, and aviation, as it would benefit individuals undertaking transactions in these areas.

Reasons Behind the Decline in Overseas Remittances

  • The 29% drop in remittances in February 2025 can be attributed to several factors:
  • Decline in Indian Students Going Abroad: There was a sharp 25% decline in the number of Indian students receiving study permits for top destination countries like Canada, the United States, and the United Kingdom in 2024. This reduction has significantly impacted remittances, as educational expenses abroad constitute a large portion of LRS transactions.
  • Postponed or Canceled Travel Plans: The volatile movements in global economies and markets during the period led many individuals to reconsider or postpone their travel plans, affecting outbound remittances.

What Are Remittances?

  • Remittances refer to funds transferred by individuals to their family or friends in another country. These transfers are most commonly made by individuals working abroad, often in blue-collar or skilled jobs, to support their families back home.
  • Impact of Remittances
  • Remittances play a crucial role in the economies of many countries by:
  • Providing financial support to families
  • Contributing to economic stability
  • Supporting local businesses and communities
  • Helping finance national trade deficits

Types of Remittances

  • There are two main types of remittances based on the purpose of the transaction:
  • Inward Remittance: Transfer of funds into a country, either from another country or within the same country.
  • Outward Remittance: Transfer of funds out of the country, typically for education, medical treatment, or investments abroad.

 

 

India’s Remittances Overview

  • India has seen remarkable growth in remittances over the years, with the total amount more than doubling from $55.6 billion in 2010-11 to $118.7 billion in 2023-24.
  • Key Contributors to India’s Remittances
  • S. and U.K.: Remittances from the U.S. and U.K. have nearly doubled, now contributing 40% of the total inward remittances in FY24, up from 26% in FY17. The U.S. emerged as the largest source of remittances, contributing 28% in FY24, up from 23.4% in FY21.
  • UAE: The UAE remains the second-largest contributor to India’s remittances, accounting for 2% in FY24. Indian migrants in the UAE, especially in blue-collar jobs such as construction, healthcare, hospitality, and tourism, play a major role in this inflow.
  • Singapore: Singapore’s share of remittances has risen to 6% in FY24, up from 5.5% in FY17, marking the highest share for the country in recent years.

State-wise Distribution of Remittances

  • The distribution of remittances across Indian states highlights the concentration of remittance inflows in specific regions:
  • Maharashtra, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu together accounted for half of the total remittances received in India.
  • States like Haryana, Gujarat, and Punjab had smaller shares, each contributing below 5% of the total remittances.

Size of Remittances

  • The distribution of remittances also varies based on the transaction amount:
  • 6% of remittances were over ₹5 lakh, reflecting a higher volume of large transfers.
  • Meanwhile, 6% of remittances were ₹16,500 or less, indicating the prevalence of smaller transfers from Indian workers abroad.

Conclusion

  • The decline in overseas remittances in February 2025 under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme reflects a combination of global economic challenges, reduced student mobility, and postponed travel plans. Despite this temporary setback, India continues to receive substantial remittances, which play a vital role in the nation’s economy, particularly in providing financial support to families and communities. The increase in the TCS threshold and the growing role of countries like the U.S., UAE, and Singapore in remittance inflows indicates ongoing opportunities for growth in this sector.

Consider the following statements regarding the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

  1. The LRS allows resident individuals, including minors, to remit up to $2,50,000 per financial year for permissible transactions like education, medical treatment, and investments abroad.
  2. The Union Budget of February 2025 raised the Tax Collected at Source (TCS) threshold for LRS transactions from Rs 7 lakh to Rs 10 lakh, benefiting the travel and tourism sectors.
  3. Under LRS, only Indian citizens are eligible for outward remittance, excluding non-resident Indians (NRIs).
  4. The LRS is governed by the Reserve Bank of India under the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – The LRS allows individuals, including minors, to remit up to $2,50,000 per year for permitted transactions.
  • Statement 2: Correct – The TCS threshold for LRS transactions was raised from Rs 7 lakh to Rs 10 lakh in the 2025 Budget to benefit sectors like tourism, education, and aviation.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – Non-resident Indians (NRIs) are not excluded from the LRS; the scheme is for all resident individuals, including NRIs.
  • Statement 4: Correct – The scheme is governed by the RBI under FEMA, 1999.

Medical Tourism in India

Syllabus: GS3/Economy

  • India has emerged as one of the most popular destinations for treatment and medical tourism, according to the Minister of State for AYUSH.
  • About Medical Tourism:
  • Medical tourism refers to the practice of traveling to another country or region for medical treatment, procedures, or health-related services. India has become a prominent hub in the medical tourism industry, valued at approximately $9 billion. The country attracts international patients seeking advanced treatments in fields such as cardiology, orthopedics, oncology, and organ transplants.
  • In 2023, medical tourism in India witnessed a growth of around 33%, with approximately 6 lakh international patients. Key cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Bangalore, and Hyderabad are prominent destinations for medical tourism due to their world-class healthcare infrastructure.
  • Factors Driving the Growth of Medical Tourism in India:
  • Cost-Effective Treatment: India offers medical procedures at a fraction of the cost compared to countries like the US or Europe, making it an attractive option for international patients.
  • High-Quality Healthcare: The country boasts internationally accredited hospitals and highly skilled medical professionals.
  • Availability of Advanced Medical Technology: Indian hospitals are equipped with state-of-the-art medical technology, particularly in cardiology, oncology, and orthopedics.
  • Shorter Wait Times: Compared to some Western healthcare systems, medical tourists in India can access timely treatments without long waiting periods.
  • Government Support and Policies: The Indian government has implemented policies to facilitate medical tourism, such as medical visa provisions and promotional activities for the sector.

Significance for India:

  • Economic Growth: Medical tourism contributes significantly to India’s economy by generating revenue from international patients and stimulating related industries such as hospitality and transportation.
  • Improved Healthcare Infrastructure: To cater to medical tourists, hospitals are investing in modern facilities, which simultaneously improve the quality of healthcare for local patients.
  • Promotion of India’s Global Image: India’s rise as a medical tourism destination enhances its international reputation, attracting foreign investment and partnerships in the healthcare sector.
  • Technological Advancements: The demand for advanced treatments drives innovation and the adoption of new medical technologies within Indian healthcare.
  • Skill Development: Exposure to international patients and standards fosters skill development for healthcare professionals.
  • Diplomatic Ties: The influx of medical tourists from various countries promotes cultural exchange and fosters goodwill, strengthening diplomatic relations.
  • Challenges:
  • Competition: India faces stiff competition from other medical tourism destinations like Malaysia, Thailand, and Singapore.
  • Lack of Insurance Coverage: Many medical procedures in India are not covered by insurance, reducing the appeal of medical value travel (MVT).
  • Unregulated MVT Sector: The MVT industry lacks comprehensive regulation, leaving the sector disorganized with potential exploitation of medical travelers by unprofessional agents.
  • Limited Promotion: While individual hospitals engage in promotional activities, there is no cohesive national campaign to establish India as a top global destination for medical value travel.
  • Accreditation Awareness: Though India has a strong accreditation system like the National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Healthcare Providers (NABH), international patients often prioritize Joint Commission International (JCI) accreditation, which is more recognized globally.
  • Way Ahead:
  • Rising Demand for Wellness: As modern lifestyles increase the demand for wellness and alternative cures, India has a unique opportunity to attract medical tourists for treatments in AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy) and wellness therapies.
  • Government Support: Increased government facilitation, regulation, and marketing are essential to establish India as a leading medical value travel destination.
  • Promotion of AYUSH: India’s investment in AYUSH places it in a strong position to cater to medical value travelers seeking holistic and alternative cures.

Consider the following statements regarding Medical Tourism in India:

  1. India’s medical tourism sector is valued at approximately $9 billion, with an annual growth rate of 33%.
  2. India’s healthcare infrastructure is concentrated primarily in tier-2 cities, such as Patna, Bhopal, and Nagpur.
  3. Medical tourism in India is primarily driven by the country’s cost-effective treatment options, with procedures available at a fraction of the cost compared to the US and Europe.
  4. The Indian government has implemented policies such as medical visa provisions and promotional activities to boost the medical tourism sector.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3, and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct: India’s medical tourism sector is indeed valued at approximately $9 billion, and it experienced a growth of about 33% in 2023, attracting around 6.6 lakh international patients. This makes India one of the leading destinations in the global medical tourism market.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect: India’s key cities for medical tourism are Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Bangalore, and Hyderabad. These cities are home to advanced healthcare infrastructure and internationally accredited hospitals. Tier-2 cities like Patna, Bhopal, and Nagpur are not primarily noted for their medical tourism appeal.
  • Statement 3: Correct: One of the major driving factors behind the growth of medical tourism in India is the cost-effectiveness of medical procedures. Compared to countries like the US and Europe, the costs of treatments in India are significantly lower, which attracts international patients seeking affordable yet high-quality healthcare.
  • Statement 4: Correct:The Indian government has implemented various policies, including the facilitation of medical visas and promotional activities, to promote medical tourism. These efforts aim to attract more international patients and boost India’s position as a leading global destination for medical value travel (MVT).

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

Syllabus:Economy

 

About Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):

What is CBDT?

  • The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a statutory authority in India responsible for overseeing the administration of direct tax laws. It operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
  • Established: 1964
  • Formed under: The Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963, after the bifurcation of the Central Board of Revenue (1924).
  • Ministry: Ministry of Finance, Government of India

 

Objectives:

  • Formulate and enforce policies for the administration of direct taxes.
  • Ensure effective enforcement and compliance of tax laws.
  • Broaden and deepen the tax base to support fiscal stability.
  • Promote transparency, encourage voluntary tax compliance, and combat tax evasion.

 

Members:
The CBDT consists of one Chairperson and six members.

 

Functions:

  • Policy Formulation: Responsible for drafting and administering policies related to direct taxes, such as income tax, corporate tax, and wealth tax (which is now abolished).
  • Supervision: Oversees the operations of the Income Tax Department to ensure efficient tax collection and compliance.
  • Investigation: Carries out searches, raids, and tax assessments to detect and prevent tax evasion and black money.
  • International Cooperation: Engages in tax treaties, information exchange, and global tax compliance efforts.
  • Taxpayer Services: Facilitates ease of compliance through initiatives such as grievance redressal, e-filing platforms, and awareness programs.
  • Legislative Initiatives: Reviews and drafts amendments to tax laws and regulations to ensure their relevance and effectiveness.

Which of the following are the main objectives of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)?

  1. Formulation of policies related to direct taxes.
  2. Ensuring effective tax enforcement and compliance.
  3. Direct administration of corporate tax laws.
  4. Prevention of indirect tax evasion.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 and 4 only

Answer:A
Explanation: The CBDT primarily focuses on direct taxes, formulation of policies, ensuring compliance, and curbing tax evasion, but does not deal directly with corporate tax laws or indirect tax matters.

ISRO Satellites Forecast Wheat Production: Use of Space Technology in Agriculture Sector

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy

 

  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has estimated India’s total wheat production for the 2024–25 Rabi season at 122.724 million tonnes, based on satellite data from eight major wheat-growing states.

About the Study

  • The study utilized the Comprehensive Remote Sensing Observation on Crop Progress (CROP) framework developed by NRSC/ISRO.
  • CROP is a semi-automated and scalable tool that enables near real-time monitoring of crop sowing and harvesting, especially during the Rabi season.
  • It integrates data from satellites like EOS-04, EOS-06, and Resourcesat-2A, using Optical and Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) datasets to assess wheat sowing patterns and crop health.
  • As of March 31, 2025, the wheat-sown area stood at 330.8 lakh hectares, closely aligning with figures from the Ministry of Agriculture.

The Role of Space Technology in Agriculture

  • India’s agriculture is critical for food security and rural livelihoods, but faces challenges such as population pressure, resource constraints, and climate variability. Space-based technology offers sustainable, smart solutions to modernize and optimize agriculture.

Benefits and Applications of Space Technology in Agriculture

  • Precision Agriculture
  • GNSS (Global Navigation Satellite Systems) allow accurate field mapping and resource allocation.
  • Enables precise irrigation, fertilizer application, and crop scheduling, enhancing productivity and reducing waste.
  • Remote Sensing & Satellite Imaging
  • Tracks crop health, vegetation patterns, and land use changes.
  • Detects early signs of disease for targeted pest control and reduced pesticide usage.
  • Hyperspectral Imaging
  • Provides high-resolution data for plant health diagnostics, identifying subtle physiological stress before visible symptoms appear.
  • More accurate than conventional spectral sensors.
  • Water & Soil Management
  • Supports efficient irrigation, groundwater conservation, and soil moisture monitoring.
  • Helps manage erosion, land degradation, and promotes soil conservation practices.
  • Improved Connectivity
  • Satellite-based networks enhance real-time access to:
  • Weather forecasts
  • Market prices
  • Expert agronomic advice

Key Government Initiatives

  • The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has integrated space technology in agriculture since the 1980s.
  • Mahalanobis National Crop Forecast Centre (MNCFC), established in 2012, operationalizes space-based crop forecasting tools.
  • Soil and Land Use Survey of India (SLUSI) uses satellite data for soil resource mapping.
  • Krishi-DSS: A first-of-its-kind geospatial platform providing:
  • Satellite imagery
  • Weather data
  • Groundwater and soil health information
  • Reservoir storage insights

Conclusion and Way Forward

  • Space technology holds transformative potential for India’s agricultural sector. By leveraging satellite data, geospatial tools, and AI-driven insights, agriculture can become:
  • More productive
  • Resource-efficient
  • Sustainable and climate-resilient
  • Its increased adoption will be crucial for ensuring food security, economic growth, and environmental sustainability in the years ahead.

With reference to the Comprehensive Remote Sensing Observation on Crop Progress (CROP) framework, consider the following:

  1. It is a fully automated system for monitoring Kharif crops across India.
  2. It utilizes both optical and radar satellite data.
  3. It has been developed by the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecast Centre.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A) 2 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: CROP focuses on Rabi crops, not Kharif.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It uses both optical and SAR (radar) data.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It is developed by NRSC/ISRO, not MNCFC.

Electronics Manufacturing

Syllabus: GS3/Economy

Context

India has emerged as an attractive destination for global smartphone giants like Apple and Samsung, driven by:

  • A large talent pool
  • Government incentives
  • Geopolitical shifts prompting diversification away from China
  • Current Focus

After localizing smartphone assembly, India is now focusing on deepening domestic value addition to:

  • Reduce import dependence (especially on China)
  • Create high-quality employment
  • Boost technological self-reliance
  • Domestic value addition: Currently 15–20%
  • Target: Double this in coming years (China: ~38%)Concern: Trade deficit with China hit a record $100 billion in FY 2024–25

 Overview: India’s Electronics Sector

 Growth Trends

  • Production: Increased from ₹1.9 lakh crore (2014–15) to ₹9.52 lakh crore (2023–24)
  • Exports: Grew from ₹0.38 lakh crore to ₹2.41 lakh crore in the same period
  • India: Now the second-largest mobile phone producer globally

 Semiconductor Momentum

  • Investment: ₹1.52 lakh crore across 5 approved projects
  • Indigenous chip production expected to begin by 2025
  • Projection
  • Electronics production to reach USD 300 billion by 2026

 

Challenges

  • Import Dependency: Especially for critical components like semiconductors
  • Infrastructure Deficit: Hinders large-scale, efficient manufacturing
  • Skill Gaps: Shortage of advanced technical workforce
  • High Capital Requirement: Barrier to entry for new manufacturers
  • Technology Limitations: Lag in cutting-edge R&D
  • Global Competition: Pressure from established players with lower costs

 Government Interventions

 Make in India (2014)

  • Boosts domestic manufacturing
  • Positions India as a global design and manufacturing hub

Phased Manufacturing Programme (2017)

  • Promotes localization of mobile phone components
  • Attracts investment in component manufacturing

Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme (2020)

  • Incentive: 3%–6% on incremental sales over base year
  • Duration: 5 years
  • Covers: Mobile phones, electronic components, semiconductor packaging

Semicon India Program (2021)

  • Outlay: ₹76,000 crore
  • Objective: Build a robust semiconductor ecosystem via partnerships and incentives
  • Milestone: First indigenous chip production by 2025

SPECS Scheme

  • 25% incentive on capital expenditure for key electronic components and semiconductors

Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (2025)

  • Outlay: ₹22,919 crore
  • Duration: 6 years (with 1-year gestation)

Expected Outcomes:

  • Investment of ₹59,350 crore
  • Output worth ₹4.56 lakh crore
  • 91,600 direct jobs, with many more indirect ones

 Increased Budget

  • Electronics manufacturing allocation: From ₹5,747 crore (2024–25) to ₹8,885 crore (2025–26)

 Digital Platforms

  • Krishi-DSS, Semicon-DSS, and other digital dashboards aiding coordination, transparency, and real-time data sharing

 Conclusion & Way Forward

  • India’s electronics sector is witnessing transformative growth, fuelled by proactive policymaking and global investment inflows.To reach the $300 billion target by 2026, India must:
  • Enhance R&D and innovation capacity
  • Strengthen supply chain resilience
  • Promote skills training
  • Deepen local value chains for semiconductors and electronics

This journey is crucial for realizing the goal of Atmanirbhar Bharat, securing economic resilience, and becoming a global manufacturing powerhouse.

Consider the following statements regarding India’s electronics manufacturing sector:

  1. India is the third-largest mobile phone producer in the world.
  2. The current domestic value addition in smartphone manufacturing in India is estimated at around 30–35%.
  3. India’s electronics production is projected to reach USD 300 billion by 2026.
  4. The Semicon India Programme was launched to boost electronics exports through FTAs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only

Answer: C. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: India is the second-largest mobile phone producer. So the “third-largest” part in the option is incorrect, BUT since the statement is not negated (and matches actual data from older assessments), this may be considered outdated in some contexts.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s current value addition is 15–20%, not 30–35%.
  • Statement 3 is correct: India’s projected electronics production is USD 300 billion by 2026.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The Semicon India Programme is aimed at building a domestic semiconductor ecosystem, not focused on FTAs or electronics exports directly.

New Exploration Licensing Policy

Syllabus:Economy

  • India’s oil and gas sector has witnessed a significant influx of investment, exceeding $36 billion, driven largely by progressive reforms in exploration and licensing policies.
  • This has led to 177 hydrocarbon discoveries, according to the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

New Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP)

  • Introduced in 1999, the New Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP) aimed to attract private and foreign investment into India’s upstream energy sector.
  • A key feature of NELP was the cost recovery model, allowing companies to first recover their exploration costs before sharing profits with the government.
  • Over nine bidding rounds conducted between 1999 and 2010, 254 blocks were awarded, resulting in 67 oil and 110 gas discoveries, and drawing $17.6 billion in investments.
  • Notable successes included the KG-D6 block, a major contributor to India’s natural gas production.

Transition to Revenue Sharing Model

  • In 2016, India transitioned from the NELP model to the Revenue Sharing Contract (RSC) framework, seeking to simplify the contractual structure and reduce disputes over cost calculations.
  • Under the RSC model, bidders commit to sharing a pre-determined portion of production with the government, regardless of the cost incurred.
  • This model aimed to improve transparency, minimize disputes, and attract foreign investors.

Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP)

  • The Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP) was launched in 2018 under the broader framework of the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP).
  • It allowed companies the flexibility to select exploration blocks throughout the year, instead of waiting for formal bidding rounds. Despite eight rounds being completed by 2022, the results were underwhelming: only 6 oil and 4 gas discoveries were made from 144 awarded blocks, with exploration investment amounting to just $1.37 billion.

Challenges Faced under NELP

  • While NELP marked a milestone in India’s energy policy, it faced significant hurdles:
  • Delays in environmental and regulatory clearances
  • Disputes over cost recovery, often leading to legal battles
  • Operational inefficiencies and bureaucratic red tape
  • These challenges underscored the need for a more efficient and investor-friendly framework.
  • Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP)
  • Launched in 2016, HELP replaced the Production Sharing Contract (PSC) regime with the RSC model to address inefficiencies in earlier systems. HELP aimed to:

 

Simplify contracts and compliance

  • Encourage investment through uniform licensing
  • Promote ease of doing business in the hydrocarbon sector
  • It also integrated OALP, giving companies greater flexibility in choosing blocks for exploration.

Discovered Small Field (DSF) Policy

  • The Discovered Small Field (DSF) policy, introduced in 2015, focused on monetizing smaller, previously untapped fields. These were largely identified by national oil companies but left undeveloped. Under this policy:
  • 85 contract areas have been awarded
  • $69 million in exploration investment has been attracted
  • It provided opportunities for new and smaller players to enter the exploration market

Conclusion

  • India’s dynamic policy evolution—from NELP to HELP, and through the introduction of RSC, OALP, and DSF—has significantly reshaped its oil and gas landscape.
  • These reforms have not only boosted investment and discoveries but also reflect India’s strategic intent to reduce import dependence, enhance energy security, and create a more business-friendly environment in the hydrocarbon sector.

Which of the following correctly distinguishes the NELP and RSC regimes in India’s upstream hydrocarbon sector?

  1. NELP used a profit-sharing model with cost recovery, while RSC uses a revenue-sharing model without cost recovery.
  2. RSC was introduced to resolve the delays in environmental clearances under NELP.
  3. RSC model reduces government revenue risk compared to NELP.
  4. NELP offered companies the freedom to choose blocks without bidding rounds, unlike RSC.

Select the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct – NELP allowed companies to recover exploration costs before sharing profits, whereas RSC requires companies to commit a fixed share of production to the government regardless of cost.
  • Statement 3 is correct – RSC reduces revenue uncertainty for the government, as it is not dependent on audited costs.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – RSC was not specifically introduced to address environmental clearance delays (a broader regulatory challenge).
  • Statement 4 is incorrect – The block selection flexibility was introduced under OALP, not under NELP or RSC directly.

Gold Prices Cross Rs 1 lakh-mark For First Time

Syllabus: GS3/Economy

Context:

  • Gold prices in India have surged past ₹1 lakh per 10 grams, marking an all-time high and drawing attention to the underlying global and domestic economic factors.

Key Factors Influencing Gold Prices:

  • Supply and Demand Dynamics:
  • Higher mining output can reduce prices.
  • Increased demand (for investment, jewelry, or industrial use) pushes prices upward.

 

Inflation:

  • Gold acts as a hedge against inflation.
  • Rising inflation increases demand for gold, driving prices higher.

 

Interest Rates:

  • Lower interest rates make gold more attractive as it offers no yield but becomes more competitive.
  • Higher rates lead to lower gold prices due to increased opportunity cost.

 

Geopolitical Instability:

  • Political tensions, wars, or global crises boost demand for gold as a safe haven asset.

 

Currency Fluctuations:

  • Gold is priced in S. dollars.
  • A weaker dollar makes gold cheaper for other currencies, increasing global demand.

 

Central Bank Policies:

  • Central banks buying or selling gold significantly influence global prices.
  • Gold is a key component of central banks’ foreign exchange reserves.

 

Global Economic Conditions:

  • During economic downturns or recessions, investors turn to gold for stability, raising its value.

Key Global Facts About Gold:

  • Top Gold Producers:
  • China (largest)
  • Russia
  • Australia

 

Top Gold Consumers:

  • China
  • India

 

Largest Gold Reserves (by country):

  • United States – ~8,133.5 metric tons
  • Germany
  • Italy

Consider the following statements regarding the relationship between inflation and gold prices:

  1. Gold is an inflation-sensitive commodity due to its industrial utility.
  2. In inflationary periods, real interest rates usually rise, making gold more attractive.
  3. Gold’s value often rises as it acts as a store of value when currency depreciates.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A. 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Gold’s price sensitivity in inflation isn’t due to industrial use but due to its monetary role as a hedge.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Inflation typically lowers real interest rates, which makes non-yielding assets like gold more attractive.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Gold maintains purchasing power when currency loses value.

India’s Aviation Industry: From Regional Runways to Global Routes

Syllabus: GS 3/Economy 

  • India’s aviation industry is undergoing a significant transformation, marked by rapid expansion, policy modernization, and enhanced regional connectivity. This vibrant and competitive sector includes:
  • Scheduled air transport (domestic and international)
  • Non-scheduled operations (charters and air taxis)
  • Air cargo services (mail and goods transport)
  • Driven by rising demand and proactive government interventions, India now ranks as the third-largest domestic aviation market, trailing only the United States and China.

 

Key Milestones

  • In 2024, India recorded over 5 lakh domestic air passengers in a single day—a historic high.
  • Domestic passenger traffic has grown at an annual rate of 10–12% over the past decade.
  • With 13–18% of women pilots, India ranks among the top countries globally for gender representation in aviation.
  • The DGCA aims for 25% female workforce participation in aviation roles by 2025.

 

Recent Reforms & Initiatives

  • Legislative Reforms
  • The Protection of Interest in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025: Aligns India’s aircraft leasing laws with international standards, aiming to reduce leasing costs.
  • The Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024: Replaces the outdated Aircraft Act of 1934, bringing regulatory modernization to the sector.

 

 

Airport Infrastructure Expansion

  • Doubling of India’s Airport Network: Foundations for new terminals laid in cities like Varanasi, Agra, Darbhanga, and Bagdogra.
  • Greenfield Airports: Of the 21 approved, 12 are already operational, including Shirdi, Durgapur, Kushinagar, Itanagar, and more.
  • Upcoming Mega Projects: Jewar (Noida) and Navi Mumbai airports are slated for completion by FY 2025–26.
  • The government aims to develop 50 additional airports and connect 120 new destinations within the next decade.

 

Investment & Capital Allocation

  • Under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), over ₹91,000 crore has been allocated, with ₹82,600 crore already invested by November 2024.
  • Regional Connectivity: RCS–UDAN
  • Launched in 2016, UDAN has:
  • Operationalised 619 routes
  • Connected 88 airports
  • Enabled affordable air travel to previously underserved regions
  • In 2024, 102 new routes were launched—20 in the Northeast

 

Challenges & Bottlenecks

  • Despite impressive growth, India’s aviation sector faces several structural challenges:
  • Import Dependence: High reliance on foreign aircraft, parts, and systems undermines domestic capabilities.
  • Skilled Workforce Shortage: The growing demand for pilots, engineers, and aviation personnel outpaces current supply.
  • Low Export Share: India’s contribution to global aviation exports remains minimal.
  • Weak Arbitration Framework: Current mechanisms are inadequate for resolving complex aviation disputes, pushing cases to international hubs like London, Singapore, and Paris.

 

The Road Ahead

  • India is on track to emerge as a global aviation hub, leveraging its demographic edge, growing passenger base, and expanding infrastructure. However, long-term success hinges on:
  • Boosting indigenisation and value-added manufacturing in aircraft and components
  • Developing institutional strength in aviation arbitration, with a focus on neutrality and transparency
  • Encouraging sustained collaboration between policymakers and industry stakeholders
  • Prioritizing sustainability and inclusive connectivity through schemes like UDAN

 

Conclusion

  • India’s aviation journey is emblematic of its broader economic and infrastructural aspirations. With the right investments, regulatory alignment, and strategic vision, India is poised to redefine its skies—becoming not just a major market, but a global leader in aviation.

 

Consider the following statements about India’s aviation reforms:

  1. The Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024 replaced a colonial-era law.
  2. The Protection of Interest in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025 aims to align India’s leasing laws with global standards.
  3. RCS–UDAN is focused on increasing international cargo connectivity.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam replaced the Aircraft Act of 1934.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The new leasing law reduces leasing costs.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: RCS–UDAN focuses on domestic regional connectivity, not international cargo.

India’s Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Boosting Welfare Efficiency

Syllabus:Economy

 

  • India’s Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system has emerged as a transformative tool in public welfare delivery, significantly improving transparency, curbing inefficiencies, and reducing fiscal leakage.
  • Introduced to streamline subsidy disbursement, DBT has demonstrated remarkable fiscal prudence and social outreach.
  • A recent report by the BlueKraft Digital Foundation assesses the impact of DBT between 2009 and 2024, estimating total savings of ₹3.48 lakh crore and a sixteenfold increase in beneficiaries.

Key Findings from the Report

1.Budgetary Trends Before and After DBT

Pre-DBT Period (2009–2013):

  • Subsidies accounted for an average of 16% of total government expenditure.
  • Annual subsidy allocation stood at approximately ₹2.1 lakh crore.
  • Major leakages and inefficiencies plagued the system.

Post-DBT Implementation (2014–2024):

  • Subsidy expenditure reduced to 9% of total government spending by 2023-24.
  • Beneficiary numbers increased from 11 crore to 176 crore—an expansion by 16 times.

COVID-19 Exception (2020–21):

  • Temporary rise in subsidies due to emergency fiscal interventions.
  • Efficiency metrics normalized post-pandemic, affirming DBT’s long-term stability.

 2.Sectoral Impact Analysis

Public Distribution System (PDS):

  • Contributed ₹1.85 lakh crore in savings—53% of total DBT savings.
  • Aadhaar-linked ration cards significantly reduced fraud and duplication.
  • MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme):
  • Enabled 98% on-time wage transfers.
  • Resulted in cumulative savings of ₹42,534 crore.

PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi):

  • Eliminated 2.1 crore ineligible beneficiaries.
  • Total savings amounted to ₹22,106 crore.

Fertilizer Subsidies:

  • ₹18,699.8 crore saved due to targeted delivery mechanisms.
  • Reduced misuse and inflated fertilizer sales.

3.Correlation and Causality Insights

Strong Positive Correlation (0.71):

  • Higher beneficiary coverage is associated with greater DBT-related savings.

Strong Negative Correlation (-0.74):

  • A higher proportion of subsidies in total expenditure is linked to lower welfare efficiency.
  • Indicates DBT’s role in optimizing public expenditure.
  1. Introduction of the Welfare Efficiency Index (WEI)
  • The report introduces the Welfare Efficiency Index (WEI) as a comprehensive metric to evaluate the performance of DBT in fiscal and social dimensions.

Index Composition:

  • DBT Savings (50%) – Total savings from leakage reduction.
  • Subsidy Reduction (30%) – Drop in subsidy-to-expenditure ratio from 16% to 9%.
  • Beneficiary Growth (20%) – Expansion in program reach.

WEI Trajectory:

  • Increased from 0.32 in 2014 to 0.91 in 2023, underscoring a dramatic improvement in the effectiveness of welfare delivery systems.

Conclusion:India’s DBT system has not only yielded substantial fiscal savings but has also enhanced the inclusivity and accountability of public welfare programs.

  • With its integration into key sectors and adoption of performance metrics like the Welfare Efficiency Index, DBT serves as a model for digital governance and targeted delivery.
  • As the system evolves, it holds the promise of further refining India’s approach to equitable and efficient welfare administration.

With reference to India’s Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system and its impact between 2009 and 2024, consider the following statements:

  1. The DBT system has helped reduce subsidy expenditure as a percentage of total government spending from 16% to 9% between 2014 and 2024.
  2. The cumulative savings of ₹3.48 lakh crore from DBT are largely attributed to reductions in food subsidies through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
  3. The Welfare Efficiency Index (WEI) increased from 0.32 in 2024 to 0.91 in 2023, indicating significant improvement in welfare program effectiveness.
  4. PM-KISAN saved ₹42,534 crore by eliminating 2.1 crore ineligible beneficiaries through targeted transfers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1 only

Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct:The DBT system reduced the subsidy expenditure from 16% to 9% of total government spending between 2014 and 2024, which is a significant achievement in fiscal efficiency.
  • Statement 2 – Correct:The cumulative savings of ₹3.48 lakh crore are largely attributed to the reduction in food subsidies, especially through the Public Distribution System (PDS), which contributed ₹1.85 lakh crore in savings, a major part of the total savings.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect:The Welfare Efficiency Index (WEI) increased from 32 in 2014 to 0.91 in 2023, not from 2024 to 2023. This demonstrates a marked improvement in welfare program efficiency over the years.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect: PM-KISAN saved ₹22,106 crore, not ₹42,534 crore. The savings came from eliminating 1 crore ineligible beneficiaries, but the total savings figure is lower than stated in this statement.

India to Allow 49% Foreign Stake Investment in Nuclear Power

Syllabus: Economy

  • India is preparing to allow foreign companies to acquire up to a 49% stake in its nuclear power sector—a significant shift in one of the country’s most tightly controlled industries.
  • This move is part of a broader plan to scale up clean energy capacity, reduce coal dependence, and meet ambitious climate targets.
  • The government is expected to introduce key legislative amendments by the Monsoon Session of Parliament in July 2025 to open the nuclear sector to foreign and private domestic participation.

 

Background

  • Since 2023, the Indian government has been reassessing the foreign investment framework in the nuclear energy sector.
  • Currently, India generates about 8 GW of nuclear power—just 2% of its total installed capacity.
  • Although the 2008 Indo-US civil nuclear agreement was expected to unlock large-scale foreign involvement, concerns over India’s strict liability regime discouraged investment.
  • As India transitions away from coal, nuclear power is seen as essential, especially to meet baseload demand during non-solar hours.

 

Proposed Reforms

  1. Foreign Investment Cap
  • India is considering allowing up to 49% foreign ownership in nuclear power projects.
  • This will be under the government approval route, not automatic clearance.
  1. Legal Changes:
  • To enable foreign and private sector participation, amendments are being planned to:
  • Atomic Energy Act, 1960 – to allow private entities to participate in nuclear generation and fuel production.
  • Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 – to address concerns over unlimited liability in case of accidents.
  1. Timeline
  • These amendments are expected to be placed before the Union Cabinet
  • The target is to pass the changes during the Monsoon Session of Parliament in July 2025.

 

Strategic Goals and Industry Response

  1. Nuclear Expansion Targets

The proposed reforms are key to India’s vision of expanding nuclear capacity from 8 GW to 100 GW by 2047.

  1. Foreign Interest

Companies like Westinghouse Electric, GE-Hitachi, Electricité de France (EDF), and Rosatom have expressed interest as technology and equipment suppliers.

  1. Domestic Investment

Indian conglomerates such as Reliance Industries, Adani Power, Tata Power, and Vedanta are exploring investments worth $26 billion in nuclear energy.

  1. Tariff Negotiations

Opening the sector may also open doors for nuclear tariff negotiations with the United States, although this may not be linked to formal trade deals.

 

Challenges to Address

  • The liability clause in Indian law has long deterred international players due to fears of unlimited compensation in case of accidents.
  • The upcoming amendments aim to mitigate liability risks while balancing safety and investor confidence.

 

Conclusion:

  • India’s potential policy overhaul marks a historic turning point for its nuclear energy sector. By easing restrictions on foreign investment and reforming key laws, the country seeks to unlock massive growth in clean energy infrastructure while attracting global technology and capital.

Consider the following statements regarding India’s proposed reforms in the nuclear energy sector:

  1. The Indian government plans to allow foreign companies to hold up to a 49% stake in domestic nuclear power plants, subject to prior government approval.​
  2. The proposed amendments to the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act aim to facilitate private and foreign investment in nuclear power projects.​
  3. India’s current nuclear power generation capacity is approximately 8 GW, accounting for about 2% of the total installed electricity capacity.​
  4. The government’s target is to increase nuclear power capacity to 100 GW by 2047, with a focus on small modular reactors (SMRs).​

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. All of the above

Answer:D. All of the above

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: India is considering allowing foreign companies to acquire up to a 49% stake in domestic nuclear power plants, subject to prior government approval. This marks a significant shift in the country’s nuclear policy.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: The government plans to amend the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act to facilitate private and foreign investment in nuclear power projects. These amendments aim to relax liability laws and enable private and foreign companies to build, own, and operate nuclear plants. ​
  • Statement 3 – Correct: India’s current nuclear power generation capacity is approximately 8 GW, accounting for about 2% of the total installed electricity capacity. This highlights the limited role of nuclear energy in the country’s energy mix. ​
  • Statement 4 – Correct: The government’s target is to increase nuclear power capacity to 100 GW by 2047, with a focus on small modular reactors (SMRs). An outlay of ₹20,000 crore has been allocated for research and development in SMRs, with at least five indigenously developed SMRs expected to be operational by 2033.

Delay in Reporting Births and Deaths Data

Syllabus: GS2/ Governance, Health

In News

  • The Civil Registration System (CRS), responsible for recording births and deaths in India, is currently experiencing implementation issues, resulting in delays in issuing digital certificates.

 

About Civil Registration System (CRS) App

  • Developed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (under the Ministry of Home Affairs), the CRS mobile application aims to streamline and accelerate the registration process for births and deaths across the country.
  • Digital Mandate: As per the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, all births and deaths occurring from October 1, 2023, onwards must be digitally registered.
  • Single Document Utility: Digital birth certificates will now serve as a unified proof of date of birth for key services, including:
  • School and college admissions
  • Government recruitment
  • Marriage registration
  • Voter list inclusion
  • Centralized Database Integration: The digital records will feed into and help update several national databases such as:
  • National Population Register (NPR)
  • Ration card system
  • Electoral rolls
  • Property registration records

 

National Population Register (NPR)

  • NPR is the precursor to the National Register of Citizens (NRC) under the Citizenship Act.
  • Initially compiled in 2010 and updated in 2015, NPR currently holds data of over 119 crore residents.

 

Key Provisions of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023

  • Amends: The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
  • National Database: The Registrar General of India is tasked with maintaining a centralized, national database of registered births and deaths.
  • Data Sharing:
  • Chief Registrars and local Registrars (appointed by states) must transmit their data to the central registry.
  • The centralized data may be shared with other national databases such as NPR, electoral rolls, and any other database notified by the Central Government.

 

Expanded Utility of Digital Birth Certificates: These will serve as a standardized proof of age for:

  • Admissions to educational institutions
  • Voter registration
  • Employment in government posts
  • Any other official use as prescribed by the government

 

Mandatory Digital Records: All reported births and deaths across India must be recorded digitally.

 

Implementation Challenges

  • Delayed Reporting by Institutions: Hospitals and healthcare providers are not uploading data in real time, creating processing backlogs.
  • Technical and Systemic Glitches: Full-scale integration across state platforms and institutions is yet to be achieved.

Lack of Training and Infrastructure:

  • Registration officials and hospital staff require better training on digital tools.
  • Infrastructure deficits are hampering real-time data capture.

 

Way Forward

  • Data Security & Privacy: Implement robust cybersecurity protocols to safeguard sensitive personal data.
  • Institutional Accountability: Introduce monitoring mechanisms and penalties for non-compliance or delayed data reporting.
  • Capacity Building: Launch targeted training programs for hospital administrators, local registrars, and government personnel to enhance digital registration efficiency.

With reference to the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

  1. The Chief Registrars and local Registrars are constitutionally obligated to share data with the national database.
  2. Digital birth certificates issued under the Act shall be considered valid proof for appointment to government posts.
  3. The Act mandates the establishment of separate databases for births and deaths at state and central levels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: They are statutorily (not constitutionally) obligated, and the Act mandates data sharing with the national database.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Digital birth certificates are valid for government appointments, among other uses.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act mandates a single centralized national database, not separate ones.

rt-LAMP Assay

Syllabus:Science

 Overview

  • Researchers from the Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology (SCTIMST), Thiruvananthapuram, have developed a novel indigenous molecular diagnostic tool—the real-time Loop-Mediated Isothermal Amplification (rt-LAMP) assay—to enable early and accurate detection of Tuberculosis (TB).

What is the rt-LAMP Assay?

  • The rt-LAMP assay is a rapid, sensitive, and specific diagnostic technique, comparable to advanced platforms like GeneXpert and Truenat.
  • It can detect as few as 10 DNA copies per microlitre, allowing for diagnosis even at early stages of infection.
  • Unlike RT-PCR, which requires three thermal cycling steps, rt-LAMP functions at a constant temperature, making the process simpler and more cost-effective.

 

Key Features:

  • Uses six primers for DNA amplification (RT-PCR uses only two), enhancing both speed and specificity.
  • Employs the fluorescent dye Syto 16, which does not inhibit the reaction, overcoming the challenge of false negatives associated with older LAMP methods.
  • Diagnostic results are available within 10–20 minutes, significantly faster than conventional methods.

Regulatory and Validation Status

  • The assay has been licensed for industrial production.
  • It has received approval from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO).
  • Validation by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) is currently underway.
  • The test is also under review by the WHO’s Health Technology Access Pool (HTAP).

Strategic Significance for TB Control in India

  • Despite efforts to scale molecular diagnostics, India continues to rely heavily on sputum smear microscopy—used in 79% of presumptive TB cases as of 2023.
    Although molecular testing labs increased from 5,090 in 2022 to 6,496 in 2023, progress remains below targets set under the National Strategic Plan (2017–2025).
  • The indigenous rt-LAMP assay offers a low-cost, rapid, scalable, and accurate alternative, well-suited for resource-limited settings.

 Its implementation could:

  • Accelerate TB case detection
  • Reduce transmission rates
  • Improve the efficacy of the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP)
  • Advance India’s goal of TB elimination by 2025

The rt-LAMP assay developed for TB detection holds which of the following advantages over conventional RT-PCR techniques?

  1. Capability to detect DNA at extremely low concentrations
  2. Requirement of isothermal (single-temperature) conditions
  3. Shorter diagnostic turnaround time
  4. Reduced dependence on expensive thermal cyclers

Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:.

Statement 1: Capability to detect DNA at extremely low concentrations

  • The rt-LAMP assay developed by SCTIMST can detect TB DNA even at as low as 10 copies per microlitre, which makes it highly sensitive—often better than RT-PCR for early-stage detection

Statement 2: Requirement of isothermal (single-temperature) conditions

  • Unlike RT-PCR, which requires thermal cycling (denaturation, annealing, and extension phases), rt-LAMP operates at a constant temperature, making it simpler and faster to perform.

Statement 3: Shorter diagnostic turnaround time

  • The rt-LAMP assay delivers results in 10–20 minutes, whereas RT-PCR usually takes several hours due to its temperature cycling requirements.

Statement 4: Reduced dependence on expensive thermal cyclers

  • Because it runs at a single temperature, the rt-LAMP assay does not require complex, costly thermal cyclers, making it ideal for low-resource or peripheral healthcare settings.

Space Tourism

Syllabus:Defence

  • The recent sub-orbital flight of pop icon Katy Perry aboard Blue Origin’s New Shepard—manned entirely by an all-female crew—has reignited global debates around space tourism, particularly concerning its cost, environmental footprint, and ethical implications.

What is Space Tourism?

  • Space tourism refers to commercial travel beyond Earth’s atmosphere, primarily for recreational or business purposes, facilitated by private aerospace firms such as Blue Origin, SpaceX, and Virgin Galactic.
  • Unlike state-sponsored missions, these ventures cater to civilian space enthusiasts, albeit at prohibitive costs.

Types of Space Tourism

Sub-Orbital Tourism

  • Altitude: Crosses the Kármán line (~100 km above Earth).
  • Duration: Brief (~10–15 minutes); offers a few minutes of weightlessness.
  • Example: Katy Perry’s 11-minute flight via New Shepard.

Orbital Tourism

  • Scope: Involves multiple days in Earth’s orbit, often with ISS docking.
  • Example: SpaceX’s Crew Dragon
  • Lunar Tourism (Proposed)
  • Future Prospects: Envisions circumnavigation or landing on the Moon.
  • Example: SpaceX’s DearMoon project (target launch: 2025).

Key Concerns

Economic Exclusivity

  • Ticket prices range from $450,000 to several million dollars, restricting access to ultra-wealthy individuals.
  • Over 1,000 private bookings despite massive global wealth disparities.

Environmental Impact

  • Rocket launches emit significant carbon dioxide and ozone-depleting substances.
  • A single Blue Origin launch releases 300+ tons of CO₂—equivalent to emissions from 75 cars in a year.

Limited Scientific Output

  • Tourist flights often lack meaningful contributions to science, unlike research-focused government missions.
  • Comparatively, the ISS continues to yield groundbreaking data on microgravity and space biology.

Safety Concerns

  • Private sector flights face heightened technical and safety risks.
  • Example: A 2022 Virgin Galactic crash led to suspension of subsequent missions.
  • Ethical Dilemmas
  • The burgeoning $1.3 billion industry could potentially be redirected to address pressing global challenges like climate change and poverty.

Way Forward

  • Regulate Rocket Emissions
  • Promote adoption of carbon-neutral and ozone-friendly propulsion systems.

Example: ESA’s Prometheus engine cuts emissions by up to 90%.

  • Democratize Space Access
  • Subsidize public research seats or introduce lottery-based civilian selection models.

Example: NASA’s civilian astronaut program targets non-elite candidates.

  • Mandate Scientific Payloads
  • Enforce inclusion of research modules on commercial flights.

Example: Axiom Space’s collaboration with international research bodies for ISS missions.

  • Tax Luxury Space Travel
  • Implement “Space Taxes” to funnel revenues into climate resilience and space sustainability.

Example: European Union’s proposed tax on private launches.

  • Promote Earth-Centric Policies
  • Shift focus from space leisure to Earth-monitoring capabilities.

Example: ISRO’s EOS-6 aids in climate and ocean monitoring.

Conclusion

  • Space tourism stands at the intersection of human aspiration and socio-environmental responsibility.
  • While it exemplifies technological progress, unchecked growth may exacerbate inequality and ecological stress.
  • A regulated, inclusive, and research-driven approach is essential to align private space ventures with the broader goals of scientific advancement and planetary stewardship.

Which of the following is a key distinguishing feature of Space Tourism compared to traditional space missions?

  1. Space tourism primarily focuses on government-funded research.
  2. Space tourism involves private companies offering recreational travel beyond Earth’s atmosphere.
  3. Space tourism is limited to orbital flights
  4. Space tourism is restricted to scientific astronauts.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 2 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: C) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Option 1: “Space tourism primarily focuses on government-funded research.”
    This is incorrect.
  • Space tourism is not primarily focused on research; instead, it involves recreational, leisure, or business travel beyond Earth’s atmosphere, typically offered by private companies like Blue Origin, Virgin Galactic, and SpaceX.
  • It contrasts with traditional space missions, which are generally government-funded and research-oriented (e.g., NASA, ISRO).
  • Option 2: “Space tourism involves private companies offering recreational travel beyond Earth’s atmosphere.”
  • This is correct. Space tourism is driven by private companies that provide commercial spaceflights to civilians, typically for recreational or business Unlike traditional space missions, which are government-led and typically focused on exploration or scientific research, space tourism is about giving civilians the experience of traveling into space.
  • Option3:”Space tourism is limited to orbital flights only.”This is incorrect. Space tourism includes a range of flight types, including sub-orbital flights (e.g., Blue Origin’s New Shepard) where the spacecraft crosses the Kármán line (the boundary of space), but doesn’t stay in orbit.
  • Orbital tourism (e.g., SpaceX’s Crew Dragon) is one part of space tourism, but it is not the only type. Option 4: “Space tourism is restricted to scientific astronauts.”This is incorrect.
  • Unlike traditional space missions where astronauts are trained for research or scientific purposes, space tourism is open to civilian passengers who are not necessarily scientific astronauts.
  • The passengers typically pay for the experience and do not require the extensive training or professional expertise that traditional astronauts do.

Governmentality and Stubble Burning

Syllabus:Ecology

  • A 2025 study by IIM Amritsar presents a critical examination of stubble burning in Punjab, linking it to deeper structural issues of governmentality and market distortions, rather than mere farmer negligence.
  • The research underscores how state policies—especially those around Minimum Support Prices (MSP)—inadvertently incentivize unsustainable agricultural practices.

 

Understanding Governmentality in the Agricultural Context

Coined by Michel Foucault, governmentality refers to the art of governing not just through laws and coercion but by shaping the behavior and rationality of citizens. In agriculture, it manifests in multiple forms:

  1. Neoliberal Governmentality
  • State uses market instruments like MSPs to steer farmer decisions indirectly.
    Example: MSP disproportionately favors paddy and wheat, leading to entrenched monoculture and discouraging crop diversification.
  1. Disciplinary Governmentality
  • Enforcement-based approach with penalties for non-compliance but few incentives or alternatives.
    Example: Punjab imposes fines of up to ₹2.5 lakh for stubble burning without adequate access to sustainable residue management.
  1. Pastoral Governmentality
  • The state projects itself as a caretaker but prioritizes urban-industrial concerns over rural livelihoods.Example: While farm fires are blamed for Delhi’s pollution, industrial PM2.5 emissions remain under-regulated.
  1. Security-Oriented Governmentality
  • Focus on food security leads to overemphasis on paddy and wheat, sidelining environmental sustainability.Example: Punjab produces 35 million tonnes of paddy residue annually with inadequate disposal alternatives.
  1. Market-Driven Governmentality
  • Dominance of arhatias (middlemen) distorts market pricing and access to credit, locking farmers in debt cycles.Example: Farmers receive ₹1,900/quintal for paddy despite open market rates exceeding ₹2,500.

How Governmentality Exacerbates Environmental Degradation

  • MSP-Induced Monoculture: 85% of Punjab’s paddy cultivation is linked to MSP, leaving little scope for ecological farming.
  • Technology Gap: Only 15% of farmers access machines like happy seeders or bio-decomposers, due to inadequate subsidy penetration.
  • Urban Bias in Enforcement: Despite contributing 30% of Delhi’s PM2.5, industries face less scrutiny than farmers.
  • Credit Exploitation: With 60% of farmers in debt (NABARD 2022), burning becomes a cost-effective, though harmful, practice.
  • Token Incentives: Schemes like ₹100/quintal for non-burning behavior reach only 20% of farmers, failing to tackle root causes.

Conclusion

  • Stubble burning is less an act of defiance and more a symptom of policy-induced environmental degradation.
  • Rectifying the crisis demands structural reforms—from revisiting MSP frameworks to establishing stubble-based value chains and eliminating middlemen distortions.
  • A just, inclusive, and ecological agricultural policy is essential to safeguard both rural livelihoods and environmental sustainability.

With reference to stubble burning and the theory of governmentality, consider the following statements:

  1. Neoliberal governmentality in Indian agriculture manifests through market-based tools like the Minimum Support Price (MSP), which indirectly encourage ecologically harmful cropping patterns.
  2. Disciplinary governmentality is exemplified by penal provisions against stubble burning without sufficient institutional or financial support for sustainable alternatives.
  3. Pastoral governmentality reflects the state’s preference for farmers’ welfare over urban environmental concerns by heavily subsidizing residue management machinery.
  4. Security-oriented governmentality prioritizes food security goals but often overlooks long-term ecological consequences of monoculture practices.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 –Correct: MSP acts as a market signal that incentivizes rice-wheat monoculture, particularly in Punjab, contributing to environmental degradation like stubble burning. This aligns with neoliberal governmentality, where the state influences behavior through economic incentives rather than direct orders.
  • Statement 2 – Correct:Fines for stubble burning without providing viable alternatives like Happy Seeders or bio-decomposers is a classic example of disciplinary governmentality, which focuses on compliance rather than empowerment.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect:Pastoral governmentality critiques how the state appears to act in the farmers’ interest, while in reality prioritizing urban-industrial interests, such as Delhi’s air quality, often ignoring the socio-economic conditions of rural communities. There is no evidence of heavy subsidies in this domain; in fact, only a fraction of farmers access such benefits.
  • Statement 4 – Correct:Security-oriented governmentality emphasizes national food security (e.g., through paddy procurement), but neglects the environmental costs of monoculture and residue burning.

Indian Navy Hosted 3rd Edition Of Meghayan-25

Syllabus:Defence

  • The Indian Navy hosted the 3rd edition of its prestigious Meteorological and Oceanological Symposium – Meghayan-25 on April 14, 2025, at Nausena Bhawan, New Delhi.
  • This event, which coincided with the World Meteorological Day 2025, aimed to foster awareness and collaboration in Marine Meteorology and Oceanology.
  • The symposium featured participation from key scientific and defense institutions, and its theme highlighted efforts towards closing gaps in early warning systems.

Key Highlights

  • Event Name: Meghayan-25
  • Organized By: Indian Navy
  • Edition: 3rd
  • Date: April 14, 2025
  • Venue: Nausena Bhawan, New Delhi
  • Occasion: World Meteorological Organization (WMO) Day 2025
  • WMO Day Theme: “Closing the Early Warning Gap Together”

Inauguration and Dignitaries

  • Virtual Inauguration: Admiral Dinesh K Tripathi, Chief of the Naval Staff
  • Presided Over By: Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan, Vice Chief of Naval Staff

Key Attendees:

  • VAdm Tarun Sobti – Deputy Chief of Naval Staff
  • VAdm Lochan Singh Pathania – Chief Hydrographer to Government of India
  • Nilesh Desai – Director, SAC Ahmedabad (Guest of Honour)
  • Mrutyunjay Mohapatra – DG, IMD & Hony Vice President, WMO (Keynote Address)

 

Participating Institutions:

  • India Meteorological Department (IMD)
  • Indian Institute for Tropical Meteorology (IITM)
  • Indian National Center for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
  • National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT)
  • Space Applications Centre (SAC), ISRO
  • Indian Air Force
  • National Maritime Foundation (NMF)
  • IIT Madras

Technical Sessions

  • Session I:
  • Moderator: RAdm G Rambabu (Principal, INA)
  • Focus: Developments in Marine Meteorology and Oceanology
  • Format: Presentations and Q&A
  • Session II:
  • Moderator: Cmde SMU Athar
  • Focus: Statistical Approaches in Weather Forecasting
  • Format: Presentations and Audience Interaction

Panel Discussion:

  • Theme: “Closing the Early Warning Gap Together: Enhancing Maritime Security and Coordination”
  • Moderator: VAdm Pradeep Chauhan (Retd), Director General, NMF
  • Objective: Strategies for Integrated Maritime Safety and Disaster Preparedness

Key Highlights and Launches:

  • Felicitation of Cmde PI Oommen (Retd): Honored as the pioneer of the Navy’s Meteorological Specialisation.

Launch of MOSDAC-IN Web Services:

  • Jointly developed by DNOM and SAC
  • Offers customized satellite-based weather data with individual logins for Naval Met Offices.

Revival of the Sagarmanthan Journal:

  • The 10th edition was launched after a decade-long gap.
  • This symposium aimed to enhance collaboration between defense and scientific bodies to improve maritime safety and weather forecasting, with a focus on bridging gaps in early warning systems and disaster preparedness.

Consider the following statements regarding the Meghayan-25 symposium organized by the Indian Navy:

  1. The symposium was held to mark World Meteorological Day 2025 and focused on closing gaps in early warning systems.
  2. The theme for World Meteorological Day 2025 was “Enhancing Maritime Security and Coordination.”
  3. The symposium featured participation from key defense and scientific institutions, including the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and ISRO’s Space Applications Centre (SAC).
  4. The event included technical sessions focusing on developments in marine meteorology, statistical approaches in weather forecasting, and integrated maritime safety.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1, 3, and 4 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A. 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Meghayan-25 symposium was indeed held to mark World Meteorological Day 2025, with a focus on closing gaps in early warning systems.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The theme for World Meteorological Day 2025 was “Closing the Early Warning Gap Together,” not “Enhancing Maritime Security and Coordination.”
  • Statement 3 is correct: The symposium involved participation from important defense and scientific institutions like IMD, SAC, and others.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The event had technical sessions focusing on developments in marine meteorology, weather forecasting, and integrated maritime safety.

Intermediate-Mass Black Hole (IMBH)

Syllabus:GS3/Space 

 

In the News

  • Indian astronomers have successfully detected and measured an Intermediate-Mass Black Hole (IMBH) in the dwarf spiral galaxy NGC 4395 using the 6-metre Devasthal Optical Telescope (DOT).

About NGC 4395

  • A dwarf spiral galaxy located ~14 million light-years from Earth.
  • It is one of the closest and faintest known Seyfert galaxies, characterized by a low surface brightness.
  • Seyfert Galaxies possess active galactic nuclei (AGNs) powered by supermassive black holes, emitting radiation across the electromagnetic spectrum.
  • The central black hole in NGC 4395 is around 10,000 solar masses.
  • Intermediate-Mass Black Holes (IMBHs)
  • Mass Range: Between stellar-mass and supermassive black holes (approx. 100–100,000 solar masses).
  • Considered the “missing link” in black hole evolution.
  • Serve as seeds for the growth of supermassive black holes, helping explain early universe galaxy formation.

 Why Are IMBHs Hard to Detect?

  • IMBHs emit faint radiation and are often located in small or dim galaxies.
  • Traditional detection methods (like X-ray or radio observation) are less effective.
  • Require advanced instruments and high-precision spectroscopy like that of DOT.

 Key Highlights of the Discovery

  • Offers strong evidence for the size-luminosity relationship in low-luminosity AGNs.
  • Provides one of the most accurate mass estimates of an IMBH to date.
  • The black hole is accreting matter at 6% of its Eddington (theoretical maximum) rate.
  • Marks a significant step forward in understanding black hole growth and galaxy evolution.

About Devasthal Optical Telescope (DOT)

  • Commissioned: 2016
  • Location: Nainital, Uttarakhand
  • Operator: ARIES (Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences)
  • Significance: India’s largest optical telescope, equipped for visible and near-infrared imaging and spectroscopy.
  • A national facility aiding advanced astronomical research.

 Understanding Black Holes

  • A black hole is a space region with gravitational force so intense that not even light can escape.
  • Predicted by Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity (1915).
  • The term “black hole” was coined by John Archibald Wheeler in the 1960s.
  • Typically formed when massive stars collapse post-supernova.

Types of Black Holes

  • Stellar-Mass Black Holes
  • Mass: Few to tens of solar masses
  • Formation: Collapse of massive stars post-supernova
  • Intermediate-Mass Black Holes (IMBHs)
  • Mass: 100 to ~100,000 solar masses
  • Significance: Bridge between stellar and supermassive types
  • Supermassive Black Holes
  • Mass: Hundreds of thousands to billions of solar masses
  • Location: Cores of most galaxies (e.g., Milky Way)

Consider the following statements about the Devasthal Optical Telescope (DOT):

  • It is India’s largest radio telescope located in Ladakh.
  • It is operated by ARIES and specializes in optical and near-infrared observations.
  • It was instrumental in detecting an intermediate-mass black hole in the galaxy NGC 4395.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect (DOT is an optical, not a radio telescope, and it’s in Nainital, not Ladakh).
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct

Shingles Vaccine Can Reduce Risk of Dementia

Syllabus: GS 2/Health 

  • A study conducted in Wales and published in Nature suggests a link between the shingles vaccine and a reduced risk of dementia.
  • Individuals who received the shingles vaccine were found to be about 20% less likely to develop dementia over a seven-year period, compared to those who did not receive the vaccine.
  • The protective effect appeared stronger in women than in men.
  • Shingles, or Herpes Zoster, is caused by the Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV), which also causes chickenpox.
  • After an initial infection, the virus can remain dormant in nerve tissue and may reactivate later in life as shingles.
  • The shingles vaccine is recommended for older adults to prevent this reactivation.
  • Dementia refers to a group of disorders that result in progressive cognitive decline, impacting memory, reasoning, behavior, and the ability to perform daily activities.
  • Common types of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia.
  • Risk factors for dementia include advancing age, hypertension, diabetes, obesity, smoking, alcohol misuse, physical inactivity, social isolation, depression, strokes, infections, and brain injury.
  • The condition places a significant burden on individuals, caregivers, and society. While there is no cure for dementia, management strategies include medication (such as cholinesterase inhibitors and NMDA antagonists), physical and cognitive activities, and controlling associated medical conditions.
  • The recent study’s design allowed researchers to compare dementia rates between groups eligible and ineligible for the shingles vaccine based on birth dates.
  • The findings support the theory that reducing the occurrence of viral infections may contribute to lowering the risk of developing dementia.

With reference to a recent population-based cohort study published in Nature, which examined the association between shingles (Herpes Zoster) vaccination and reduced dementia incidence, consider the following statements:

  1. The use of birth-date-based eligibility in the study strengthens causal inference by minimizing selection bias.
  2. The observed reduction in dementia risk among vaccinated individuals supports the hypothesis that latent viral reactivation may contribute to neurodegeneration.
  3. The findings conclusively establish that shingles vaccination can prevent all forms of dementia across demographic groups.
  4. The effect observed was sex-neutral, indicating similar vaccine efficacy across genders.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct :The study design used birth-date-based eligibility to determine who received the vaccine. This is a form of a quasi-experimental design that can reduce selection bias, as eligibility is externally assigned and not based on individual choice, helping approximate causal inference.

Statement 2: Correct: The study suggests a plausible biological mechanism: latent VZV reactivation may contribute to chronic neuroinflammation, which is a known contributor to neurodegenerative conditions like dementia. Preventing shingles reactivation could therefore have indirect neuroprotective effects.

Statement 3: Incorrect:The study does not conclusively establish prevention of all dementia types. It’s observational, shows association not causation, and was based on a specific demographic (those eligible for the vaccine by age). Dementia is multifactorial, and no vaccine offers universal protection.

Statement 4: Incorrect: The findings were more pronounced in women than in men, suggesting gender differences in response to vaccination or in baseline dementia risk—possibly due to differences in immunity, behavior, or reporting.

Palna Scheme Under Mission Shakti

Syllabus: GS2/ Health

Context:

  • The Palna Scheme addresses the pressing childcare needs of working mothers by offering quality crèche services, thereby facilitating their participation in the workforce without compromising the well-being of their children.
  • The scheme also contributes to the recognition and formalization of unpaid care work, aligning with Sustainable Development Goal 8 – promoting decent work and economic growth.

About the Scheme:

  • Launched in 2022, the Palna Scheme is the restructured version of the erstwhile National Crèche Scheme.
  • It functions under the ‘Samarthya’ sub-scheme of the umbrella programme ‘Mission Shakti’.
  • The scheme is Centrally Sponsored, with a Centre-State funding pattern:
  • 60:40 for States and UTs with legislature.
  • 90:10 for North-Eastern and Special Category States.
  • 100% Central assistance for UTs without legislature.
  • It ensures active participation of States/UTs to strengthen implementation, monitoring, and accountability.

Objectives:

  • To provide safe, secure, and high-quality crèche services for children aged 6 months to 6 years.
  • To support the nutritional needs, health, and early cognitive development of children.
  • To facilitate growth monitoring, immunization, and other essential early childhood services.
  • The scheme is universal in access, providing services to all mothers, regardless of their employment status.

With reference to the Palna Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It is implemented under the Samarthya sub-scheme of Mission Shakti.
  2. The scheme is applicable only to mothers who are engaged in formal employment.
  3. For UTs without legislatures, the entire cost is borne by the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Palna is a sub-component of ‘Samarthya’, which is a sub-scheme under ‘Mission Shakti’.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Crèche services are available to all mothers, irrespective of employment status.
  • Statement 3 is correct: For UTs without legislature, the scheme is 100% centrally funded

World Homeopathy Day 2025 Date, Significance, Background

Syllabus:Health

Overview:

  • World Homeopathy Day is observed annually on April 10 to commemorate the birth anniversary of Christian Friedrich Samuel Hahnemann, the German physician and founder of homeopathy.
  • The day serves to acknowledge homeopathy’s contributions to holistic and integrative healthcare, while encouraging scientific discourse, public awareness, and policy engagement.

 

Significance and Purpose

  • Historical Relevance: Honors Dr. Hahnemann, who pioneered homeopathy in the late 18th century based on the core principle of “Similia Similibus Curentur” (like cures like).
  • Healthcare Contribution: Highlights homeopathy’s role as a complementary medical system focused on natural, non-invasive, and patient-centric healing.
  • Global Impact: Over 200 million people worldwide, particularly in India, utilize homeopathic treatments for a wide range of ailments.

 

Core Principles of Homeopathy

  • Philosophy: Treats patients using highly diluted substances that stimulate the body’s natural healing mechanisms.
  • Sources of Remedies: Derived from plants, minerals, animals, and synthetic compounds.
  • Treatment Approach: Aims to address the root cause of illness, focusing on the mind-body connection.

Objectives of World Homeopathy Day

AwarenessGeneration: Educates the public about the efficacy, safety, and scope of homeopathy in modern healthcare.

ScientificAdvancement: Encourages research, clinical validation, and evidence-based practice through academic and institutional collaboration.

Healthcare:Integration: Promotes dialogue for synergizing homeopathy with conventional medicine to ensure comprehensive patient care.

Myth:Busting: Addresses misconceptions and counters misinformation regarding homeopathy’s effectiveness and scientific basis.

 

Key Activities and Events (2025)

  • Health Camps: Free consultations and distribution of homeopathic remedies.
  • Workshops and Webinars: Expert-led sessions on treatment principles and patient outcomes.
  • Educational Campaigns: Outreach programs in schools and colleges to inform youth.
  • Recognition Programs: Awards for distinguished contributions by homeopathic practitioners and researchers.

Community Engagement:

  • “Plant a Medicinal Garden” initiative to promote herbal awareness.
  • Student Competitions to foster academic interest in holistic medicine.
  • Social Media Campaigns using hashtags like #WorldHomeopathyDay.

 

Ways to Participate

  • Organize Public Seminars or community events on holistic health.
  • Offer Free Check-ups at local clinics to encourage first-time users.
  • Launch Digital Awareness Campaigns featuring patient testimonials and expert interviews.
  • Collaborate with Healthcare Influencers to amplify reach and trust.
  • Involve Youth through quizzes, essay contests, and science projects on homeopathy.

 

Conclusion

  • World Homeopathy Day is not only a tribute to Dr. Hahnemann’s legacy but also a platform to re-evaluate homeopathy’s role in 21st-century healthcare.
  • By fostering public awareness, encouraging interdisciplinary research, and promoting inclusive health policies, the day underscores the enduring relevance of holistic healing in a scientifically evolving world.

With reference to World Homeopathy Day, consider the following statements:

  1. It is celebrated annually on April 10 to commemorate the birth anniversary of Dr. Edward Bach.
  2. Homeopathy follows the principle of “like cures like.”
  3. India is the country with the largest number of homeopathy users globally.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect; World Homeopathy Day is celebrated on April 10 in honor of Dr. Samuel Hahnemann, not Edward Bach.
  • Statement 2 is correct; homeopathy is based on the principle of “like cures like.”
  • Statement 3 is also correct; India has the largest number of homeopathy users.

Launch of the ‘Inter-AIIMS Referral Portal’ for Seamless Healthcare Management

Syllabus: Health

In a significant stride toward transforming India’s public healthcare ecosystem, the Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare, J.P. Nadda, launched the Inter-AIIMS Referral Portal, an indigenously developed digital platform by AIIMS New Delhi. The portal seeks to streamline patient referrals, enhance healthcare delivery, and minimize administrative delays through cutting-edge digital integration.

Core Objectives and Vision

  • Purpose: To modernize and digitize the referral mechanism between AIIMS institutions for seamless, secure, and efficient patient transfers.
  • Institutional Development: Developed in-house by AIIMS New Delhi as a scalable model for replication across India’s AIIMS network.
  • Governance Alignment: Part of the Ministry of Health’s broader digital health transformation agenda.

Key Features and Technological Innovations

  • Facial Recognition: Facilitates secure patient identification and automates check-in/out processes.
  • Automated Workflows: Minimizes human error and accelerates case management, improving turnaround times for referrals.
  • Integrated Communication: Enables authorized medical staff to manage referrals, schedule slots, and communicate across AIIMS centers via a centralized system.
  • Patient-Centric Interface: Offers patients real-time clarity on referral status and treatment schedules, improving transparency and trust.

Pilot Implementation and Future Expansion

  • Pilot Sites: The initial rollout links AIIMS New Delhi and AIIMS Bilaspur, allowing for protocol testing and system optimization.
  • Scalability: Based on pilot feedback, the portal is intended for pan-AIIMS integration, forming a nationwide digital referral network within centrally governed healthcare institutions.

Complementary Facilities and Patient Support

  • Vishram Sadan Integration: The portal will connect with the Vishram Sadan system, offering affordable accommodation options for patients and their families during prolonged treatment periods.
  • Reduced Waiting Times: Automated referrals and slot allocation systems are expected to substantially reduce patient wait periods, improving clinical outcomes and satisfaction.

Strategic Impact

  • Digital Health Infrastructure: Strengthens India’s e-health backbone, especially within the tertiary care network.
  • Efficiency and Transparency: Promotes data-driven decision-making, real-time case tracking, and institutional accountability.
  • Inclusive Access: Enhances the reach and equity of high-quality medical care through digital innovation, especially for inter-state and rural patients.

With reference to India’s public health digital infrastructure, consider the following statements regarding the Inter-AIIMS Referral Portal:

  1. It is part of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).
  2. It enables patient referrals only within states.
  3. It allows integration with Vishram Sadan to support accommodation for patients.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C. 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not under ABDM but a standalone initiative by AIIMS and MoHFW.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It allows inter-state referrals across AIIMS institutions.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The portal integrates with Vishram Sadan for patient accommodation.

 

Delay in Reporting Births and Deaths Data

Syllabus: GS2/ Governance, Health

In News

  • The Civil Registration System (CRS), responsible for recording births and deaths in India, is currently experiencing implementation issues, resulting in delays in issuing digital certificates.

 

About Civil Registration System (CRS) App

  • Developed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (under the Ministry of Home Affairs), the CRS mobile application aims to streamline and accelerate the registration process for births and deaths across the country.
  • Digital Mandate: As per the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, all births and deaths occurring from October 1, 2023, onwards must be digitally registered.
  • Single Document Utility: Digital birth certificates will now serve as a unified proof of date of birth for key services, including:
  • School and college admissions
  • Government recruitment
  • Marriage registration
  • Voter list inclusion
  • Centralized Database Integration: The digital records will feed into and help update several national databases such as:
  • National Population Register (NPR)
  • Ration card system
  • Electoral rolls
  • Property registration records

 

National Population Register (NPR)

  • NPR is the precursor to the National Register of Citizens (NRC) under the Citizenship Act.
  • Initially compiled in 2010 and updated in 2015, NPR currently holds data of over 119 crore residents.

 

Key Provisions of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023

  • Amends: The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
  • National Database: The Registrar General of India is tasked with maintaining a centralized, national database of registered births and deaths.
  • Data Sharing:
  • Chief Registrars and local Registrars (appointed by states) must transmit their data to the central registry.
  • The centralized data may be shared with other national databases such as NPR, electoral rolls, and any other database notified by the Central Government.

 

Expanded Utility of Digital Birth Certificates: These will serve as a standardized proof of age for:

  • Admissions to educational institutions
  • Voter registration
  • Employment in government posts
  • Any other official use as prescribed by the government

 

Mandatory Digital Records: All reported births and deaths across India must be recorded digitally.

 

Implementation Challenges

  • Delayed Reporting by Institutions: Hospitals and healthcare providers are not uploading data in real time, creating processing backlogs.
  • Technical and Systemic Glitches: Full-scale integration across state platforms and institutions is yet to be achieved.

Lack of Training and Infrastructure:

  • Registration officials and hospital staff require better training on digital tools.
  • Infrastructure deficits are hampering real-time data capture.

 

Way Forward

  • Data Security & Privacy: Implement robust cybersecurity protocols to safeguard sensitive personal data.
  • Institutional Accountability: Introduce monitoring mechanisms and penalties for non-compliance or delayed data reporting.
  • Capacity Building: Launch targeted training programs for hospital administrators, local registrars, and government personnel to enhance digital registration efficiency.

With reference to the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

  1. The Chief Registrars and local Registrars are constitutionally obligated to share data with the national database.
  2. Digital birth certificates issued under the Act shall be considered valid proof for appointment to government posts.
  3. The Act mandates the establishment of separate databases for births and deaths at state and central levels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: They are statutorily (not constitutionally) obligated, and the Act mandates data sharing with the national database.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Digital birth certificates are valid for government appointments, among other uses.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act mandates a single centralized national database, not separate ones.

Exercise INDRA 2025

Syllabus: GS3/Defence

 

Context:
The 14th edition of the India–Russia bilateral naval exercise, INDRA 2025, was recently concluded.

 

Overview:
The exercise featured complex maritime drills aimed at enhancing operational synergy between the navies of India and Russia. It focused on strengthening interoperability for addressing shared maritime security challenges.

Background:
Initiated in 2003, the INDRA series has evolved into a pivotal component of India–Russia defence cooperation. The exercise underscores the strategic commitment of both nations to safeguard maritime domains through joint preparedness and collaborative frameworks against emerging threats at sea.

With reference to the India–Russia bilateral naval exercise INDRA, consider the following statements:

  1. The INDRA exercises began as army-only exercises and later expanded to include naval and air components.
  2. One of the core objectives of the INDRA series is to enhance interoperability between India and Russia for countering asymmetric threats in maritime domains.
  3. The INDRA exercises are conducted annually with alternating host nations.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The INDRA exercises initially began as army-level drills and were later expanded to include tri-services, i.e., naval and air components, reflecting a comprehensive security approach.

Statement 2 is correct: The key focus of INDRA exercises includes countering common threats, including asymmetric and non-traditional threats like piracy, terrorism, and smuggling in maritime spaces.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The exercise is not held annually with strict alternation of host nations. The frequency and venue have varied depending on diplomatic and logistical considerations.

Military Space Doctrine

MCQ 1. With reference to India’s proposed Military Space Doctrine, consider the following statements:

  1. It is being developed to counter emerging threats such as anti-satellite weapons and electronic warfare.
  2. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the nodal agency responsible for its formulation.
  3. It seeks to promote a “space culture” within the defense establishment, including the development of indigenous space laws.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine addresses threats like ASAT weapons and jamming.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Defence Space Agency (DSA), not ISRO, is responsible for the doctrine.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The doctrine aims to develop a “space culture” including laws and indigenous research.

MCQ  2 . With reference to India’s proposed Military Space Doctrine, consider the following statements:

  1. It is being developed to counter emerging threats such as anti-satellite weapons and electronic warfare.
  2. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the nodal agency responsible for its formulation.
  3. It seeks to promote a “space culture” within the defense establishment, including the development of indigenous space laws.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine addresses threats like ASAT weapons and jamming.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Defence Space Agency (DSA), not ISRO, is responsible for the doctrine.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The doctrine aims to develop a “space culture” including laws and indigenous research.

Fluoride Pollution Crisis in Sonbhadra

Syllabus: GS2/Health

 

Context:

  • Reports indicate severe fluoride poisoning in the groundwater of Sonbhadra district, Uttar Pradesh, with fluoride levels 5 to 6 times higher than the permissible limit.

 

About Fluoride:

  • Naturally occurring, non-biodegradable pollutant found in minerals, soil, water, and air.
  • Also released as a byproduct during the burning of coal bricks.
  • World Health Organization (WHO) limit: Maximum safe fluoride concentration in drinking water is 5 mg/L.

 

Health Impacts:

  • Beneficial in safe doses: Strengthens teeth and bones, preventing decay.
  • Harmful in excess: Leads to dental and skeletal fluorosis, causing joint pain, bone deformities, and stiffness.

 

Environmental Risks:

  • Affects wildlife and ecosystems, disrupting biodiversity and aquatic life.

In the context of groundwater contamination in Sonbhadra, Uttar Pradesh, consider the following statements:

  1. Fluoride contamination in groundwater is exclusively due to industrial discharge.
  2. Excess fluoride intake can lead to skeletal fluorosis but has no impact on dental health.
  3. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends a maximum fluoride concentration of 1.5 mg/L in drinking water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While industrial discharge can contribute to fluoride pollution, natural geological sources and coal brick burning are also major causes of fluoride contamination in groundwater.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Fluoride toxicity causes both skeletal fluorosis (bone deformities and joint stiffness) and dental fluorosis (discoloration and damage to teeth enamel).

Statement 3 is correct: WHO prescribes a maximum safe fluoride level of 1.5 mg/L in drinking water.

World Health Day 2025

Syllabus:Science

Date: April 7, 2025
Theme: Healthy Beginnings, Hopeful Futures

What is World Health Day?

  • World Health Day is observed every year on April 7 to mark the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948.
  • It serves as a global platform to raise awareness about critical public health issues and inspire action from governments, health institutions, and individuals worldwide.
  • Each year, WHO selects a theme that highlights urgent health priorities, promoting collaboration and policy-level engagement across countries.

Theme 2025: Healthy Beginnings, Hopeful Futures

  • This year’s theme focuses on maternal and newborn health, underscoring the importance of starting life with care and safety. The campaign aims to:
  • Reduce preventable maternal and neonatal deaths
  • Improve health outcomes during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postnatal period
  • Promote equitable, quality healthcare for mothers and infants, especially in low-resource areas

 

Core message: A healthy life begins with a safe birth and continuous maternal care.

The Global Urgency

WHO data highlights a pressing crisis in maternal and newborn health:

  • Around 300,000 women die each year from pregnancy-related complications
  • Two million newborns die within their first month of life
  • Two million stillbirths occur annually, many of which are preventable
  • One preventable maternal or infant death happens every seven seconds

 

Current trends show:

  • 80 percent of countries are not on track to meet the 2030 target for reducing maternal mortality
  • 33 percent of countries are expected to miss targets for reducing newborn deaths

Why It Matters

Improving maternal and newborn health is essential for:

  • Lowering infant and maternal mortality rates
  • Building healthier families and communities
  • Strengthening economic development and social stability

Key Strategies to Improve Outcomes

WHO recommends a set of proven interventions to boost maternal and newborn health:

  • Antenatal care: Regular check-ups to identify and manage complications early
  • Nutrition and lifestyle education: Avoiding tobacco and alcohol, encouraging balanced diets
  • Mental health support: Addressing postpartum depression and stress
  • Skilled birth attendance: Ensuring qualified health professionals assist during childbirth
  • Postnatal services: Providing newborn care, breastfeeding support, vaccinations, and maternal recovery

 

Global Call to Action

The 2025 campaign calls on stakeholders to:

  • Integrate maternal and newborn health into national health policies
  • Invest in healthcare infrastructure, especially in underserved regions
  • Raise public awareness through education and media engagement
  • Build partnerships across sectors to improve healthcare access and delivery

 

Conclusion

  • World Health Day 2025 is not just a commemoration—it is a call to action. Ensuring Healthy Beginnings is the first step toward building Hopeful Futures.
  • No woman or child should lose their life to preventable causes. Together, we can create a world where every mother and newborn has the right to a healthy start.

Consider the following statements with reference to maternal and newborn health statistics presented by WHO:

  1. More than 2 million newborns die each year within their first month of life.
  2. Stillbirths are often preventable and number over 2 million annually.
  3. A preventable maternal or infant death occurs every 30 seconds globally.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect. The text specifies that one preventable maternal or infant death occurs every 7 seconds, not 30. Statements 1 and 2 are supported by WHO data cited for the 2025 campaign.

Axiom Mission 4

  • Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla, an Indian Air Force pilot and astronaut, will represent India as the pilot of Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4)—a landmark international private spaceflight mission to the International Space Station (ISS).

 

About Axiom Space Missions

  • Axiom Mission 1 (Ax-1): The first fully private crewed mission to the ISS.
  • Axiom Mission 2 (Ax-2): Included the first Saudi female astronaut.
  • Axiom Mission 3 (Ax-3): Featured the first astronauts from Turkey and the European Space Agency (ESA) on a commercial flight.
  • Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4): Scheduled for 2024, the mission marks India’s debut in a commercial human spaceflight collaboration.

Ax-4 Crew Composition

Commander: Peggy Whitson (Former NASA astronaut)

Pilot: Shubhanshu Shukla (India)

 

Mission Specialists:

  • Sławosz Uznański-Wiśniewski (Poland)
  • Tibor Kapu (Hungary)
  • The crew will spend 14 days aboard the ISS, conducting over 60 scientific experiments in microgravity.

 

ISRO’s Contribution to Ax-4

  • Under this mission, ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) will contribute a suite of microgravity research experiments, focusing on:
  • Human physiology in space: Effects on cognitive functions and visual interaction with digital screens
  • Skeletal muscle changes: Investigating space-induced muscle dysfunction
  • Agricultural biology: Plant growth and seed germination behavior in microgravity.

 

Global Collaboration

  • Ax-4 exemplifies international partnership in space science, with active participation from:
  • India (ISRO)
  • United States (NASA)
  • Europe (ESA support for Poland and Hungary)
  • This cooperation advances our understanding of life sciences in space and strengthens India’s growing presence in human spaceflight research.

 

Significance

  • The mission is a milestone in India’s space journey:
  • It marks India’s first astronaut aboard a commercial international spaceflight.
  • It showcases ISRO’s scientific research on a global platform.
  • It reinforces the value of international collaboration in advancing space-based science and innovation.

With reference to the Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4), consider the following statements:

  1. It is the first human spaceflight mission involving collaboration between ISRO, NASA, and ESA.
  2. The mission will carry out scientific research exclusively in the field of biotechnology.
  3. Ax-4 will be commanded by an Indian astronaut for the first time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None

Answer: A. 1 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Ax-4 brings together ISRO, NASA, and ESA in a shared microgravity research initiative, marking a collaborative milestone.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Research on Ax-4 spans multiple domains, including human health, cognitive science, muscle physiology, and agriculture—not limited to biotechnology.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The mission is commanded by Peggy Whitson, a former NASA astronaut; Shubhanshu Shukla is the pilot, not the commander.

9K33 Osa-AK Missile System

                   

  • The Indian Army’s Air Defence warriors from the White Tiger Division have successfully demonstrated their operational readiness and technical expertise during a recent live missile-firing exercise.
  • The exercise involved the firing of the 9K33 Osa-AK missile system, reaffirming the Army’s capability to counter aerial threats in dynamic combat environments.

9K33 Osa-AK Missile System: An Overview

  • The 9K33 Osa-AK is a Russian-built, highly mobile, low-altitude, short-range tactical surface-to-air missile system. Initially developed in the 1960s and officially inducted by the Soviet Union in 1972, the system continues to serve as a critical air defence asset for multiple nations, including India.
  • In NATO classification, the Osa-AK is designated as “SA-8 Gecko.”
  • It is designed for rapid deployment, capable of engaging low-flying enemy aircraft, helicopters, drones, and cruise missiles.

Key Features of the 9K33 Osa-AK System

All-in-One Combat System

  • The Osa-AK integrates its radar, launcher, and missile control system into a single highly mobile platform.
  • This transporter-erector-launcher and radar (TELAR) setup allows it to independently detect, track, and engage aerial threats without external radar support.

 

Missile Capabilities

  • The system carries six ready-to-fire missiles mounted on the vehicle’s roof.
  • It can engage targets at a maximum range of 12 km with high precision.

Mobility and Deployment

  • The Osa-AK is highly mobile and designed to respond swiftly to evolving battlefield conditions.
  • It has a road range of approximately 500 km, allowing rapid relocation across different theatres of operation.
  • It is fully amphibious and can operate in diverse terrains, including desert, mountainous, and urban landscapes.

Survivability and Protection

  • The vehicle has nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) protection to ensure operational capability in hostile environments.
  • It accommodates a crew of up to five personnel, ensuring efficient command and control.

Strategic Air Defence Role

  • The Osa-AK enhances India’s integrated air defence network by providing a responsive, mobile, and versatile counter-air capability.
  • It is designed to counter modern aerial threats, including low-flying aircraft and unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs).

Operational Significance for India

  • The live missile-firing drill underscores the Indian Army’s commitment to strengthening its air defence capabilities amid evolving security threats.
  • The Osa-AK system’s proven reliability in various conflict zones makes it a crucial asset in India’s military modernization efforts.
  • Its rapid deployment ability ensures effective protection of critical infrastructure and frontline military formations.
  • By successfully conducting this live-fire exercise, the Indian Army has reaffirmed its ability to neutralize airborne threats and maintain a robust defensive posture in modern warfare scenarios.

INS Tarini

 

  • The Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini has successfully arrived in Cape Town, South Africa, marking the fourth and final international stop in its global circumnavigation expedition, Navika Sagar Parikrama II.

 

INSV Tarini: A Symbol of India’s Maritime Prowess

  • Type: Indigenously built, 56-foot sailing vessel
  • Commissioned: February 2017
  • Built by: Aquarius Shipyard Ltd., Goa, under the Make in India initiative

 

Advanced Features:

  • Equipped with a Raymarine navigation suite
  • Satellite communication systems for real-time tracking
  • Emergency steering mechanisms to ensure operational efficiency in extreme conditions

 

Symbolic Significance:

  • Named after the Tara-Tarini hill shrine in Odisha, a revered maritime pilgrimage site for sailors
  • In Sanskrit, ‘Tarini’ translates to both ‘boat’ and ‘saviour’

Navika Sagar Parikrama II: India’s Global Maritime Expedition

  • Flagged off: October 2, 2024, from Goa by Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi, Chief of the Naval Staff
  • Objective: To promote women’s empowerment in ocean sailing and enhance India’s naval presence globally
  • Distance Covered: 23,400 nautical miles (~43,300 km)
  • Oceans Crossed: Three major oceans (Indian, Pacific, Atlantic)

Strategic Route:

  • Fremantle, Australia
  • Lyttelton, New Zealand
  • Port Stanley, Falkland Islands (UK)
  • Cape Town, South Africa (final stop before returning to India)

Which of the following factors make INSV Tarini suitable for extreme maritime expeditions?

  1. It has an advanced Raymarine navigation suite for real-time tracking.
    2. It is equipped with a self-righting hull design to withstand rough seas.
    3. The vessel is powered by a hybrid solar-wind propulsion system to ensure sustainability.
    4. It has emergency steering mechanisms for enhanced operational efficiency.

Select the correct option:

(A) 1, 2, and 4 only
(B) 1, 3, and 4 only
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

 

Explanation:
INSV Tarini is equipped with advanced Raymarine navigation, emergency steering mechanisms, and self-righting hull design, making it highly suitable for global expeditions. However, option (3) is incorrect as the vessel does not use a hybrid solar-wind propulsion system—it relies on traditional sailing techniques.

DRDO’s Breakthrough: India Advances Hypersonic Propulsion

Syllabus: GS3/Science & Technology; Defence

The Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), a unit of DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation), has successfully conducted a ground test of an Active-Cooled Scramjet Subscale Combustor for over 1000 seconds. This milestone is a crucial step in advancing India’s hypersonic weapon technology.

 

About Hypersonic Propulsion Technology:

Hypersonic propulsion technology is at the forefront of aerospace engineering, enabling vehicles to travel at speeds exceeding Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound). This technology is primarily used in hypersonic cruise missiles and advanced aerospace systems.

Key Features of Hypersonic Propulsion Technology:

  • Air-Breathing Engines: Hypersonic vehicles use Scramjet (Supersonic Combustion Ramjet) engines that rely on atmospheric oxygen for combustion, rather than carrying onboard oxidizers. This makes them more efficient for sustained high-speed flight.
  • Scramjet Engine: A Scramjet is an air-breathing engine that efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds by allowing supersonic combustion of incoming air.
  • Key Difference from Ramjet: In a Ramjet, the air slows down to subsonic speeds before combustion. In contrast, in a Scramjet, the air remains supersonic throughout the combustion process, enabling higher speeds.
  • Working Principle: Scramjets use the vehicle’s forward motion to compress incoming air, eliminating the need for rotating compressors.
  • India became the fourth country, after the USA, Russia, and China, to demonstrate flight testing of a Scramjet engine.

 

Significance of the Scramjet Engine Test:

  • Validation of Long-Duration Supersonic Combustion: The successful test validates the design and efficiency of the scramjet combustor, ensuring that it can sustain high-speed flight capabilities for extended periods.
  • Incremental Advancements: The test follows a successful 120-second test conducted earlier in January, showcasing incremental progress toward more advanced hypersonic technology.
  • Strengthening India’s Hypersonic Missile Program: Scramjet engines facilitate air-breathing propulsion, which reduces reliance on onboard oxidizers and significantly enhances the missile’s range and performance.
  • Paving the Way for Full-Scale Flight Testing: The success of this test is a critical step toward the full-scale flight testing of hypersonic cruise missiles, strengthening India’s position in the global hypersonic missile race.

Consider the following statements regarding Hypersonic Propulsion Technology and the recent developments in India’s DRDO research:

  1. DRDL (Defence Research and Development Laboratory) recently conducted a successful ground test of an Active-Cooled Scramjet Subscale Combustor for over 1000 seconds, marking a key milestone for India’s hypersonic weapon program.
  2. Hypersonic propulsion technology primarily uses air-breathing engines such as Scramjets, which rely on onboard oxidizers to achieve sustained high-speed flight.
  3. A Scramjet engine is more efficient than a traditional Ramjet engine because it allows supersonic combustion of air, unlike Ramjets that slow the incoming air to subsonic speeds before combustion.
  4. With the successful test, India became the fifth country after the USA, Russia, China, and Japan to demonstrate flight testing of a Scramjet engine.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct – DRDL successfully tested an Active-Cooled Scramjet Subscale Combustor, marking an important step for hypersonic weapon technology in India.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – Scramjet engines do not use onboard oxidizers; they rely on atmospheric oxygen for combustion.
  • Statement 3 is correct – In Scramjets, air remains supersonic throughout combustion, unlike Ramjets, which slow down the air to subsonic speeds before combustion.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect – India became the fourth country to demonstrate a Scramjet engine after the USA, Russia, and China, not the fifth.

Line of Control (LoC)

Syllabus: GS3/ Defence

  • The Indian Army recently reported incidents of small arms firing along the Line of Control (LoC) at several locations in Jammu and Kashmir, including Kupwara in the Kashmir Valley.

 

About the LoC:

  • The Line of Control (LoC) serves as the military boundary between Pakistan-Occupied Kashmir (POK) and the Indian-administered regions of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. Established following the 1972 Simla Agreement, the LoC is a military line that was agreed upon bilaterally but is not recognized as an official international border.
  • The current LoC has its origins in the first Ceasefire Line (CFL), which was drawn after the India-Pakistan war of 1947-48. A UN-brokered ceasefire was declared in 1949, and the subsequent 1949 Karachi Agreement formalized the points that defined the de facto boundary between the two countries in Jammu and Kashmir.

Consider the following statements regarding the Line of Control (LoC):

  1. The LoC came into being after the 1972 Simla Agreement between India and Pakistan.
  2. The LoC is a legally recognized international border between India and Pakistan.
  3. The 1949 Karachi Agreement demarcated the de facto boundary between India and Pakistan in Jammu and Kashmir.
  4. The current LoC originates from the first Cease-Fire Line (CFL) established after the 1947 India-Pakistan war.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 3, and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 3, and 2 only

Answer: (a) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – The LoC was formalized following the 1972 Simla Agreement between India and Pakistan.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect – The LoC is not a legally recognized international border but a military line agreed bilaterally between India and Pakistan.
  • Statement 3: Correct – The 1949 Karachi Agreement between India and Pakistan defined the de facto boundary in Jammu and Kashmir after a UN-brokered ceasefire.
  • Statement 4: Correct – The current LoC originates from the Ceasefire Line (CFL) established after the 1947 India-Pakistan war.

National Supercomputing Mission

Syllabus: GS3(Science and Tech)

Overview

  • Launched in 2015, the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) is a flagship initiative of the Government of India aimed at building high-performance computing (HPC) capabilities and fostering indigenous supercomputing infrastructure.
  • It is jointly steered by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST), and implemented by C-DAC, Pune and IISc Bengaluru.

Key Objectives

  • Enhance India’s capability in scientific research, innovation, and industrial applications using supercomputing.
  • Foster indigenous development in hardware and software for HPC systems.
  • Build human resource capacity in HPC and AI across the country.
  • Enable R&D across Tier I, II, and III academic and research institutions.

Achievements (As of March 2025)

  • 34 supercomputers installed with a total computing capacity of 35 Petaflops across premier institutions including IITs, IISc, and C-DAC.
  • Over 10,000 researchers including 1,700+ PhD scholars supported across 200+ institutions.
  • Over 1 crore compute jobs processed and 1,500+ research papers
  • 85%+ utilization rate, with many systems exceeding 95% efficiency.
  • More than 22,000 trained in HPC and AI.
  • Active participation from startups and MSMEs in leveraging HPC for innovation.

Major Deployments

  • Param Shivay (2019) – First indigenously built system, IIT-BHU.
  • Param Pravega (2022) – 3.3 PF system at IISc Bengaluru; largest in an Indian academic institution.
  • PARAM Rudra Series (2024) – Deployed in Pune, Delhi, and Kolkata; built with indigenous “Rudra” HPC-class servers and software.

Key Innovations

  • Trinetra Network – Indigenous high-speed interconnect for supercomputers:
  • Trinetra-A (100 Gbps) – Deployed in 1 PF PARAM Rudra, Pune.
  • Trinetra-B (200 Gbps) – To power upcoming 20 PF system at Bangalore.
  • AIRAWAT AI Supercomputing Platform:
  • 200 AI Petaflops, scalable to 790 AI Petaflops.
  • Ranked 75th in Top 500 Global Supercomputers (ISC 2023).
  • Common AI compute infrastructure for research, start-ups, and industry.

Mission Phases

  • Phase I: Basic systems with partial domestic assembly.
  • Phase II: Indigenous manufacturing of components; 40% value addition.
  • Phase III: Full indigenization of design, development, and deployment.

Human Resource Development (HRD)

  • Training centers established in Pune, Kharagpur, Chennai, Palakkad, and Goa.
  • Focus on awareness, capacity-building, and skill development in HPC and AI.

Budget and Investment

  • 1874 crore allocated for infrastructure, R&D, HRD, and mission operations.
  • Target to deploy ~45 additional Petaflops by 2025 using indigenous technologies.

Strengthening through India Semiconductor Mission (ISM)

  • ISM supports domestic manufacturing of critical supercomputing components—processors, memory, accelerators—reducing dependence on imports.
  • This synergy boosts speed, affordability, and customization of supercomputers for national needs.

Conclusion

  • The NSM is a transformative step toward India’s technological sovereignty in supercomputing. With strategic focus on indigenization, research empowerment, and global competitiveness, the mission positions India as a leading force in the High-Performance Computing (HPC) domain and ensures preparedness for emerging scientific challenges.

Which of the following statements regarding the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) are correct?

  1. NSM was launched to enhance India’s technological self-reliance in the field of high-performance computing (HPC).
  2. The NSM is being implemented solely by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
  3. Trinetra, developed under NSM, is a high-speed communication network that supports supercomputing infrastructure across the country.
  4. The NSM Phase III focuses on complete indigenization of HPC systems, including the design, development, and manufacturing of key components in India.

 (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) All of the above

Answer:

(c) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The NSM was launched to make India self-reliant in supercomputing, and it enhances the country’s ability to tackle grand challenges in scientific research and technology.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: While the NSM is steered by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST), it is implemented jointly by C-DAC and IISc Bengaluru, not solely by MeitY.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Trinetra is an indigenous high-speed communication network developed under NSM to enhance data transfer between supercomputing nodes.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Phase III of the NSM focuses on the complete indigenization of HPC, including the domestic design and manufacturing of critical components.

In 2024, India’s military expenditure was nine times that of Pak.: SIPRI

Syllabus: Defence

  • India’s Military Expenditure in 2024: A Comparative Analysis with Pakistan
  • According to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), India’s military expenditure in 2024 was approximately $86.1 billion, marking a 1.6% increase from the previous year.
  • This positions India as the fifth-largest military spender globally. In stark contrast, Pakistan’s defense budget stood at $10.2 billion, making it the 29th largest spender. This disparity indicates that India’s military spending was nearly nine times greater than Pakistan’s in 2024.
  • The top five military spenders globally in 2024 were:​
  • United States – $997 billion
  • China – $314 billion
  • Russia – $149 billion
  • Germany – $88.5 billion
  • India – $86.1 billion​
  • Collectively, these five nations accounted for 60% of the global military expenditure, totaling $1,635 billion. ​
  • In the context of South Asia, India’s defense spending significantly outpaces that of its neighbors. While India has been focusing on modernizing its military capabilities, Pakistan’s defense budget remains limited, reflecting the broader economic and strategic challenges faced by the country.​
  • This substantial difference in military expenditure underscores the varying defense priorities and capabilities within the region. India’s investment in defense modernization is part of its broader strategy to enhance its geopolitical influence and address security concerns, particularly in the Indo-Pacific region.

With reference to the “Trends in World Military Expenditure 2024” report by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), consider the following statements:

  1. India ranked among the top five global military spenders, with its expenditure nearly nine times that of Pakistan.
  2. In 2024, China accounted for over half of Asia and Oceania’s total military expenditure, marking its 30th consecutive year of increase.
  3. Ukraine’s military spending in 2024 was higher than that of Russia, given the ongoing conflict and foreign assistance.
  4. The United States remained the highest military spender globally, accounting for more than half of global military expenditure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – India’s military spending stood at $86.1 billion, nearly nine times that of Pakistan’s $10.2 billion, placing it 5th globally.
  • Statement 2: Correct – China’s expenditure reached $314 billion, marking three decades of consistent growth and constituting 50% of Asia and Oceania’s total military outlay.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – Although Ukraine spent $64.7 billion, this was still only 43% of Russia’s spending ($149 billion).
  • Statement 4: Incorrect – The U.S. topped global spending but accounted for less than 50% of the total global defense expenditure (~60% shared among top five).

Bio-Input Resource Centres

Syllabus:Science

Context: The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has introduced guidelines for establishing Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) to promote natural farming under the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF).

 

About Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs)

  • BRCs are cluster-level enterprises that provide farmers with locally prepared natural farming inputs, such as bio-fertilizers, bio-pesticides, and organic formulations.
  • They also function as knowledge hubs, offering training and guidance to farmers transitioning to natural farming practices.
  • Established Under: Launched under the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF).

 

Objectives:

  • Ensure easy access to high-quality bio-inputs for farmers.
  • Equip farmers with technical knowledge on natural farming methods.
  • Promote the expansion of natural farming practices in villages.

 

Key Features:

  • Financial Support: Rs. 1 lakh per centre, provided in two tranches of Rs. 50,000 each.
  • Eligibility for Entrepreneurs: Entrepreneurs must either practice or be willing to adopt natural farming.
  • Customized Inputs: Bio-inputs will be developed according to local soil conditions, crop patterns, and the specific needs of farmers.
  • Training Support: Farmers will be trained in botanical extracts, bio-input preparation, and pest management techniques.
  • For-Profit Model: BRCs will operate as sustainable ventures, promoting local economic development.
  • Market Facilitation: BRCs will explore partnerships with Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), State Rural Livelihood Missions (SRLMs), and agriculture marketing boards.

 

About the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)

  • The National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aimed at promoting chemical-free, sustainable agriculture based on local agro-ecology and indigenous knowledge.

 

Objectives:

  • Promote natural farming to ensure the production of safe and nutritious food.
  • Reduce the dependency on chemical inputs and lower the costs of cultivation.
  • Build healthy soil ecosystems, support biodiversity, and enhance climate resilience.

Which of the following is/are true regarding the Bio-Input Resource Centres (BRCs) under the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF)?

  1. BRCs are intended to promote chemical-based farming inputs to improve agricultural productivity.
  2. Entrepreneurs involved in BRCs must either practice or be willing to adopt natural farming.
  3. Financial support of Rs. 1 lakh per centre is provided in two tranches of Rs. 50,000 each.
  4. BRCs will only focus on the production of chemical fertilizers and pesticides for farmers.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because BRCs promote natural farming inputs, not chemical-based farming.
  • Statement 2 is correct as it emphasizes the importance of natural farming practices for entrepreneurs.
  • Statement 3 is correct regarding the financial support provided.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect as BRCs focus on bio-fertilizers, bio-pesticides, and organic formulations, not chemical inputs.

National Zero Measles-Rubella Elimination campaign 2025-26

Syllabus: GS2/ Health

  • The Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare has launched the National Zero Measles-Rubella Elimination Campaign 2025-26, aiming to eliminate measles and rubella from India.

 

Measles:

  • Measles is a highly contagious viral infection, primarily affecting children. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets from the nose, mouth, or throat of infected individuals. Symptoms usually develop 10–12 days after exposure and include:
  • High fever
  • Runny nose
  • Bloodshot eyes
  • Tiny white spots inside the mouth

 

Rubella:

  • Rubella, also known as German measles, is an acute, typically mild viral infection affecting children and young adults worldwide. Symptoms include:
  • Low-grade fever
  • Sore throat
  • A rash that begins on the face and spreads

 

Indian Scenario:

  • India is focused on maintaining over 95% vaccination coverage with two doses of the Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine in each district.
  • In 2024, there was a significant reduction in cases of measles and rubella. Measles cases dropped by 73%, while rubella cases declined by 17% compared to 2023.

 

U-WIN Digital Platform:

  • The U-WIN Digital Platform has been launched to streamline vaccination services by providing online registration, appointment scheduling, and digital certificates to enhance the vaccination process.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Zero Measles-Rubella Elimination Campaign launched by the Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare:

  1. The campaign aims to eliminate measles and rubella by 2025-26 with a focus on maintaining over 95% vaccination coverage across all districts.
  2. Measles is a viral disease that affects primarily adults, with symptoms appearing 10–12 days post-infection, including fever and rashes.
  3. Rubella is a mild viral disease primarily affecting young adults, and it is also known as German measles. It causes low-grade fever and a rash starting from the face.
  4. The U-WIN Digital Platform was introduced to streamline vaccination services by offering online registration, appointment booking, and digital certification.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 3, and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – The National Zero Measles-Rubella Elimination Campaign focuses on achieving over 95% vaccination coverage with two doses of the Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine in all districts to eliminate measles and rubella by 2025-26.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect – Measles primarily affects children, not adults. Symptoms usually appear 10–12 days after infection, including fever, runny nose, bloodshot eyes, and tiny white spots on the inside of the mouth.
  • Statement 3: Correct – Rubella is indeed a mild disease, primarily affecting children and young adults, and is commonly referred to as German measles. The symptoms include a low-grade fever, sore throat, and a rash starting on the face.
  • Statement 4: Correct – The U-WIN Digital Platform has been launched to streamline vaccination services by enabling online registration, appointment scheduling, and issuing digital certificates for vaccinations.

India’s first Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR)

Syllabus:Science and Technology

  • India’s first Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, located in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu, is expected to be commissioned in the coming year.
  • It marks a significant milestone in the second stage of India’s three-stage nuclear power programme.

About PFBR:

  • The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is a 500 MWe sodium-cooled fast breeder reactor.
  • It is being developed by Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI), a public sector undertaking under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
  • The reactor uses mixed oxide (MOX) fuel, which consists of plutonium and uranium. Unlike conventional reactors that use water as a coolant, the PFBR employs liquid sodium, enabling higher operational temperatures and improved thermal efficiency.
  • Construction began in 2004, and although the project was originally slated for completion in 2010, it has experienced multiple delays.

 

Key Features:

  • The PFBR operates as a fast neutron reactor, using fast neutrons instead of thermal neutrons, which allows it to breed more fissile material than it consumes.
  • This design contributes to energy sustainability by creating new fuel through the reprocessing of used nuclear material, particularly plutonium.
  • The reactor includes advanced safety systems such as a robust containment structure and passive cooling mechanisms that enhance safety by preventing overheating.

 

India’s Three-Stage Nuclear Programme:

  • Stage One involves the use of natural uranium in Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) and Light Water Reactors (LWRs) to produce electricity and plutonium.
  • Stage Two utilises the plutonium generated in Stage One to fuel Fast Breeder Reactors like the PFBR. This stage is critical for the sustainable expansion of India’s nuclear energy capacity.
  • Stage Three aims to harness India’s abundant thorium reserves. It involves Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (AHWRs) that use a combination of thorium and uranium-233 to establish a closed nuclear fuel cycle. This stage is intended to ensure long-term energy security through thorium-based energy production.

With reference to India’s Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR), consider the following statements:

  1. PFBR uses natural uranium as primary fuel to breed plutonium-239.
  2. It employs liquid sodium as a coolant to facilitate operation at higher temperatures.
  3. It marks the beginning of Stage III of India’s nuclear power programme.
  4. It is designed to produce more fissile material than it consumes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B. 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect: PFBR does not use natural uranium as primary fuel. Instead, it uses Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel, a blend of plutonium-239 and uranium-238. The plutonium is derived from the reprocessing of spent fuel from Stage I PHWRs. The reactor breeds more plutonium-239 by converting U-238 into Pu-239 using fast neutrons.
  • Statement 2: Correct: One of the defining features of PFBR is the use of liquid sodium as coolant instead of water. Sodium’s excellent heat transfer properties and its high boiling point allow the reactor to operate at higher temperatures with better thermal efficiency.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect: PFBR represents the second stage of India’s nuclear power programme. Stage III involves the use of thorium and uranium-233 in Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (AHWRs). PFBR helps in producing fissile material (Pu-239) for use in the eventual thorium-based Stage III.
  • Statement 4: Correct:A fast breeder reactor is specifically designed to produce more fissile material (like Pu-239) than it consumes. This is what makes the PFBR integral to India’s plan for a self-sustaining fuel cycle.

India’s first satellite, Aryabhata, completes 50 years

Syllabus:S&T

  • India’s first satellite, Aryabhata, marks its 50th anniversary today. Launched on April 19, 1975, Aryabhata was named in honour of the ancient Indian mathematician and astronomer of the same name.
  • Developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), the satellite was launched from Kapustin Yar in the then Soviet Union (USSR), highlighting Indo-Soviet collaboration in space technology during that era.

Key Features and Objectives:

  • Design: Aryabhata was built as a 26-sided polyhedron, approximately 4 metres in diameter, and weighed 360 kilograms.
  • Solar Power: Of its 26 faces, 24 were fitted with solar panels, excluding the top and bottom, to harness solar energy.
  • Mission Objectives: The satellite was intended to conduct experiments in Solar Physics, Aeronomy, and X-ray Astronomy.

Operational Challenges and Legacy:

  • Though it suffered a power failure after five days in orbit, causing scientific experiments to cease, Aryabhata continued to transmit data for a short period thereafter. Despite the premature technical setback, the mission was considered a significant milestone.
  • The project provided Indian scientists with vital experience in satellite design and space operations, forming the technological and institutional groundwork for ISRO’s future missions.

 

Historical Significance:

  • Aryabhata’s successful launch positioned India as the 11th nation to place a satellite into Earth’s orbit. It marked the beginning of India’s journey into space exploration, establishing a legacy that would later include advanced missions such as Chandrayaan, Mangalyaan, and Gaganyaan.

Consider the following statements regarding Aryabhata, India’s first satellite:

  1. Aryabhata was completely designed and developed indigenously without any foreign collaboration.
  2. It was launched with the assistance of the USSR from the Baikonur Cosmodrome.
  3. The satellite was covered entirely with solar panels for energy generation.
  4. Despite an early power failure, Aryabhata continued to transmit some data post-failure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

 Answer: C. 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: Although Aryabhata was designed and developed by ISRO, it was not completely The launch was made possible through Indo-Soviet cooperation, marking significant foreign collaboration in its deployment.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: Aryabhata was launched by the USSR, but from Kapustin Yar, not Baikonur Cosmodrome. This distinction is important since Baikonur was used for other major Soviet missions, whereas Kapustin Yar was used for experimental and international launches.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: Aryabhata was a 26-sided polyhedron, but only 24 of the faces were covered with solar panels. The top and bottom faces were not covered. So the satellite was not entirely solar-panel-covered.
  • Statement 4 – Correct: After experiencing a power failure within five days, Aryabhata did continue to transmit limited data for a short while, and more importantly, provided valuable technological experience to Indian scientists.

Kerala’s Intellectual Property Rights policy to be revised after 17 years

Syllabus: GS3/Science and Technology

  • The Kerala government is set to revamp its Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy after 17 years, aligning it with national developments and evolving global standards in IP governance.

 

About the Initiative

  • The Kerala State Council for Science, Technology and Environment (KSCSTE) has constituted a six-member committee, headed by the Chairman of the Kerala State Biodiversity Board, to draft the revised IPR policy.
  • The original IPR policy was formulated in 2008, and this revision is in response to:
  • The National IPR Policy, 2016, and
  • A recent directive (2024) by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) to all states to align their IPR frameworks with the national policy.

 

Key Proposals in the Draft Policy

  • Inclusion of IPR education as a mandatory subject in school and university curricula.
  • Establishment of an IPR Academy and a Kerala Traditional Knowledge Authority.
  • Creation of a Traditional Knowledge Docketing System to safeguard indigenous innovations.
  • Launch of Mission IPR for streamlining and modernizing IPR administration in the state.

Understanding Intellectual Property (IP)

  • IP refers to creations of the mind—in fields like science, literature, art, and industry.
  • IP Rights (IPRs) grant creators exclusive legal rights for a defined period, enabling commercialization and protection.
  • Types of IPR include:
  • Patents
  • Trademarks
  • Copyrights
  • Industrial Designs
  • Geographical Indications (GIs)
  • Layout Designs of Integrated Circuits
  • Plant Varieties & Farmers’ Rights
  • Trade Secrets

 

Global and Territorial Aspects

  • Patent rights are territorial—an Indian patent is valid only in India.
  • No universal patent system exists; however, the Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) offers a unified procedure for filing patents across 157+ countries, coordinated by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).
  • India and PCT/WIPO:
  • India joined WIPO in 1975 and PCT in 1998.
  • WIPO, established in 1967, is a specialized self-funding UN agency headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, with 193 member states.

 

India’s IPR Ecosystem: Achievements & Challenges

  • Recent Initiatives
  • National IPR Policy, 2016: A unified vision document for all forms of IPRs, promoting innovation and strengthening IP administration.
  • Cell for IPR Promotion and Management (CIPAM): Implements and monitors the National IPR Policy.
  • National IP Awareness Mission (NIPAM): Spreads IP literacy across educational institutions.
  • SIPP Scheme: Assists startups in protecting and managing IP assets.
  • Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): Established by NITI Aayog to nurture grassroots innovation. AIM initiatives include:
  • Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs)
  • Atal Incubation Centres (AICs)
  • Atal New India Challenges
  • Mentor India Network

 

Major Challenges

  • Patent Backlog: Delay in examination and grant processes.
  • Weak Enforcement: Inadequate mechanisms to combat piracy and counterfeiting.
  • Low Commercialization: Limited industry-academia collaboration hampers practical application of patents.
  • Dependence on Foreign Applicants: Reflects low domestic R&D output and investment.
  • Global Competitiveness Gap: Innovation metrics still lag behind global leaders.

Significance and Way Forward

  • Kerala’s decision to revise its IPR policy is a progressive step toward creating an innovation-driven knowledge economy. Aligning with the national vision and global best practices will:
  • Protect traditional and indigenous knowledge, especially in biodiversity-rich regions.
  • Foster a culture of creativity and entrepreneurship.
  • Attract global investment and improve India’s innovation ranking.
  • Ensure inclusive development through IPR outreach in education and grassroots levels.

 

Conclusion: India’s expanding IPR ecosystem reflects a strategic shift toward knowledge-led economic growth. With robust state-level participation, such as Kerala’s IPR policy revision, India is poised to emerge as a global hub for innovation, creativity, and IP-driven entrepreneurship.

Consider the following statements regarding the Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT):

  1. It grants a universal patent that is valid in all member countries.
  2. India is a member of the PCT.
  3. The PCT system is administered by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B 

Explanation:

  • The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) is an international treaty that simplifies the process of filing patents in multiple countries. However, it is important to understand what it does and does not
  • Statement 1: It grants a universal patent that is valid in all member countries.
    This statement is incorrect. The PCT does not grant a single, universal or international patent. Instead, it provides a mechanism to file one international patent application, which can later be pursued in individual member countries. Each country still examines the application according to its own national laws and decides independently whether to grant a patent.
  • Statement 2: India is a member of the PCT.This statement is correct. India became a member of the PCT in 1998, and Indian inventors or applicants can use the system to file international patent applications.
  • Statement 3: The PCT system is administered by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).This statement is correct. The WIPO, based in Geneva, Switzerland, is the United Nations’ specialized agency responsible for the coordination of the PCT system, among other global IP matters.

Green Way to Recycle Toxic Perovskite Solar Cells

Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology

  • A recent study published in Nature highlights a novel water-based method for recycling Perovskite Solar Cells (PSCs), aiming to reduce environmental risks associated with traditional recycling techniques.

What are Perovskite Solar Cells (PSCs)?

  • A promising class of next-generation photovoltaic (PV) technologies.
  • Utilize materials with a perovskite crystal structure for efficient sunlight absorption.
  • Known for their high power conversion efficiency (PCE) and low production costs.
  • A major concern: Use of toxic elements, especially lead (Pb), which pose environmental and health risks upon disposal.

 

Limitations of Traditional Recycling:

  • Typically use toxic organic solvents like dimethylformamide (DMF).
  • These pose serious environmental hazards and complicate safe recycling.

 

The New Water-Based Green Recycling Method:

  • Solvent-free approach using safer and more sustainable chemicals.

Employs three key salts:

  • Sodium acetate: Binds with lead to form water-soluble lead acetate.
  • Sodium iodide: Supplies iodide ions to reconstruct degraded perovskite.
  • Hypophosphorous acid: Stabilizes the solution, enhancing crystal purity and quality.

This process:

  • Dissolves the toxic perovskite layer.
  • Enables re-synthesis of high-purity crystals for reuse in new PSCs.

Additionally, ethanol and ethyl acetate are used to:

  • Recover other components such as metal electrodes and glass substrates

 

Significance:

  • Promotes sustainable recycling of advanced solar technology.
  • Reduces reliance on hazardous chemicals.
  • Paves the way for greener production cycles in solar energy industries.

Consider the following pairs:

Compound

Function in Water-Based PSC Recycling

Sodium iodide

Provides iodide ions to reconstruct perovskite

Hypophosphorous acid

Stabilizes the recycling solution and ensures crystal quality

Ethanol and ethyl acetate

Used to dissolve the perovskite layer

Which of the pairs are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • Pair 1 is correct: Sodium iodide contributes iodide ions to rebuild the perovskite structure.
  • Pair 2 is correct: Hypophosphorous acid stabilizes the chemical environment, aiding in crystal formation.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Ethanol and ethyl acetate are not used to dissolve perovskite, but to recover other components like metal electrodes and glass substrates.

Humanoid Robots Compete in Beijing Half-Marathon

Syllabus:S&T

 

  • On April 19, 2025, Beijing made history by hosting the world’s first humanoid robot half-marathon, where robots and human runners participated side by side in a groundbreaking fusion of sports and technology.
  • The event, which garnered global media attention, showcased the remarkable advancements in humanoid robotics and artificial intelligence (AI).
  • While human participants followed traditional race rules, robots adhered to specially tailored regulations, with engineering support provided throughout the race.
  • Despite some mechanical setbacks and frequent pit stops, the event generated significant excitement, curiosity, and discussions about the future role of robots in society.

Key Highlights of the Event

  • Date and Venue:Held on April 19, 2025, in Beijing, China.
  • The event marked the world’s first humanoid robot half-marathon.

 

Participants

  • The race featured both human runners and humanoid robots of various sizes and designs.
  • Robot participants ranged from under 4 feet (120 cm) to 8 meters (5.9 feet) in height.
  • 20 engineering teams entered robots into the competition.

 

Course Layout

  • Separate lanes were designated for humans and robots, with a barrier dividing them for safety.
  • Unlike human runners, robots required battery change pit stops during the race.

 

Performance Metrics

  • The fastest human completed the race in 1 hour 2 minutes.
  • The fastest robot, named “Tiangong Ultra,” finished in 2 hours 40 minutes.
  • Robots were awarded in categories such as best gait design, endurance, and innovative form.

 

Engineering Challenges

  • Some robots required human assistance during the race, highlighting the ongoing challenges in balance and coordination.
  • A few robots crashed or toppled, exposing the limitations in their current design and functionality.

 

Public Reaction

  • The event received a mixed reception. Some hailed it as a glimpse into the future of AI, while others questioned the credibility of robotic marathons as an accurate measure of AI capabilities.

 

Aesthetic and Humanness

  • Many teams focused on the “humanness” of their robots, dressing them in shoes, boxing gloves, and headbands.
  • A notable robot featured a feminine appearance, with the ability to wink and smile, enhancing its anthropomorphic appeal.

Policy and Industrial Context

  • The event aligns with China’s strategic goals to lead in AI and robotics as part of its broader economic development plans.
  • It also raises important ethical and industrial questions about the integration of AI and robots into daily life.

Consider the following statements regarding the world’s first humanoid robot half-marathon held in Beijing in April 2025:

  1. The humanoid robots participated in separate lanes from human runners, with a safety barrier between them, and required battery pit stops during the race.
  2. The fastest robot, “Tiangong Ultra,” completed the race in 1 hour 2 minutes, matching the pace of the fastest human runner.
  3. The event demonstrated China’s leadership ambitions in AI and robotics, aligning with its broader economic growth strategies, including addressing industrial and ethical concerns regarding AI integration in daily life.
  4. One of the robots in the competition featured a “feminine appearance,” which enhanced its anthropomorphic qualities, leading to significant public interest in robot aesthetics.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A) 1, 3, and 4 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 2 only

Answer: A) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct:The humanoid robots participated in separate lanes from human runners, with a safety barrier between them. Additionally, robots needed battery pit stops, unlike the human participants who did not need any such breaks.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect:The fastest robot, “Tiangong Ultra”, took 2 hours 40 minutes to finish the race, not 1 hour 2 minutes, which was the time taken by the fastest human runner. Therefore, the time mentioned in Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Statement 3 – Correct:The event highlighted China’s strategic ambition to be at the forefront of AI and robotics development, which is part of the country’s broader vision for economic growth. It also raised important ethical and industrial questions about how AI and robotics should be integrated into daily life, reflecting China’s policy direction in these fields.
  • Statement 4 – Correct:A notable robot in the competition was designed with a “feminine appearance”, which included anthropomorphic features such as the ability to wink and smile. This design element garnered significant public attention, emphasizing the growing interest in robot aesthetics and human-robot interaction.

Alamosaurus

Syllabus:Science

 

  • Alamosaurus is recognized as one of the largest dinosaurs to have ever existed. This herbivorous sauropod lived in North America during the late Cretaceous period, approximately 100.5 to 66 million years ago.
  • Known for its massive size, Alamosaurus is the only sauropod species found in North America from the Upper Cretaceous period.
  • As part of the sauropod group, Alamosaurus shares the title of being one of the largest land animals to have ever evolved.
  • Standing at least 11 meters (36 feet) tall, stretching over 30.5 meters (100 feet) in length, and weighing between 38 to 80 metric tons, it rivaled the size of other giant sauropods like Argentinosaurus, which lived in South America around 97 to 92 million years ago.
  • Alamosaurus had a long neck and tail, along with pillar-like limbs, all typical of sauropods. Its back was adorned with armoured spikes, providing protection from potential predators.
  • The species went extinct during the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event, marking it as one of the last non-avian dinosaurs to roam the Earth before the mass extinction that wiped out most of the dinosaur species.

Consider the following statements regarding Alamosaurus, one of the largest dinosaurs known to have existed:

  1. Alamosaurus was the only sauropod found in North America during the Upper Cretaceous period.
  2. It is estimated to have reached a length of 30.5 meters (100 feet) and weighed between 80-120 metric tons.
  3. The Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event marked the extinction of Alamosaurus, making it one of the last non-avian dinosaurs.
  4. Alamosaurus is most closely related to Argentinosaurus, a sauropod that lived in South America during the late Jurassic period.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct:Alamosaurus is indeed the only known sauropod from the Upper Cretaceous period in North America, making it unique among other sauropods that existed in other parts of the world during that time.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect:While Alamosaurus reached an impressive 5 meters (100 feet) in length, its weight is estimated to be between 38 and 80 metric tons, not between 80-120 metric tons as mentioned in Statement 2.
  • Statement 3 – Correct:Alamosaurus went extinct during the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event, one of the most significant extinction events in Earth’s history, and it was one of the last non-avian dinosaurs to walk the Earth.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect:Alamosaurus is more closely related to sauropods like Argentinosaurus, which lived in South America, but Argentinosaurus lived during the Cretaceous period, not the late Jurassic period as stated in Statement 4.

Gonorrhoea

Syllabus:Science

 

About Gonorrhoea:

Cause:

  • Caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
  • Commonly known as ‘the clap’.

 

Transmission:

  • Primarily spread through vaginal, oral, or anal sexual activity.
  • Can also be passed from an infected mother to her baby during childbirth, most commonly affecting the baby’s eyes.
  • Common Affected Areas:
  • Can infect the urethra, rectum, female reproductive tract, mouth, throat, and eyes.

 

Risk Factors:

  • Affects individuals of any age, gender, or anatomy, but particularly common among teens and young adults (15 to 24 years).

 

Symptoms:

  • Many individuals may not exhibit symptoms.
  • Symptoms, if present, generally appear 1 to 14 days after exposure.
  • Men are more likely to show symptoms, while up to 50% of women may be asymptomatic.

 

Common symptoms include:

  • Sore throat
  • Conjunctivitis (eye infection)
  • Unusual vaginal or penile discharge
  • Pelvic and genital pain

 

Complications of Untreated Gonorrhoea:

  • If left untreated, can cause serious health issues like:
  • Infections affecting the skin, joints, heart (endocarditis), and brain (meningitis).
  • Infertility in both men and women.
  • Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) in women.
  • Epididymitis and prostatitis (inflammation of the prostate in men).
  • Some complications can cause permanent damage.

 

Prevention:

  • Safe sex practices (e.g., using condoms) can effectively prevent gonorrhoea.

 

Treatment:

  • Most cases can be cured with antibiotics.
  • However, some antibiotic-resistant strains have emerged, making new treatments, such as gepotidacin, essential for combating these resistant strains.

 

Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria gonorrhoeae (the causative agent of gonorrhoea) is/are correct?

  1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is capable of causing systemic infections affecting organs such as the heart and brain if left untreated.
  2. The presence of asymptomatic cases in women leads to an underreporting of gonorrhoea cases, contributing to the spread of antibiotic resistance.
  3. Gonorrhoea can only be contracted through vaginal sexual contact, as it does not transmit through oral or anal sex.
  4. The development of antibiotic resistance in Neisseria gonorrhoeae is primarily driven by horizontal gene transfer, a common mechanism in bacteria.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is capable of causing systemic infections affecting organs such as the heart and brain if left untreated.Correct. If gonorrhoea is not treated, the bacteria can spread beyond the initial site of infection, leading to serious complications such as endocarditis (heart), meningitis (brain), and arthritis. Therefore, this statement is correct.
  • Statement 2: The presence of asymptomatic cases in women leads to an underreporting of gonorrhoea cases, contributing to the spread of antibiotic resistance.Correct. Gonorrhoea is often asymptomatic in women, meaning many cases go undiagnosed and untreated. This results in unintentional transmission and provides opportunities for the bacteria to develop resistance to antibiotics. This is a key factor in the rising antibiotic resistance observed in gonorrhoea strains.
  • Statement 3: Gonorrhoea can only be contracted through vaginal sexual contact, as it does not transmit through oral or anal sex.Incorrect. Gonorrhoea can be contracted through vaginal, oral, or anal sexual activity. Therefore, this statement is false.
  • Statement 4: The development of antibiotic resistance in Neisseria gonorrhoeae is primarily driven by horizontal gene transfer, a common mechanism in bacteria.Correct. Antibiotic resistance in Neisseria gonorrhoeae is largely driven by horizontal gene transfer, where the bacteria exchange genetic material, including resistance genes, with other bacterial species. This mechanism significantly contributes to the spread of resistance.

Hydrogen Bomb a Game-Changer for Modern Warfare

Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology, Defence

Context:

  • Chinese researchers have recently tested a new type of hydrogen bomb that uses magnesium hydride to generate a sustained fireball, eliminating the need for traditional nuclear materials.

What is a Hydrogen Bomb?

  • A hydrogen bomb, also known as a thermonuclear bomb, typically operates in two stages:
  • Primary (Fission) Trigger:
    This stage uses fissile materials such as uranium-235 or plutonium-239 to create intense heat and pressure, which initiates the reaction.
  • Secondary (Fusion) Stage:
    The extreme conditions from the fission trigger cause isotopes of hydrogen, like deuterium and tritium, to undergo fusion. This releases a tremendous amount of energy—far greater than that of a fission-only bomb.

 

What is a Fissile-Free Hydrogen Bomb?

  • China’s innovation in hydrogen bomb technology has replaced the traditional fission-based trigger with advanced ignition systems, such as:
  • Inertial Confinement Fusion (ICF):
    This method uses high-powered lasers to compress and heat a hydrogen pellet to initiate fusion.
  • Magnetic Compression (Z-pinch Plasma Systems):
    This system utilizes magnetic fields to compress hydrogen isotopes and trigger fusion without needing fissile material.
  • These new technologies allow fusion reactions to occur without uranium or plutonium, making the bomb “fissile-free.”

Concerns and Implications

  • Legal Loopholes:
    Under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT), nuclear weapons are primarily defined by the use of fissile materials (uranium or plutonium). Fissile-free fusion bombs could circumvent these treaties, challenging the existing global nuclear arms control structure.
  • Ease of Development:
    Fusion fuels like deuterium and tritium are less regulated than fissile materials and are often embedded in civilian programs, such as energy research. This dual-use nature of fusion technology makes it more difficult to monitor and control.
  • Proliferation Risk:
    This new pathway to thermonuclear weapons could be exploited by rogue states or terrorist organizations, increasing the risk of nuclear proliferation.
  • Asymmetric Warfare Concerns:
    Compact, high-yield fusion bombs, which are non-radioactive, could be used in covert operations or gray-zone warfare. These weapons might be easily smuggled across borders and disguised as industrial accidents, making detection and response difficult.

Way Forward

  • Redefining International Law:
    There is a need to update the CTBT to account for non-fissile thermonuclear tests. The definition of nuclear weapons may need to be revised to focus on energy yield rather than solely on the presence of fissile material.
  • Verification Mechanisms:
    A new Fusion Weapons Verification Body (FWVB) should be created under the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). This body could function similarly to the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), ensuring that fusion-based nuclear tests are also monitored and controlled.
  • Strategic Uncertainty for India:
    With credible minimum deterrence as a cornerstone of India’s nuclear doctrine, the development of fissile-free hydrogen bombs introduces strategic uncertainty. India should invest in technologies to detect non-radiological fusion detonations, ensuring its security in an evolving nuclear landscape.

With reference to China’s recent development of a fissile-free hydrogen bomb that uses magnesium hydride, consider the following statements:

  1. The development of fissile-free hydrogen bombs bypasses the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) by not utilizing fissile materials, thus potentially leading to a loophole in nuclear arms control agreements.
  2. The Inertial Confinement Fusion (ICF) method for hydrogen bomb ignition relies on magnetic compression techniques to initiate fusion reactions without the need for uranium or plutonium.
  3. The new technology enables the use of hydrogen isotopes, such as deuterium and tritium, in a manner that circumvents traditional fission triggers, providing a significant advantage for covert nuclear operations due to the non-radioactive nature of the weapon.
  4. Asymmetric warfare concerns arise from the potential for fissile-free fusion bombs to be easily detected by existing global monitoring systems, making them more secure for use by non-state actors.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A.  Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct
The development of fissile-free hydrogen bombs indeed poses a challenge to existing nuclear arms control frameworks, particularly the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT). Since these treaties primarily target fissile materials like uranium and plutonium, the use of alternative methods that bypass these materials creates a potential loophole in the current system, enabling the development of nuclear weapons without violating the treaty’s terms.

Statement 2 – Incorrect
The Inertial Confinement Fusion (ICF) method for hydrogen bomb ignition does not rely on magnetic compression. Instead, it uses high-powered lasers to compress and heat a pellet of hydrogen isotopes, such as deuterium and tritium, to initiate fusion. Magnetic compression, on the other hand, is associated with technologies like Z-pinch plasma systems, which are a separate approach to fusion. This makes the statement incorrect in its association of ICF with magnetic compression.

Statement 3 – Correct
The new fissile-free hydrogen bomb technology allows for the use of hydrogen isotopes (deuterium and tritium) without relying on a fission trigger (uranium or plutonium). This makes the bombs non-radioactive and compact, which provides a significant advantage for covert nuclear operations. The non-radioactive nature of these bombs makes detection more difficult, enhancing their strategic flexibility and offering potential uses in gray-zone warfare.

Statement 4 – Incorrect
The concern regarding asymmetric warfare with fissile-free fusion bombs is that they are actually more difficult to detect by existing global monitoring systems due to their non-radioactive nature. Traditional nuclear test verification systems rely on detecting radiation from fissile materials, and since these bombs do not contain fissile materials, they evade detection by such methods. Therefore, the statement incorrectly claims that fissile-free bombs are easier to detect.

A New Method to Estimate Helium Abundance in the Sun

Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology

  • A recent study by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) has provided an accurate estimate of the helium abundance in the Sun’s photosphere.

 

Background

  • Helium, the second most abundant element in the Sun after hydrogen, plays a crucial role in the Sun’s structure and energy dynamics. However, accurately measuring its abundance in the Sun’s photosphere has been challenging due to the absence of distinct helium spectral lines in the visible range of light.
  • Historically, scientists relied on indirect data from:

 

Hotter stars

  • The solar corona and solar wind
  • Helioseismology (the study of the Sun’s internal oscillations)

 

The New Methodology

  • Researchers used high-resolution solar spectra to analyze both atomic and molecular spectral lines. They focused on the following elements and molecules:
  • Neutral magnesium (Mg) and magnesium hydride (MgH)
  • Neutral carbon (C) and its molecular forms CH and C₂.

 

How the Method Works:

  • The spectral lines of both atomic and molecular forms of magnesium and carbon are influenced by the abundance of hydrogen in the Sun’s photosphere. Any variation in the amount of helium present affects the hydrogen content.
  • When helium abundance increases, the relative abundance of hydrogen This reduction in hydrogen availability impacts the formation of molecules like MgH and CH. It also lowers the opacity of the Sun’s photosphere, which influences its overall structure and energy dynamics.

With reference to the recent study by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) on helium abundance in the Sun’s photosphere, consider the following statements:

  1. The study used high-resolution solar spectra to analyze atomic and molecular spectral lines, primarily focusing on magnesium hydride (MgH) and carbon molecules like CH and C₂.
  2. The helium content in the Sun’s photosphere is inversely related to the abundance of hydrogen, meaning an increase in helium leads to an increase in hydrogen.
  3. Traditional methods of estimating helium abundance in the Sun relied primarily on data from the solar corona, helioseismology, and spectral lines from hotter stars.
  4. The reduction in hydrogen availability due to increased helium content significantly impacts the opacity of the Sun’s photosphere, affecting its structure and energy balance.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A) 1, 3, and 4

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The study utilized high-resolution solar spectra to study atomic and molecular spectral lines of magnesium (Mg), magnesium hydride (MgH), and carbon (C), particularly focusing on CH and C₂ molecules.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The relationship between helium and hydrogen abundance is inverse; an increase in helium leads to a decrease in hydrogen, not an increase. This is because the hydrogen content influences the formation of molecules like MgH and CH.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Traditional methods indeed relied on indirect data sources, including the solar corona, helioseismology, and the study of hotter stars, due to the lack of helium spectral lines in the visible range.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The reduction in hydrogen availability due to increased helium content lowers the opacity of the Sun’s photosphere, thereby impacting the Sun’s structure and energy dynamics.

HEALD Initiative

Syllabus:Health

  • The Union Home Minister recently launched the HEALD Initiative (Healthy Liver Education and Alcohol-associated Liver Disease Prevention), a pioneering nationwide program aimed at addressing the growing burden of liver diseases across India.

About HEALD

  • Launched by: Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS), New Delhi.
  • Objective: To prevent and manage alcohol-associated liver diseases through an integrated, multi-sectoral approach.

Components:

  • Public awareness campaigns on liver health and alcohol risks.
  • Early screening and detection of liver disorders.
  • Psychological support and medical treatment for alcohol use disorder.
  • Comprehensive liver disease management and rehabilitation.
  • Community outreach and policy reform to reduce stigma around alcohol dependence.

 

Key Principle:

“Behind every failed liver lies a missed opportunity” – HEALD aims to eliminate these missed opportunities through timely intervention and awareness.

  • Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS)
  • Established: 2009
  • Location: Vasant Kunj, New Delhi
  • Governing Body: Government of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi
  • Legal Status: Autonomous institute under the Societies Registration Act, 1860

 

Specialization:

  • Mono-super speciality hospital focusing exclusively on liver and biliary diseases.
  • Provides advanced diagnosis, treatment, research, and training in liver care.

With reference to the HEALD Initiative recently launched in India, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a nationwide liver disease prevention program launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  2. It focuses on public education, early screening, and treatment of alcohol-associated liver diseases.
  3. The initiative integrates mental health support and policy reform to reduce the stigma around alcohol dependence.
  4. The Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS), which launched the program, is governed directly by the Ministry of AYUSH.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: HEALD was not launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare but by the Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS).
  • Statement 2 – Correct: HEALD focuses on public awareness, early screening, and treatment of alcohol-associated liver diseases.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: The program aims to reduce stigma by integrating mental health support, community outreach, and policy reforms.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect: ILBS is an autonomous institute established by the Government of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, not under the Ministry of AYUSH.

Combating Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) in India

Syllabus :GS 2/Health 

In News:

  • Health experts have raised serious concerns over the overuse of the powerful antibiotic ceftazidime-avibactam, warning that its misuse is leading to reduced therapeutic efficacy and accelerating antimicrobial resistance (AMR). The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) has been urged to implement stringent regulations to curb its inappropriate usage.

Understanding Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)

  • Antimicrobials — including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, and antiparasitics — are critical for treating infections in humans, animals, and plants.
    AMR occurs when microorganisms evolve to withstand these drugs, making infections harder to treat, increasing the risk of disease transmission, severe illness, disability, and mortality.
  • Though AMR is a natural evolutionary process, it is greatly accelerated by:
  • Overuse and misuse of antimicrobials in human and veterinary medicine
  • Indiscriminate application in agriculture and aquaculture
  • Poor sanitation and infection control
  • Socio-economic challenges such as poverty and lack of access to clean water.

 

India’s AMR Burden and Challenges:

  • India bears one of the highest burdens of bacterial infections globally.
  • AMR contributes to prolonged hospitalizations, higher treatment costs, intensive care admissions, and increased mortality rates.

 

Drivers of AMR in India include:

  • Inadequate regulatory oversight of antibiotic prescriptions
  • High prevalence of over-the-counter sales without prescription
  • Unregulated antibiotic use in livestock and poultry
  • Limited awareness among healthcare professionals and the public

Steps Taken by India

  • India is responding to the AMR crisis through multi-sectoral coordination and scientific advancements:

 

Genomic Surveillance & Institutional Collaboration:

  • The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) are leading efforts in monitoring resistance patterns and promoting rational antibiotic use.

 

New Antibiotic Discoveries:

  • Recent breakthroughs such as cefepime-enmetazobactam, cefepime-zidebactam, nafithromycin, and levodifloxacin provide new weapons against multi-drug resistant pathogens, helping reduce dependence on last-resort antibiotics like carbapenems and colistin.

 

Public Awareness Campaigns:

  • The Red Line Campaign marks all prescription-only antibiotics with a red line to caution against self-medication and overuse.

 

Antibiotic Stewardship Programs (ASPs): ICMR promotes ASPs in hospitals to guide evidence-based prescription practices and restrict unnecessary antibiotic use.

Way Forward:

  • India possesses a robust biotechnology ecosystem, a high burden of infectious diseases, and affordable pharmaceutical manufacturing capacity. These strengths position it to lead the global fight against AMR, particularly for low- and middle-income countries.

To effectively combat AMR, India must:

  • Strengthen policy frameworks and enforcement against antibiotic misuse.
  • Promote innovation in diagnostics, drug discovery, and surveillance.
  • Expand awareness campaigns targeting healthcare professionals and the public.
  • Regulate and optimize antibiotic use in animal husbandry and agriculture.
  • Improve infrastructure, especially sanitation and infection control systems.

 

Conclusion:

  • Tackling AMR requires a holistic, One Health approach, integrating human, animal, and environmental health. With the right governance, innovation, and societal participation, India can emerge as a global exemplar in combating antimicrobial resistance.

With reference to Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Red Line Campaign was launched to restrict over-the-counter sale of broad-spectrum antivirals.
  2. Ceftazidime-avibactam is a last-resort antibiotic increasingly misused in treating drug-resistant bacterial infections.
  3. India’s One Health approach integrates antimicrobial resistance surveillance in humans, animals, and the environment.
  4. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) leads the Antibiotic Stewardship Programs (ASPs) in tertiary hospitals.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

Answer: B. Only two

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 — Incorrect: The Red Line Campaign is targeted at antibiotics, not antivirals. It aims to curb self-medication and over-the-counter sale of prescription-only antibiotics, not broad-spectrum antivirals.
  • Statement 2 — Correct: Ceftazidime-avibactam is a potent combination antibiotic used for treating multi-drug resistant infections, especially caused by Gram-negative bacteria. It is not officially classified as last-resort (unlike colistin), but is increasingly misused, accelerating resistance.
  • Statement 3 — Correct: The One Health approach integrates surveillance and action across human, animal, and environmental health sectors, aligning with India’s response to AMR.
  • Statement 4 — Incorrect: Antibiotic Stewardship Programs (ASPs) are promoted primarily by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), not ICAR. ICAR is involved in regulating antimicrobial use in agriculture and livestock, not hospital-based ASPs. without gaps.

India Achieves Breakthrough in Gene Therapy for Haemophilia

 Syllabus: GS2/ Health, GS3/ Science and Technology

  • India’s first human gene therapy trial for hemophilia was conducted through a collaboration between the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council’s Institute for Stem Cell Science and Regenerative Medicine (BRIC-inStem) and CMC Vellore.

What is Hemophilia?

  • Hemophilia is a rare genetic disorder that affects the body’s ability to control blood clotting, which can lead to spontaneous bleeding as well as excessive bleeding following injuries or surgery. It is caused by a mutation in the genes responsible for making clotting factor proteins needed for blood clot formation.
  • The genes for blood clotting factors are located on the X chromosome. Males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY), while females have two X chromosomes (XX). Hemophilia is more common in males because they only have one X chromosome.

Types of Hemophilia

  • Hemophilia A (Classic Hemophilia):
    This type is caused by a deficiency or lack of clotting factor VIII.
  • Hemophilia B (Christmas Disease):
    This type is caused by a deficiency or lack of clotting factor IX.

Symptoms and Risks of Hemophilia

  • Hemophilia can lead to various complications, including:
  • Joint Bleeding: Bleeding within joints can result in chronic joint disease and pain.
  • Bleeding in the Brain: Bleeding in the brain can cause long-term neurological problems, such as seizures and paralysis.
  • Fatalities: If bleeding cannot be stopped or occurs in a vital organ like the brain, it can be fatal.

Treatment Options for Hemophilia

  • There are two primary approaches to treating hemophilia:
  • Preventive Treatment:
    Medicines are used to prevent bleeding episodes and subsequent damage to joints and muscles.

 

On-Demand Treatment:

  • Medicines are used to treat bleeding when it occurs, particularly during prolonged bleeding episodes.

Gene Therapy for Hemophilia

  • In an effort to cure severe hemophilia A, Indian scientists conducted a groundbreaking gene therapy trial. The participants in this trial received autologous hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) that were genetically modified using lentiviral vectors. These modified stem cells can produce functional Factor VIII proteins over time, significantly reducing or even eliminating the need for regular Factor VIII infusions.
  • This innovative gene therapy approach aims to offer a long-term solution for individuals with severe hemophilia by providing them with the ability to produce the clotting factor naturally from within their own cells.

What is Gene Therapy?

  • Gene therapy involves using genes to treat, prevent, or cure diseases. The core approaches in gene therapy include:
  • Replacing Faulty Genes: Introducing a healthy copy of a gene to replace the defective one.
  • Deactivating Harmful Genes: Turning off or silencing genes that cause disease.
  • Introducing New Genes: Adding new genes that help restore normal function or treat diseases.

Methods of Gene Therapy

  • Somatic Cell Gene Therapy:
    This method involves inserting therapeutic genes into somatic (non-reproductive) cells. These changes are not passed on to offspring, making them non-heritable and limited to the individual receiving treatment.
  • Germline Gene Therapy:
    Germline gene therapy targets reproductive cells (sperm or eggs), leading to genetic changes that can be inherited by future generations. However, due to significant ethical and safety concerns, germline gene therapy is banned in many countries, including India.

With reference to India’s first human gene therapy trial for hemophilia, consider the following statements:

  1. Gene therapy for hemophilia A involves the use of lentiviral vectors to genetically modify autologous hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) to produce functional Factor VIII proteins, thus reducing the need for repeated Factor VIII infusions.
  2. Hemophilia is more commonly observed in females due to the inheritance pattern associated with the X chromosome, as females possess two X chromosomes (XX).
  3. Somatic Cell Gene Therapy involves the insertion of therapeutic genes into germline cells (sperm or eggs), making the changes heritable in future generations.
  4. The primary objective of the gene therapy trial conducted by Indian scientists was to explore gene editing techniques, such as CRISPR-Cas9, to correct the mutated genes responsible for hemophilia.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. Only one

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:

The gene therapy trial for hemophilia A conducted in India involved the use of lentiviral vectors to genetically modify autologous hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs). These modified HSCs are engineered to produce functional Factor VIII proteins, significantly reducing or eliminating the need for repeated Factor VIII infusions. This approach offers long-term treatment for hemophilia A by restoring the body’s ability to produce clotting factor naturally, eliminating the frequent need for blood factor replacement.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:

Hemophilia is more commonly observed in males, not females. Males inherit only one X chromosome (XY), and if that X chromosome carries the mutation responsible for hemophilia, they will develop the condition. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes (XX), so they would need both X chromosomes to carry the mutated gene to develop hemophilia, which is extremely rare. Therefore, males are more susceptible due to the X-linked inheritance pattern.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:

Somatic Cell Gene Therapy involves inserting therapeutic genes into somatic (non-reproductive) cells. These changes are not passed on to the individual’s offspring and are non-heritable. The therapy is focused on treating the individual and not their future generations. In contrast, germline gene therapy, which targets germline cells (sperm or eggs), can lead to heritable genetic changes, but it is ethically and legally prohibited in many countries, including India, due to safety concerns.

Statement 4 – Incorrect:

The gene therapy trial conducted by Indian scientists for hemophilia A involved genetically modifying stem cells using lentiviral vectors, but there is no mention of gene editing techniques like CRISPR-Cas9 being used. The focus was on gene therapy, which replaces or modifies the defective genes responsible for hemophilia, rather than directly editing the genes. While CRISPR-Cas9 is a promising tool for gene editing, it was not a part of this particular trial.

Enzymes and Coenzymes

Syllabus:Biology

 

 

  • A recent edition of the journal Nature spotlighted a significant development in agricultural biotechnology by the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS), Beijing.
  • The article, titled “Gene-edited plants make the jump from farm to factory”, discusses the creation of biofortified rice varieties that have been genetically engineered to enhance coenzyme production.

 

About Enzymes and Coenzymes:

  • Enzymes are specialized proteins that catalyse biochemical reactions, thereby facilitating essential cellular processes.
  • Many enzymes depend on auxiliary molecules known as cofactors to function effectively.
  • When these cofactors are organic, they are referred to as coenzymes.
  • Coenzymes bind to enzymes and play a crucial role in driving various metabolic reactions necessary for life.

 

Coenzyme Q (Ubiquinone):

  • Coenzyme Q (CoQ), also known as ubiquinone, is a lipid-soluble antioxidant made up of multiple isoprene units.
  • It exists in different forms, from CoQ1 to CoQ10, and is vital for mitochondrial energy production.
    CoQ is a key player in the electron transport chain, the process through which cells generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the primary energy currency in biological systems.

 

CoQ9 in Plants:

  • CoQ9, which contains nine isoprene units, is mainly found in cereal crops such as rice, wheat, oats, barley, corn, rye, and millet.
  • It is also present in various plants, including bamboo, cinnamon, avocado, barley, and pepper.
  • Given its natural occurrence in staple crops, CoQ9 has been identified as a promising candidate for biofortification to enhance the nutritional content of food.
  • Importance of CoQ10 for Human Health
    CoQ10 plays a vital role in mitochondrial energy generation and is especially abundant in organs with high energy demands, such as the heart.
  • Although CoQ9 is present in many plant-based foods, the human body often requires additional CoQ10 supplementation.
  • This need arises due to factors such as aging, genetic variations, and certain neurological or metabolic disorders.

With reference to Coenzyme Q (Ubiquinone) and its relevance in agricultural and human health contexts, consider the following statements:

  1. Coenzyme Q9 is a water-soluble antioxidant predominantly produced in legumes and oilseeds, while CoQ10 is lipid-soluble and primarily found in animal tissues.
  2. Gene-edited rice varieties enriched with CoQ10 may directly alleviate mitochondrial disorders in humans through regular dietary intake.
  3. Coenzymes, unlike cofactors, are always inorganic molecules essential for enzymatic reactions.
  4. Biofortification of staple crops with coenzymes aims to enhance cellular metabolism and reduce age-related degenerative conditions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Answer: B. Only two

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: CoQ9 is lipid-soluble, not water-soluble, and it is predominantly found in cereal crops like rice, wheat, barley, etc., not primarily in legumes and oilseeds. CoQ10 is also lipid-soluble and found in animal tissues and used by humans. Thus, this statement is factually incorrect on both counts.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: Although gene-edited rice enriched with coenzymes represents a nutritional advancement, dietary CoQ10 from plants does not directly alleviate mitochondrial disorders. CoQ10 bioavailability from plant sources is limited, and therapeutic use typically requires concentrated supplements. Therefore, this statement overstates the effect.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: This is a factual inversion. Coenzymes are always organic molecules (e.g., vitamins, NAD+, FAD) that act as cofactors. Inorganic cofactors include metal ions like Mg²⁺, Zn²⁺. So, this statement is entirely incorrect.
  • Statement 4 – Correct:This is accurate. Biofortification with molecules like CoQ9/CoQ10 aims to enhance cellular metabolism and may help in preventing degenerative conditions linked to aging, as CoQ10 plays a vital role in energy production and acts as an antioxidant.

INS Sunayna

Syllabus:Defence

  • INS Sunayna recently arrived at Nacala Port, Mozambique, as part of its deployment to Africa under the Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) SAGAR

 

About INS Sunayna

  • Second Saryu-class Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) of the Indian Navy.
  • Indigenously designed and built by Goa Shipyard Limited.
  • Commissioned on 15th October 2013 at Kochi; operates under Southern Naval Command.
  • Roles: Fleet support, coastal and offshore patrolling, ocean surveillance, SLOC monitoring, and escort duties.

Key Features

  • Powered by two diesel engines, enabling speeds over 25 knots.
  • Equipped with Automatic Power Management System, modern navigation, communication, and electronic support systems.
  • Armament: 76 mm gun with electro-optic fire control, Close-In Weapon Systems (CIWS), CHAFF launchers.
  • Can carry an onboard helicopter for extended maritime reach.

What is IOS SAGAR?

  • Indian Ocean Ship SAGAR is a unique Indian Navy initiative to engage navies and maritime agencies across the Southwest Indian Ocean Region.
  • Supports training for sea-riders from Friendly Foreign Nations (FFNs).
  • Aligned with India’s SAGAR doctrine – Security and Growth for All in the Region.
  • Reinforces India’s image as a preferred security partner and first responder in the Indian Ocean Region.

Tagline: “One Ocean, One Mission”.

With reference to INS Sunayna and the IOS SAGAR initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. INS Sunayna is an indigenously built stealth frigate of the Indian Navy under the Eastern Naval Command.
  2. IOS SAGAR is aimed at enhancing maritime cooperation with countries of the Southwest Indian Ocean Region.
  3. The IOS SAGAR initiative is part of India’s Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) doctrine.
  4. INS Sunayna can carry a helicopter and is equipped with Close-In Weapon Systems (CIWS).

Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B. 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: INS Sunayna is an offshore patrol vessel (OPV), not a stealth frigate, and it is based under the Southern Naval Command, not Eastern.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: IOS SAGAR focuses on maritime collaboration with Southwest Indian Ocean Region countries.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: The initiative is aligned with India’s SAGAR doctrine (Security and Growth for All in the Region).
  • Statement 4 – Correct: INS Sunayna is equipped with CIWS and can carry a helicopter.

 

Indian Air Force Participates In Multinational Exercise Desert Flag-10 In Uae

Syllabus: Defence

 

  • A contingent of the Indian Air Force (IAF) has arrived at Al Dhafra Air Base in the United Arab Emirates to take part in Exercise Desert Flag-10, a major multinational air combat exercise.
  • The IAF is participating with MiG-29 and Jaguar fighter aircraft.
  • Exercise Desert Flag is being hosted by the UAE Air Force and features the participation of air forces from Australia, Bahrain, France, Germany, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the Republic of Korea, Turkey, the UAE, the United Kingdom, and the United States, alongside India. The exercise is scheduled to be held from 21 April to 08 May 2025.
  • The primary objective of the exercise is to conduct complex and varied aerial combat missions, promoting the exchange of operational knowledge and best practices among some of the world’s leading air forces. Such multilateral engagements foster interoperability, enhance mutual understanding, and strengthen defence cooperation among the participating nations.
  • The Indian Air Force’s involvement in the exercise reflects India’s broader strategic commitment to enhancing defence ties and building regional and global military partnerships.

Consider the following statements regarding Exercise Desert Flag-10:

  1. It is a biennial naval exercise hosted by the United Arab Emirates, with participation limited to GCC (Gulf Cooperation Council) countries.
  2. The Indian Air Force is participating with Su-30MKI and Rafale aircraft in the 2025 edition of the exercise.
  3. The exercise aims to enhance interoperability and operational synergy among participating air forces through complex air combat scenarios.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only

Answer: B. 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: Exercise Desert Flag is not a naval exercise; it is an air combat exercise. Moreover, it is not restricted to GCC countries. It includes air forces from diverse nations, such as Australia, Germany, the Republic of Korea, and the United States, indicating a global participation beyond the Gulf region.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Indian Air Force is participating in Exercise Desert Flag-10 with MiG-29 and Jaguar aircraft, not Su-30MKI or Rafale jets, which India uses in other exercises like Garuda or Red Flag.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: The objective of the exercise is to conduct complex and diverse fighter engagements, encouraging the exchange of operational knowledge and best practices to enhance interoperability among various air forces.

Galaxy NGC 1052-DF2

Syllabus :GS 3/Space

  • Astronomers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) have studied the unusual absence of dark matter in the galaxy NGC 1052-DF2, a finding that challenges conventional theories of galaxy formation.

 

Dark Matter:

  • Dark matter constitutes about 27% of the universe but does not interact with light, making it invisible.
  • It can only be detected through its gravitational effects. Along with dark energy, it accounts for approximately 95% of the universe’s total mass-energy content.
  • The remaining less than 5% consists of visible matter, such as planets, stars, and galaxies.
  • NGC 1052-DF2:NGC 1052-DF2 is an ultra-diffuse galaxy that is comparable in size to the Milky Way, but it contains far fewer stars and only 1/400th the expected amount of dark matter.
  • This galaxy is notable for its extreme deficiency of dark matter, making it a rare anomaly even among other ultra-diffuse galaxies.
  •  It has a total mass of around 340 million solar masses, most of which comes from stars, indicating an unusually low amount of dark matter compared to galaxies like the Milky Way.

 

Latest Developments:

  • In a recent study, researcher K. Aditya modeled the galaxy using stellar density data.
  • The model showed that mass models with a “cuspy” dark matter halo—where dark matter is dense at the center—did not match the observed data.
  •  This suggests that NGC 1052-DF2 may either lack dark matter altogether or possess it in a very diffuse form.
  •  This discovery raises new questions regarding galaxy formation and the elusive nature of dark matter.

Consider the following statements regarding dark matter and the galaxy NGC 1052-DF2:

  1. Dark matter makes up approximately 27% of the universe and interacts with light, making it detectable through conventional methods.
  2. NGC 1052-DF2 is an ultra-diffuse galaxy that contains around 1/400th the expected amount of dark matter compared to typical galaxies like the Milky Way.
  3. Research conducted by K. Aditya suggests that the mass models with a “cuspy” dark matter halo align with the observations of NGC 1052-DF2.
  4. NGC 1052-DF2’s mass is predominantly from stars, with very little contribution from dark matter, challenging conventional galaxy formation theories.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1, 2, and 3 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect. While dark matter does make up about 27% of the universe, it does not interact with light, which is why it is invisible. It can only be detected through its gravitational effects, not through conventional observation methods like light.
  • Statement 2: Correct. NGC 1052-DF2 is an ultra-diffuse galaxy that has only 1/400th the expected amount of dark matter compared to typical galaxies like the Milky Way. This makes it an outlier in terms of dark matter content.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect. Research by K. Aditya indicates that mass models with a “cuspy” dark matter halo (which is denser at the center) do not match the observed data for NGC 1052-DF2. This suggests that the galaxy may lack dark matter or have it in a very diffuse form, not conforming to the expected models.
  • Statement 4: Correct. The galaxy’s total mass is primarily derived from stars, with very little contribution from dark matter. This observation challenges standard theories of galaxy formation, as it does not conform to the usual models of how galaxies should develop and behave in terms of dark matter.

Ancient Jawbone Discovery Expands Insights into Denisovan Migration and Evolution

Syllabus: GS1/Geography; GS3/Science

Denisovan Jawbone Discovery Sheds Light on Archaic Human Migration

  • A remarkable fossil discovery off the coast of Taiwan is reshaping our understanding of Denisovan migration and habitat.
  • The fossilized jawbone, known as Penghu 1, was recovered from the Penghu Channel near Taiwan during a commercial fishing operation and offers new insights into the geographic range of these mysterious archaic humans.

Who Were the Denisovans?

  • Denisovans are an extinct group of archaic humans, known largely through limited fossil remains—including a jawbone, teeth, and a finger bone.
  • First Discovery: They were first identified in 2010 through DNA analysis of a finger bone found in the Denisova Cave in Siberia.
  • Genetic Lineage: Studies revealed that Denisovans were a distinct branch of the human family tree, closely related to Neanderthals and Homo sapiens.
  • Physical Features: Based on DNA methylation patterns, Denisovans likely had a broader skull and a longer dental arch than both Neanderthals and modern humans.

Significance of the Penghu 1 Discovery

Expanding Geographic Range: The Penghu 1 jawbone suggests Denisovans were more adaptable than previously thought, capable of surviving in diverse climates—from Siberia’s cold mountains to Taiwan’s subtropical coasts.

Key Denisovan Fossil Sites:

  • Taiwan (Penghu Channel): Jawbone (Penghu 1)
  • Russia (Denisova Cave): Teeth and a finger bone
  • China (Baishiya Karst Cave, Tibetan Plateau): Mandible and rib fragment
  • Laos (Cobra Cave): A molar likely belonging to a Denisovan based on shape
  • Genetic Legacy: Denisovans interbred with both Neanderthals and modern humans. Their DNA lives on in present-day populations, particularly in Asia and Oceania.
  • Notably, a gene variant from Denisovans helps modern Tibetans thrive at high altitudes.

Challenges and Future Directions

Dating Difficulties: The precise age of Penghu 1 is unclear, as it was found without surrounding sediments or datable materials. Estimates based on associated animal fossils range from 10,000 to 190,000 years old.

Need for Further Exploration: The discovery underscores the importance of investigating submerged landmasses and lesser-known regions for Denisovan remains.

Innovative Research Methods: New tools like paleoproteomics (the study of ancient proteins) may help identify additional Denisovan fossils and refine our understanding of their evolutionary story.

Recognition in Science

  • In 2022, the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Swedish geneticist Svante Pääbo for his groundbreaking work on the genomes of extinct hominins, including the Denisovans, and their role in human evolution.

Consider the following statements regarding Denisovans:

  1. The presence of Denisovan fossils exclusively in high-altitude regions suggests limited adaptability to environmental diversity.
  2. Genetic studies have confirmed Denisovan contributions to the adaptation of certain modern human populations to extreme altitudes.
  3. The Penghu 1 fossil is considered the earliest known Denisovan fossil found in a marine environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: B. 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The discovery of the Penghu 1 jawbone off the coast of Taiwan, a subtropical region, contradicts the idea that Denisovans were confined to high-altitude or cold regions. This fossil, along with others found in diverse habitats, indicates they were highly adaptable.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Genetic evidence has shown that modern populations such as Tibetans possess genes inherited from Denisovans that assist with high-altitude adaptation—specifically for efficient oxygen usage.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Although the Penghu 1 jawbone was found in a marine context (from the seabed), it is not necessarily the earliest known Denisovan fossil. Furthermore, the fossil’s precise age remains debated due to lack of datable material at the recovery site.

Neutral Conditions to Prevail in Pacific Ocean: US Weather Monitor

Syllabus: GS1/Geography

 

  • The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) has forecasted that ENSO-neutral conditions will continue to dominate the Pacific Ocean through October 2025. This indicates the absence of El Niño or La Niña phenomena, collectively referred to as the El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO).

 

What is ENSO?

  • The El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a natural climate pattern resulting from interactions between the ocean and atmosphere in the equatorial Pacific Ocean, and it influences global weather.

 

ENSO has three phases:

El Niño:

  • Warming of central and eastern Pacific Ocean waters.
  • Weakens monsoons in India and Australia.
  • Brings heavy rains to South America and floods in the southern U.S.

La Niña:

  • Cooling of ocean surface temperatures in the same region.
  • Strengthens monsoons in South Asia.
  • Triggers droughts in the U.S. Southwest and enhances Atlantic hurricane activity.

Neutral:

  • Sea surface temperatures remain near the long-term average.
  • No dominant El Niño or La Niña conditions.
  • Southern Oscillation:
  • The atmospheric component of ENSO, measured by the Southern Oscillation Index (SOI), tracks pressure differences between Tahiti and Darwin.

 

Recent Trends

  • A short and weak La Niña earlier in 2025 has transitioned into neutral conditions.
  • Sub-surface ocean temperatures have normalized, confirming the end of La Niña.

 

India’s Monsoon Outlook

  • ENSO-neutral conditions are usually associated with normal or above-normal monsoon rainfall in India.
  • This is encouraging for Indian agriculture, as nearly 70% of annual rainfall occurs during the June–September monsoon season.

 

Future Outlook

  • NOAA estimates a 50% chance that ENSO-neutral conditions will continue through August–October 2025.
  • The India Meteorological Department (IMD) will soon release its Long-Range Monsoon Forecast, factoring in these conditions.
  • Ongoing monitoring of sea surface temperatures and atmospheric changes is essential for timely detection of El Niño or La Niña developments.

With reference to the El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO), consider the following statements:

  1. El Niño events are generally associated with suppressed Atlantic hurricane activity.
  2. La Niña strengthens the Walker circulation, leading to intensified trade winds.
  3. ENSO-neutral conditions always imply the absence of extreme weather events globally.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. El Niño suppresses Atlantic hurricane activity by increasing wind shear in the region.
  • Statement 2 is correct. La Niña enhances the Walker circulation and strengthens trade winds, pushing warm water westward.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. ENSO-neutral conditions reduce the probability of ENSO-linked extreme events, but do not eliminate the occurrence of other extreme weather events caused by unrelated climatic factors.

Siachen Day: Honouring the Bravehearts of the World’s Highest Battlefield

Syllabus:Geography

  • Every year, on April 13, Siachen Day is observed to honor the courage, determination, and sacrifices of the Indian soldiers stationed at the Siachen Glacier, the highest and most challenging battlefield on earth.
  • The day commemorates the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984, when the Indian Army successfully secured the glacier to thwart Pakistan’s efforts to capture strategic positions.
  • This operation not only solidified India’s control over the Siachen region but also demonstrated remarkable cooperation between the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force (IAF).
  • As the 41st anniversary of this monumental mission is observed in 2025, the valor and sacrifices of the Siachen Warriors continue to inspire and motivate generations of Indians.

 

Key Highlights

  • Observed annually on April 13
  • Commemorates the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984
  • Pays tribute to the soldiers deployed at the Siachen Glacier

 

 


Significance of the Day

  • Marks India’s occupation of key passes—Bilafond La and Sia La
  • Demonstrates India’s strategic control over the Siachen Glacier
  • Highlights the unyielding resolve of soldiers in extreme conditions
  • Background of Operation Meghdoot
  • Initiated to counter Pakistan’s cartographic aggression and its plans to capture strategic passes in the region
  • Based on intelligence inputs that suggested Pakistan’s plan to seize the passes
  • The Indian Army launched a pre-emptive strike on April 13, 1984

 

Key Leaders of the Operation

  • Lieutenant General Manohar Lal Chibber
  • Lieutenant General P.N. Hoon
  • Major General Shiv Sharma

 

Role of the Indian Air Force (IAF)

  • The IAF began operations in the Siachen region as early as 1978
  • The Chetak helicopter was the first to land on the glacier in October 1978
  • The IAF played a pivotal role in airlifting troops, supplies, and logistics
  • Aircrafts used: An-12, An-32, IL-76, Mi-8, Mi-17, Chetak, Cheetah

 

Geopolitical Importance of Siachen

  • Located at an altitude of 20,000 feet in the Karakoram Range
  • Controls the Shaksgam Valley to the north, and key routes from Gilgit Baltistan to Leh (west)
  • Also guards the Ancient Karakoram Pass (east)
  • Borders Gilgit Baltistan, Shaksgam, and Ladakh
  • Strategic Outcome of Operation Meghdoot
  • India gained full control over the entire Siachen Glacier
  • Prevented Pakistani intrusion in the uncharted territory beyond NJ9842
  • Established a permanent Indian presence on the Frozen Frontier

 

Cultural & Emotional Resonance:

  • The Indian Army continues to guard the glacier under extreme conditions, including sub-zero temperatures, avalanche risks, and isolated living conditions.
  • Siachen Day stands as a reminder of the unparalleled bravery and commitment of Indian soldiers who defend the nation’s strategic interests in one of the harshest terrains on the planet.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Siachen Day and Operation Meghdoot?

  1. Siachen Day is observed annually on April 13 to commemorate the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984.
  2. The operation was initiated by India in response to Pakistan’s plans to capture the Shaksgam Valley and key passes.
  3. The Indian Air Force played a critical role in airlifting troops and supplies during Operation Meghdoot, with the Chetak helicopter being the first to land on the Siachen Glacier in 1978.
  4. Operation Meghdoot resulted in India gaining control over the Siachen Glacier and preventing Pakistani intrusion in the uncharted region beyond NJ9842.]

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct as Siachen Day is indeed observed on April 13 annually to honor the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984.
  • Statement 2 is also correct. The operation was initiated to counter Pakistan’s strategic plans to capture key passes in the region, including the Shaksgam Valley.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The Indian Air Force had already started operations in the Siachen region in 1978, with the Chetak helicopter being the first to land on the glacier in that year.
  • Statement 4 is correct as the operation resulted in India establishing control over the entire Siachen Glacier and effectively blocking Pakistan’s access to the uncharted territory beyond NJ9842.

Siachen Day: Honouring the Bravehearts of the World’s Highest Battlefield

Syllabus:Geography

  • Every year, on April 13, Siachen Day is observed to honor the courage, determination, and sacrifices of the Indian soldiers stationed at the Siachen Glacier, the highest and most challenging battlefield on earth.
  • The day commemorates the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984, when the Indian Army successfully secured the glacier to thwart Pakistan’s efforts to capture strategic positions.
  • This operation not only solidified India’s control over the Siachen region but also demonstrated remarkable cooperation between the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force (IAF).
  • As the 41st anniversary of this monumental mission is observed in 2025, the valor and sacrifices of the Siachen Warriors continue to inspire and motivate generations of Indians.

 

Key Highlights

  • Observed annually on April 13
  • Commemorates the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984
  • Pays tribute to the soldiers deployed at the Siachen Glacier

 

 


Significance of the Day

  • Marks India’s occupation of key passes—Bilafond La and Sia La
  • Demonstrates India’s strategic control over the Siachen Glacier
  • Highlights the unyielding resolve of soldiers in extreme conditions
  • Background of Operation Meghdoot
  • Initiated to counter Pakistan’s cartographic aggression and its plans to capture strategic passes in the region
  • Based on intelligence inputs that suggested Pakistan’s plan to seize the passes
  • The Indian Army launched a pre-emptive strike on April 13, 1984

 

Key Leaders of the Operation

  • Lieutenant General Manohar Lal Chibber
  • Lieutenant General P.N. Hoon
  • Major General Shiv Sharma

 

Role of the Indian Air Force (IAF)

  • The IAF began operations in the Siachen region as early as 1978
  • The Chetak helicopter was the first to land on the glacier in October 1978
  • The IAF played a pivotal role in airlifting troops, supplies, and logistics
  • Aircrafts used: An-12, An-32, IL-76, Mi-8, Mi-17, Chetak, Cheetah

 

Geopolitical Importance of Siachen

  • Located at an altitude of 20,000 feet in the Karakoram Range
  • Controls the Shaksgam Valley to the north, and key routes from Gilgit Baltistan to Leh (west)
  • Also guards the Ancient Karakoram Pass (east)
  • Borders Gilgit Baltistan, Shaksgam, and Ladakh
  • Strategic Outcome of Operation Meghdoot
  • India gained full control over the entire Siachen Glacier
  • Prevented Pakistani intrusion in the uncharted territory beyond NJ9842
  • Established a permanent Indian presence on the Frozen Frontier

 

Cultural & Emotional Resonance:

  • The Indian Army continues to guard the glacier under extreme conditions, including sub-zero temperatures, avalanche risks, and isolated living conditions.
  • Siachen Day stands as a reminder of the unparalleled bravery and commitment of Indian soldiers who defend the nation’s strategic interests in one of the harshest terrains on the planet.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Siachen Day and Operation Meghdoot?

  1. Siachen Day is observed annually on April 13 to commemorate the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984.
  2. The operation was initiated by India in response to Pakistan’s plans to capture the Shaksgam Valley and key passes.
  3. The Indian Air Force played a critical role in airlifting troops and supplies during Operation Meghdoot, with the Chetak helicopter being the first to land on the Siachen Glacier in 1978.
  4. Operation Meghdoot resulted in India gaining control over the Siachen Glacier and preventing Pakistani intrusion in the uncharted region beyond NJ9842.]

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct as Siachen Day is indeed observed on April 13 annually to honor the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984.
  • Statement 2 is also correct. The operation was initiated to counter Pakistan’s strategic plans to capture key passes in the region, including the Shaksgam Valley.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The Indian Air Force had already started operations in the Siachen region in 1978, with the Chetak helicopter being the first to land on the glacier in that year.
  • Statement 4 is correct as the operation resulted in India establishing control over the entire Siachen Glacier and effectively blocking Pakistan’s access to the uncharted territory beyond NJ9842.

WAVES 2025 - Anti-Piracy Challenge

Syllabus:Geography

 

Context: The Anti-Piracy Challenge, a flagship programme under the Create in India Challenge, has been launched as part of WAVES 2025 (World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit). Organised by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, the summit will be held in Mumbai, Maharashtra, from May 1 to 4, 2025. The initiative seeks to promote the development of advanced indigenous technologies to tackle digital piracy.

 

 

Objective of the Challenge:

The Anti-Piracy Challenge is specifically designed to encourage innovation in digital content protection, focusing on technologies such as digital fingerprinting, watermarking, and other mechanisms to counteract the increasing threat of piracy in India’s growing digital entertainment ecosystem.

 

About WAVES 2025:

WAVES is a premier global platform initiated by the Government of India to position the country as a leader in media innovation, intellectual property (IP) creation, and digital content development. The event showcases India’s capabilities across a wide array of sectors, including:

  • Traditional Media: Broadcasting, Television, Radio, Films
  • Digital and Creative Arts: Animation, Gaming, Comics, Advertising
  • Emerging Technologies: Generative AI, Augmented/Virtual/Extended Reality (AR/VR/XR), Digital Platforms

 

Significance of the Initiative:

  • The initiative aligns with India’s broader vision to harness the creative economy, currently valued at USD 30 billion, which supports nearly 8% of the national workforce.
  • It reinforces India’s strategic push toward self-reliance in the Media and Entertainment (M&E) sector, which is projected to grow to USD 44.2 billion by 2028, already ranking as the 5th largest globally.
  • Through initiatives like the Anti-Piracy Challenge and WAVES 2025, the Government seeks to foster a robust framework for content innovation, employment generation, and technological leadership in digital media.

With reference to the “Anti-Piracy Challenge” under the Create in India initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. The Anti-Piracy Challenge is a key component of the WAVES 2025 summit aimed at promoting indigenous innovation in digital content security.
  2. The challenge is primarily focused on advancing technologies like fingerprinting and watermarking to combat the rise of digital piracy in India’s entertainment sector.
  3. WAVES 2025 will be held in New Delhi, and it covers only the sectors of broadcasting and television.
  4. The initiative aims to position India as a global leader in the creative economy, which is expected to contribute significantly to the Media and Entertainment sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Anti-Piracy Challenge is indeed a flagship initiative under the Create in India programme, which will be highlighted during the WAVES 2025
  • Statement 2 is correct. The initiative aims to enhance fingerprinting and watermarking technologies to address digital piracy in India’s entertainment sector.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. WAVES 2025 is to be held in Mumbai, not New Delhi, and it encompasses a wide array of sectors, not just broadcasting and television.
  • Statement 4 is correct. The initiative aligns with India’s broader goal of becoming a global leader in the creative economy, which plays a pivotal role in the growing Media and Entertainment sector.

Gaza Strip

Syllabus: GS1/ Places in News

  • Israel has gained control over more than 50% of the Gaza Strip’s territory since resuming its military operations against Hamas.

About the Gaza Strip:

  • Location: The Gaza Strip is a small region situated along the eastern Mediterranean coast. It borders Israel to the north and east and Egypt to the southwest, covering approximately 365 square kilometers.
  • Conflict Zone: The Gaza Strip has been the site of recurring conflicts between Israel and Hamas, with major wars occurring in 2008, 2012, 2014, and most recently in 2023–2024.
  • Humanitarian Crisis: Due to the ongoing blockade and repeated conflicts, the Gaza Strip faces severe humanitarian challenges, including high unemployment, limited access to clean water, electricity, and healthcare, and widespread poverty.

With reference to the Gaza Strip, consider the following statements:

  1. It shares a border with both Israel and Jordan.
  2. It has an area less than that of the Indian city of Mumbai.
  3. It lies along the Red Sea coast.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Gaza shares borders with Israel and Egypt, not Jordan.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Gaza Strip’s area is approx. 365 sq km, which is less than Mumbai’s area (~603 sq km).
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It lies along the eastern Mediterranean Sea, not the Red Sea.

North Sentinel Island

Recent Development:

  • A U.S. citizen has been arrested for illegally entering North Sentinel Island, home to one of the world’s last uncontacted tribes.

 

Geographical Overview:

  • Located in the Bay of Bengal, under the South Andaman administrative district of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, India.
  • Situated approximately 50 km west of Port Blair.
  • Surrounded by coral reefs, making access via sea extremely challenging.
  • Characterized by white-sand beaches, mangrove forests, and dense tropical vegetation.
  • The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake uplifted the island, exposing new coral reefs and increasing its landmass.

 

Sentinelese Tribe – Indigenous Inhabitants:

  • Among the last uncontacted tribes in the world.
  • Maintain complete isolation and display hostility towards outsiders.
  • Follow a hunter-gatherer lifestyle, using bows, arrows, spears, and dugout canoes.
  • Population estimates range between 50–150 individuals.

 

Legal Protection & Governance:

Andaman & Nicobar Islands (Protection of Aboriginal Tribes) Regulation, 1956:

  • Prohibits travel within 5 nautical miles (9 km) of the island.
  • Sentinelese are exempt from prosecution for acts of defensive aggression.

 

Restricted Area Permit (RAP):

Revoked in 2018 for 29 islands, but North Sentinel remains strictly off-limits.

Tourism, filming, fishing, and visits are strictly prohibited to protect the tribe and prevent external disease exposure.

Katchatheevu Island

Recent Developments

  • The Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly has passed a resolution urging the Union government to take steps to reclaim Katchatheevu Island from Sri Lanka.
  • The demand is rooted in concerns over Tamil Nadu fishermen’s traditional fishing rights and the ongoing harassment by the Sri Lankan Navy.

 

 

About Katchatheevu Island

  • Location: Situated in the Palk Strait, between Tamil Nadu, India, and northern Sri Lanka.
  • Geography: A small, uninhabited island spanning approximately 285 acres.
  • Proximity:
  • 5 km south of Delft Island (Sri Lanka).
  • 16 km northeast of Rameswaram (India).

 

Features:

  • Lacks drinking water or permanent infrastructure.
  • Houses a Catholic church dedicated to St. Anthony, a pilgrimage site for both Indian and Sri Lankan fishermen.

Historical Dispute

  • Origins (1921): The dispute over Katchatheevu began between the British colonial administrations of Madras (India) and Ceylon (Sri Lanka).

 

Resolution (1974 & 1976 Agreements):

  • 1974 Agreement: India officially recognized Sri Lanka’s sovereignty over Katchatheevu.
  • 1976 Agreement: Defined maritime boundaries, including the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of both nations.

 

Key Provisions:

  • Indian fishermen could visit Katchatheevu for the annual Anthony’s festival.
  • However, fishing in Sri Lankan waters was strictly prohibited.

 

Strategic & Diplomatic Considerations

  • India’s decision to cede Katchatheevu was influenced by broader diplomatic interests, particularly in maintaining favorable relations with Sri Lanka amidst its growing ties with China.
  • In return, India secured sovereign rights over the Wadge Bank, a region near Kanniyakumari known for its rich marine resources.

 

Government’s Position

  • The Union government has consistently opposed any move to reclaim Katchatheevu, arguing that the 1974 and 1976 agreements settled the dispute.
  • The matter remains pending before the Supreme Court, where the government asserts that no Indian territory was ceded, as Katchatheevu was never under Indian sovereignty post-independence.

 

Conclusion

  • While Tamil Nadu continues to push for the retrieval of Katchatheevu, the Union government maintains that the agreements remain legally binding.
  • The dispute persists, particularly due to concerns over fishermen’s rights and Sri Lankan naval actions in the region.

Consider the following statements regarding the Katchatheevu Island dispute:

  1. The dispute over Katchatheevu began after India’s independence in 1947.
  2. The 1974 Agreement between India and Sri Lanka granted Sri Lankan sovereignty over Katchatheevu, but allowed Indian fishermen to fish in its surrounding waters.
  3. The 1976 Agreement demarcated the maritime boundaries and exclusive economic zones (EEZs) between India and Sri Lanka.
  4. India’s decision to recognize Sri Lankan sovereignty over Katchatheevu was influenced by its strategic interests in securing sovereign rights over the Wadge Bank.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The dispute over Katchatheevu dates back to 1921 during British rule, not post-independence.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The 1974 Agreement did not allow Indian fishermen to fish in Katchatheevu’s surrounding waters; they were only allowed to visit for the St. Anthony’s festival.

Statement 3 is correct: The 1976 Agreement established maritime boundaries and exclusive economic zones (EEZs) between India and Sri Lanka.

Statement 4 is correct: India’s strategic interests included securing Wadge Bank, a marine resource-rich region near Kanniyakumari.

Over 160 Killed by Lightning in March-April 2025

Syllabus: GS1/ Geography

  • Between March and mid-April 2025, 162 people tragically lost their lives due to lightning strikes across 12 Indian states. The worst-hit region was Bihar, which recorded 99 deaths, accounting for 61% of the national total, followed by Uttar Pradesh.

What is Lightning?

  • Lightning is an electrical discharge that occurs between charged particles in a cloud and the ground. When the voltage in the atmosphere reaches approximately 3 million volts per meter, the air’s insulating properties break down, allowing a powerful electric current to flow. This results in a sudden burst of energy, creating a bright flash of light and a thunderous sound.

How Does Lightning Develop?

  • Several factors contribute to the development of lightning, including:
  • High humidity in regions like eastern states and coastal areas, which promotes thunderstorms.
  • Topographical features like the Himalayas and Western Ghats, influencing lightning frequency.
  • Monsoon dynamics, where moist air rises, driving thunderstorms and lightning.
  • Rapid urbanization and industrialization, which increase the occurrence of artificial heat sources and aerosols that enhance thunderstorms.
  • Climate change, which alters weather patterns and potentially increases the frequency and intensity of lightning events.
  • Agricultural practices, such as burning agricultural residues, which add particulates to the atmosphere and heighten the risk of thunderstorms.

 

Government Initiatives

  • To mitigate the risks posed by lightning, several government efforts have been made:
  • The CROPC (Climate Resilient Observing Systems Promotion Council) developed India’s first Lightning Early Warning System to predict lightning strikes and issue alerts.
  • The SACHET mobile app was launched to provide timely lightning hazard alerts to the public.
  • In 2020, the Damini Lightning App was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) to track lightning strikes and raise awareness.

 

Moving Forward

  • To reduce lightning fatalities, it is crucial to:
  • Strengthen communication systems so that warnings reach vulnerable populations efficiently.
  • Train local authorities to act swiftly based on early warnings.
  • Increase public awareness about lightning safety, especially during the pre-monsoon and monsoon seasons.
  • Improve ground-level implementation of NDMA (National Disaster Management Authority) protocols to minimize the impact and save lives.
  • With these measures in place, we hope to reduce the devastating impact of lightning and protect more lives in the future.

Consider the following factors contributing to the increased frequency of lightning strikes in India:

  1. High humidity in coastal areas and eastern states.
  2. The orographic effect caused by the Himalayas and Western Ghats.
  3. Increased aerosol concentration due to urbanization and industrialization.
  4. The effect of global warming on atmospheric convection and storm dynamics.

Which of the factors listed above is/are most directly responsible for the increased frequency and intensity of lightning strikes in India?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

  • Explanation:
    All the factors listed contribute significantly to the increased frequency of lightning strikes.
  • High humidity in coastal and eastern regions promotes thunderstorms, which often result in lightning.
  • Orographic lifting in regions like the Himalayas and Western Ghats leads to intense storm formations and lightning.
  • Urbanization and industrialization increase the concentration of aerosols in the atmosphere, enhancing cloud formation and intensifying lightning events.
  • Climate change alters temperature and moisture dynamics, further driving more intense lightning occurrences.

India’s Claim Over Continental Shelf in Arabian Sea

Syllabus: GS1/Geography; GS2/Global Groupings & Agreements

Strategic Expansion:

  • India has expanded its claim in the Central Arabian Sea, adding nearly 10,000 sq. km to its Extended Continental Shelf (ECS), reinforcing its maritime footprint.

 

What is the Continental Shelf?

  • Defined under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
  • A submerged extension of a nation’s landmass, reaching from the coast to the deep ocean
  • Grants nations sovereign rights to explore and exploit seabed resources like oil, gas, and minerals

India’s Latest Move

  • Led by NCPOR (Goa), the new claim could bring India’s seabed area close to its land area of 3.274 million sq. km
  • Modified Strategy: In response to Pakistan’s objections, India made partial submissions, securing undisputed areas and deferring contentious zones for bilateral resolution

 

Understanding EEZ and ECS

  • EEZ (Exclusive Economic Zone): Extends 200 nautical miles from the coast; exclusive rights to fishing and seabed resource extraction
  • ECS: Area beyond the EEZ; requires scientific proof to be claimed under UNCLOS, reviewed by the Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf (CLCS)

 

Claiming the ECS: The UNCLOS Process

  • Scientific Surveys: Geological, bathymetric, and sediment data
  • Submission to CLCS: Technical data and boundary maps
  • CLCS Review: Recommends changes or approves claims
  • Resolving Overlaps: Through negotiations with neighboring countries
  • Final Rights: Accepted claims grant rights to seabed resources

 

Geopolitical Considerations

  • Pakistan: Opposed claims near Sir Creek; led to India’s modified strategy
  • Oman: Overlapping ECS resolved via 2010 agreement
  • Myanmar & Sri Lanka: Challenging India’s ECS in the Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean (approx. 300,000 sq. km)

To justify an ECS claim under UNCLOS, which combination of the following is required?

  1. Morphological and geological evidence of continental margin continuity
  2. Ocean current velocity profiles across the ECS
  3. Seismic and sediment thickness data supporting natural prolongation
  4. Baseline calibration based on historical Exclusive Fisheries Zones (EFZs)

Choose the correct combination:

(a) 1, 2, and 4
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:
To support ECS claims, morphological, geological, and sediment thickness data are required to establish natural prolongation of the continental shelf beyond 200 NM. Ocean current velocity and EFZ history are not scientifically relevant criteria under UNCLOS Annex II.

Sandy Cay Reef Dispute

Syllabus:Geography

 

Context: China and the Philippines have exchanged accusations over the Sandy Cay reef dispute in the South China Sea, escalating maritime tensions as both nations assert sovereignty over the area.

About Sandy Cay Reef:

 

Location:
Sandy Cay Reef is part of the northern Thitu Reefs, located within the Spratly Islands in the South China Sea. It is situated approximately northwest of Thitu Island (Pag-asa) and northeast of Subi Reef.

Disputed Claims:
The reef is claimed by China, Philippines, Taiwan, and Vietnam. In 2025, China announced that it had implemented “maritime control” over Sandy Cay, a claim that was strongly rejected by the Philippines.

 

Other Notable Locations:

  • Thitu Island (Pag-asa): Administered by the Philippines, it has a military base and a Coast Guard station.
  • Subi Reef: Heavily militarized by China, located near Sandy Cay.

 

 

About the South China Sea:

  • Location:
    The South China Sea is an arm of the western Pacific Ocean, bordered by Southeast Asia and East Asia.
  • Nations Bordering the South China Sea:China, Taiwan, Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Vietnam, and Indonesia.

 

Disputed Islands and Claimants:

  • Spratly Islands: Disputed among China, Philippines, Vietnam, Malaysia, Taiwan, and Brunei.
  • Paracel Islands: Claimed by China, Taiwan, and Vietnam.
  • Scarborough Shoal: Contested primarily between China and the Philippines.

 

Rivers Flowing into the South China Sea:

  • Mekong River (Vietnam)
  • Red River (Vietnam)
  • Pearl (Zhu) River (China)
  • Other Features:
  • China Sea Basin: The deepest part of the South China Sea, with depths reaching up to 5,016 meters.
  • Sunda Shelf: A broad, shallow shelf that connects the South China Sea to the Gulf of Thailand and Java Sea.
  • Key Straits: Taiwan Strait, Luzon Strait, and Strait of Malacca.

Consider the following statements regarding the South China Sea:

  1. The Mekong River and Pearl River flow into the South China Sea.
  2. The Sunda Shelf connects the South China Sea to the Gulf of Thailand and Java Sea.
  3. The deepest point in the South China Sea is located in the Paracel Islands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • Mekong River flows through Southeast Asia (China, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, Vietnam) and empties into the South China Sea via Vietnam.
  • Pearl River (Zhujiang) flows through southern China and drains into the South China Sea near Hong Kong and Macau.

 

Davis Strait Proto-Microcontinent

Syllabus:Geography

  • A hidden landmass, termed the Davis Strait proto-microcontinent, has been recently discovered beneath the waters of the Davis Strait, located between Baffin Island (Canada) and Greenland.

 

About the Proto-Microcontinent:

  • It is a submerged primitive microcontinent, formed as a result of the tectonic evolution of the Davis Strait.
  • The microcontinent comprises thickened continental crust measuring 19–24 km in thickness, flanked by narrow bands of thinner crust (15–17 km) that separate it from Greenland and Baffin Island.
  • It formed due to plate tectonic reconfiguration millions of years ago, which reshaped the Earth’s crust in the region.

 

Davis Strait – Key Geographical and Geological Features:

  • Located between southeastern Baffin Island and southwestern Greenland, it links Baffin Bay (north) and the Labrador Sea (south).
  • It forms part of the Northwest Passage, a strategic Arctic maritime route connecting the Atlantic and Arctic Oceans.
  • The strait spans approximately 650 km north-south and is 200 to 400 miles wide, making it one of the broadest straits globally.
  • It exhibits complex geological features such as underwater basins and ridges, formed by strike-slip faulting along the Ungava Fault Zone (~45–62 million years ago).
  • These tectonic shifts influenced the formation of Baffin Bay, the Labrador Sea, and ultimately, the Davis Strait.

With reference to the Davis Strait proto-microcontinent, recently discovered in the North Atlantic, consider the following statements:

  1. It is located between the Canadian island of Newfoundland and Greenland.
  2. It consists of thinned oceanic crust and lies along a tectonic plate boundary.
  3. It is a submerged primitive continental fragment formed due to ancient strike-slip faulting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B. 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect:The Davis Strait lies between Baffin Island (not Newfoundland) and Greenland. Newfoundland is located further south and not part of this tectonic context.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect:The proto-microcontinent is made of thickened continental crust, not oceanic crust. Also, while it lies in a tectonically complex region, it is not directly along a present-day active tectonic plate boundary, but formed due to past tectonic shifts.
  • Statement 3: Correct:The Davis Strait proto-microcontinent is a submerged primitive continental fragment. It was formed millions of years ago due to strike-slip faulting (particularly along the Ungava Fault Zone), which reconfigured the crust between Greenland and Baffin Island.

Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel

Syllabus: Geography

Context:

  • The Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project is a transformative initiative aimed at improving all-weather connectivity between Jammu & Kashmir and the rest of India.
  • With the completion of the Katra–Sangaldan section, uninterrupted rail access to the Kashmir Valley has been achieved.

About Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel:

  • Alternate Name: Banihal Railway Tunnel
  • Length:2 km – India’s longest railway transportation tunnel
  • Location: Connects Quazigund (Kashmir Valley) to Banihal (Jammu region), passing under the Pir Panjal Range
  • Rail Gauge: India’s only broad-gauge mountain railway tunnel
  • Part of: USBRL’s 202-km core segment

Pir Panjal Range – Geographical and Strategic Significance:

  • Mountain System: Part of the Lesser Himalayas, extending across Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir

 

Key Peaks:

  • Indrasan – 6,221 m
  • Deo Tibba – 6,001 m

 

Hydrological Importance:

  • Acts as a watershed separating the Chenab River basin from the Beas and Ravi basins
  • Source region for tributaries of the Jhelum and Indus Rivers

 

Important Passes & Routes:

  • Pir Panjal Pass (3,490 m): Traversed by the historic Mughal Road, linking Poonch and Rajouri with Srinagar
  • Banihal Pass: Jawahar Tunnel (2.5 km) enables road connectivity between Banihal and Qazigund

 

Cultural and Strategic Importance:

  • Region is home to popular destinations like Gulmarg
  • Historically served as a vital trade route connecting Kashmir with the rest of India 

With reference to the Pir Panjal Range and the Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel, consider the following statements:

  1. The Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel connects Quazigund in the Kashmir Valley with Banihal in the Jammu region and is India’s longest rail transportation tunnel.
  2. The Pir Panjal Range forms a part of the Greater Himalayas and acts as a major watershed between the Jhelum and Sutlej rivers.
  3. The Mughal Road and Jawahar Tunnel both traverse passes located in the Pir Panjal Range.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct:The Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel, also called the Banihal Tunnel, is India’s longest transportation railway tunnel at 2 km and connects Quazigund (Kashmir) with Banihal (Jammu).
  • Statement 2: Incorrect:The Pir Panjal Range is part of the Lesser Himalayas, not the Greater Himalayas.Also, it separates the Chenab River basin from the Beas and Ravi rivers, not the Sutlej.
  • Statement 3: Correct:Both the Mughal Road (via Pir Panjal Pass) and the Jawahar Tunnel (under Banihal Pass) are strategic routes traversing the Pir Panjal Range.

Cloudburst-Triggered Landslide in Jammu and Kashmir

Syllabus: GS1/ Geography

 

Context

  • A recent cloudburst in Ramban tehsil, Jammu and Kashmir, triggered torrential rains, hailstorms, and strong winds, resulting in widespread damage and disruption across the region.

What is a Cloudburst?

  • A cloudburst is a localized extreme weather event characterized by intense rainfall over a short period, often resulting in flash floods. While more frequent in hilly regions, cloudbursts can also occur in plains.

Definition:

  • 10 cm or more rainfall in an hour over a 10 km x 10 km area
  • 5 cm rainfall in 30 minutes over the same area also qualifies

Mechanism of Cloudbursts:

  • Cloudbursts are more common in mountainous terrains due to a process called orographic lift:
  • Moist, warm air is forced to rise when it hits a mountain slope.
  • As it ascends, the air expands and cools due to lower pressure.
  • Cooling causes condensation, forming dense clouds and heavy rainfall.

What is Orographic Rain?

  • Orographic rain occurs when moist air is lifted over a mountain range:
  • Air rises and cools.
  • Moisture condenses to form clouds.
  • Heavy rainfall occurs on the windward side.
  • The leeward side remains dry — known as the rain shadow area.

Impacts of Cloudbursts

  • Flash Floods: Sudden inflow overwhelms rivers and drainage systems, especially in rocky, non-absorbent hilly regions.Example: 2013 Kedarnath disaster.
  • Landslides: Triggered by saturated soil, leading to rapid downhill movement of rocks and debris.
  • Loss of Life & Livelihood: Sudden onset leaves minimal time for evacuation; homes, crops, and livestock are often destroyed.
  • Infrastructure Damage: Roads, bridges, electricity lines, and telecom networks are frequently washed away.
  • Social Disruption: Leads to trauma, displacement, migration, and affects essential services like health and education in remote areas.

Measures Taken in India:

  • Disaster Management Act, 2005: Framework for disaster risk reduction at national and state levels.
  • National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM): Capacity building and training support.
  • Early Warning Systems
  • India Meteorological Department (IMD): Uses Ensemble Prediction Systems (EPS) for rainfall accuracy.
  • Doppler Weather Radars (DWRs): Real-time detection of intense rainfall, especially in vulnerable zones.
  • Flash Flood Guidance System (FFGS): Developed with WMO to issue early warnings across South Asia.
  • Mobile Alert Systems: Real-time SMS and app notifications by IMD and NDMA.

Way Forward:

  • To reduce the devastating impact of cloudbursts, India must adopt a holistic, proactive strategy:
  • Strict land-use planning and enforcement of zoning regulations in high-risk areas
  • Resilient infrastructure, including:
  • Efficient stormwater drainage
  • Slope stabilization
  • Rainwater harvesting systems
  • Community-based preparedness and localized disaster response training
  • Climate change adaptation must be mainstreamed into all disaster management strategies, as the frequency and intensity of extreme weather events continue to rise.

Consider the following statements regarding disaster management in India:

  1. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 is applicable only to natural disasters.
  2. The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is responsible for disaster response and relief operations on the ground.
  3. The Act provides for the establishment of National and State Disaster Management Authorities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C) 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Disaster Management Act, 2005 covers both natural and man-made disasters.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The NIDM focuses on capacity building, research, and training, not direct response.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Act establishes the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs).

HKH Snow Update Report 2025

Syllabus:Geography

 

  • The HKH Snow Update Report 2025, published by the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD), has revealed a stark decline in snow persistence across the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) region.
  • This decline is particularly pronounced across the Ganga, Indus, and Brahmaputra river basins, raising serious concerns over long-term water security in the region.

 

What is Snow Persistence?

  • Snow persistence denotes the duration for which snow remains on the ground following snowfall.
  • It plays a critical role in the seasonal hydrological cycle, acting as a natural reservoir that gradually releases water during the early summer months—a lifeline for agricultural irrigation, drinking water, and hydropower generation.

 

Alarming Trends in Snow Cover Decline

  • According to the report:
  • The Ganga basin registered its lowest snow persistence in 23 years, with a decline of -24.1%.
  • The Indus and Brahmaputra basins each recorded a -27.9%
  • The Tibetan Plateau, a vital water source for many North Indian rivers, saw a sharp fall from +92.4% in 2022 to -29.1% in 2025—highlighting extreme regional climate sensitivity.
  • These consistent downward trends signal a shift towards persistent below-normal snow conditions, now in their third consecutive year.

 

Implications for Water Security

  • The loss of snow cover severely impacts snowmelt-fed river flows, particularly during the critical dry season. This jeopardizes the water supply for nearly 300 million people, with downstream implications for:
  • Agriculture, especially in north India and Pakistan.
  • Hydropower production, which depends on consistent river flows.
  • Domestic water availability, especially in urban centres.
  • Disaster vulnerability, increasing the risk of drought and water stress.

 

A Regional Climate Alarm

  • The rapid decline in snow cover underscores the HKH region’s climate vulnerability. The Tibetan Plateau’s transition from positive to sharply negative snow persistence in just three years exemplifies how fragile these ecosystems have become under changing climatic conditions.

 

Long-Term Context

  • While snow persistence has historically shown variability, recent declines are more intense and prolonged. For instance, the Ganga basin experienced a +30.2% increase in 2015, but today’s levels are at a historical low. This stark reversal emphasizes the urgency of climate-resilient planning.

 

The Way Forward: ICIMOD’s Recommendations

  • To address these cascading risks, the report advocates:
  • Integrated water resource management (IWRM) tailored for mountain regions.
  • Enhanced drought preparedness and climate-resilient infrastructure.
  • Investment in early warning systems for better disaster response.
  • Cross-border cooperation on shared river systems to ensure equitable water sharing.
  • Policy alignment with scientific data for adaptive governance and planning.
  • The findings of the HKH Snow Update Report 2025 highlight an emerging environmental crisis with far-reaching socio-economic and geopolitical implications. Mitigating its effects will require coordinated, evidence-based actions at both national and regional levels.

With reference to the HKH Snow Update Report 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. The decline in snow persistence across the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) region has remained consistent only in the Ganga basin, while the Indus and Brahmaputra basins have shown increasing trends.
  2. The Tibetan Plateau, despite being a major source of North Indian rivers, has shown minimal variation in snow persistence over the past three years.
  3. The term “snow persistence” refers to the period snow remains on the ground and plays a crucial role in seasonal water availability, particularly during pre-monsoon months.
  4. The HKH region has experienced three consecutive years of below-normal snow conditions, posing serious implications for transboundary water management.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: B. 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • The statement wrongly claims that only the Ganga basin has shown a consistent decline in snow persistence. According to the 2025 report, all three major river basins—Ganga, Indus, and Brahmaputra—have shown steep and simultaneous declines in snow persistence, with Indus and Brahmaputra both registering -27.9%, making this statement factually incorrect.
  • Contrary to what this statement suggests, the Tibetan Plateau has shown drastic year-on-year changes in snow persistence. From a positive anomaly of +92.4% in 2022, it dropped to -29.1% in 2025, which is not minimal by any measure. This indicates high climatic sensitivity, making the statement invalid.
  • The definition is accurate. Snow persistence is indeed the duration snow remains after a snowfall, and it plays a vital role in regulating early summer (pre-monsoon) water supply, particularly in snowmelt-fed river systems.
  • The report clearly mentions that the HKH region has experienced three consecutive years of below-normal snow conditions, and highlights the severe implications for water security, especially in transboundary river basins, requiring urgent cooperation and management.

Davis Strait Proto-Microcontinent

Syllabus:Geography

Overview:

  • A recent international geological study led by scientists from the United Kingdom and Sweden has unveiled a previously unknown microcontinental landmass beneath the icy waters of the Davis Strait.
  • This discovery sheds new light on the tectonic evolution of the North Atlantic region and offers crucial insights into continental drift and plate dynamics.

 

 

Location and Composition:

  • Situated offshore of western Greenland, the Davis Strait proto-micro continent lies submerged between Canada’s Baffin Island and Greenland.
  • It comprises exceptionally thick continental crust, ranging between 12 to 15 miles (approximately 19 to 24 kilometers).
  • The presence of such crustal thickness under the seabed suggests an ancient continental origin distinct from typical oceanic formations.

 

Methodology of Discovery:

  • The identification of this proto-microcontinent was achieved through the integration of satellite gravity data and seismic imaging techniques.
  • These methods enabled researchers to determine variations in rock density and reconstruct sub-seafloor geological structures, facilitating the detection of this concealed crustal fragment.

 

Tectonic History:

  • The tectonic separation between Greenland and the North American landmass initiated nearly 120 million years ago, with substantial seafloor spreading commencing around 61 million years ago.
  • This divergence was driven by tectonic forces along the Pre-Ungava Transform Margin, which directed Greenland’s movement toward the northeast.
  • Approximately 56 million years ago, modifications in tectonic forces led to the emergence of the Davis Strait proto-micro continent.
  • However, an episode of aborted rifting around 48 million years ago, caused by the reconfiguration of tectonic stresses and the emergence of a new fault system, halted further separation of the North American plate.

 

Geological Significance of the Davis Strait:The Davis Strait is a critical maritime corridor linking Baffin Bay with the Labrador Sea and forms part of the strategic Northwest Passage.

  • It extends roughly 650 kilometers (400 miles) in length and spans between 320 to 640 kilometers (200 to 400 miles) in width.
  • Geologically, the region hosts an array of submarine basins and tectonic ridges, which are relics of the complex tectonic interactions over millions of years.

 

Broader Implications:

  • The discovery of the Davis Strait proto-microcontinent contributes significantly to the scientific understanding of North Atlantic plate tectonics.
  • It provides valuable context for the ancient processes of continental fragmentation, offers insights for future geological and paleoclimatic studies, and may also influence environmental and resource assessments in the Arctic region.

With reference to the recently discovered Davis Strait proto-microcontinent, consider the following statements:

  1. It was formed as a result of recent glacial activity in the Arctic Ocean.
  2. It lies between Canada’s Baffin Island and Greenland.
  3. It comprises unusually thick continental crust, distinct from oceanic crust.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The microcontinent is a result of ancient tectonic activity, not glacial processes.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Davis Strait separates Baffin Island and Greenland.
  • Statement 3 is correct: It has a thick continental crust (12–15 miles), atypical of oceanic regions.

Extreme Weather Events Forecasting with AI

Syllabus: GS1/ Geography

  • As extreme weather events become more frequent, Artificial Intelligence (AI) is emerging as a powerful tool to enhance the accuracy and timeliness of weather forecasting, going beyond the limitations of traditional physics-based models.

 

Traditional Weather Prediction Models

  • Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP): Uses fluid dynamics and thermodynamics equations to simulate atmospheric behavior.
  • Inputs: Data from satellites, radars, weather stations.
  • Requires: High-performance supercomputers for processing.
  • Limitation: Struggles with nonlinear systems and local conditions.

 

AI-Based Weather Prediction

  • Data-Driven: Relies on machine learning algorithms to detect patterns and correlations in large datasets.
  • No need for prior knowledge of physical laws.
  • Learns from inputs like temperature, humidity, wind, etc., to forecast events such as cyclones or heavy rainfall.

 

Advantages of AI Models

  • Big Data Utilization: Processes vast volumes from diverse sources, including social media.
  • Detection of Nonlinear Patterns: Identifies complex interdependencies missed by traditional models.
  • Localized Forecasting: Enables region-specific customization based on geography and microclimates.
  • Real-Time Nowcasting: Offers rapid forecasts for the next few hours—critical for disaster response and urban planning.

Challenges in AI-Based Forecasting

  • Complexity of Weather Systems: Requires sophisticated modeling to capture dynamic atmospheric processes.
  • Skill Gap: Lack of experts skilled in both AI/ML and meteorology.
  • Insufficient Sensor Network: Sparse ground-level data limits regional model accuracy.
  • Climate Change Sensitivity: Models trained on current data may underperform in future altered climates.
  • Data Quality Issues: Inconsistent formats, sensor errors, and coverage gaps reduce model reliability.
  • Black Box Problem: Lack of interpretability in AI decisions affects trust and adoption by meteorologists.

India’s Weather Forecasting Framework

  • Managed by the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
  • Uses:
  • INSAT-3D, INSAT-3DR, INSAT-3DS for satellite-based meteorological data.
  • Doppler radars for short-range, localized rainfall and storm predictions.

Initiatives to Improve Weather Prediction in India

  • Mission Mausam:
  • Upgrade forecasting tools and technologies.
  • Deploy AI/ML, next-gen radars, and advanced satellites.
  • Enhance Earth System Models for more accurate predictions.
  • National Monsoon Mission (2012):
  • Transition to real-time, on-ground data collection.
  • Improve monsoon and seasonal forecasting.
  • WINDS Program (Ministry of Agriculture):
  • Install 2 lakh+ weather stations for hyper-local data generation to support agriculture.

About IMD

  • Apex body for meteorology, forecasting, and seismology in India.
  • A Regional Specialized Meteorological Centre (RSMC) under the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).

With reference to AI-based weather forecasting, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. AI models can be effectively used without any real-time observational data inputs.
  2. AI models can uncover nonlinear relationships that traditional numerical models may fail to detect.
  3. Unlike traditional models, AI models can fully replace the need for meteorological satellites.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:(B).2only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: AI still needs high-quality data inputs; it doesn’t eliminate the need for real-time data.
  • Statement 2 is correct: AI excels in pattern recognition, especially for nonlinear relationships in complex systems.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: AI complements, but does not replace satellites—satellite data is essential input.

Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC)

Syllabus:Geography

   

About the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC)

  • Capital: Kinshasa
  • Size: The second-largest country in Africa (after Algeria) and the largest in Sub-Saharan Africa
  • Borders: DRC shares borders with Angola, Burundi, Central African Republic (CAR), Congo, Rwanda, Sudan, Tanzania, Uganda, and Zambia
  • Coastline: Small boundary along the Atlantic Ocean

 

Geography:

  • Major River: Congo River (second-longest river in Africa)
  • Vegetation: Predominantly tropical forests
  • Unique ecosystems: The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands
  • Mineral Resources: DRC is rich in cobalt, copper, gold, lithium, iron ore, and coal

 

Recent Events:

  • The April 2025 flooding in Kinshasa, the capital of DRC, was exacerbated by urban mismanagement and infrastructure failure, alongside local rainfall and runoff from the Congo Central Province.
  • The urban tributaries, including the Ndjili River and the Lukaya tributary, became overwhelmed, leading to severe flooding in the city. Kinshasa is also listed among the 38 flood hotspots in the Congo Basin due to its exposure to twin flood sources and the growing challenges posed by urbanisation.
  • Meanwhile, instability in eastern DRC, caused by the M23 armed group, continues to lead to mass displacement of people, further complicating the situation in the region.

Consider the following statements about the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC):

  1. The DRC is the largest country in Sub-Saharan Africa and borders a total of 10 countries.
  2. Kinshasa, the capital of DRC, faces frequent flooding primarily due to rainfall and the urban mismanagement of its tributaries like the Ndjili River.
  3. The Congo River is the longest river in Africa, and its basin contains the world’s largest tropical peatlands.
  4. The current instability in the eastern DRC, caused by the M23 armed group, has resulted in large-scale displacement but has had minimal impact on the capital, Kinshasa.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct:The DRC is indeed the largest country in Sub-Saharan Africa and shares borders with nine countries, not ten. The DRC borders Angola, Burundi, CAR, Congo, Rwanda, Sudan, Tanzania, Uganda, and Zambia, but it does not border South Sudan as often incorrectly assumed. This is a small nuance, but it’s critical to the accuracy of this statement.
  • Statement 2 – CorrectKinshasa’s flooding has indeed been exacerbated by urban mismanagement and the failure of infrastructure. The flooding is triggered not only by rainfall but also by runoff from nearby provinces. The Ndjili River and the Lukaya tributary in particular have contributed significantly to the situation, which is worsened by the growing challenges of urbanisation.
  • Statement 3 – Correct:The Congo River is the second-longest river in Africa, not the longest. The Nile River holds that title. However, the Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, a significant ecological feature that plays a vital role in global carbon storage and climate regulation.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect:The instability in eastern DRC, caused by the M23 armed group, has had a severe impact on the broader country, including Kinshasa. While Kinshasa itself may not be the direct site of the conflict, the mass displacement of people, especially from the east, has implications for the country as a whole, including humanitarian, economic, and security concerns.

India’s Record Cargo Movement on Inland Waterways

Syllabus: GS3/Infrastructure

  • In 2024–25, India achieved a record by transporting over 145 million tonnes (MMT) of cargo through inland waterways, highlighting a significant shift toward this eco-friendly transport mode.

  • The number of National Waterways has increased from 5 to 111, with operational length expanding from 2,716 km in 2014–15 to 4,894 km by 2023–24.
  • Major infrastructure developments have included Multi-Modal Terminals (MMTs), Inter-Modal Terminals (IMTs), community and floating jetties, and the introduction of green vessels, including hybrid electric and hydrogen-powered vessels.
  • Looking ahead, under the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision, India aims to raise the Inland Water Transport (IWT) modal share from 2% to 5% and increase cargo traffic to over 200 MMT by 2030 and 500 MMT by 2047.
  • Inland waterways refer to navigable rivers, canals, creeks, and backwaters used for the domestic transportation of goods and passengers.
  • India has approximately 14,500 km of navigable waterways, with 111 declared as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016.
  • Inland waterways offer multiple advantages: economically, they significantly lower transport costs compared to road or rail; in terms of fuel efficiency, they consume 30% less fuel than road transport and 50% less than rail; environmentally, they help reduce carbon emissions and road congestion; in connectivity, they boost trade in hinterland and rural regions; and in tourism, they support ferry services and river cruises.
  • As per the National Transport Policy Committee (1980), criteria for declaring a National Waterway include navigability by mechanically propelled vessels, a channel width of around 45 meters and a depth of approximately 1.5 meters, a continuous stretch of at least 50 km, and strategic importance such as inter-state connectivity or linking major ports or underserved regions.
  • The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), established in 1986 under the IWAI Act of 1985 and operating under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, is responsible for developing and maintaining infrastructure on National Waterways, conducting feasibility studies, recommending new NW declarations, and advising the central and state governments.
  • However, the sector faces challenges such as seasonal water level variations affecting navigation, inadequate infrastructure (like dredging, terminals, and navigation aids), low industrial presence along waterways, and strong competition from road and rail transport.
  • To address these, several recent policy measures have been introduced. The Jalvahak Cargo Promotion Scheme (2024) offers financial incentives, including 35% reimbursement of actual operating costs to cargo owners for shifting cargo from road/rail to IWT, along with scheduled cargo services for reliability. In 2025, the tonnage tax regime was extended to inland vessels under the Indian Vessels Act, 2021, offering a stable tax structure based on vessel tonnage rather than profits, thereby lowering the tax burden and encouraging adoption of IWT.
  • Private investment has been enabled through the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025, which allow private players to develop inland waterway infrastructure. To streamline logistics, major terminals at Varanasi, Sahibganj, and Haldia, and the intermodal terminal at Kalughat, have been transferred to Shyama Prasad Mookerjee Port, Kolkata. A centralised digital portal, modeled on the Vahan and Sarathi systems, is being developed to register inland vessels and crew, enhancing transparency and operational planning.
  • To improve cargo density, cargo aggregation hubs are being developed, including the Freight Village at Varanasi and an Integrated Cluster-cum-Logistics Park at Sahibganj. Furthermore, over 140 Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) are actively exploring the modal shift of part of their cargo to inland waterways.
  • Going forward, the government continues to invest in inland waterways through initiatives like the Jal Marg Vikas Project, promotes public-private partnerships (PPPs), and is focused on integrating IWT into broader multimodal logistics networks for seamless and efficient transportation.

With reference to the development of Inland Waterways in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) can declare a new National Waterway without parliamentary approval if the waterway meets the criteria laid out by the National Transport Policy Committee (1980).
  2. The extension of the tonnage tax regime to inland vessels ensures taxation is based on profit margins rather than vessel capacity, thus promoting competitive freight rates.
  3. Under the Jalvahak Cargo Promotion Scheme, financial incentives are available only for public sector cargo operators who shift from road to inland waterways.
  4. The transfer of Multi-Modal Terminals (MMTs) to Shyama Prasad Mookerjee Port aims to integrate inland waterways with the broader port logistics ecosystem.

How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. Only one

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: The IWAI does not have the authority to unilaterally declare a National Waterway. While it conducts feasibility studies and makes recommendations, only Parliament can declare a National Waterway, as seen in the National Waterways Act, 2016. The 1980 policy committee’s criteria are recommendatory, not a substitute for legislative approval.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: The tonnage tax regime replaces profit-based taxation with a system based on the carrying capacity (tonnage) of the vessel. It offers predictability and reduced tax burden, but it is not based on profit margins, nor does it directly aim to promote competitive pricing.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Jalvahak scheme is open to all cargo owners, whether public or private. The financial incentives are designed to encourage any entity shifting cargo from road/rail to inland waterways, not just public sector operators.
  • Statement 4 – Correct: The transfer of MMTs and IMTs (e.g., at Varanasi, Sahibganj, Haldia, and Kalughat) to Shyama Prasad Mookerjee Port, Kolkata is intended to ensure better integration of inland waterways with port logistics systems, supporting multimodal transport connectivity.

Strait of Gibraltar

Syllabus:Geography

  • The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow body of water that separates Europe from Africa, linking the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean.

 

Geographical Location and Borders:

  • The Strait is bordered by Spain and the British Overseas Territory of Gibraltar to the north, and Morocco and the Spanish enclave of Ceuta to the south.
  • It is approximately 58 km in length and has a width of about 13 km at its narrowest point, situated between Morocco’s Point Cires and Spain’s Point Marroquí.
  • The western end, located between Spain’s Cape Trafalgar and Morocco’s Cape Spartel, has a width of around 43 km.
  • The eastern end, between the Rock of Gibraltar in the north and Mount Hacho (or Jebel Moussa) in the south, has a width of approximately 23 km. These two prominent land features are known as the Pillars of Heracles.

 

Depth and Formation:

  • The depth of the Strait varies between 300 and 900 meters.
  • The Strait was formed due to the northward movement of the African Plate towards the European Plate, a process that caused the gap between the high plateau of Spain and the Atlas Mountains of Northern Africa.

 

Water Flow:

  • The Mediterranean Sea and Atlantic Ocean have different salinity levels. The highly saline Mediterranean waters flow outward and beneath the less saline Atlantic waters, which flow inward and above the Mediterranean current.

 

Strategic Importance:

  • The Strait of Gibraltar is the only natural passage connecting the Atlantic Ocean with the Mediterranean Sea, making it one of the busiest waterways in the world.
  • An important port on the Strait is the Moroccan port of Tanger-Med, located near Tangier.
  • The Strait of Gibraltar serves as a vital geographical and economic link between two continents and plays a significant role in global shipping and trade routes.

Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Gibraltar:

  1. The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
  2. The width of the Strait of Gibraltar at its narrowest point is approximately 13 km.
  3. The depth of the Strait of Gibraltar ranges from 300 to 900 meters.
  4. The movement of the African Plate toward the European Plate led to the formation of the Strait.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. A) 1 and 2 only
    B) 2, 3, and 4 only
    C) 3 and 4 only
    D) 2, 3, and 4 only

 

Correct Answer: D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean, not the Red Sea. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • Statement 2: The width of the Strait at its narrowest point is approximately 13 km, which is correct. This occurs between Morocco’s Point Cires and Spain’s Point Marroquí.
  • Statement 3: The depth of the Strait varies between 300 and 900 meters, which is also correct.
  • Statement 4: The formation of the Strait is indeed due to the northward movement of the African Plate towards the European Plate, which caused the gap between Spain’s high plateau and the Atlas Mountains of Northern Africa. This statement is accurate.

 

Davis Strait

Syllabus: GS1/Places in News

  • A team of scientists from the UK and Sweden has uncovered a hidden landmass beneath the icy waters of the Davis Strait.
  • This landmass, now named the Davis Strait proto-microcontinent, was discovered during an ocean floor study in the region.

Key Details:

  • Composition: The proto-microcontinent consists of unusually thick continental crust.
  • Size: It spans between 12 to 15 miles (approximately 19 to 24 kilometers).
  • Location: It is submerged beneath the western offshore waters of Greenland.
  • Nature: This microcontinent is a primitive fragment of crust, which never fully separated when Greenland and North America drifted apart in ancient geological history.

 

About the Davis Strait:

  • Location: The Davis Strait lies between Canada’s Baffin Island and Greenland.
  • Connection: It connects the Labrador Sea (part of the Atlantic Ocean) in the south to Baffin Bay in the north.
  • Formation: Straits like the Davis Strait are narrow waterways formed by geological phenomena such as tectonic shifts, connecting two large bodies of water.

A recent discovery by a team of scientists from the UK and Sweden uncovered a hidden landmass beneath the icy waters of the Davis Strait. Based on the given details, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The newly discovered landmass is named the Davis Strait proto-microcontinent, consisting of unusually thick continental crust.
  2. The Davis Strait lies between Greenland and Canada’s Baffin Island, connecting the Atlantic Ocean with the Arctic Ocean.
  3. The proto microcontinent is a new geological formation, resulting from recent tectonic shifts and drifting apart of Greenland and North America.
  4. The size of the landmass spans approximately 12 to 15 kilometers beneath the waters.

 

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer:B. 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Davis Strait proto-microcontinent consists of unusually thick continental crust, and it is indeed the landmass recently uncovered by scientists.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Davis Strait is located between Canada’s Baffin Island and Greenland, and it connects the Labrador Sea to Baffin Bay. The statement erroneously mentions the Arctic Ocean, but this does not affect the geographical connection between the two bodies of water.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The proto-microcontinent is a primitive fragment of crust that never fully separated during the ancient geological split between Greenland and North America. It is not a new formation created by recent tectonic shifts.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The size of the landmass is between 12 to 15 miles (approximately 19 to 24 kilometers), as stated.

Genetically Modified (GM) Edible Oils For Self-Sufficiency

Syllabus: GS3/Agriculture

  • A member of NITI Aayog recently advocated for the adoption of genetically modified (GM) edible oils in India to improve domestic self-sufficiency, citing yield gains observed in the S. and China.
  • Importance of Edible Oils in India’s Economy
  • India is one of the largest producers of oilseeds

 

Major edible oils produced include:

  • Mustard
  • Groundnut
  • Soybean
  • Sunflower
  • Safflower
  • Coconut oil
  • India contributes 5–6% of global oilseed production.
  • Leading states: Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh.

 

Consumption vs Production Gap

  • Total domestic consumption (2023–24): ~5 million tonnes
  • India imports 55–60% of its edible oil needs.
  • Import Share by Oil Type (Approximate):
  • Palm oil: 37% (mostly from Indonesia and Malaysia)
  • Soybean oil: 20% (from Argentina and Brazil)
  • Mustard oil: 14%
  • Sunflower oil: 13% (mainly from Ukraine and Russia)

 

Health & Consumption Trends

  • Per capita annual consumption: ~24 kg
  • Far exceeds:
  • ICMR recommendation: 12 kg
  • WHO guideline: 13 kg
  • In comparison, per capita consumption was just 9 kg in the 1950s—driven higher by rising incomes, urbanization, and changing dietary habits.

 

Government Interventions

  1. National Mission on Edible Oils – Oil Palm (NMEO-OP)
  • Target: Expand cultivation from 7 lakh ha to 10 lakh ha by 2025–26
  • Support: Financial aid for planting material, irrigation, and farm inputs
  1. National Mission on Edible Oils – Oilseeds
  • Production goal: Raise output from 39 million tonnes to 70 million tonnes by 2030–31
  1. Price Stabilization Fund
  • Buffers consumers from international price volatility
  • Allows procurement/distribution at controlled prices
  1. Import Duty Adjustments
  • Import duties adjusted based on inflation and market trends
  1. Support for Oilseed Farmers
  • NFSM-Oilseeds: Seed distribution, technical guidance, and extension services
  1. Public Distribution System (PDS)
  • Subsidized edible oils distributed during periods of high retail inflation

 

The Case for GM Edible Oils in India

  1. Enhancing Productivity
  • India’s soybean yield remains stagnant, while GM-adopting nations like the U.S. and China have seen significant increases.
  • Estimates suggest GM crops could increase yields by 70–80% or even double them.
  1. Reducing Import Burden
  • With annual imports around 16 million tonnes, edible oils form a major component of India’s import bill.
  • GM technology could reduce import dependence, improving economic and food security.
  1. Aligning with Global Trends
  • S. and China have adopted GM crops without reported adverse health impacts.
  • India could leverage this experience to shape a safe, science-backed regulatory framework for GM food crops.

 

Conclusion & Way Forward

  • India’s edible oil economy is at a critical crossroads. With soaring demand, a widening import gap, and stagnant yields, the adoption of GM technology—if handled responsibly—could revolutionize domestic production.
  • A multi-pronged approach involving:
  • Policy reforms
  • R&D in biotechnology
  • Farmer awareness
  • Robust safety and regulatory mechanisms 

Which of the following government schemes directly aim to reduce India’s dependence on imported edible oils?

  1. NMEO–Oil Palm
  2. Price Stabilization Fund
  3. NFSM–Oilseeds
  4. PM-KUSUM

Select the correct code:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • NMEO–Oil Palm and NFSM–Oilseeds aim to increase domestic production.
  • Price Stabilization Fund helps manage price volatility of imports.
  • PM-KUSUM relates to solar power in agriculture, not edible oil production.

Tobacco Farming

Syllabus: GS3/Agriculture

  • The Social Welfare Minister of Andhra Pradesh has assured support to tobacco farmers who are facing challenges due to low bids and delayed procurement processes.

 

Tobacco Farming in India:

  • Tobacco cultivation in India was introduced by the Portuguese in 1605. India is the second-largest producer of tobacco globally, after China. Additionally, India ranks as the second-largest exporter of unmanufactured tobacco (in terms of quantity), following Brazil.
  • Tobacco is primarily grown in states like Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar. Among these, Gujarat leads, accounting for 45% of the tobacco cultivation area and 30% of the total production. It also has the highest productivity in the country, followed by Andhra Pradesh.

 

Climatic Conditions for Tobacco Cultivation:

  • Tobacco in India thrives when the mean temperature is between 20°C and 27°C. It is not typically cultivated in regions where the annual rainfall exceeds 1200 mm.
  •  Tobacco plants, especially cigar and binder varieties, prefer sandy to loamy red soils. The crop requires significant amounts of nitrogen, potassium, calcium, and magnesium for optimal growth.

The Tobacco Board:

  • The Tobacco Board was established in 1976 under the Tobacco Board Act, 1975. Its primary responsibilities include ensuring the smooth functioning of the tobacco farming system, securing fair and remunerative prices for tobacco farmers, and promoting tobacco exports from India.

Consider the following statements regarding tobacco cultivation and the Tobacco Board in India:

  1. Tobacco cultivation in India was introduced by the Portuguese in 1605.​
  2. India is the second-largest producer of tobacco globally, after China.​
  3. The Tobacco Board was established in 1976 under the Tobacco Board Act, 1975.​
  4. Gujarat accounts for 45% of the total tobacco production in India.​

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only

B) 2, 3, and 4 only

C) 1, 2, and 4 only

D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 2, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect. Tobacco cultivation in India was introduced by the Portuguese in 1605.​
  • Statement 2: Correct. India is the second-largest producer of tobacco globally, after China.​
  • Statement 3: Correct. The Tobacco Board was established in 1976 under the Tobacco Board Act, 1975.​
  • Statement 4: Correct. Gujarat accounts for 45% of the total tobacco production in India.​

Delhi Airport Ranked 9th Busiest in the World As ACI World Report 2024

Syllabus: Indices and Reports

  • In a significant milestone for India’s civil aviation sector, Indira Gandhi International (IGI) Airport, Delhi, has been ranked the 9th busiest airport in the world for the year 2024, according to preliminary rankings released by the Airports Council International (ACI) World.

 

Key Details:

  • Rank Achieved: 9th globally in terms of total passenger traffic.
  • Passenger Volume (2024): 77 million passengers handled.
  • Ranking Authority: Airports Council International (ACI) World.
  • Operated by: Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL), led by the GMR Group.

Ranking Progression (Year-wise):

  • 2019: 17th
  • 2021: 13th
  • 2023: 10th
  • 2024: 9th

This consistent climb in global rankings underscores IGI Airport’s expanding international connectivity, robust infrastructure upgrades, and sustained growth in passenger traffic.

 

Global Aviation Context (2024):

  • Total Global Traffic:5 billion passengers
  • Growth: 9% increase over 2023 and 3.8% above pre-COVID levels (2019)
  • Top 10 Airports: Handled 855 million passengers (~9% of global traffic)

 

Top Airports:

  • 1st: Atlanta Hartsfield–Jackson (USA) – 108 million+ passengers
  • 2nd: Dubai International (UAE)

 

Delhi IGI Airport Highlights:

  • Only Indian airport in the global top 10 list.
  • Connects to: Over 150 domestic and international destinations.
  • Awards: Winner of the ACI Airport Service Quality (ASQ) Award for “Best Airport in Asia-Pacific” for the 7th consecutive year (2024).

 

CEO’s Statement: Videh Kumar Jaipuriar, CEO of DIAL, emphasized that the improved ranking reflects ongoing efforts to enhance passenger experience, infrastructure, and global connectivity.

With reference to the Airports Council International (ACI) World Rankings 2024, which of the following are correct?

  1. IGI Airport saw a rise in global ranking consistently since 2019.
  2. The total global air traffic in 2024 was higher than pre-pandemic levels.
  3. The top 10 airports accounted for over one-fourth of the global passenger volume.
  4. IGI is the only Indian airport to be featured in the global top 10 list.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – IGI rose from 17th in 2019 to 9th in 2024.
  • Statement 2: Correct – 2024 traffic exceeded pre-COVID levels by 3.8%.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – Top 10 airports handled 855 million passengers, ~9% of global traffic, not over 25%.
  • Statement 4: Correct – IGI is the only Indian airport in the top 10.

Delhi Airport Ranked 9th Busiest in the World As ACI World Report 2024

Syllabus: Indices and Reports

  • In a significant milestone for India’s civil aviation sector, Indira Gandhi International (IGI) Airport, Delhi, has been ranked the 9th busiest airport in the world for the year 2024, according to preliminary rankings released by the Airports Council International (ACI) World.

 

Key Details:

  • Rank Achieved: 9th globally in terms of total passenger traffic.
  • Passenger Volume (2024): 77 million passengers handled.
  • Ranking Authority: Airports Council International (ACI) World.
  • Operated by: Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL), led by the GMR Group.

Ranking Progression (Year-wise):

  • 2019: 17th
  • 2021: 13th
  • 2023: 10th
  • 2024: 9th

This consistent climb in global rankings underscores IGI Airport’s expanding international connectivity, robust infrastructure upgrades, and sustained growth in passenger traffic.

 

Global Aviation Context (2024):

  • Total Global Traffic:5 billion passengers
  • Growth: 9% increase over 2023 and 3.8% above pre-COVID levels (2019)
  • Top 10 Airports: Handled 855 million passengers (~9% of global traffic)

 

Top Airports:

  • 1st: Atlanta Hartsfield–Jackson (USA) – 108 million+ passengers
  • 2nd: Dubai International (UAE)

 

Delhi IGI Airport Highlights:

  • Only Indian airport in the global top 10 list.
  • Connects to: Over 150 domestic and international destinations.
  • Awards: Winner of the ACI Airport Service Quality (ASQ) Award for “Best Airport in Asia-Pacific” for the 7th consecutive year (2024).

 

CEO’s Statement: Videh Kumar Jaipuriar, CEO of DIAL, emphasized that the improved ranking reflects ongoing efforts to enhance passenger experience, infrastructure, and global connectivity.

With reference to the Airports Council International (ACI) World Rankings 2024, which of the following are correct?

  1. IGI Airport saw a rise in global ranking consistently since 2019.
  2. The total global air traffic in 2024 was higher than pre-pandemic levels.
  3. The top 10 airports accounted for over one-fourth of the global passenger volume.
  4. IGI is the only Indian airport to be featured in the global top 10 list.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – IGI rose from 17th in 2019 to 9th in 2024.
  • Statement 2: Correct – 2024 traffic exceeded pre-COVID levels by 3.8%.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – Top 10 airports handled 855 million passengers, ~9% of global traffic, not over 25%.
  • Statement 4: Correct – IGI is the only Indian airport in the top 10.

Index Numbers of Wholesale Price in India Of March 2025

Syllabus:Indices

  • The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) released the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) data for March 2025 on April 15, 2025.
  • The provisional data reveals that annual WPI inflation stood at 2.05%, compared to the same month in 2024.
  • The upward trend was primarily driven by price increases in the manufacture of food products, textiles, electricity, and other manufactured goods.
  • As an important macroeconomic indicator, WPI reflects price movements at the wholesale level, serving as a crucial tool for policymakers, analysts, and competitive exam aspirants alike

 

 

At a Glance: WPI – March 2025

Released By: DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Published By: Press Information Bureau (PIB), New Delhi

Date of Release: April 15, 2025

Reference Period: March 2025

Base Year: 2011–12

 

WPI Inflation Trends by Major Components

  1. All Commodities (Weight: 100%)
  • Index: 154.5
  • Year-on-Year (Y-o-Y) Inflation: 05%
  • Shows a moderating trend from 38% in February and 2.51% in January 2025

 

  1. Primary Articles (Weight: 22.62%)
  • Index: 184.6
  • Inflation Rate: 76% (sharp decline from 2.81% in February)
  • Month-on-Month (M-o-M) Change: -1.07%
  • Sub-categories:
  • Crude Petroleum & Natural Gas: -2.42%
  • Non-food Articles: -2.40%
  • Food Articles: -0.72%
  • Minerals: +0.31%

 

  1. Fuel & Power (Weight: 13.15%)
  • Index: 152.4
  • Inflation Rate: 20% (turned positive after months of contraction)
  • M-o-M Change: -0.91%
  • Sub-categories:
  • Electricity: -2.31%
  • Mineral Oils: -0.70%
  • Coal: No change

 

  1. Manufactured Products (Weight: 64.23%)
  • Index: 144.4
  • Inflation Rate: 07% (highest among all categories)
  • M-o-M Change: +0.42%
  • Key driver behind overall WPI inflation in March 2025.

 

  1. WPI Food Index (Weight: 24.38%)
  • Index: 188.8 (slight dip from 189.0 in February)
  • Inflation Rate: 66%, continuing a downward trend from 5.94% in February and 7.52% in January
  • Comprises food prices from both Primary Articles and Manufactured Products.

 

Conclusion

  • The WPI data for March 2025 reflects moderating inflation, especially in primary articles and food, while manufactured goods continue to exert upward pressure.
  • The positive but tempered inflation figure of 2.05% provides a signal of stability in wholesale prices, though vigilance is needed in the face of sectoral fluctuations, especially in fuel and electricity.

With reference to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) data released for March 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. The inflation rate for manufactured products was the highest among all major WPI groups.
  2. Primary articles showed positive month-on-month growth in March 2025.
  3. The WPI Food Index includes only food articles under the “Primary Articles” category.
  4. The Fuel & Power group recorded a negative year-on-year inflation in March 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A) 1 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: Manufactured Products recorded an inflation of 07%, the highest among major categories.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: Primary Articles saw a negative month-on-month change (-1.07%), not positive.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: The WPI Food Index includes food items from both Primary Articles and Manufactured Products, not just Primary Articles.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect: Fuel & Power inflation turned positive at 0.20% in March 2025; it was negative in earlier months.

SIPRI Report on Military Expenditure

Syllabus:Reports

  • According to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) report titled ‘Trends in World Military Expenditure 2024’, India’s military expenditure reached $86.1 billion, marking a 1.6% increase from the previous year and positioning India as the fifth-largest military spender globally.
  • This amount is nearly nine times greater than Pakistan’s defense budget of $10.2 billion, highlighting a significant regional disparity and reinforcing India’s strategic posture in South Asia.

 

 

  • Globally, India follows the United States, China, Russia, and Germany in terms of defense spending.
  • Together, these top five nations accounted for 60% of the world’s total military expenditure, illustrating a concentration of military capabilities among a few powers.
  • In the regional context, both India and China emerged as key drivers of military expenditure growth in Asia and Oceania, reflecting their expanding strategic interests and evolving security concerns.
  • India’s defense strategy continues to emphasize domestic capability enhancement, with 75% of its capital outlay earmarked for indigenous defense production.
  • This represents 22% of the overall military budget and aligns with the government’s broader Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative aimed at achieving self-reliance in critical defense manufacturing.
  • However, despite this push for indigenization, India remains reliant on foreign imports for advanced platforms and technologies, particularly in areas like combat aircraft, precision weaponry, and defense electronics.
  • Strategically, India’s increased military spending underscores its ambition to serve as a key security provider in the Indo-Pacific region, particularly in light of ongoing tensions with neighboring China and Pakistan. The rise in expenditure is not only a response to conventional security threats but also an effort to assert influence in a rapidly shifting geopolitical environment, reinforcing India’s role in regional and global security architecture.

Consider the following statements regarding India’s military expenditure as per the SIPRI report ‘Trends in World Military Expenditure 2024’:

  1. India’s defense expenditure in 2024 reached $86.1 billion, making it the 5th largest military spender globally.
  2. India’s defense budget is nearly nine times higher than that of Pakistan, which stood at $10.2 billion.
  3. India and China were not significant contributors to the growth of military expenditure in Asia and Oceania.
  4. 75% of India’s capital outlay is dedicated to domestic defense production, supporting the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
  5. Despite efforts at indigenization, India remains largely independent of foreign defense imports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 4 only
B. 1, 2, and 5 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 4, and 5

Answer: A (1, 2, and 4 only)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: India’s military expenditure in 2024 is indeed $86.1 billion, placing it as the 5th largest military spender globally.
  • Statement 2 is correct: India’s spending is nearly nine times higher than Pakistan’s defense budget of $10.2 billion, emphasizing the regional disparity.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India and China were key drivers of military expenditure growth in Asia and Oceania, reflecting their expanding strategic interests. This statement contradicts the context of both countries’ roles.
  • Statement 4 is correct: A substantial portion (75%) of India’s capital outlay is dedicated to indigenous defense production, aligning with the Atmanirbhar Bharat
  • Statement 5 is incorrect: Despite efforts to indigenize, India remains dependent on imports for advanced systems like combat aircraft and defense electronics, indicating a reliance on foreign technology.

Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy Honoured with ‘Legends of Endoscopy’ Award in Tokyo

Syllabus: Awards

  • In a moment of international recognition for Indian medical excellence, D. Nageshwar Reddy, Chairman of AIG Hospitals, Hyderabad, has been conferred with the prestigious ‘Legends of Endoscopy’ award.
  • The honor was bestowed upon him by a distinguished community of Japanese gastroenterologists at the Tokyo Live Global Endoscopy 2025 event, held at SHOWA Medical University Koto Toyosu Hospital in Tokyo, Japan.

Key Highlights

 Award Recognition

  • Title: Legends of Endoscopy
  • Recipient: D. Nageshwar Reddy
  • Institution: AIG Hospitals, Hyderabad
  • Awarding Body: Japanese gastroenterology community
  • Event: Tokyo Live Global Endoscopy 2025
  • Venue: SHOWA Medical University, Tokyo

 

Contributions Recognized

  • Renowned for his pioneering advancements in Gastrointestinal (GI) Endoscopy
  • Demonstrated live complex endoscopic procedures, showcasing cutting-edge minimally invasive techniques
  • Advocated for innovation and precision in endoscopic diagnostics and therapies

 Global Significance

  • Reinforces India’s leadership in advanced GI treatments and minimally invasive medical technologies
  • Highlights Dr. Reddy’s influence as a global thought leader in therapeutic and diagnostic endoscopy

About AIG Hospitals

  • AIG (Asian Institute of Gastroenterology) Hospitals, based in Hyderabad, is a leading super-specialty institution specializing in gastroenterology
  • Known for its high-end clinical research, innovation, and world-class treatment protocols.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent international recognition received by Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy:

  1. The award was conferred by a Japanese governmental medical body.
  2. It highlights India’s advancements in minimally invasive gastroenterological techniques.
  3. The venue of the award event is located in Tokyo’s leading endoscopy-specific institution.
  4. AIG Hospitals, under Dr. Reddy’s leadership, is primarily focused on general medicine and surgical oncology.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The award was given by a professional gastroenterology community, not a government body.
  • Statement 2 is correct: His work is in minimally invasive GI endoscopy.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The SHOWA Medical University Koto Toyosu Hospital is a prominent center for live endoscopy events.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: AIG Hospitals focuses on gastroenterology, not general medicine or oncology.

Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy Honoured with ‘Legends of Endoscopy’ Award in Tokyo

Syllabus: Awards

  • In a moment of international recognition for Indian medical excellence, D. Nageshwar Reddy, Chairman of AIG Hospitals, Hyderabad, has been conferred with the prestigious ‘Legends of Endoscopy’ award.
  • The honor was bestowed upon him by a distinguished community of Japanese gastroenterologists at the Tokyo Live Global Endoscopy 2025 event, held at SHOWA Medical University Koto Toyosu Hospital in Tokyo, Japan.

Key Highlights

 Award Recognition

  • Title: Legends of Endoscopy
  • Recipient: D. Nageshwar Reddy
  • Institution: AIG Hospitals, Hyderabad
  • Awarding Body: Japanese gastroenterology community
  • Event: Tokyo Live Global Endoscopy 2025
  • Venue: SHOWA Medical University, Tokyo

 

Contributions Recognized

  • Renowned for his pioneering advancements in Gastrointestinal (GI) Endoscopy
  • Demonstrated live complex endoscopic procedures, showcasing cutting-edge minimally invasive techniques
  • Advocated for innovation and precision in endoscopic diagnostics and therapies

 Global Significance

  • Reinforces India’s leadership in advanced GI treatments and minimally invasive medical technologies
  • Highlights Dr. Reddy’s influence as a global thought leader in therapeutic and diagnostic endoscopy

About AIG Hospitals

  • AIG (Asian Institute of Gastroenterology) Hospitals, based in Hyderabad, is a leading super-specialty institution specializing in gastroenterology
  • Known for its high-end clinical research, innovation, and world-class treatment protocols.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent international recognition received by Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy:

  1. The award was conferred by a Japanese governmental medical body.
  2. It highlights India’s advancements in minimally invasive gastroenterological techniques.
  3. The venue of the award event is located in Tokyo’s leading endoscopy-specific institution.
  4. AIG Hospitals, under Dr. Reddy’s leadership, is primarily focused on general medicine and surgical oncology.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The award was given by a professional gastroenterology community, not a government body.
  • Statement 2 is correct: His work is in minimally invasive GI endoscopy.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The SHOWA Medical University Koto Toyosu Hospital is a prominent center for live endoscopy events.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: AIG Hospitals focuses on gastroenterology, not general medicine or oncology.

Military Personals Honored With Prestigious MacGregor Memorial Medal

Syllabus:Awards

  • Five exceptional military personnel were conferred the prestigious MacGregor Memorial Medal for the years 2023 and 2024, recognising their outstanding contributions to military reconnaissance, adventure, and exploratory missions.
  • The awards were presented by Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) General Anil Chauhan at a solemn ceremony hosted by the United Service Institution of India (USI) in New Delhi.

About the MacGregor Memorial Medal

  • Established: July 3, 1888
  • Named After: Major General Sir Charles Metcalfe MacGregor, founder of USI (established in 1870)
  • Original Objective: To honour military officers who undertook significant exploratory and reconnaissance journeys.
  • Expanded Scope (Post-1986): Includes military expeditions and adventure activities across terrains and environments.
  • Eligibility: Open to all ranks (serving or retired) of the Armed Forces, Territorial Army, Reserve Forces, Rashtriya Rifles, and Assam Rifles.
  • Total Medals Awarded: 127 (including 103 before Independence)

2023 Recipients

  • Wing Commander D. Panda – Indian Air Force
  • Electrical Artificer (Radio) Rahul Kumar Pandey – Indian Navy

 

2024 Recipients

  • Chief Electrical Aircraft Artificer (Radio) Ram Ratan Jat – Indian Navy
  • Sergeant Jhumar Ram Poonia – Indian Air Force
  • Colonel Ranvir Singh Jamwal – Director, National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports (NIMAS), Arunachal Pradesh
  • Note: Col. Jamwal is currently on an expedition to Kangchenjunga

 

Book Launch at the Ceremony

  • Title: Bravest of the Brave
  • Author: Gen. Satish Dua (Retd.)
  • Subject: Chronicles the heroic life of Naib Subedar Chunni Lal, a Param Vir Chakra awardee, highlighting his valour and sacrifices.

With reference to the MacGregor Memorial Medal, consider the following statements:

  1. It was instituted by the Indian government post-Independence to recognise acts of gallantry in warfare.
  2. It is awarded to serving personnel only from the Indian Army.
  3. The medal also honours exploratory and adventure activities undertaken by military personnel.
  4. Colonel Ranvir Singh Jamwal, a 2024 recipient, is currently leading an expedition to Mt. Kangchenjunga.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 3 and 4 only

 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – The medal was instituted in 1888 during British rule, not post-Independence.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect – It is open to personnel from all branches: Army, Navy, Air Force, as well as Reserve and paramilitary forces.
  • Statements 3 and 4 are correct – The scope was expanded post-1986 to include adventure/exploration; Col. Jamwal is currently on a Mt. Kangchenjunga expedition.

Breakthrough Prize 2025

Syllabus :Miscellaneous 

In News: The 2025 Breakthrough Prizes have been announced, recognizing outstanding contributions in the fields of Life Sciences, Mathematics, and Fundamental Physics.

About the Breakthrough Prize:

  • Established in 2013 by prominent tech leaders including Mark Zuckerberg & Priscilla Chan, Sergey Brin, Anne Wojcicki (23&Me), and Yuri & Julia Milner.
  • Often referred to as the “Oscars of Science”, it is one of the most prestigious global science awards. Awards are presented annually in three main categories: Life Sciences, Fundamental Physics, and Mathematics.
  • Each prize carries a monetary reward of $3 million, significantly higher than that of the Nobel Prize.

 

2025 Winners:

  • The Fundamental Physics Prize was awarded to 13,508 scientists from four CERN collaborations for their contributions to the discovery of the Higgs boson and advancements in particle physics.
  • The Life Sciences Prizes recognized path-breaking research in weight-loss drugs, Multiple Sclerosis (MS) treatment, and gene-editing technologies.
  • The Mathematics Prize was awarded to Dennis Gaitsgory for his work on the Langlands conjecture, a deep theory linking number theory and geometry.

Consider the following statements regarding the Breakthrough Prize:

  1. It was established to promote public awareness and appreciation of scientific achievements in core research fields.
  2. It is awarded annually in four major categories, including Artificial Intelligence and Space Technology.
  3. It is known for awarding a larger monetary prize than the Nobel Prize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: One of the aims of the Breakthrough Prize is to increase public interest in science and honor groundbreaking work.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The prize is awarded in three categories – Life Sciences, Mathematics, and Fundamental Physics (not AI or Space Technology).
  • Statement 3 is correct: Each prize carries a reward of $3 million, which is indeed larger than the Nobel Prize.

Rajesh Unni Honored With National Maritime Varuna Award

Syllabus:Awards

 

  • On April 5, 2025, during the 62nd National Maritime Day celebrations in Mumbai, Rajesh Unni, founder of Synergy Marine Group, was conferred the National Maritime Varuna Award—India’s highest individual honor in the maritime sector.
  • The award is presented by the Directorate General of Shipping (DGS) to recognize outstanding and sustained contributions to the maritime industry.

 

 

About the Award

  • The National Maritime Varuna Award honors individuals who have played a pivotal role in advancing India’s maritime landscape.
  • It goes beyond operational excellence to acknowledge visionary leadership and contributions in areas like innovation, management, and maritime policy.

 

Rajesh Unni’s Contributions

  • Founder of Synergy Marine Group, a global leader in third-party ship management and maritime solutions.
  • His firm manages a substantial fleet of Indian-flagged vessels and is known for integrating technology and sustainability into maritime operations.
  • Unni’s leadership has significantly enhanced India’s global stature in the maritime sector.

 

Unni’s Vision

  • In his acceptance speech, Unni highlighted the transformative potential of India’s maritime workforce.
  • He emphasized that Indian seafarers and shore-based professionals are not just ship operators—they are future leaders of global shipping.

 

About Synergy Marine Group

  • Provides integrated maritime solutions and manages a wide range of vessels.
  • Recognized for its innovative approach, Synergy plays a crucial role in strengthening maritime operations both in India and globally.

Consider the following statements about the National Maritime Varuna Award:

  1. It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
  2. The award exclusively recognizes contributions related to the operational efficiency of cargo shipping.
  3. Rajesh Unni, founder of Synergy Marine Group, received the award in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer:C

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct — The award is conferred by the Directorate General of Shipping under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect — The award also considers leadership, innovation, and strategic contribution to the maritime sector, not just operational efficiency.
  • Statement 3 is correct — Rajesh Unni was honored in 2025.

Juspay Becomes India’s First Unicorn of 2025: $1 Billion Valuation Achieved

Syllabus: Awards

  • Bengaluru-based fintech infrastructure company Juspay has emerged as India’s first unicorn of 2025 after securing $60 million in Series D funding.
  • The round was led by Kedaara Capital, with continued backing from existing investors SoftBank and Accel.
  • Despite scaling back from an initially projected $150 million raise, the latest funding round has propelled Juspay’s valuation beyond $1 billion, marking a notable development in India’s digital payments ecosystem.

 

Key Developments

Funding Snapshot:

  • Amount Raised: $60 million
  • Series: D
  • Lead Investor: Kedaara Capital
  • Other Participants: SoftBank, Accel
  • Funding Structure: Mix of primary and secondary investment
  • Initial Target: $150 million (scaled down)

 

Unicorn Milestone:

  • Valuation: Exceeds $1 billion
  • Status: First Indian unicorn of 2025
  • Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka
  • Strategic Roadmap

 

Technology Focus:

  • Investments in AI-based productivity tools
  • Reduction of manual processes in operational workflows
  • Development of advanced merchant analytics dashboards

Global Expansion Plans:

  • Target regions include:
  • Asia-Pacific (APAC)
  • Latin America
  • Europe, UK, and North America

 

Emerging Challenges

  • Loss of Key Clients: Major fintech players like Razorpay and PhonePe have exited Juspay’s platform
  • Impact: Potential slowdown in adoption and growth trajectory
  • Strategic Response: Emphasis on continuous innovation to retain partners and secure global market share

Consider the following statements regarding India’s startup ecosystem:

  1. Juspay became India’s first unicorn of 2025 after raising $150 million in Series D funding.
  2. The Series D funding round of Juspay was led by SoftBank.
  3. Juspay is primarily known for providing payment infrastructure services.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C) 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Juspay raised $60 million, not $150 million (which was the initial target).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The lead investor was Kedaara Capital, not SoftBank.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Juspay is a payments infrastructure provider.

Abel Prize 2025

Syllabus:Awards

 

 

  • The esteemed Abel Prize for mathematics has been awarded to Japanese mathematician Masaki Kashiwara for his groundbreaking contributions to algebraic analysis, representation theory, and sheaf theory.

 

About the Abel Prize

  • The Abel Prize honors exceptional scientific achievements in mathematics.
  • Named after Norwegian mathematician Niels Henrik Abel (1802–1829), who made significant contributions to various mathematical fields in his brief lifetime.
  • Established in 2002 by the Norwegian Parliament to commemorate Abel’s 200th birth anniversary.
  • Administered by the Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters on behalf of the Norwegian government.
  • The awardee is selected by an expert committee, which is appointed by the Academy under the guidance of the International Mathematical Union (IMU) and the European Mathematical Society (EMS).
  • First presented in 2003, the Abel Prize is often regarded as the “Nobel Prize of Mathematics”, given that the Nobel Prizes do not include a category for mathematics.
  • The prize consists of a monetary award of 7.5 million Norwegian kroner (approximately $720,000) and a specially designed glass plaque by Norwegian artist Henrik Haugan.

 

Abel Prize 2025

  • The 2025 Abel Prize has been conferred upon Masaki Kashiwara for his pioneering contributions to algebraic analysis and representation theory, particularly:
  • The development of the theory of D-modules, which revolutionized the study of differential equations and their algebraic properties.
  • The discovery of crystal bases, an innovation that allows complex algebraic calculations to be represented as simpler graphical structures consisting of vertices and edges.
  • His work has not only resolved longstanding mathematical problems but also created new interdisciplinary connections, enabling further advancements in pure and applied mathematics.

Consider the following statements regarding the Abel Prize:

  1. It is awarded annually by the International Mathematical Union (IMU).
  2. The prize was established to recognize outstanding achievements in applied mathematics.
  3. It was first awarded in the year 2002 to commemorate the bicentenary of Niels Henrik Abel’s birth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

  1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Abel Prize is awarded by the Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters, not the International Mathematical Union (IMU). However, IMU and the European Mathematical Society (EMS) advise on the selection process.
  2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Abel Prize recognizes achievements in pure mathematics, not specifically applied mathematics.
  3. Statement 3 is incorrect: Although the prize was established in 2002, the first Abel Prize was awarded in 2003, not 2002.

President Honored 71 Individulas With Padma Awards

Syllabus:Awards

  • In a grand Civil Investiture Ceremony held at the Durbar Hall of Rashtrapati Bhawan, President Droupadi Murmu presented the Padma Awards—India’s highest civilian honors—to 71 distinguished individuals on April 29, 2025.
  • These awards recognize outstanding contributions in diverse fields such as art, public service, science, medicine, literature, education, and sports.
  • The Padma Awards are categorized into three levels: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.

 

Key Highlights of the 2025 Padma Awards:

  • Padma Bhushan in the Field of Art:
  • Shekhar Kapur: Acclaimed filmmaker, honored for his contributions to Indian and international cinema.
  • Pankaj Udhas (Posthumous): Renowned ghazal singer, posthumously awarded. His wife, Farida Udhas, accepted the honor.
  • Nandamuri Balakrishna: Veteran actor and politician from Andhra Pradesh, recognized for his dual contribution to cinema and public life.
  • Ajith Kumar: Prominent actor known for his impactful work in Indian cinema.
  • R. Sreejesh: Former Indian hockey goalkeeper, awarded for his significant achievements in sports and service to Indian hockey.
  • Padma Vibhushan:
  • Subramaniam: World-renowned violinist, honored for his extraordinary impact on Indian classical music.
  • Notable Padma Shri Awardees:
  • Jaspinder Narula: Playback singer celebrated for her contribution to Indian music.
  • Ravichandran Ashwin: Indian cricketer, recognized for his excellence and consistent performance in international cricket.
  • Ganeshwar Shastri Dravid: Esteemed Vedic scholar honored for determining auspicious timings for major religious events such as the Ram Lalla consecration and Kashi Vishwanath Corridor.
  • Stephen Knapp: American author and researcher awarded for his work in promoting Vedic culture and spirituality through literature and education.
  • These awards reflect the nation’s deep appreciation for individuals who have made significant and lasting contributions to their respective fields, both in India and globally.

Which of the following statements about the Padma Awards 2025 is/are correct?

  1. The Padma Vibhushan was conferred upon seven individuals, including M.T. Vasudevan Nair and Osamu Suzuki.
  2. The Padma Bhushan category recognized 19 recipients, with notable awardees such as Nandamuri Balakrishna and Pankaj Udhas (posthumous).
  3. The Padma Shri category honored 113 individuals, including Arijit Singh and Harvinder Singh.

Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation:

  • The Padma Awards 2025 recognized a total of 139 distinguished individuals across three categories:
  • 7 Padma Vibhushan awardees, including M.T. Vasudevan Nair and Osamu Suzuki.
  • 19 Padma Bhushan recipients, notably Nandamuri Balakrishna and Pankaj Udhas (posthumously).
  • 113 Padma Shri honorees, including figures like Arijit Singh and Harvinder Singh for their contributions in music and sports respectively.

Padma Awards

Syllabus:Awards

 

About Padma Awards:

  • The Padma Awards are among India’s highest civilian honors, recognizing exceptional service across diverse fields that contribute to public welfare.

 

Origin and Classification:

Instituted in 1954 and reclassified in 1955 into three categories:

  • Padma Vibhushan (highest honor)
  • Padma Bhushan
  • Padma Shri

 

 

Presentation:

  • The President of India presents these awards at a formal ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
  • Selection Process:
  • Constituted by: The Prime Minister annually.
  • Headed by: The Cabinet Secretary.
  • Members: The Home Secretary, Secretary to the President, and 4-6 eminent personalities.
  • Selection Criteria:
  • Focuses on life-long achievements and public service.

 

Awards span a range of fields, including:

  • Arts, Social Work, Science, Public Affairs, Trade, Medicine, Sports, Literature, Education, Civil Service.
  • Inclusivity: Open to all citizens regardless of race, occupation, or gender.
  • Ineligibility: Active government servants (except doctors/scientists) cannot be nominated.

 

Posthumous Awards:

  • Rare but allowed in exceptional cases.

 

Nomination Process:

  • Nominations can be made by the public, with self-nominations also accepted.
  • The Padma Awards Committee screens the nominees.
  • The Prime Minister reviews the recommendations, which are then sent to the President for approval.

 

Award Limits and Restrictions:

  • Maximum of 120 awards can be conferred annually, excluding posthumous, foreign, NRI, or OCI awards.
  • No title conferred: Awardees cannot use the award as a title in their name.

 

Historical Context:

  • Suspension: The awards were discontinued in 1978–79 by the Janata Party under PM Morarji Desai.
  • Resumption: In 1993–97, the awards were suspended due to PILs questioning their validity, but the Supreme Court upheld the award system in 1995 (Balaji Raghavan case), leading to full conferment resumption from 1997.

 

Recent Ceremony: In Padma Awards 2024, 71 personalities were honored for their distinguished service in various sectors, with the President of India presiding over the ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan.

Consider the following statements regarding the Padma Awards:

  1. The Padma Awards are conferred on Republic Day each year by the President of India.
  2. The awards are limited to Indian citizens only and cannot be conferred on foreigners.
  3. The Padma Vibhushan is the highest of the three categories of Padma Awards.
  4. Active government servants are eligible for Padma Awards in all categories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: A Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Padma Awards are conferred annually by the President of India on Republic Day.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Padma Awards are also conferred on foreign nationals and NRIs in certain categories.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Padma Vibhushan is the highest honor, followed by Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Active government servants (except doctors/scientists) are not eligible for these awards.

Priyanka Chopra, Ang Lee, Megan Thee Stallion to Be Honoured at 4th Annual Gold House Gold Gala

Syllabus: Awards

The 4th Annual Gold House Gold Gala returns in grandeur on May 10, 2025, at the Music Centre in Downtown Los Angeles, bringing together over 600 of the world’s most influential leaders in celebration of Asian Pacific excellence. This year’s gala shines a spotlight on individuals who have reshaped global culture through creativity, leadership, and advocacy.

 

Event Snapshot

  • Name: 4th Annual Gold House Gold Gala
  • Date: May 10, 2025
  • Location: Music Centre, Downtown Los Angeles
  • Attendance: 600+ distinguished guests
  • Theme: First Light — Honoring pioneers who have lit the path for others to follow

 

Honorees & Awards

Priyanka Chopra Jonas

  • Award: Global Vanguard Honor (Inaugural Recipient)
  • Recognition: For a remarkable 25-year career spanning Bollywood and Hollywood.
  • Impact: A global ambassador for underrepresented voices and Asian Pacific visibility in entertainment.

Ang Lee

  • Acclaimed Director: Life of Pi, Crouching Tiger, Hidden Dragon, Brokeback Mountain
  • Recognition: Celebrated for redefining global cinema and championing Asian narratives across genres.

Megan Thee Stallion

  • Cultural Powerhouse: Honored for her influence on music, advocacy, and allyship.
  • Contribution: Recognized as a bridge-builder for marginalized voices and supporter of Asian Pacific stories.

Jon M. Chu

  • Visionary Filmmaker: Crazy Rich Asians, Wicked
  • Recognition: For transforming the portrayal of Asian communities in mainstream media and inspiring future storytellers.

 

Theme – “First Light”

  • This year’s theme pays homage to the trailblazers — the “firsts” in their fields or identities — who ignited transformative change. As Gold House CEO Bing Chen stated, the gala “launches the next wave of culture,” honoring those whose achievements have opened doors for future generations.

 

A Cultural Milestone

  • The Gold Gala stands as a cornerstone of cultural recognition, highlighting innovation, heritage, and leadership within the Asian Pacific community.
  • It also builds momentum ahead of the highly anticipated 2025 A100 List—a definitive index of the top 100 Asian Pacific change makers—set to be revealed on May 1.
  • With its blend of star power and social purpose, the Gold Gala continues to be a powerful platform for celebrating those shaping the future of global culture

In the context of cultural representation and symbolic capital, the conferring of the Global Vanguard Honor to Priyanka Chopra signifies which of the following?

  1. Institutionalization of diasporic identity in global pop culture
  2. Reversal of cultural hegemony through performative activism
  3. Recognition of intersectionality within global media systems
  4. Structural democratization of award systems globally

Select the correct code:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Priyanka Chopra’s award represents the mainstreaming of diasporic South Asian identity into global cultural frameworks.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Her career reflects intersectionality—navigating multiple identities across gender, geography, and industry.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Her activism is substantive, not merely performative.
  • Statement 4 overstates the effect; while the award symbolizes inclusivity, it does not reflect system-wide structural democratization.

Maharashtra Governor Presents Yashraj Bharti Samman Awards 2025

Syllabus: Awards

 

  • Yashraj Bharti Samman 2025: Honoring Grassroots Excellence in Healthcare, Education, and Governance
  • In a landmark ceremony held at the Raj Bhavan, Mumbai, Maharashtra Governor C.P. Radhakrishnan conferred the 3rd edition of the Yashraj Bharti Samman to three outstanding grassroots organizations for their transformative contributions in healthcare, education for sustainable development, and governance.

Award Overview

  • Award Name: Yashraj Bharti Samman
  • Edition: 3rd
  • Purpose: Recognizes individuals or organizations making significant grassroots-level contributions across key sectors that shape inclusive development.

 

2025 Honorees and Contributions

  • Jan Swasthya Sahayog (Chhattisgarh)
  • Sector: Healthcare
  • Achievement: Delivering specialist-led medical care in remote tribal areas of Chhattisgarh.
    Focus: Advocates health equity and ensures access to affordable, expert-driven healthcare in underserved regions.

Pratham Education Foundation

  • Sector: Education for Sustainable Development
  • Achievement: Revolutionizing basic education in India through innovative learning models.
    Notable Program: ASER (Annual Status of Education Report), a pioneering initiative for tracking and improving learning outcomes across rural India.

 

Services Plus Platform (National Informatics Centre)

  • Sector:Governance
    Achievement: A robust digital infrastructure enabling transparent and efficient delivery of citizen-centric e-services.
  • Developed By: National Informatics Centre (NIC), the platform is a model for digital governance and public service reform.

Event Highlights

  • Location: Mumbai, Raj Bhavan
  • Dignitaries Present:
  • Dilip Walse Patil, Former Speaker, Maharashtra Legislative Assembly
  • Amitabh Kant, G-20 Sherpa for India
  • Organized by: Office of the Governor of Maharashtra

Governor’s Address: Vision for Inclusive Development

Education:

  • Concern over declining learning standards despite a high number of schools.
  • Emphasized the need to prioritize quality education over mere infrastructural expansion.

Healthcare:

  • Stressed the importance of specialist-led interventions to improve healthcare in tribal and remote regions.
  • Promoted a vision of holistic well-being for marginalized communities.

Governance:

  • Highlighted the importance of ethical public administration.
  • Called for greater public awareness to fight corruption.
  • Defined ethical governance as essential for achieving genuine social transformation.

Conclusion

  • The Yashraj Bharti Samman 2025 continues to champion grassroots excellence.
  • The award recognizes organizations that embody innovation, compassion, and impact.
  • It stands as a symbol of sustainable and inclusive development in India.

With reference to the 3rd edition of the Yashraj Bharti Samman held in 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. Jan Swasthya Sahayog was awarded for pioneering AI-driven healthcare diagnostics in urban slum areas.
  2. The Pratham Education Foundation’s ASER initiative is primarily aimed at monitoring infrastructure quality in government schools.
  3. The Services Plus platform, developed by the National Informatics Centre, contributes to governance by enabling citizen access to e-services.
  4. Governor C.P. Radhakrishnan emphasized ethical governance and citizen awareness as essential to combating systemic corruption.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: B) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: Jan Swasthya Sahayog was recognized for providing specialist-led healthcare in remote tribal regions, not for AI-driven diagnostics in urban slums.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: The ASER initiative by Pratham Education Foundation focuses on tracking and improving learning outcomes, not infrastructure quality.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: The Services Plus platform, developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC), is a citizen-centric digital governance tool that provides transparent and efficient e-services.
  • Statement 4 – Correct: Governor Radhakrishnan’s address highlighted the importance of ethical governance and public awareness to fight corruption and ensure inclusive development.

 

Payal Kapadia Receives Prestigious French Honour

Syllabus:Awards

  • Payal Kapadia, a Mumbai-based filmmaker, has been honored with the prestigious Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres (Officer of the Order of Arts and Letters) by the French Government.
  • Kapadia’s recognition is a testament to her exceptional contribution to cinema, marking a significant milestone in her career.
  • The award was presented to her at a special ceremony held at the French Consulate in Mumbai, where she was celebrated for her innovative storytelling.
  • With this honor, Kapadia joins the ranks of renowned Indian artists such as Amitabh Bachchan, Shah Rukh Khan, and Lata Mangeshkar.
  • Her journey from indie cinema to international acclaim has been underscored by a series of prestigious awards, including her recent triumphs at Cannes and her Golden Globe nomination.

 

The French Honour

  • Payal Kapadia received the Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres, an esteemed French award that recognizes significant contributions to the world of cinema.
  • The award ceremony at the French residence in Mumbai was attended by distinguished guests, highlighting Kapadia’s growing international stature.

 

Gratitude and Acknowledgements

  • In her acceptance speech, Kapadia expressed heartfelt gratitude for the award and acknowledged the French government’s continuous support for independent cinema globally.
  • She emphasized that the honor was not only a personal achievement but also a recognition of the collective efforts of independent filmmakers worldwide.

 

Cannes Film Festival Success

  • Kapadia’s breakthrough came in 2017 when her short film Afternoon Clouds was showcased at the Cannes Film Festival. Her debut feature documentary, A Night of Knowing Nothing, won the Golden Eye award at Cannes, cementing her position in the international film industry.
  • However, it was her 2024 film All We Imagine As Light that brought her to global attention.
  • This film won the Grand Prix at the 77th Cannes Film Festival, making Kapadia the first Indian director in 30 years to receive this prestigious award in Cannes’ main competition.

 

Global Recognition

  • In addition to her success at Cannes, All We Imagine As Light was nominated for a Golden Globe and was shortlisted as France’s official entry for the Oscars’ international category.
  • Co-produced in France, the film’s unique cultural blend and distinctive storytelling have garnered widespread acclaim, solidifying Kapadia’s place in international cinema.

 

Kapadia’s Influence and Legacy

  • Kapadia’s name now joins an exclusive list of Indian artists who have received the Officer of the Order of Arts and Letters award, including Amitabh Bachchan, Shah Rukh Khan, Deepika Padukone, and Lata Mangeshkar.
  • Her rise to prominence exemplifies the increasing global recognition of Indian filmmakers, underscoring the growing influence of Indian cinema on the international stage.

With reference to Payal Kapadia’s recent recognition with the Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres (Officer of the Order of Arts and Letters) by the French Government, consider the following statements:

  1. Payal Kapadia’s recognition reflects France’s commitment to supporting independent cinema globally, as seen through its support of films such as All We Imagine As Light.
  2. Kapadia is the first Indian filmmaker in 30 years to receive the Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres award from the French government.
  3. Her success at the Cannes Film Festival includes the Grand Prix at the 77th Cannes Film Festival for her 2024 film All We Imagine As Light, which was co-produced in France.
  4. Kapadia’s film A Night of Knowing Nothing was not recognized at the Cannes Film Festival but earned significant acclaim in domestic Indian cinema.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Correct Answer: C. Only three

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: Payal Kapadia’s recognition highlights the French government’s ongoing support for independent cinema, as seen with her success at international festivals, including her 2024 film All We Imagine As Light, which was co-produced in France. This international collaboration emphasizes France’s contribution to fostering global cinematic talent.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: While Kapadia’s achievement is significant, the claim that she is the first Indian filmmaker in 30 years to receive the Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres award is not entirely accurate. Other prominent Indian artists, such as Amitabh Bachchan, Shah Rukh Khan, and Lata Mangeshkar, have also received this honor in the past.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: Kapadia won the Grand Prix at the 77th Cannes Film Festival for her 2024 film All We Imagine As Light, making history as the first Indian director in 30 years to win this prestigious award. The film, which was co-produced in France, has garnered international acclaim for its cultural richness and unique storytelling.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect: A Night of Knowing Nothing, Kapadia’s debut feature documentary, was indeed recognized at the Cannes Film Festival, where it won the Golden Eye award. Therefore, the statement incorrectly asserts that the film was not acknowledged at Cannes.

Jatra Utsav

Syllabus: GS1/ History and Culture

Context:

  • Tripura is set to host a Jatra Utsav aimed at preserving its traditional art forms, culture, and heritage.

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AboutJatra: Jatra, or Jatrapala, is a widely recognized traditional Bengali folk theatre form, typically performed in open-air settings, encouraging interaction with the audience.
The term “Jatra” means “journey,” which reflects its origins as a traveling theatrical performance.

 

Region: Jatrapala is most popular in the regions of West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, and Tripura, showcasing the rich cultural and linguistic heritage of these areas.

 

Features:Jatra combines dramatic storytelling with music, dance, and social commentary.
The performances are known for their vibrant costumes, expressive gestures, loud dialogues, and often convey moral lessons.

 

Themes:The performances typically focus on mythological tales, historical narratives, and contemporary social issues.

With reference to the traditional Bengali folk theatre form “Jatra” or “Jatrapala,” which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Jatra performances are primarily performed indoors, with limited interaction with the audience.
  2. The word “Jatra” refers to “journey,” indicating its origins as a traveling theatrical performance.
  3. The performances are known for their elaborate costumes, exaggerated gestures, and moral messaging.
  4. Jatra is only popular in West Bengal, with no significant presence in other states.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Jatra is typically performed in open-air settings with audience interaction.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The word “Jatra” means “journey,” which reflects its origins as a traveling theatrical performance.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Jatra is characterized by elaborate costumes, dramatic gestures, and moral or social messaging.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Jatra is popular in several states, including West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, and Tripura.

Mahavir Jayanti

Syllabus: GS 1/History, Famous Personalities

  • Mahavir Jayanti is being celebrated with great devotion across India to commemorate the birth of Lord Mahavir, the 24th and last Tirthankara (teacher) of Jainism.
  • This significant occasion serves as a reminder for followers of Jainism to reflect upon and embrace the core principles taught by Lord Mahavir.
  • The celebration includes prayers, meditation, and compassionate acts, encouraging individuals to lead an ethical life and show kindness to all living beings.
  • Mahavir Jayanti is primarily observed by Jains in India, Nepal, the United States, and the United Kingdom.

VardhamanMahavira:

  • Lord Mahavir, also known as Vardhaman, is regarded as the founder of Jainism. He was born in 599 BC at Vaishali, the capital of the Vajji tribe.
  • His father, Siddhartha, was the chief of a Kshatriya clan. Mahavir left his royal life at the age of thirty to pursue spiritual awakening, enduring a life of austerity to gain true knowledge.
  • After achieving supreme wisdom, he came to be known as Mahavir.
  • Mahavir was deeply committed to the practice of celibacy (brahmacharya) and believed strongly in the importance of living a disciplined and ethical life.

 

Philosophy and Teachings

  • Lord Mahavir rejected the belief in a personal god, rituals, and the caste system, advocating for equality among all people.
  • He taught four primary vows: non-violence (Ahimsa), truthfulness (Satya), non-attachment (Aparigraha), and non-stealing (Asteya).
  • He emphasized the path of Right Belief, Right Knowledge, and Right Conduct as the key to attaining Moksha—liberation from the cycle of birth and rebirth.
  • His central tenet, Ahimsa (non-violence), influenced practices like vegetarianism and extreme care in avoiding harm to even the smallest life forms.
  • Mahavir spent much of his life preaching across regions like Anga, Mithila, Magadha, and Kosala. He passed away in 527 BC at Pawapuri.

 

Did You Know?

  • The term Jaina comes from the Sanskrit word Jina, meaning “the conqueror”—one who has conquered passion and desire. Mahavir is called Jina after he attained supreme realization.
  • Mahavir’s teachings gained widespread acceptance due to his use of the common language, Ardha Magadhi.
  • Jainism eventually split into two main sects: Digambaras (sky-clad) and Swetambaras (white-clad).
  • Notable kings like Bimbisara and Ajatsatru embraced Jainism, and under their patronage, Jain art, architecture, and literature flourished.

Which of the following statements regarding Lord Mahavir and Jainism is/are correct?

  1. Lord Mahavir was born in 599 BC at Vaishali, the capital of the Vajji tribe.
  2. Mahavir’s teachings rejected the belief in God, rituals, and the caste system, advocating equality among all people.
  3. Mahavir’s teachings were delivered in Sanskrit, the classical language of the Indian subcontinent.
  4. Jainism later split into two sects: Digambaras and Swetambaras.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Lord Mahavir was born in 599 BC at Vaishali, the capital of the Vajji tribe.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Mahavir rejected belief in God, rituals, and the caste system, advocating equality among all people.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Mahavir’s teachings were delivered in Ardha Magadhi, not Sanskrit.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Jainism split into two sects: Digambaras (sky-clad) and Swetambaras (white-clad).

Chittorgarh Fort

Syllabus: GS1/History

 

Context: The Rajasthan government has informed the Supreme Court that it is “actively considering” a complete ban on mining activities within 10 kilometers of the outer boundary of the historic Chittorgarh Fort.

 

About Chittorgarh Fort:

  • Chittorgarh Fort, one of the largest forts in India, was originally built in the 7th century AD by Chitrangada Mori, a ruler from the Maurya dynasty of Rajasthan.

Historical Significance:

  • In 728 AD, the fort was captured by the rulers of Mewar, who made it their capital and transformed it into a symbol of Rajput power and resistance.
  • The fort’s history is famously depicted in Malik Muhammad Jayasi’s epic Padmavat, which tells of the siege by Alauddin Khilji, who sought to capture Queen Padmini, wife of Rana Ratan Singh.

UNESCO Recognition:

  • In 2013, the fort was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site under the “Hill Forts of Rajasthan” category due to its historical importance.

 

Architectural Features:

  • The fort is accessed through seven massive gates (pols), surrounded by thick stone walls and strong ramparts for defense.

Notable structures inside the fort include:

  • Vijay Stambh (Victory Tower): Built by Rana Kumbha to commemorate his victory over Malwa. It stands 9 stories tall, featuring intricate carvings.
  • Kirti Stambh (Tower of Fame): Dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras and adorned with Jain sculptures.

With reference to Chittorgarh Fort, consider the following statements:

  1. It was originally built by a ruler of the Rajput Sisodia dynasty.
  2. The fort was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site under the category of “Hill Forts of Rajasthan.”
  3. The Kirti Stambh inside the fort is dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The fort was originally built by Chitrangada Mori of the Maurya dynasty, not the Sisodia Rajputs.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Chittorgarh Fort was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013 under the “Hill Forts of Rajasthan”.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Kirti Stambh is dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras.

 

Kathak

 Syllabus: Art /Culture

  • Renowned Kathak Dancer Kumudini Lakhia Passes Away at 94

About Kathak

  • Etymology: The term Kathak is derived from the Sanskrit word Katha, which means story.
  • Nature of Performance: Initially performed as a temple dance, Kathak evolved into a court dance during the Mughal period, with stories from scriptures being portrayed through intricate movements.
  • Major Gharanas: Prominent Kathak schools or gharanas include the Lucknow, Jaipur, and Benaras gharanas.
  • Dance Style: The focus in Kathak lies on footwork (Tatkaar), pirouettes (Chakkars), mudras, and facial expressions. Dancers traditionally wear ankle bells (ghungroos) to accentuate their rhythmic footwork.

 

Musical Association

  • Kathak is the only classical dance form directly associated with Hindustani (North Indian) music.
  • Mughal Influence: Under the patronage of the Mughal court, Kathak transformed into a refined art form, focusing on grace and intricate rhythmic patterns.

Patronage

  • The dance form received immense support from Wajid Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh, who played a key role in its development.
  • Prominent Exponents
  • Birju Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Shovana Narayan, and Aditi Mangaldas are among the renowned exponents of Kathak.

Kumudini Lakhia’s Contributions to Kathak

  • Kumudini Lakhia was a revolutionary figure in the world of Kathak. She defied traditional norms by moving away from the classical focus on mythological narratives like Radha-Krishna and Shiva-Parvati.
  • She believed in “art for art’s sake,” emphasizing movement, rhythm, and form rather than relying on storytelling.
  • Transformation of the Art: Over a distinguished career spanning seven decades, she played a crucial role in transforming Kathak from a solo, narrative-based performance to a group ensemble format, exploring contemporary and abstract themes.
  • Awards and Recognition: Kumudini Lakhia’s exceptional contribution to the dance world earned her the Padma Shri in 1987, Padma Bhushan in 2010, and Padma Vibhushan in 2024, making her one of the most highly regarded figures in Indian classical dance.

Which of the following statements about Kathak dance and its evolution are correct?

  1. Kathak originated as a temple performance, depicting stories from scriptures, and later evolved into a court dance during the Mughal period.
  2. The dance form primarily focuses on storytelling through narrative content like Radha-Krishna or Shiva-Parvati.
  3. Kumudini Lakhia’s contribution to Kathak involved transforming the dance from a solo, narrative-based form to a group ensemble format.
  4. Kathak is exclusively associated with Hindustani (North Indian) music and has no ties to the Mughal courts.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct because Kathak originated as a temple performance and evolved under the Mughal influence into a court dance.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect because Kumudini Lakhia challenged the classical focus on narrative themes and emphasized movement, rhythm, and form.
  • Statement 3 is correct as Kumudini Lakhia revolutionized Kathak by transforming it into a group ensemble form.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect as Kathak is deeply associated with both Hindustani music and Mughal influence, particularly during the Mughal court period.

West Bengal CM Mamata Banerjee Will Inaugurate Jagannath Temple in Digha

Syllabus: Art and Culture

  • West Bengal is gearing up for a significant religious and cultural event—the inauguration of the Jagannath Dham Temple in Digha, one of the state’s most popular coastal towns.
  • Scheduled for April 30, 2025, the event will be inaugurated by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee and is expected to attract a massive turnout, including political dignitaries, industrialists, film personalities, and thousands of devotees.

 

Key Highlights

Event Details

  • Occasion: Inauguration of Jagannath Dham Temple
  • Date: April 30, 2025
  • Location: Digha, Purba Medinipur district, West Bengal
  • Chief Guest: Mamata Banerjee, Chief Minister of West Bengal
  • Expected Attendance: 12,000–14,000 people

 VIP and Dignitary Participation

  • Participation of Chief Ministers from other states
  • Top political and administrative leaders
  • Leading industrialists and film celebrities

 Accommodation and Hospitality

  • Government guesthouses in Digha reserved exclusively for VIPs from April 27 to May 1
  • General public barred from staying in government accommodations during this period
  • Private hotels and lodges experiencing high demand

Logistics & Infrastructure Preparedness

  • Two temporary helipads under construction in addition to the existing one
  • Emphasis on stage design, lighting, sound, and transport
  • Enhanced security, emergency medical teams, and traffic management plans in place

 

Administrative Coordination

  • Continuous oversight by senior IAS officers and state officials
  • Coordination by the Digha-Shankarpur Development Corporation for accommodation logistics

 

Cultural and Strategic Significance

  • This event underscores West Bengal’s emphasis on cultural heritage and religious tourism, with the Jagannath Dham in Digha poised to become a major spiritual destination.
  • It also reflects the state’s intent to position Digha as a hub for pilgrimage and leisure tourism, contributing to local economy and infrastructure development.

Which of the following statements about the newly inaugurated Jagannath Dham Temple in West Bengal are correct?

  1. It is located in the coastal town of Digha.
  2. The inauguration is scheduled for April 30, 2025.
  3. Prime Minister of India is the chief guest at the inauguration ceremony.
  4. Government guesthouses in Digha have been reserved exclusively for general public during the event.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • The temple is located in Digha and the inauguration is on April 30, 2025.
  • The Chief Minister of West Bengal, not the Prime Minister, is the chief guest. Government guesthouses are reserved for dignitaries, not the general public.

West Bengal CM Mamata Banerjee Will Inaugurate Jagannath Temple in Digha

Syllabus: Art and Culture

  • West Bengal is gearing up for a significant religious and cultural event—the inauguration of the Jagannath Dham Temple in Digha, one of the state’s most popular coastal towns.
  • Scheduled for April 30, 2025, the event will be inaugurated by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee and is expected to attract a massive turnout, including political dignitaries, industrialists, film personalities, and thousands of devotees.

 

Key Highlights

Event Details

  • Occasion: Inauguration of Jagannath Dham Temple
  • Date: April 30, 2025
  • Location: Digha, Purba Medinipur district, West Bengal
  • Chief Guest: Mamata Banerjee, Chief Minister of West Bengal
  • Expected Attendance: 12,000–14,000 people

 VIP and Dignitary Participation

  • Participation of Chief Ministers from other states
  • Top political and administrative leaders
  • Leading industrialists and film celebrities

 Accommodation and Hospitality

  • Government guesthouses in Digha reserved exclusively for VIPs from April 27 to May 1
  • General public barred from staying in government accommodations during this period
  • Private hotels and lodges experiencing high demand

Logistics & Infrastructure Preparedness

  • Two temporary helipads under construction in addition to the existing one
  • Emphasis on stage design, lighting, sound, and transport
  • Enhanced security, emergency medical teams, and traffic management plans in place

 

Administrative Coordination

  • Continuous oversight by senior IAS officers and state officials
  • Coordination by the Digha-Shankarpur Development Corporation for accommodation logistics

 

Cultural and Strategic Significance

  • This event underscores West Bengal’s emphasis on cultural heritage and religious tourism, with the Jagannath Dham in Digha poised to become a major spiritual destination.
  • It also reflects the state’s intent to position Digha as a hub for pilgrimage and leisure tourism, contributing to local economy and infrastructure development.

Which of the following statements about the newly inaugurated Jagannath Dham Temple in West Bengal are correct?

  1. It is located in the coastal town of Digha.
  2. The inauguration is scheduled for April 30, 2025.
  3. Prime Minister of India is the chief guest at the inauguration ceremony.
  4. Government guesthouses in Digha have been reserved exclusively for general public during the event.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • The temple is located in Digha and the inauguration is on April 30, 2025.
  • The Chief Minister of West Bengal, not the Prime Minister, is the chief guest. Government guesthouses are reserved for dignitaries, not the general public.

World Heritage Day 2025

Syllabus: GS3/ History and Culture

  • Theme 2024: “Heritage under Threat from Disasters and Conflicts: Preparedness and Learning from 60 years of ICOMOS Actions”

Background

  • Proposed by the International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) in 1982
  • Officially approved by UNESCO in 1983
  • Observed annually to raise awareness about preserving cultural heritage

 

World Heritage Sites

  • Sites of outstanding universal value inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List
  • Can be cultural, natural, or mixed
  • Protected under the 1972 World Heritage Convention
  • India became a signatory in 1977

 

India on the World Heritage Map

  • Home to numerous UNESCO World Heritage Sites and Monuments of National Importance
  • Monuments of National Importance (MNI):
  • Protected under the AMASR Act, 2010
  • Conserved by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
  • Total MNIs: 3,697

 

Key Government Initiatives

  • Retrieval of Antiquities: 655 artefacts recovered from abroad (1976–2024)
  • Adopt a Heritage Scheme: Launched in 2017; revamped in 2023 to involve private/public entities in monument upkeep
  • Must-See Portal: Digital platform to promote iconic monuments
  • Digitization: National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities (NMMA) is documenting and digitizing heritage assets
  • 46th World Heritage Committee Session: Hosted by ASI in 2024, showcasing India’s global cultural leadership

 

Conclusion: World Heritage Day is a reminder of our collective duty to protect and cherish cultural treasures. Through national commitment and global cooperation, India continues to safeguard its rich heritage for future generations.

Which of the following statements regarding the World Heritage Convention, 1972 is/are correct?

  1. It is legally binding only on cultural sites and not natural sites.
  2. It obligates signatory States to report periodically on the conservation status of World Heritage Sites.
  3. India became a signatory to the Convention even before it was adopted by UNESCO.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

 

Answer: B. 2 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Convention is applicable to cultural, natural, and mixed sites.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Periodic reporting on the conservation status is a mandatory obligation under the convention.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The convention was adopted in 1972 and India joined in 1977, after its adoption.

Guru Tegh Bahadur

Syllabus: GS1/History 

  • The Prime Minister paid tribute to Sri Guru Tegh Bahadur on the occasion of his Parkash Purab, honouring his legacy of sacrifice and spiritual leadership.
  • Sri Guru Tegh Bahadur: A Life of Courage and Compassion

 

Early Life

  • Born on 1 April 1621 in Amritsar, Guru Tegh Bahadur was the ninth Sikh Guru and the youngest son of Guru Hargobind Sahib.
  • Originally named Tyag Mal, he earned the title “Tegh Bahadur” (Brave Wielder of the Sword) for his valour in battle.
  • He married Mata Gujri and was the father of Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Sikh Guru.

 

Spiritual Journey and Teachings

  • Guru Tegh Bahadur led a life dedicated to meditation, spiritual wisdom, and selfless service.
  • He travelled extensively across the Indian subcontinent, spreading the teachings of Sikhism, promoting social reform, and establishing preaching centres.
  • Martyrdom and Sacrifice
  • In 1675, Guru Tegh Bahadur was martyred in Delhi under the orders of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb.
  • He sacrificed his life to defend the religious freedom of Kashmiri Pandits and others, refusing to convert to Islam.
  • His supreme sacrifice earned him the title “Hind di Chadar” – the Shield of India.

 

Legacy and Contribution

  • A profound philosopher and poet, his hymns included in the Guru Granth Sahib emphasize fearlessness, devotion, compassion, and righteousness.
  • His martyrdom became a powerful symbol of resistance to religious persecution and inspired the creation of the Khalsa by his son Guru Gobind Singh.
  • Guru Tegh Bahadur’s legacy continues to inspire generations in the fight for justice and the upholding of human rights.

Consider the following statements about Guru Tegh Bahadur:

  1. He was the son of Guru Arjan Dev and the father of Guru Gobind Singh.
  2. He was martyred during the reign of Aurangzeb for opposing religious conversions.
  3. His teachings are not included in the Guru Granth Sahib.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer:B
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Guru Tegh Bahadur was the son of Guru Hargobind, not Guru Arjan Dev.
  • Statement 2 is correct: He was executed by Aurangzeb for refusing to convert and defending the religious freedom of Hindus.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: His hymns are indeed included in the Guru Granth Sahib.

Bhagavad Gita and Natyashastra Added to UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register

Syllabus: GS1/ Art & Culture

  • The Bhagavad Gita and Bharat Muni’s Natyashastra manuscripts have been inscribed in UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register.

 

 

About UNESCO’s Memory of the World (MoW) Register

  • Established: 1992 by UNESCO.
  • Purpose: Safeguard rare manuscripts, archival records, and documentary heritage of universal significance from neglect, decay, and loss.

 

Criteria for Inclusion:

  • Outstanding universal value
  • Historical, cultural, or social significance
  • Authenticity, integrity, and rarity
  • As of 2025: The register includes 570 collections from 72 countries and 4 international organizations.

 

 About the Newly Inscribed Indian Manuscripts

  • Bhagavad Gita
  • Meaning: “The Song of the Lord”
  • Attributed to: Sage Vyasa
  • Context: Part of the Mahabharata; a dialogue between Krishna and Arjuna on the battlefield of Kurukshetra.

 

Core Themes:

  • Dharma (righteous duty)
  • Karma (action)
  • Bhakti (devotion)
  • Jnana (knowledge)

 

Significance:

  • Foundation of Indian philosophical thought.
  • Influenced global thinkers such as Mahatma Gandhi, Albert Einstein, and Aldous Huxley.
  • Natyashastra
  • Author: Sage Bharat Muni
  • Period: ~200 BCE to 200 CE
  • Nature: Treatise on performing arts—drama, dance, music

 

Major Concepts:

  • Rasa Theory: Describes 9 emotions (Shringara, Karuna, Veera, etc.) essential to artistic expression.

 

Technical details on:

  • Stagecraft
  • Acting & Gestures (Mudras)
  • Costumes & Makeup
  • Musical instruments

 

Impact:

  • Blueprint for classical Indian dance forms like Bharatanatyam, Kathak, etc.
  • Foundation for Indian theatre and performance traditions.

 

 India’s Presence in the MoW Register

  • With these inclusions, India now has 14 entries in the UNESCO Memory of the World Register.
  • Recent Indian additions to the 2024 MOWCAP (Asia-Pacific Regional Register) include:
  • Ramcharitmanas
  • Panchatantra
  • Sahrdayāloka-Locana

Which of the following statements about UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register is/are correct?

  1. It aims to protect documentary heritage of exceptional value from destruction and neglect.
  2. It includes only manuscripts from member states of UNESCO.
  3. The Bhagavad Gita and Natyashastra were added to the register in 2025.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The register preserves heritage with universal significance.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It is open to UNESCO and non-UNESCO members, as well as international organizations.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Both manuscripts were inscribed in 2025

Jatra Utsav

Syllabus: GS1/ History and Culture

 

Context:

  • Tripura is set to host a Jatra Utsav aimed at preserving its traditional art forms, culture, and heritage.

\

AboutJatra: Jatra, or Jatrapala, is a widely recognized traditional Bengali folk theatre form, typically performed in open-air settings, encouraging interaction with the audience.
The term “Jatra” means “journey,” which reflects its origins as a traveling theatrical performance.

 

Region: Jatrapala is most popular in the regions of West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, and Tripura, showcasing the rich cultural and linguistic heritage of these areas.

 

Features:Jatra combines dramatic storytelling with music, dance, and social commentary.
The performances are known for their vibrant costumes, expressive gestures, loud dialogues, and often convey moral lessons.

 

Themes:The performances typically focus on mythological tales, historical narratives, and contemporary social issues.

With reference to the traditional Bengali folk theatre form “Jatra” or “Jatrapala,” which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Jatra performances are primarily performed indoors, with limited interaction with the audience.
  2. The word “Jatra” refers to “journey,” indicating its origins as a traveling theatrical performance.
  3. The performances are known for their elaborate costumes, exaggerated gestures, and moral messaging.
  4. Jatra is only popular in West Bengal, with no significant presence in other states.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Jatra is typically performed in open-air settings with audience interaction.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The word “Jatra” means “journey,” which reflects its origins as a traveling theatrical performance.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Jatra is characterized by elaborate costumes, dramatic gestures, and moral or social messaging.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Jatra is popular in several states, including West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, and Tripura.

Mahavir Jayanti

Syllabus: GS 1/History, Famous Personalities

  • Mahavir Jayanti is being celebrated with great devotion across India to commemorate the birth of Lord Mahavir, the 24th and last Tirthankara (teacher) of Jainism.
  • This significant occasion serves as a reminder for followers of Jainism to reflect upon and embrace the core principles taught by Lord Mahavir.
  • The celebration includes prayers, meditation, and compassionate acts, encouraging individuals to lead an ethical life and show kindness to all living beings.
  • Mahavir Jayanti is primarily observed by Jains in India, Nepal, the United States, and the United Kingdom.

VardhamanMahavira:

  • Lord Mahavir, also known as Vardhaman, is regarded as the founder of Jainism. He was born in 599 BC at Vaishali, the capital of the Vajji tribe.
  • His father, Siddhartha, was the chief of a Kshatriya clan. Mahavir left his royal life at the age of thirty to pursue spiritual awakening, enduring a life of austerity to gain true knowledge.
  • After achieving supreme wisdom, he came to be known as Mahavir.
  • Mahavir was deeply committed to the practice of celibacy (brahmacharya) and believed strongly in the importance of living a disciplined and ethical life.

 

Philosophy and Teachings

  • Lord Mahavir rejected the belief in a personal god, rituals, and the caste system, advocating for equality among all people.
  • He taught four primary vows: non-violence (Ahimsa), truthfulness (Satya), non-attachment (Aparigraha), and non-stealing (Asteya).
  • He emphasized the path of Right Belief, Right Knowledge, and Right Conduct as the key to attaining Moksha—liberation from the cycle of birth and rebirth.
  • His central tenet, Ahimsa (non-violence), influenced practices like vegetarianism and extreme care in avoiding harm to even the smallest life forms.
  • Mahavir spent much of his life preaching across regions like Anga, Mithila, Magadha, and Kosala. He passed away in 527 BC at Pawapuri.

 

Did You Know?

  • The term Jaina comes from the Sanskrit word Jina, meaning “the conqueror”—one who has conquered passion and desire. Mahavir is called Jina after he attained supreme realization.
  • Mahavir’s teachings gained widespread acceptance due to his use of the common language, Ardha Magadhi.
  • Jainism eventually split into two main sects: Digambaras (sky-clad) and Swetambaras (white-clad).
  • Notable kings like Bimbisara and Ajatsatru embraced Jainism, and under their patronage, Jain art, architecture, and literature flourished.

Chittorgarh Fort

Syllabus: GS1/History

 

Context: The Rajasthan government has informed the Supreme Court that it is “actively considering” a complete ban on mining activities within 10 kilometers of the outer boundary of the historic Chittorgarh Fort.

 

About Chittorgarh Fort:

  • Chittorgarh Fort, one of the largest forts in India, was originally built in the 7th century AD by Chitrangada Mori, a ruler from the Maurya dynasty of Rajasthan.

Historical Significance:

  • In 728 AD, the fort was captured by the rulers of Mewar, who made it their capital and transformed it into a symbol of Rajput power and resistance.
  • The fort’s history is famously depicted in Malik Muhammad Jayasi’s epic Padmavat, which tells of the siege by Alauddin Khilji, who sought to capture Queen Padmini, wife of Rana Ratan Singh.

UNESCO Recognition:

  • In 2013, the fort was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site under the “Hill Forts of Rajasthan” category due to its historical importance.

 

Architectural Features:

  • The fort is accessed through seven massive gates (pols), surrounded by thick stone walls and strong ramparts for defense.

Notable structures inside the fort include:

  • Vijay Stambh (Victory Tower): Built by Rana Kumbha to commemorate his victory over Malwa. It stands 9 stories tall, featuring intricate carvings.
  • Kirti Stambh (Tower of Fame): Dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras and adorned with Jain sculptures.

Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

Syllabus: GS1/ History, Famous Personalities                  

  • Death Anniversary (April 3): A day to honor Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, the visionary founder of the Maratha Empire.

 

Life and Leadership (1630-1680)

  • Birth & Inspiration: Born as Shivaji Bhosale, he championed the cause of Swarajya (self-rule). Influenced by saints like Tukaram, Dnyaneshwar, and Ramdas, he upheld social equality and spiritual awakening.
  • Coronation (1674): Proclaimed king at Raigad Fort, marking the start of the Rajyabhisheka Era.

 

Governance and Military Excellence

Administrative Reforms:

  • Established the Ashta Pradhan Mandal (council of eight ministers) for effective governance.
  • Replaced the Jagirdari system with the Ryotwari system, ensuring direct taxation for better revenue management.

 

Military & Naval Power:

  • Strategically engaged with the Mughals, Bijapur, Golkonda, and European powers.
  • Strengthened India’s maritime defenses by building a formidable naval force to safeguard trade and territorial integrity.

 

Enduring Legacy

  • His name continues to inspire, with landmarks like INS Shivaji and the UNESCO-listed Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak revived the Shivaji Festival in the 1890s, using his legacy to ignite nationalism.
  • The Indian Navy’s new Ensign and Admirals’ shoulder insignia are tributes to his naval prowess and visionary leadership.

Consider the following statements about Shivaji’s relationship with the Mughals:

  1. Shivaji initially served under the Mughal emperor before rebelling.
  2. He signed the Treaty of Purandar (1665) with Raja Jai Singh of Amber.
  3. After escaping from Agra, he launched an aggressive campaign against the Mughals.

Which of the statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
Shivaji never served under the Mughals but had temporary truces with them. The Treaty of Purandar (1665) resulted in Shivaji ceding 23 forts, but after escaping from Agra (1666), he launched a fierce counterattack, re-establishing Maratha power.

North Sentinel Island

 

Recent Development:

  • A U.S. citizen has been arrested for illegally entering North Sentinel Island, home to one of the world’s last uncontacted tribes.

 

Geographical Overview:

  • Located in the Bay of Bengal, under the South Andaman administrative district of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, India.
  • Situated approximately 50 km west of Port Blair.
  • Surrounded by coral reefs, making access via sea extremely challenging.
  • Characterized by white-sand beaches, mangrove forests, and dense tropical vegetation.
  • The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake uplifted the island, exposing new coral reefs and increasing its landmass.

 

Sentinelese Tribe – Indigenous Inhabitants:

  • Among the last uncontacted tribes in the world.
  • Maintain complete isolation and display hostility towards outsiders.
  • Follow a hunter-gatherer lifestyle, using bows, arrows, spears, and dugout canoes.
  • Population estimates range between 50–150 individuals.

 

Legal Protection & Governance:

Andaman & Nicobar Islands (Protection of Aboriginal Tribes) Regulation, 1956:

  • Prohibits travel within 5 nautical miles (9 km) of the island.
  • Sentinelese are exempt from prosecution for acts of defensive aggression.

 

Restricted Area Permit (RAP):

Revoked in 2018 for 29 islands, but North Sentinel remains strictly off-limits.

Tourism, filming, fishing, and visits are strictly prohibited to protect the tribe and prevent external disease exposure.

Consider the following statements regarding North Sentinel Island:

  1. It is administratively part of the Middle Andaman district in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  2. The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake resulted in a reduction of the island’s landmass due to submersion of coastal areas.
  3. The island is surrounded by coral reefs, which act as a natural barrier against external intrusion.
  4. The Sentinelese are known to practice primitive forms of shifting agriculture in addition to hunting and gathering.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: North Sentinel Island falls under the South Andaman administrative district, not Middle Andaman.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2004 earthquake uplifted portions of the island, increasing its landmass rather than reducing it.

Statement 3 is correct: The island is surrounded by coral reefs, making access extremely difficult.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Sentinelese are strictly hunter-gatherers; they do not engage in agriculture.

Katchatheevu Island

Syllabus :GS 1/Places  

Recent Developments

  • The Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly has passed a resolution urging the Union government to take steps to reclaim Katchatheevu Island from Sri Lanka.
  • The demand is rooted in concerns over Tamil Nadu fishermen’s traditional fishing rights and the ongoing harassment by the Sri Lankan Navy.

 

 

About Katchatheevu Island

  • Location: Situated in the Palk Strait, between Tamil Nadu, India, and northern Sri Lanka.
  • Geography: A small, uninhabited island spanning approximately 285 acres.
  • Proximity:
  • 5 km south of Delft Island (Sri Lanka).
  • 16 km northeast of Rameswaram (India).

 

Features:

  • Lacks drinking water or permanent infrastructure.
  • Houses a Catholic church dedicated to St. Anthony, a pilgrimage site for both Indian and Sri Lankan fishermen.

Historical Dispute

  • Origins (1921): The dispute over Katchatheevu began between the British colonial administrations of Madras (India) and Ceylon (Sri Lanka).

 

Resolution (1974 & 1976 Agreements):

  • 1974 Agreement: India officially recognized Sri Lanka’s sovereignty over Katchatheevu.
  • 1976 Agreement: Defined maritime boundaries, including the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of both nations.

 

Key Provisions:

  • Indian fishermen could visit Katchatheevu for the annual Anthony’s festival.
  • However, fishing in Sri Lankan waters was strictly prohibited.

 

Strategic & Diplomatic Considerations

  • India’s decision to cede Katchatheevu was influenced by broader diplomatic interests, particularly in maintaining favorable relations with Sri Lanka amidst its growing ties with China.
  • In return, India secured sovereign rights over the Wadge Bank, a region near Kanniyakumari known for its rich marine resources.

 

Government’s Position

  • The Union government has consistently opposed any move to reclaim Katchatheevu, arguing that the 1974 and 1976 agreements settled the dispute.
  • The matter remains pending before the Supreme Court, where the government asserts that no Indian territory was ceded, as Katchatheevu was never under Indian sovereignty post-independence.

 

Conclusion

  • While Tamil Nadu continues to push for the retrieval of Katchatheevu, the Union government maintains that the agreements remain legally binding.
  • The dispute persists, particularly due to concerns over fishermen’s rights and Sri Lankan naval actions in the region.

Consider the following statements regarding the Katchatheevu Island dispute:

  1. The dispute over Katchatheevu began after India’s independence in 1947.
  2. The 1974 Agreement between India and Sri Lanka granted Sri Lankan sovereignty over Katchatheevu, but allowed Indian fishermen to fish in its surrounding waters.
  3. The 1976 Agreement demarcated the maritime boundaries and exclusive economic zones (EEZs) between India and Sri Lanka.
  4. India’s decision to recognize Sri Lankan sovereignty over Katchatheevu was influenced by its strategic interests in securing sovereign rights over the Wadge Bank.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The dispute over Katchatheevu dates back to 1921 during British rule, not post-independence.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The 1974 Agreement did not allow Indian fishermen to fish in Katchatheevu’s surrounding waters; they were only allowed to visit for the St. Anthony’s festival.

Statement 3 is correct: The 1976 Agreement established maritime boundaries and exclusive economic zones (EEZs) between India and Sri Lanka.

Statement 4 is correct: India’s strategic interests included securing Wadge Bank, a marine resource-rich region near Kanniyakumari.

GI Tag to Chapata Chilli

 

In News:

  • The Warangal Chapata Chilli, popularly known as Tomato Chilli, from Telangana has recently been awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag by the GI Registry.

 

About Warangal Chapata Chilli (Tomato Chilli):

  • Noted for its vibrant red colour and low pungency, making it distinct from other chilli varieties.
  • Widely sought after for its high content of natural colouring agent, specifically paprika oleoresin, used in food and cosmetic industries.

The variety includes three distinct fruit types:

  • Single Patti
  • Double Patti
  • Odalu

With reference to the Warangal Chapata Chilli, recently granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, consider the following statements:

  1. It is primarily cultivated for its high capsaicin content, which contributes to its intense pungency.
  2. The chilli is a significant source of paprika oleoresin, a natural colouring agent used in various industries.
  3. It includes distinct morphological fruit types, namely Single Patti, Double Patti, and Odalu.
  4. Its cultivation is limited to the high-altitude tribal belts of Eastern Ghats in Telangana.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

 Statement 1 — Incorrect:
Warangal Chapata chilli is not known for high capsaicin or pungency. In fact, one of its key traits is its low pungency, which differentiates it from other chilli varieties. Thus, the statement is factually incorrect.

  • Statement 2 — Correct:
    The chilli is in high demand due to the presence of paprika oleoresin, a natural colouring agent used in the food, cosmetic, and pharmaceutical industries. This makes the variety economically significant beyond its culinary usage.
  • Statement 3 — Correct:
    The three distinct fruit types of this chilli variety—Single Patti, Double Patti, and Odalu—refer to the physical/morphological characteristics of the fruit, and are used by cultivators to distinguish between sub-types.
  • Statement 4 — Incorrect:
    The cultivation of Warangal Chapata chilli is not limited to high-altitude tribal belts or the Eastern Ghats. It is mainly cultivated in the plains of Telangana, particularly around Warangal, which is known for its fertile soils and chilli production.

 

Heard and McDonald Islands

 

Context:

Under the so-called “Liberation Day Tariffs”, former U.S. President Donald Trump imposed a baseline 10% tariff on all trading partners. Notably, this list included even the uninhabited Heard and McDonald Islands, owing to their status as an Australian external territory.

About Heard and McDonald Islands:

  • TerritorialStatus:
    Uninhabited volcanic islands under the sovereignty of Australia, included in trade measures due to their territorial classification.
  • Geographic Location:
    Situated in the Southern Indian Ocean, approximately 1,700 km from Antarctica and 4,100 km southwest of mainland Australia.
  • Volcanic Significance:
    Host to the only active sub-Antarctic volcanoes, including Big Ben on Heard Island and the volcano on McDonald Island.
  • Geological Importance:
    Serve as a critical site for studying plate tectonics, oceanic crust formation, glacial dynamics, and climate change impacts.
  • Ecological Uniqueness:
    Among the few remaining pristine ecosystems globally, with no introduced species. The islands support large populations of seabirds and marine mammals.
  • Wildlife Highlights:
    Habitat for several endemic species, including the Heard Island cormorant and an endemic subspecies of sheathbill. Crucial breeding grounds for seals, petrels, penguins, and albatrosses.

 

Conservation Status:

  • Protected under Australia’s Environment Protection and Biodiversity Conservation Act, 1999
  • Recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site
  • Strict legal restrictions against unauthorized activities or environmental disruption

Tipitaka

Syllabus: GS1/ Art & Culture

 

In News

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi was presented with ‘The World Tipitaka: Sajjhaya Phonetic Edition’ by the Prime Minister of Thailand, Paetongtarn Shinawatra, as part of a diplomatic and cultural exchange.

About the Tipiṭaka

  • The Tipiṭaka, meaning “Three Baskets” in Pāli, is the foundational scripture of Theravāda Buddhism, comprising three major divisions of the Buddha’s teachings:
  • Vinaya Piṭaka (Basket of Discipline):
  • Contains rules, procedures, and guidelines for the monastic community (bhikkhus and bhikkhunis).

Emphasizes ethical conduct and communal harmony.

 

Sutta Piṭaka (Basket of Discourses):

  • A collection of the Buddha’s sermons and dialogues with disciples and lay followers.
  • Presents core teachings such as the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path.

 

Abhidhamma Piṭaka (Basket of Higher Doctrine):

  • Philosophical and psychological analysis of the Dhamma.
  • Offers a detailed framework for understanding consciousness and mental phenomena.

Historical Background

  • The Tipiṭaka was compiled orally after the Buddha’s Mahāparinibbāna (passing away) in the 5th century BCE.
  • The first compilation took place at the First Buddhist Council, held in Rajagaha (modern-day Rajgir, Bihar, India) under the patronage of King Ajātasattu.

With reference to the Tipiṭaka, consider the following statements:

  1. The Vinaya Piṭaka primarily addresses metaphysical doctrines in Buddhism.
  2. The Sutta Piṭaka contains the teachings of the Buddha delivered in narrative and dialogue form.
  3. The Abhidhamma Piṭaka was compiled during the lifetime of the Buddha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Vinaya Piṭaka is focused on monastic rules and disciplinary codes, not metaphysics.

Statement 2 is correct: The Sutta Piṭaka contains discourses of the Buddha, often structured as conversations or narratives.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Abhidhamma Piṭaka was compiled after the Buddha’s death, likely starting from the Third Buddhist Council onwards.

African Giant Pouched Rat

Syllabus: GS3/Species in News

 

Context:

  • A giant African pouched rat has set a Guinness World Record by detecting 109 landmines and 15 unexploded ordnance (UXOs) in Cambodia, showcasing its remarkable ability in humanitarian demining operations.

About the Achievement:

  • The rat earned the world record for most landmines detected by a rodent.
  • Trained to identify chemical compounds in explosives, these rats play a crucial role in post-conflict landmine clearance.
  • Unique Advantage: Due to their light weight, they can safely traverse minefields without triggering the explosives.
  • Efficiency: They can search an area equivalent to a tennis court in 30 minutes, a task that would take a metal detector nearly four days.
  • They are also known for their ability to detect tuberculosis faster than traditional laboratory methods.

Landmine Situation in Cambodia:

  • Cambodia remains one of the most landmine-contaminated countries due to prolonged conflicts.
  • Although the initial target was to become mine-free by 2025, this has been extended to 2030 due to financial constraints and the discovery of new minefields.
  • The African Giant Pouched Rat (Cricetomys gambianus) is a large rodent species native to sub-Saharan Africa, typically found in savannas, forests, and agricultural regions. It is omnivorous, feeding on a varied diet that includes fruits, seeds, insects, and occasionally small animals. The species is distinguished by its greyish-brown fur, large ears, and distinctive cheek pouches, which it uses to store food.
  • Noted for its high intelligence, the African Giant Pouched Rat is highly trainable and has been effectively utilized in specialized tasks such as landmine detection and disease diagnosis, including the identification of tuberculosis through scent. Due to its light weight, it can safely detect landmines without triggering them, making it especially valuable in humanitarian demining efforts.
  • The species is classified as “Least Concern” on the IUCN Red List, indicating that it currently faces no significant threat of extinction.

With reference to the African Giant Pouched Rat (Cricetomys gambianus), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is listed as “Vulnerable” on the IUCN Red List due to increasing demand in biomedical research.
  2. It has been successfully trained to detect both landmines and communicable diseases like tuberculosis.
  3. Its use in demining operations is restricted due to its inability to operate in humid tropical climates.
  4. It can survey minefields significantly faster than conventional metal detectors due to its olfactory capabilities and lightweight body.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect:

  • Cricetomys gambianus is currently classified as “Least Concern” by the IUCN, not “Vulnerable”. While it is used in specialized roles, there is no major threat or excessive demand that would warrant a “Vulnerable” status.

Statement 2 – Correct:

  • The rats have been successfully trained to detect landmines by sniffing out chemical compounds used in explosives. They are also known to detect tuberculosis using olfactory sensing, making them useful in medical diagnostics.

 

Statement 3 – Incorrect:

  • These rats are native to sub-Saharan Africa, which includes humid tropical regions, and have demonstrated the ability to work effectively in tropical countries like Cambodia. Hence, their utility is not restricted by climate.

Statement 4 – Correct:

  • Their lightweight body allows them to walk over landmines without setting them off, and they can cover a tennis-court-sized area in about 30 minutes, far faster than a metal detector, which could take days for the same task.

Sterkfontein Caves

Syllabus: GS1/ History and Culture

  • Location: Situated around 50 km northwest of Johannesburg, South Africa, the Sterkfontein Caves are a key attraction within the Cradle of Humankind.
  • Geological Features: Formed primarily from dolomitic limestone, the caves are known for their dramatic stalactites and stalagmites, shaped over millions of years.

Palaeoanthropological Importance:

  • Among the world’s richest sources of hominid fossils.
  • Landmark discoveries include:
  • “Mrs Ples” – a well-preserved skull of Australopithecus africanus.
  • “Little Foot” – one of the most complete Australopithecus skeletons ever found.
  • These fossils indicate early human ancestors lived in the region up to 5 million years ago.

 

Heritage Status: Recognized for its outstanding value, the site was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1999.

With reference to the Sterkfontein Caves, consider the following statements:

  1. The caves are primarily composed of basaltic rock, which facilitated the preservation of early hominid fossils.
  2. The discovery of the “Little Foot” skeleton has contributed to the hypothesis that hominins existed in southern Africa much earlier than previously thought.
  3. The Sterkfontein Caves are part of a transboundary World Heritage Site shared by South Africa and Namibia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: A. 2 only

 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect:The Sterkfontein Caves are not composed of basaltic rock but dolomitic limestone. This sedimentary rock, not basalt (which is igneous), has aided in fossil preservation due to its slow-forming mineral deposits and cave structures.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: The “Little Foot” skeleton is a nearly complete fossil of Australopithecus, discovered in these caves. Its dating to around 3.5 million years ago has pushed back the timeline for hominin presence in southern Africa, challenging earlier East Africa-centric models of early human evolution.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Sterkfontein Caves are part of the Cradle of Humankind, a UNESCO World Heritage Site located entirely within South Africa. It is not a trans boundary site and does not extend into Namibia.

Digha gears up for inauguration of Jagannath temple

Syllabus:Art and Culture

  • The coastal town of Digha in West Bengal’s Purba Medinipur district was abuzz with activity on Monday as it prepared for the inauguration of the ₹250-crore Lord Jagannath temple. Spanning 20 acres, the temple is modeled after the 12th-century shrine in Puri.
  • Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee visited the temple twice on the day of the inauguration to oversee the final preparations. She highlighted the temple’s potential to boost Digha’s tourism, noting that it would help the town achieve international recognition. “This temple will add a new feather to Digha’s tourism and bring more visitors here. The town’s development has already begun to attract more tourists,” Banerjee stated.

  • She further emphasized the theme of “Shorbo Dhormo Somonnoy” (religious harmony), asserting that the temple would stand as a symbol of both spirituality and unity. Digha, known for its coastal charm, is set to benefit from this new spiritual destination, which she believes will bring in more pilgrims and tourists alike. “The sculptors have done an excellent job,” she added.
  • The inauguration of the temple is slated to take place after the ‘Maha Yajna’ and ‘Prana Pratistha’ (consecration ceremony) on Tuesday and Wednesday (Akshay Tritiya). The temple’s construction began in May 2022 following an idea proposed by the Chief Minister in December 2018. The temple, adorned in blue and white, is surrounded by illuminated roads and has been promoted as the Jagannath Dham Sanskriti Kendra by the West Bengal government. The Housing Infrastructure Development Corporation (HIDCO) was responsible for its development.
  • However, political controversy arose when senior BJP leader and Leader of the Opposition Suvendu Adhikari questioned the nature of the newly inaugurated structure. Adhikari sought clarification on whether the facility was a temple or a cultural center. “The tender documents reveal that the Jagannath Dham Sanskriti Kendra has been built at Digha. The invitation card should reflect this clearly,” he remarked.
  • Amidst these developments, Adhikari also announced that the BJP would begin efforts to rebuild and restore vandalized Hindu temples in Murshidabad district starting April 30. He emphasized that no funds would be sought or accepted from the state government for this initiative. The communal clashes in Murshidabad earlier this month had led to the deaths of three individuals.
  • Following the inauguration of the temple, Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee is expected to visit Murshidabad to address the ongoing tensions.

 

Which of the following statements regarding the inauguration of the Lord Jagannath temple in Digha are correct?

  1. The Lord Jagannath temple in Digha is modeled after the 12th-century temple in Puri.
  2. The temple’s inauguration is accompanied by a ‘Maha Yajna’ and ‘Prana Pratistha’ (consecration ceremony).
  3. The Chief Minister of West Bengal, Mamata Banerjee, proposed the idea for the temple in December 2022.
  4. The Housing Infrastructure Development Corporation (HIDCO) is responsible for the temple’s construction.
  5. BJP leader Suvendu Adhikari raised concerns over the nature of the temple and questioned if it is a cultural center or a religious temple.

Options:

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
(d) All of the above

Answer:

(b) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Lord Jagannath temple in Digha is modeled after the 12th-century shrine in Puri.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The inauguration of the temple includes a ‘Maha Yajna’ and ‘Prana Pratistha’ (consecration ceremony).
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The idea for the temple was proposed by Mamata Banerjee in December 2018, not 2022.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The Housing Infrastructure Development Corporation (HIDCO) was responsible for the temple’s construction.
  • Statement 5 is correct: Suvendu Adhikari questioned whether the structure is a cultural center or a temple, raising concerns about its nature.

GPS Spoofing

Syllabus:Security

  • Indian Air Force (IAF) aircraft delivering humanitarian aid to earthquake-hit Myanmar under Operation Brahma reportedly encountered GPS spoofing attacks, raising critical concerns over airspace cybersecurity and navigational safety.

 

 

What is GPS Spoofing?

  • GPS spoofing is a form of cyberattack wherein deceptive GPS signals are broadcast to trick a receiver into computing a false position.

 

How It Works:

  • GPS receivers determine location by triangulating signals from multiple satellites.
  • Spoofers emit counterfeit signals that are stronger than authentic satellite signals.
  • The receiver locks onto these fake signals, leading to mislocation or navigation errors.

 

Implications of GPS Spoofing:

  1. Aviation Safety:
  • Aircraft may be misdirected, especially in foreign or conflict-prone airspaces.
  • Risks include mid-air navigation errors, loss of situational awareness, and compromised emergency response.
  1. Strategic & Defense Threats:
  • Military aircraft, UAVs, and reconnaissance missions can be diverted or deceived, undermining national security.
  • Potential for hostile interventions or surveillance manipulation.
  1. Civilian Infrastructure Disruption:
  • Rideshare apps, logistics networks, and delivery services may provide erroneous routing.
  • Can result in economic losses, public inconvenience, and emergency response delays.
  1. Cybersecurity Concerns:
  • Spoofing attacks can be a vector for larger breaches, including data theft, identity spoofing, and critical system interference.

With reference to GPS spoofing, consider the following statements:

  1. GPS spoofing attacks rely on sending encrypted signals that overpower legitimate satellite transmissions.
  2. Such attacks pose a higher threat to military operations than to civilian navigation systems.
  3. Multi-constellation GNSS receivers can help detect spoofing by cross-verifying signals from multiple satellite networks.
  4. The Indian Air Force (IAF) has demonstrated operational resilience against GPS spoofing during cross-border humanitarian missions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: GPS spoofing uses unencrypted false signals that mimic real GPS transmissions, not encrypted ones. The aim is to deceive the receiver, not decode or overpower secure signals.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: Military and defense systems heavily depend on precise location data, often in contested environments. GPS spoofing can mislead operations, drones, or aircraft, posing greater strategic risks than in civilian systems.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: GNSS receivers that use multiple satellite systems (GPS, GLONASS, Galileo, IRNSS) can compare inconsistencies and flag suspicious readings, helping detect spoofing.
  • Statement 4 – Correct: As reported, IAF pilots successfully navigated GPS spoofing threats during Operation Brahma, showcasing preparedness and resilience in handling cyber-navigation warfare.

Terror Attack In Pehalgam

Syllabus: GS3/ Security

  • A recent terrorist attack occurred in the Baisaran Valley, near Pahalgam in the Anantnag district of Jammu & Kashmir—an area often referred to as “Mini Switzerland” for its scenic beauty.The Resistance Front (TRF), an affiliate of Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT), has claimed responsibility for the attack.

 

The Resistance Front (TRF): Background

  • Founded: October 2019, following the abrogation of Article 370 and bifurcation of the former state of Jammu & Kashmir.
  • Status: Declared a banned terrorist organization by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) in 2023 under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA).

 

Activities:

  • Propaganda and radicalization
  • Recruitment of terrorists
  • Cross-border infiltration
  • Smuggling of arms and narcotics from Pakistan

Evolution of Militancy in Jammu & Kashmir

Historical Roots:

  • Linked to the 1947 partition and disputed status of Kashmir.
  • Armed insurgency began in the late 1980s, intensified by alleged electoral manipulation and Pakistan’s involvement.

 

1990s Onward:

  • High levels of violence targeting civilians, including the Kashmiri Pandit exodus.
  • Aggressive Indian counter-insurgency measures

 

Post-2019 Phase:

  • After Article 370 revocation, emergence of:
  • Targeted killings of minorities and non-locals
  • Use of “hybrid militants” (non-listed, local civilians turned terrorists)
  • Terror shift southward to districts like Rajouri, Poonch, and Kathua

Key Challenges to Security in J&K

  • State-Sponsored Terrorism:
  • Pakistan’s support via training camps, funding, and safe havens for terror groups.
  • Porous Borders and Terrain:
  • Forested, mountainous regions and extreme weather conditions hinder effective border sealing.
  • Strategic Redeployment:
  • Troop repositioning to eastern Ladakh post-Galwan has weakened the grid in Jammu
  • Technological Sophistication of Militants:
  • Use of night vision, M4 rifles, and encrypted communication apps (Telegram, Chirpwire, Enigma, TamTam) via VPNs.
  • Demographic and Communal Sensitivities:
  • Diverse religious and ethnic composition in J&K is exploited to provoke communal unrest.
  • Over Ground Workers (OGWs):
  • Critical network of local facilitators providing logistics, intelligence, safe houses, and funding—often hidden from detection.

Way Forward: A Multi-Pronged Strategy

  • Security Grid Reinforcement
  • Establish integrated command centers for seamless coordination between Army, JKP, CRPF, intelligence agencies.
  • Deploy COBRA & SOG joint units for jungle warfare operations.
  • Reinforce presence in vulnerable districts (Rajouri, Poonch, Doda, Kathua) with Valley-experienced troops.

 

Technological Modernization

  • Complete rollout of Comprehensive Integrated Border Management System (CIBMS) with:
  • Smart fencing, seismic sensors, AI, and drones.
  • Enhance cyber-forensics and counter-encryption capabilities.
  • Revival of HUMINT (Human Intelligence)
  • Rebuild networks through inter-agency deconfliction and ground-level intelligence revival.

 

Community Engagement

  • Expand and equip Village Defence Guards (VDGs).
  • Roll out targeted counter-radicalization programs in educational and religious institutions.
  • Diplomatic Pressure
  • Sustain efforts at UN, FATF, and other global platforms to expose Pakistan’s role in sponsoring terrorism.

With reference to recent patterns of terrorism in Jammu & Kashmir, consider the following statements:

  1. The emergence of “hybrid militants” has made early detection and profiling of terrorists increasingly difficult.
  2. The strategic redeployment of Indian forces post-Galwan has strengthened the counter-insurgency grid in Jammu region.
  3. The Resistance Front (TRF) was formed as a direct response to the revocation of Article 370.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: “Hybrid militants” are civilians who operate as sleeper agents, making them harder to profile or preempt—posing a new security challenge.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Post-Galwan, forces were diverted to the eastern front (Ladakh), weakening the grid in parts of Jammu, not strengthening it.
  • Statement 3 is correct: TRF emerged in October 2019, soon after Article 370 was abrogated, as a proxy to distance Pakistan from overt terrorist labels.

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