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Weekly Current Affairs 24 march- 30 march 2025

Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act, 2005

Context

Over 30 civil society organizations have urged the Union government to safeguard the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, amid concerns about potential restrictions imposed by the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023.

 

Concerns Raised

  • Activists caution against fully implementing amendments that may weaken the RTI Act under the DPDP Act.
  • Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act now broadly prohibits disclosing personal information, even when it serves the public interest.
  • The government justifies the change by citing the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India(2017) case, which recognized privacy as a fundamental right.

 

Challenges Posed by the Amendment

  • Restricting access to information may hinder social audits and make it difficult to uncover corruption or misuse of public funds.
  • RTI requests have been instrumental in verifying government programs, such as food ration distribution and welfare schemes.
  • Activists argue that the original RTI framework already balanced privacy with transparency, rejecting claims that the changes align with the Supreme Court’s privacy ruling.
  • Right to Information Act, 2005

 

Objectives and Scope

  • Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in governance by granting citizens the right to access information from public authorities.
  • Applicable to government departments, ministries, and organizations substantially funded by the government.

 

Key Provisions

  • Information Access:Citizens can request government records, documents, and other relevant data.
  • Exemptions:Information related to national security, confidentiality, and ongoing investigations is excluded.
  • Response Time:Public authorities must respond within 30 days, extendable to 45 days in specific cases.
  • Penalties:Officials withholding information without valid reasons or providing false details may face penalties.

 

Significance of the RTI Act

  • Empowering Citizens: Enables individuals to seek information, ensuring government transparency and accountability.
  • Preventing Corruption: RTI has exposed fund mismanagement in schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
  • Promoting Good Governance: Enhances trust in government by fostering openness in decision-making.
  • Facilitating Social Audits: NGOs and activists use RTI to verify government service delivery, such as the Public Distribution System (PDS).
  • Ensuring Public Access to Records: RTI requests help uncover inefficiencies and corruption in government contracts.
  • Strengthening Democracy: Encourages citizen participation in governance and policymaking.

 

Criticism and Challenges

  • Administrative Burden: High volumes of RTI requests strain public authorities, diverting resources from primary duties.
  • Misuse of RTI: Some requests are used for harassment or personal/political agendas.
  • Delays in Processing: Authorities struggle to meet response deadlines, leading to frustration among applicants.
  • Lack of Training and Infrastructure: Many government offices lack the expertise and resources for effective RTI implementation.
  • Ambiguity in Exemptions: Vaguely defined exemptions create loopholes for withholding crucial public information.

 

Way Forward

  • Parliament should define “personal information” and “public interest” more precisely.
  • Personal data disclosure should be permitted when it serves a greater public good, such as exposing corruption or verifying the misuse of funds.
  • Any amendments to the RTI Act should involve consultations with multiple stakeholders, including RTI activists, legal experts, and data protection specialists.
  • The government must balance privacy rights with the need for transparency to ensure democratic accountability.
  • The RTI Act remains a cornerstone of democracy, empowering citizens and ensuring government accountability. Its preservation is crucial for upholding transparency, reducing corruption, and promoting good governance.

With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements:

  1. The RTI Act applies only to government departments and ministries but not to organizations that receive substantial government funding.
  2. The Act allows disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest.
  3. The government can reject an RTI request if the information sought affects national security or ongoing criminal investigations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect:The RTI Act not only applies to government departments and ministries but also covers organizations that receive substantial funding from the government (such as NGOs and public-private partnerships).
  • Statement 2 is correct:The RTI Act permits disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest, but the recent amendment under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023 has created hurdles in this regard.
  • Statement 3 is correct:The Act exempts disclosure of information that affects national security, foreign relations, or ongoing investigations under Section 8(1).

Fast Track Special Courts

Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) have emerged as a critical judicial mechanism for expediting trials related to sexual crimes, ensuring justice for survivors in a time-bound manner.

With an impressive disposal rate of 96.28%, these courts have significantly reduced legal delays in cases under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, and rape cases.

 

What are Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs)?

 

Definition: FTSCs are dedicated courts established in India to accelerate the judicial process for heinous crimes, particularly rape and child sexual abuse cases.

 

Establishment:

Initiated in 2019 under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law & Justice.

 

Funding Pattern:

60:40 (Centre:States) for most states and Union Territories (UTs) with a legislature.

90:10 for Northeastern and Hilly States/UTs to ensure equitable judicial access.

 

Operational Target:

The scheme envisions the establishment of 790 FTSCs, including specialized e-POCSO courts.

Each FTSC is expected to handle 41-42 cases per quarter, ensuring the disposal of at least 165 cases annually to reduce case backlog effectively.

 

Rationale for FTSCs

  • The Supreme Court of India (2019) mandated speedy disposal of POCSO cases, emphasizing that both the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) and POCSO Act, 2012, prescribe strict timelines for investigation and trial.
  • Judicial Backlog: Overburdened courts and limited judicial resources often result in prolonged trials, delaying justice and weakening deterrence against sexual crimes.
  • FTSCs play a crucial role in reinforcing public confidence in the judicial system by ensuring swift and effective justice.

 

Key Recommendations by the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA)

  • Continuation of the FTSC Scheme
  • Given their impact, FTSCs should be sustained and expanded to ensure efficient handling of cases related to sexual violence.
  • Strengthening Judicial Infrastructure
  • Special judges with expertise in POCSO cases should be appointed.
  • Sensitization training for judicial officers and court staff to enhance sensitivity towards survivors.

 

Technological Advancements in Courtrooms

  • Implement audio-video recording systems for secure documentation of testimonies.
  • Facilitate e-filing of cases and digitization of court records to improve efficiency.

 

Enhancing Forensic Support

  • Increase the number of Forensic Science Laboratories (FSLs) and train forensic professionals.
  • Ensure timely submission of DNA reports to accelerate trials and uphold judicial integrity.
  • Vulnerable Witness Deposition Centres (VWDCs)
  • Establish VWDCs in every district to provide a child-friendly environment for testimonies.
  • Appoint child psychologists at FTSCs to assist survivors throughout the judicial process.

 

Conclusion

    • Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) are instrumental in delivering swift justice in cases of sexual crimes, reducing judicial delays, and strengthening the legal framework.
    • With continued investment in infrastructure, technology, and forensic capabilities, FTSCs can further enhance judicial efficiency and ensure justice for survivors in a timely and sensitive manner.

With reference to Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs), consider the following statements:

  1. FTSCs were established under a directive from the Supreme Court of India in 2019.
  2. They are fully funded by the central government under the Nirbhaya Fund.
  3. The primary objective of FTSCs is to expedite trials related to sexual crimes, including those under the POCSO Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the Supreme Court in 2019 emphasized the need for speedy disposal of sexual offense cases, FTSCs were initiated as a policy decision by the government, not solely under the Supreme Court’s directive.

Statement 2 is incorrect: FTSCs are not fully funded by the central government; they are partially funded under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a 60:40 (Centre:State) funding ratio for most states and 90:10 for hilly and northeastern states.

Statement 3 is correct: The main objective of FTSCs is to ensure speedy trials for rape and POCSO-related cases to enhance justice delivery.

Sub-categorisation of SCs in Andhra Pradesh

  • The Andhra Pradesh Cabinet approved the one-member commission’s recommendations on the sub-categorisation of SCs to ensure equitable distribution of reservation benefits.
  • The demand for sub-categorisation has existed for over 30 years, with previous efforts including the Justice Ramachandra Rao Commission (1996).
  • Understanding Sub-Categorisation of SCs
  • Sub-categorisation divides the SC category into smaller sub-groups to ensure a fair distribution of reservation benefits in education, employment, and affirmative action.

 

Historical Context & Supreme Court Rulings

  • In 1975, Punjab issued a notification giving first preference in SC reservations to Balmiki and Mazhabi Sikh communities, which was challenged in 2004 after a similar Andhra Pradesh law was struck down in E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004).
  • The Supreme Court in E.V. Chinnaiah ruled that SCs and STs form a single, indivisible class under Article 341/342 and that states cannot sub-classify or create internal quotas within SC/ST reservations.
  • In 2020, the Supreme Court reconsidered E.V. Chinnaiah, acknowledging “unequals within the list of SCs” and citing Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta (2018), which extended the “creamy layer” concept to SCs.
  • In 2024, the Supreme Court ruled that sub-classification within SCs and STs is allowed, clarifying that Article 341 does not prevent sub-classification but only limits the President’s power to add or exclude SC groups.

 

Arguments in Favour of Sub-Categorisation

  • Some SC communities remain underrepresented despite reservation, justifying separate quotas within SC/ST categories.
  • The SC category includes groups with vastly different socio-economic conditions, requiring sub-classification to address disparities.
  • Article 14 (Right to Equality) allows sub-classification to ensure substantive equality among SC/ST groups.
  • A caste census could provide accurate data to assess representation and correct inequities in reservation distribution.

 

Arguments Against Sub-Categorisation

  • Sub-categorisation may be politically misused to alter quotas based on vote-bank politics rather than social justice.
  • It may violate constitutional intent, as the President’s list of SCs can only be changed by Parliament.

Conclusion & Way Forward

  • States now have legal backing to sub-categorise SCs but must ensure transparency, data-driven policy-making, and judicial oversight to prevent misuse.
  • Sub-categorisation must be based on quantifiable and demonstrable data rather than political motives to ensure equitable distribution of benefits.
  • Excluding the “creamy layer” within SC/STs from reservation benefits could help ensure that affirmative action reaches the most disadvantaged groups.

Consider the following statements regarding the sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes (SCs) in India:

  1. The Supreme Court in E.V. Chinnaiah (2004) ruled that States have the power to sub-categorise SCs for ensuring equitable reservation benefits.
  2. The 2024 Supreme Court ruling clarified that Article 341 does not prevent sub-classification within SCs and STs.
  3. Sub-categorisation aims to provide a separate quota within SC reservations for communities that remain underrepresented.
  4. The power to include or exclude a community from the SC list rests solely with the State Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because in E.V. Chinnaiah (2004), the Supreme Court held that SCs form a single, indivisible class and States cannot create sub-classifications.

Statement 2 is correct as the 2024 Supreme Court ruling stated that Article 341 does not prevent sub-classification but only limits the President’s power to add or remove SC groups.

Statement 3 is correct because the purpose of sub-categorisation is to ensure that the most disadvantaged communities within SCs receive a fair share of reservation benefits.

Statement 4 is incorrect as only the President, in consultation with Parliament, has the authority to include or exclude a group from the SC list under Article 341.

Madras High Court on the NIRF Ranking

Recent Developments

A parliamentary panel on social justice has urged the Union government to expedite the centralization process of Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS).

 

About EMRS

Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) are a network of government-run institutions established to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribe (ST) students residing in remote and rural areas.

 

Key Features

Targeted Coverage: Every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons will have an EMRS.

Expansion Plan: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs aims to set up 728 EMRSs across India by 2026.

Establishment: Introduced in 1997-98 by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Curriculum: Follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), covering education from the elementary level to Class 12.

 

Facilities Provided

Fully Residential Schooling: Boarding and lodging facilities.

Free Education: Includes uniforms, textbooks, and essential learning materials.

Holistic Development: Sports, cultural activities, and vocational skill training to enhance employability.

 

Funding Mechanism

The Ministry of Tribal Affairs funds EMRSs through grants allocated under Article 275(1) of the Indian Constitution, ensuring financial support for their establishment and operation.

With reference to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), consider the following statements:

  1. It is administered by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) under the University Grants Commission (UGC).
  2. The ranking methodology primarily relies on self-reported data submitted by institutions.
  3. NIRF rankings are internationally recognized and directly influence global rankings such as QS and Times Higher Education Rankings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: NIRF is administered by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) but it functions under the Ministry of Education, not the UGC.

Statement 2 is correct: Institutions self-report data on various parameters such as student strength, placements, and research output, raising concerns over transparency and data manipulation.

Statement 3 is incorrect: NIRF rankings are not internationally recognized and do not influence global rankings like QS and Times Higher Education Rankings, which use different methodologies.

Eklavya Schools

  • Recent Developments

    • A parliamentary panel on social justice has urged the Union government to expedite the centralization process of Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS).

     

    About EMRS

    • Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) are a network of government-run institutions established to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribe (ST) studentsresiding in remote and rural areas.

     

    Key Features

     

    Targeted Coverage: Every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons will have an EMRS.

    Expansion Plan: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs aims to set up 728 EMRSs across India by 2026.

    Establishment: Introduced in 1997-98 by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

    Curriculum: Follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), covering education from the elementary level to Class 12.

     

    Facilities Provided

     

    • Fully Residential Schooling: Boarding and lodging facilities.
    • Free Education: Includes uniforms, textbooks, and essential learning materials.
    • Holistic Development: Sports, cultural activities, and vocational skill trainingto enhance employability.

     

    Funding Mechanism

    • The Ministry of Tribal Affairs funds EMRSs through grants allocated under Article 275(1) of the Indian Constitution, ensuring financial support for their establishment and operation.

Consider the following statements regarding Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS):

  1. EMRSs were introduced under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to enhance tribal education.
  2. These schools are fully funded by the Ministry of Education under the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.
  3. Every block with more than 50% Scheduled Tribe (ST) populationand at least 20,000 tribal persons is eligible for an EMRS.
  4. The curriculum of EMRS follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

 

Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only

 

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: EMRS was introduced in 1997-98 under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not under NEP 2020.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The schools are funded by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the Ministry of Education, and the funds come under Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The criteria for establishing an EMRS include 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons in a block.
  • Statement 4 is correct: EMRS follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF) for education.

1st Glacier Declared Dead from Climate Change

  • Satellite imagery spanning more than three decades has confirmed the disappearance of Iceland’s Okjökull Glacier. It was the first glacier to be officially declared dead due to human-induced climate change in 2014.

 

 

About Okjökull Glacier

 

Okjökull Glacier was located around the summit crater of Ok, a 1,200-meter-high shield volcano, approximately 71 kilometers northwest of Reykjavík, Iceland. Historically, it was a dome-shaped glacier, but climate change has led to its complete disappearance.

 

Global Efforts to Memorialize Vanishing Glaciers

  • In 2023, Iceland established the world’s first iceberg graveyard, commemorating 15 glaciers listed as either dead or critically endangered on the Global Glacier Casualty List. This list includes Anderson Glacier in Washington State, USA, which was declared dead in 2015, making it the first such glacier loss in the United States.

United Nations Initiatives

  • Recognizing the urgent need for action, the United Nations declared 2025 as the International Year of Glaciers’ Preservation. March 21st was designated as World Day for Glaciers, starting from 2025.
  • The Cryosphere: Earth’s Frozen Reservoir
  • The cryosphere refers to all frozen water on Earth. The term derives from the Greek word kryos, meaning frost or ice cold. It includes glaciers, ice sheets, ice shelves, icebergs, sea ice, lake ice, river ice, permafrost, snow cover, and solid precipitation.

 

Major Ice Sheets on Earth

  • The Greenland Ice Sheet and the Antarctic Ice Sheet contain more than 70 percent of the world’s freshwater ice. Ice on these sheets exceeds two kilometers in thickness.

 

Key Facts About the Cryosphere

  • Seventy percent of Earth’s freshwater exists as snow or ice. Ten percent of the Earth’s land area is covered by glaciers or ice sheets.
  • Hindu Kush Himalaya: The Water Tower of Asia
  • The Hindu Kush Himalayan region spans approximately 3,500 kilometers across Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Nepal, Myanmar, and Pakistan. It is known as the Water Tower of Asia because it is the source of ten major river systems, including the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus, Yangtze, and Mekong.
  • These rivers provide freshwater to 240 million people directly in the region and support one-fourth of the world’s population through their basins.
  • Melting Crisis in the Hindu Kush Himalaya
  • The Hindu Kush Himalayan cryosphere is warming at twice the global average rate. This increases the risk of glacial lake outburst floods, which pose severe hazards to downstream communities.

 

Role of the Cryosphere in Climate and Ecology

The cryosphere reflects sunlight through the albedo effect, helping regulate Earth’s temperature. It stores freshwater in glaciers and ice sheets, controlling sea levels. It plays a vital role in the global water cycle by feeding rivers and groundwater through seasonal melting. It provides a habitat for unique species such as polar bears, penguins, and snow leopards. It acts as an indicator of climate change, as it is highly sensitive to temperature variations.

Threats to the Cryosphere and Global Consequences

Global warming is causing widespread ice loss, accelerating the melting of glaciers, ice caps, and sea ice. Melting ice is contributing to rising sea levels, threatening coastal communities worldwide. Habitat loss is affecting marine ecosystems dependent on sea ice.

Permafrost thawing is releasing stored methane and carbon dioxide, worsening global warming. Changing snow and ice patterns are disrupting water availability for agriculture, hydropower, and human consumption.

 

Global Efforts to Protect the Cryosphere

  • The Paris Agreement of 2015 aims to limit global temperature rise to below two degrees Celsius, preferably 1.5 degrees Celsius, to prevent further cryosphere degradation. The International Cryosphere Climate Initiative was formed during COP-15 in 2009 to work with governments and scientists to preserve the cryosphere.
  • The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change highlights the urgent need for mitigation and adaptation strategies. The National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem is part of India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change and aims to protect the Himalayan ecosystem.
  • The World Meteorological Organization’s CryoNet is a global monitoring system tracking ice mass loss and cryosphere changes. The Arctic Council is a collaborative forum for Arctic nations to address climate-related issues in the polar region. Global ice monitoring programs such as the Global Cryosphere Watch and the European Space Agency’s CryoSat Mission provide data on ice loss.

 

Conclusion

The cryosphere plays a critical role in regulating global climate, providing freshwater, and sustaining biodiversity. Its rapid degradation due to climate change poses severe threats to ecosystems, human populations, and global stability. Preserving the cryosphere is essential for ensuring a sustainable future for all life on Earth.

Consider the following statements regarding the Okjökull Glacier:

  1. It was the first glacier in the world to be officially declared dead due to anthropogenic climate change.
  2. It was a part of the Greenland Ice Sheet before completely melting in 2014.
  3. The disappearance of Okjökull led to the formation of the world’s first iceberg graveyard in Iceland.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Okjökull was the first glacier to be officially declared dead due to climate change in 2014.

Statement 2 is incorrect. It was not part of the Greenland Ice Sheet but was a small glacier in Iceland, located on the Ok volcano.

Statement 3 is correct. Iceland created the world’s first iceberg graveyard in 2023 to memorialize glaciers that have vanished or are critically endangered.

UN World Water Development Report 2025 – Mountains and Glaciers

Key Findings

Accelerated Glacier Melt:

  • Glaciers are melting at an unprecedented rate, with significant mass loss in recent years.
  • Over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice have been lost since 1975—equivalent to an ice block the size of Germany.
  • Impurities like black carbon from wildfires and dust storms are intensifying the melting process by absorbing more solar radiation.

 

Permafrost Thawing:

  • Rising temperatures are causing permafrost to melt, releasing organic carbon into the atmosphere and worsening climate change.
  • Destabilized slopes increase the risk of landslides and other natural disasters.

 

Decline in Snow Cover:

  • Snow cover in mountain regions has decreased, particularly during spring and summer.
  • Between 1979 and 2022, there has been a 79% global decline in snow cover.

 

Impacts & Concerns

Erratic Water Flow & Flooding Risks:

  • Increased risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs)—responsible for over 12,000 deaths in the past 200 years.

Sea Level Rise Contribution:

  • Glacier melt accounts for 25-30% of global sea level rise, threatening millions worldwide.

 

Way Forward & Recommendations

Mountains as Water Towers:

  • Covering 33 million sq km, mountain regions sustain nearly 2 billion people by providing freshwater.

Policy & Awareness:

  • Urgent need for resource mobilization and strong policy frameworks to mitigate climate impacts.
  • Increased awareness and proactive action required to protect mountain ecosystems and downstream communities.

 

With reference to the United Nations World Water Development Report 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. The report states that glaciers have lost over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice since 1950.
  2. Black carbon from wildfires and dust storms can accelerate glacier melting by increasing solar radiation absorption.
  3. The report highlights that permafrost thawing is reducing atmospheric carbon levels, thereby mitigating climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (b) 2 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The report highlights that glaciers have lost over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice since 1975, not 1950.

Statement 2 is correct: Black carbon and dust can accelerate glacier melting by increasing the absorption of solar radiation.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Permafrost thawing releases organic carbon into the atmosphere, exacerbating climate change rather than mitigating it.

 

Anthurium Flowers

In News

  • Mizoram marked a significant milestone in agro-based exports from the North Eastern Region (NER) by exporting its first consignment of Anthurium flowers to Singapore.

 

 

About Anthurium Flowers

  • Scientific Name: Anthurium
  • Geographical Distribution:
  • Native to the Americas, spanning from northern Mexico to northern Argentina, including the Caribbean.
  • In India, it thrives in the Northeastern states, particularly Mizoram, due to its favorable climate.
  • Other key cultivation regions include Tamil Nadu (21%), Karnataka (16%), Madhya Pradesh (14%), and West Bengal (12%).

 

Botanical & Morphological Features

  • A herbaceous plant that grows as an epiphyte (on other plants) or terrestrially.
  • Recognized by its spadix (central spike) and a colorful spathe (leaf-like bract) in shades of red, pink, orange, and more.
  • Contains calcium oxalate crystals, making its sap an irritant to skin and eyes.

 

Economic & Cultural Significance

Exports:

  • Contributes to India’s floriculture exports, valued at USD 86.62 million in FY 2023–24.
  • Major importers include the USA, Netherlands, UAE, UK, and Canada.

Tourism & Cultural Promotion:

  • Mizoram hosts the annual “Anthurium Festival”, which promotes tourism, local enterprises, and the commercial value of the flower.

Livelihood Support:

  • A crucial source of rural income, particularly benefiting women farmers and cooperative societies in the Northeast.

Consider the following statements regarding Anthurium flowers:

  1. Anthurium is a species native to Southeast Asia and is widely cultivated in the Indian subcontinent.
  2. In India, Mizoram is the leading producer of Anthurium flowers due to its suitable climatic conditions.
  3. Anthurium plants grow exclusively as terrestrial plants and do not exhibit epiphytic characteristics.
  4. The sap of Anthurium contains calcium oxalate crystals, which can be an irritant to human skin and eyes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – Anthurium is native to the Americas (from northern Mexico to northern Argentina), not Southeast Asia.

Statement 2 is correct – Mizoram is a major cultivator of Anthurium in India, supported by its favorable climatic conditions.

Statement 3 is incorrect – Anthurium plants can grow both terrestrially and epiphytically.

Statement 4 is correct – The plant contains calcium oxalate crystals, which can cause skin and eye irritation.

Eucalyptus

                                 

 

Background

  • Eucalyptus, a fast-growing tree native to Australia, was introduced to India by the British in the 1840s for timber production.
  • In Karnataka, large-scale eucalyptus plantations were established between the 1960s and 1980s to support the timber and paper industries.
  • However, environmental concerns led to a ban on eucalyptus cultivation in 2017, though a 2019 court stay temporarily halted its enforcement.

 

Environmental Concerns

  • Groundwater Depletion – Eucalyptus has a high water demand, which disrupts local hydrological cycles and depletes groundwater levels.
  • Soil Degradation & Loss of Biodiversity – The tree exhibits allelopathy (chemical suppression of other plant growth), reducing soil fertility and harming native vegetation.
  • Impact on Grassland Ecosystems – Large-scale plantations encroach upon natural grasslands, threatening species such as:
  • Blackbucks (Antilope cervicapra)
  • Lesser Floricans (Sypheotides indicus)
  • Great Indian Bustards (Ardeotis nigriceps)

 

Future Outlook

  • Grasslands and savannah ecosystems play a crucial role in biodiversity conservation and rural livelihoods.
  • Karnataka aims to balance economic development with environmental sustainability, serving as a model for sustainable ecological practices in India.

 

Consider the following statements regarding Eucalyptus cultivation in Karnataka:

  1. The British introduced eucalyptus to India in the 19th century primarily for its medicinal properties.
  2. Karnataka banned eucalyptus plantations in 2017 due to their adverse environmental effects.
  3. Eucalyptus trees contribute significantly to groundwater recharge due to their deep-rooted structure.
  4. Eucalyptus exhibits allelopathy, which negatively impacts soil fertility and biodiversity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

 Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – The British introduced eucalyptus in the 1840s for timber production, not for medicinal purposes.

Statement 2 is correct – Karnataka banned eucalyptus cultivation in 2017 due to environmental concerns.

Statement 3 is incorrect – Eucalyptus is known for high water consumption rather than contributing to groundwater recharge.

Statement 4 is correct – The tree releases chemical compounds that inhibit the growth of other plants (allelopathy), reducing soil fertility and biodiversity.

 

Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary

Context:

  • The Punjab government recently informed the Supreme Court (SC) that the Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) around Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary would be limited to 100 meters for the Nayagaon municipal committee instead of the previously proposed 1 to 3 km.
  •  

                                      

About Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary:

  • Location: Situated in Chandigarh, near the renowned Sukhna Lake, at the foothills of the Shivalik range.
  • Origin of Sukhna Lake:
  • Created in 1958 by the famous architect Le Corbusier.
  • Formed by diverting the Sukhna Choe, a seasonal stream originating from the Shivalik hills.

 

Establishment:

  • The sanctuary was officially notified in 1998.
  • Developed as part of afforestation efforts for soil conservation around Sukhna Lake.
  • Geography & Soil Characteristics:
  • Covers 2,600 hectares.
  • Comprises sandy soil from the Shivalik hills, interspersed with clay pockets.
  • Geographically unstable and prone to soil erosion, particularly during the monsoon season.
  • The sanctuary has around 150 small and large water bodies, including Sukhna Lake, forming its catchment area.

 

Ecological Features:

  1. Vegetation & Ecosystem
  • The sanctuary comprises a mosaic of forests, grasslands, and wetlands, with Sukhna Lake serving as a vital component of its ecosystem.
  1. Flora

Notable tree species:

  • Khair (Acacia catechu)
  • Phulai (Acacia modesta)
  • Kikar (Acacia nilotica)
  • Shisham (Dalbergia sissoo)

Other species:

  • Moonj (Saccharum munja) – A grass species.
  • Amaltas (Cassia fistula) – Indian Laburnum with medicinal and ornamental value.
  • Jhingan (Lannea coromandelica) – Used in traditional medicine.
  • Amla (Phyllanthus emblica) – Indian Gooseberry.
  • Rati, Vasaka – Medicinal plants contributing to the region’s biodiversity.

 

  1. Fauna

Mammals:

  • Squirrel
  • Common Mongoose
  • Indian Hare
  • Porcupine
  • Jungle Cat
  • Jackal
  • Wild Boar
  • Avian Diversity:
  • Peacock
  • Hill Myna
  • Jungle Crow
  • Black Drongo
  • Parrots
  • Doves
  • Seasonal migratory birds also visit the sanctuary.

 

Significance & Concerns:

Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) Reduction:

  • The Punjab government’s decision to limit the ESZ to 100 meters in Nayagaon raises concerns about urban encroachment and its impact on the sanctuary’s ecosystem.
  • Originally, an ESZ of 1 to 3 km was proposed to buffer the sanctuary from human activities.

 

Environmental Challenges:

  • Soil erosion and runoff threaten the stability of the area.
  • Increasing urbanization and deforestation pose risks to water bodies and wildlife habitats.

 

Conservation Outlook:

  • Need for balanced urban planning while ensuring habitat protection.
  • Strengthening afforestation and soil conservation measures to maintain ecological integrity.
  • The Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary plays a critical role in maintaining regional biodiversity, and decisions regarding its Eco-Sensitive Zone should prioritize long-term environmental sustainability over short-term urban expansion.

 

With reference to the Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements:

  1. It was established in 1958 as a protected area for wetland conservation.
  2. The sanctuary is located at the foothills of the Shivalik range and is prone to soil erosion.
  3. Sukhna Lake was artificially created by diverting a seasonal stream.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

  • The sanctuary was established in 1998, not 1958 (Statement 1 is incorrect).
  • It is located in the Shivalik foothills, prone to soil erosion (Statement 2 is correct).
  • Sukhna Lake was artificially created in 1958 by diverting Sukhna Choe, a seasonal stream (Statement 3 is correct).

 

Urban Heat Island (UHI)

The Telangana Socio-Economic Outlook 2025 report highlights that Hyderabad is experiencing intensified nighttime heat stress due to the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect.

 

          

 

Understanding the Urban Heat Island Effect

  • The Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect is a climatic phenomenon where urban areas experience significantly higher temperatures compared to their surrounding rural regions. This temperature disparity is primarily driven by human activities and urban development that modify land surfaces and atmospheric conditions.

 

Key Causes of the UHI Effect:

  • Loss of Green Spaces & Natural Soils
  • Urbanization reduces vegetation cover (trees, parks, and grasslands), leading to diminished shading and evapotranspiration, a natural cooling process.
  • Building & Infrastructure Density
  • Materials like concrete, asphalt, and metal absorb and store more heat than natural surfaces, retaining warmth for longer durations.

 

 

Urban Layout & Street Design

  • Narrow streets and high-rise buildings create “urban canyons” where heat is trapped and less effectively dissipated, exacerbating localized warming.
  • Heat Emissions from Human Activities
  • Vehicles, air conditioners, industrial operations, and power generation contribute to increased heat output.
  • Greenhouse gases (e.g., CO₂) trap this heat, further amplifying the warming effect.

 

Consequences of the UHI Effect:

  • Increased nighttime temperatures—urban areas cool down more slowly than rural surroundings.
  • Temperature differentials can reach up to 12°C at night, intensifying heat stress and impacting public health.
  • Exacerbates global warming, making cities even hotter.

 

Why is it Called an “Urban Heat Island”?

  • The term originates from temperature distribution maps, where urban zones appear as “hot islands” amid cooler rural surroundings, resembling an island of heat in a “sea” of lower temperatures.
  • The UHI effect, when combined with climate change, contributes to rising global temperatures and urban microclimates, making sustainable urban planning crucial for mitigating heat stress in cities.

 Consider the following statements regarding the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect:

  1. It is caused solely by industrial emissions and vehicular pollution.
  2. Urban areas tend to remain warmer than rural areas, especially at night.
  3. The phenomenon is exclusive to tropical and subtropical cities.
  4. Evapotranspiration plays a crucial role in mitigating UHI effects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: UHI is caused by multiple factors including reduced green cover, heat-retaining infrastructure, and human activities like air conditioning, industrial emissions, and vehicular heat emissions. It is not solely due to pollution.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Urban areas absorb and retain heat during the day and release it slowly at night, leading to higher nighttime temperatures compared to rural areas.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: UHI is not limited to tropical regions; it can occur in temperate, arid, and even cold regions, depending on urbanization patterns.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Evapotranspiration (moisture loss from plants and soil) cools the air, helping to mitigate UHI intensity.

 

Blue Flag Tag

In News:

  • Rushikonda Beach in Visakhapatnam has regained its prestigious Blue Flag certification, reaffirming its status as an environmentally sustainable and well-maintained coastal destination. With this, India now has 13 Blue Flag-certified beaches.

 

About the Blue Flag Certification:

  • The Blue Flag is a globally recognized eco-label awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators that meet stringent environmental, safety, and cleanliness standards.

 

Key Facts:

  • Administered by: Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE), headquartered in Copenhagen, Denmark.
  • Significance: Recognized as a symbol of environmental excellence, ensuring cleanliness, safety, and sustainability.
  • Criteria for Certification:
    A beach or marina must comply with 33 strict parameters across four major categories:
  • Environmental Education and Information – Spreading awareness about coastal conservation.
  • Water Quality – Ensuring clean and pollution-free seawater.
  • Environmental Management – Sustainable waste disposal and biodiversity conservation.
  • Safety and Services – Adequate infrastructure, lifeguards, and emergency response systems.

This achievement reinforces India’s commitment to promoting sustainable coastal tourism and preserving its natural marine ecosystems.

 

With reference to the Blue Flag Certification, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an international eco-label awarded exclusively to marine protected areas.
  2. The certification is administered by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).
  3. A beach must meet 33 criteria across multiple categories to receive this certification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Blue Flag is awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators, not just marine protected areas.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The certification is administered by the Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE), headquartered in Denmark, not by the IMO.

Statement 3 is correct: To qualify for the Blue Flag, a beach/marina must satisfy 33 environmental, safety, and management criteria.

Permafrost Thawing in Kashmir Himalaya

Context

  • A recent study has highlighted the escalating environmental risks associated with the melting permafrost in the Kashmir Himalaya, raising concerns over its impact on infrastructure, water resources, and natural hazards.

 

What is Permafrost?

  • Permafrost refers to ground that remains completely frozen (≤ 0°C) for at least two consecutive years.
  • It is predominantly found in high-altitude regions and Earth’s polar latitudes (near the North and South Poles).

 

Major Concerns

  • Infrastructure Damage: Thawing permafrost can weaken foundations of roads, hydropower projects, and other built structures.

 

Increased Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs):

  • In Jammu & Kashmir, 332 proglacial lakes have been identified.
  • Of these, 65 pose significant GLOF risks, which could worsen with permafrost degradation.
  • Potential Impacts

 

Human Activities as a Catalyst:

  • Deforestation, land-use changes, and infrastructure expansion (roads, dams, and tourism) can accelerate permafrost degradation.

 

Water Cycle Disruptions:

  • Permafrost plays a key role in maintaining groundwater and river base flow.
  • Its thawing could significantly alter water availability, though research on this remains limited.

 

Recommendations for Mitigation

  • Infrastructure Planning: Future development projects should incorporate permafrost vulnerability assessments.
  • Enhanced Environmental Impact Assessments (EIA): Greater focus on cryospheric hazards like GLOFs.
  • Advanced Monitoring Systems:
  • Increased use of satellite imagery and in-situ data loggers for real-time permafrost tracking.
  • Comprehensive Research:
  • More in-depth studies on permafrost degradation’s long-term impact on water resources and infrastructure stability.
  • As the Kashmir Himalaya faces intensifying climate challenges, proactive strategies are essential to mitigate risks and adapt to a rapidly changing environment.

 

Consider the following statements regarding permafrost:

  1. Permafrost refers to any ground that remains frozen at or below -5°C for a minimum of five consecutive years.
  2. It is found only in the Arctic and Antarctic regions and does not exist in high-altitude mountain ranges.
  3. The thawing of permafrost contributes to increased methane emissions, which can accelerate climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Permafrost is defined as ground that remains frozen at ≤0°C for at least two consecutive years (not -5°C for five years).

Statement 2 is incorrect: While permafrost is common in polar regions, it is also found in high-altitude mountain ranges such as the Himalayas, Alps, and Andes.

Statement 3 is correct: Thawing permafrost releases methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂), intensifying global warming.

 

India’s Heat Action Plans

  • A recent study has found that most Indian cities’ Heat Action Plans (HAPs) lack effective long-term strategies to combat extreme heat, and those with such measures have failed in their implementation.

 

What are Heat Action Plans (HAPs)?

  • HAPs are early warning systems and preparedness strategies designed to minimize the health impacts of extreme heat, particularly for vulnerable populations.

 

About the Study

  • Title: “Is India Ready for a Warming World?”
  • Conducted by: Sustainable Futures Collaborative (SFC) and international universities (King’s College London, Harvard, Princeton, and UC Berkeley).
  • Focus: Cities with over 1 million people expected to face increasing dangerous heat index values.

 

Key Findings

  • Short-term measures like access to water and adjusted work schedules are widely implemented.
  • Long-term strategies such as cooling infrastructure, insurance for heat-related job losses, fire management, and electricity grid upgrades are either absent or poorly enforced.
  • Urban cooling efforts (e.g., increasing green cover and shaded areas) do not effectively target the most heat-vulnerable populations.
  • Planning gaps pose a significant risk, potentially leading to a rise in heat-related deaths as heatwaves become more frequent, intense, and prolonged.
  • The study underscores the urgent need for comprehensive and well-executed heat mitigation strategies to safeguard urban populations in an era of rising temperatures.

 

Consider the following statements regarding Heat Action Plans (HAPs) in India:

  1. HAPs serve as early warning systems and preparedness strategies to mitigate the impact of extreme heat.
  2. They are implemented exclusively by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  3. Long-term measures such as insurance for heat-related job losses and urban cooling infrastructure are widely implemented in Indian cities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: HAPs are early warning and preparedness strategies to protect vulnerable populations from extreme heat.

Statement 2 is incorrect: HAPs are implemented at state and city levels, often under disaster management authorities in coordination with various ministries, not exclusively by MoEFCC.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The study highlighted that long-term measures are either absent or poorly implemented, making Indian cities highly vulnerable to heat-related disasters.

 

Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary

Syllabus:Environment

 

Location & Significance

  • Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Chikkamagaluru and Shivamogga districts of Karnataka and derives its name from the Bhadra River, which flows through the region.

Designation & Conservation Status

  • Declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1951.
  • Upgraded to a Project Tiger Reserve in 1998.
  • First tiger reserve in India to complete a village relocation program by 2002.
  • Geographical Features
  • Core area:16 sq. km.
  • Buffer zone:84 sq. km.
  • Terrain: Includes hills and valleys, notably Mullayanagiri (the highest peak in Karnataka), Baba Budangiri, and Muthodi ranges.
  • Flora of Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary

The sanctuary hosts diverse forest types:

  • Southern Moist Mixed Deciduous Forests – Characterized by Teak, Terminalia, and Lagerstroemia
  • Dry Deciduous Forests – Includes Pterocarpus (Honne), Grewia (Tadasalu), and Bamboo
  • Shola Forests – Supports species such as Cinnamon, Mimusops, and Strobilanthes (Neelakurinji), known for its rare blooming cycle.

 

Fauna of Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary

  • Mammals: Includes Tigers, Leopards, Dholes (Wild Dogs), Gaurs, Sambar Deer, Barking Deer, and Elephants.
  • Birds: Over 250 species, including Grey Junglefowl, Malabar Parakeet, Hill Myna, Malabar Trogon, and Hornbills.
  • Reptiles: Features King Cobra, Russell’s Viper, Indian Monitor Lizard, and Marsh Crocodiles.
  • Butterflies: Hosts rare species like Yamfly, Baronet, Crimson Rose, Southern Birdwing, and Great Orange Tip.

Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary remains a crucial site for biodiversity conservation, playing a vital role in Karnataka’s ecological balance.

Consider the following statements regarding the geographical features of Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary:

  1. Mullayanagiri, the highest peak in Karnataka, is located within the sanctuary.
  2. The sanctuary has both core and buffer zones, with a total area exceeding 1,000 square kilometers.
  3. The Bhadra River, which originates in the Eastern Ghats, flows through the sanctuary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Mullayanagiri (1,930 meters), the highest peak in Karnataka, is part of the Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary region.

Statement 2 is correct: The sanctuary consists of a 500.16 sq. km core zone and a 571.84 sq. km buffer zone, making a total area of 1,072 sq. km.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Bhadra River originates in the Western Ghats, not the Eastern Ghats, and it flows through the sanctuary before joining the Tungabhadra River.

Coral Bleaching Devastates Western Australia’s Ningaloo Reef

 

Context

  • A severe mass coral bleaching event, described as unprecedented, is currently unfolding along Australia’s western coast, severely impacting the Ningaloo Reef, a UNESCO World Heritage site. This event is part of the fourth global coral bleaching episode, which has been ongoing since 2023.

Global Impact of Coral Bleaching

  • The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) reports that nearly 84% of the world’s reef areas have experienced bleaching-level heat stress, affecting over 80 countries and territories.
  • Rising global sea surface temperatures, overfishing, and pollution have exacerbated the crisis, with climate change being a primary driver.

Coral Reefs: An Overview

What Are Coral Reefs?

  • Coral reefs are complex underwater ecosystems built by reef-building corals.
  • Composed of colonies of coral polyps bound by calcium carbonate.
  • Coral polyps live in a mutualistic relationship with algae known as zooxanthellae, which provide them with nutrients through photosynthesis.

Favorable Conditions for Coral Growth

  • Temperature: 20°C–35°C
  • Salinity: 27%–40%
  • Depth: Prefer shallow waters (less than 50 meters) for optimal sunlight exposure.
  • Major Coral Reefs Around the World
  • Global Coral Reefs
  • Great Barrier Reef (Australia) – UNESCO World Heritage Site
  • Caribbean Reefs – Florida, Belize, and Bahamas
  • Coral Triangle (Southeast Asia) – Indonesia, Malaysia, and the Philippines
  • Coral Reefs in India
  • Gulf of Kutch (Gujarat)
  • Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu)
  • Andaman & Nicobar Islands
  • Lakshadweep Islands
  • Malvan (Maharashtra)
  • Significance of Coral Reefs
  • Biodiversity Hotspot – Support 25% of all marine species.
  • Coastal Protection – Act as natural barriers against storms and erosion.
  • Climate Mitigation – Aid in carbon sequestration.
  • Blue Economy – Sustain livelihoods through fishing and tourism.
  • Biomedical Resources – Source of antiviral and anticancer compounds.
  • Threats to Coral Reefs

 

Climate-Related Threats

  • Coral Bleaching – Caused by rising ocean temperatures.
  • Ocean Acidification – Weakens coral skeletons due to increasing CO₂
  • Algal Blooms – Triggered by nutrient pollution, suffocating corals.

 

Human-Induced Threats

  • Overfishing – Disrupts marine food chains.
  • Pollution – Plastic waste, oil spills, and chemical runoff degrade reef health.
  • Coral Mining – Unsustainable extraction for construction materials.
  • Coastal Development – Leads to habitat destruction and sedimentation.

 

The Way Forward

  1. Climate Action
  • Strengthen efforts to limit global warming to well below 2°C, in line with the Paris Agreement.
  1. Policy & Governance
  • Implement Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly:
  • SDG 8 (Sustainable Economic Growth)
  • SDG 12 (Responsible Consumption & Production)
  1. Global Collaboration
  • Strengthen international partnerships to combat overfishing and marine pollution.
  1. Scientific Innovation
  • Invest in R&D for climate-resilient coral species to enhance reef restoration efforts.
  • By integrating policy, conservation, and innovation, proactive measures can help protect the world’s coral reefs from irreversible decline.

With reference to coral bleaching, consider the following statements:

  1. Coral bleaching occurs when corals expel their symbiotic algae due to increased ocean salinity.
  2. Ocean acidification can exacerbate coral bleaching by weakening coral skeletons.
  3. The Great Barrier Reef is the only coral reef system listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – Coral bleaching occurs due to rising sea surface temperatures, not increased salinity. The stress forces corals to expel zooxanthellae algae, leading to their white appearance.
  • Statement 2 is correct – Ocean acidification, caused by increased CO₂ absorption in seawater, weakens coral skeletons and makes them more vulnerable to bleaching and erosion.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect – The Great Barrier Reef is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, but other coral reefs like Ningaloo Reef (Australia) and Belize Barrier Reef (Caribbean) are also listed.

 

Production Linked Incentive Scheme

  • The government has decided not to extend the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme beyond the existing 14 sectors due to underperformance in some areas and delays in incentive payouts.

Key Developments

  • Out of the $23 billion allocated, only $1.73 billion (8%) has been disbursed as of October 2024.
  • The scheme has generated $151.93 billion worth of goods—just 37% of the original target.
  • Major firms, including Foxconn, Reliance, and Adani, faced delays, unmet targets, or non-compliance.
  • The government has rejected requests to extend deadlines or include new sectors.
  • About the PLI Scheme
  • Launch: Introduced in 2020 under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry with an outlay of ₹1.97 lakh crore.
  • Sectors Covered: 14 sectors, including Mobile Manufacturing, Pharmaceuticals, Automotive, ACC Battery, Telecom, White Goods, and Solar.

 

 

Objectives:

  • Provide incentives on incremental sales for five years under the Make in India
  • Reduce dependence on foreign imports, particularly from China.
  • Boost employment, particularly in labor-intensive sectors.
  • Increase manufacturing’s share of GDP to 25% by 2025.

 

Incentive Mechanism:

  • 4–6% incentives on incremental sales over a base year.
  • Available to both domestic and foreign companies registered in India.

 

Benefits of the PLI Scheme

  • Electronics Manufacturing: India produced $49 billion worth of mobile phones in FY 2023–24; Apple now manufactures high-end models in India.
  • Pharmaceutical Industry: Exports nearly doubled to $27.85 billion compared to a decade ago.
  • FDI Inflows: Attracted foreign investments and supported India’s ‘China Plus One’ strategy.
  • Strategic Growth: Encouraged production in key sectors like semiconductors and solar modules.

 

Challenges and Concerns

  • Low Incentive Disbursement: Only 8% of allocated funds disbursed despite achieving production targets.
  • Delayed Subsidy Payments: Slow disbursement affects cash flow for participating firms.
  • Unmet Production Targets: Many companies failed to start or expand operations.
  • Bureaucratic Hurdles: Rigid compliance norms and administrative delays hinder implementation.
  • Manufacturing Growth Decline: Manufacturing’s share in GDP dropped from 15.4% (2020) to 14.3% (2024).

 

Consider the following statements regarding India-Mauritius relations:

  1. Mauritius is the largest source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India.
  2. India and Mauritius have signed a Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA), which is India’s first trade agreement with an African nation.
  3. India has leased the Agaléga Islands from Mauritius for setting up a strategic naval base.
  4. The White-Shipping Agreement between India and Mauritius facilitates free trade between the two nations without tariff barriers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (c) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect – While Mauritius has historically been a major source of FDI into India, Singapore overtook Mauritius as the largest FDI contributor in recent years (FY 2023-24). Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
  • Statement 2 is correct – India and Mauritius signed CECPA in 2021, which is indeed India’s first-ever trade agreement with an African nation. This statement is correct.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect – India has not leased the Agaléga Islands, but developed infrastructure projects there, including an airstrip and a jetty, to enhance maritime security. There is no official declaration of a naval base. This statement is incorrect.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect – The White-Shipping Agreement is not about free trade. It is a technical agreement that allows exchange of maritime security data between India and Mauritius to monitor ship movements and counter threats like piracy and smuggling. This statement is incorrect.Thus, only statement 2 is correct, making (c) 2 only the right answer.

What is Hawala?

    • The use of hawala networks has witnessed a significant rise in recent years, particularly in facilitating illicit activities such as poaching, money laundering, and terrorism financing.
    • Investigations have uncovered that illegal wildlife trafficking rings, especially those involved in tiger poaching in central India, are increasingly exploiting these informal financial systems to conduct their operations.

     

    Understanding Hawala

    • Hawala is an unregulated, informal system of money transfer that enables transactions without the movement of physical cash.
    • It relies on a trust-based network of brokers known as hawaladars, who facilitate financial transfers through verbal or token-based agreements.
    • Despite lacking regulatory oversight, hawala remains widely used due to its speed, simplicity, and anonymity.

    Mechanism of Hawala Transactions

    • A typical hawala transaction follows a structured but informal process:
    • Deposit & Token Generation: The sender deposits money with a hawaladar in one location.
    • Code Sharing: The sender receives a token, code, or reference, which is communicated to the recipient.
    • Collection of Funds: The recipient presents the token to a hawaladar in their location and collects the funds.
    • This system avoids conventional banking channels, making it attractive for users who seek discreet financial transactions.

     

    Who Uses Hawala?

    Hawala is utilized by both legitimate and illicit actors:

    • Migrant Workers: Often use hawala to send remittances due to its lower costs and efficiency compared to formal banking systems.
    • Undocumented Individuals: Those without access to official banking prefer hawala for financial transactions.
    • Organized Crime & Terrorist Networks: Drug traffickers, smugglers, and terrorist groups leverage hawala’s anonymity to move illicit funds.
    • Integration of Cryptocurrency into Hawala: With the evolution of financial technology, cryptocurrencies like USDT (Tether) have become an integral part of modern hawala networks.

     

    Why USDT?

    • Stablecoin Advantage: Unlike volatile cryptocurrencies, USDT is pegged to the US dollar, making it a stable medium for illicit financial transfers.
    • Bypassing Banking Systems: Transactions occur without relying on traditional financial institutions, enabling cross-border money laundering.
    • Anonymity & Evasion of Scrutiny: Cryptocurrency transactions in crypto-friendly regions allow seamless transfers without regulatory oversight.
    • Legal and Regulatory Implications
    • Although hawala is not inherently illegal, it is increasingly associated with criminal activities, leading to global scrutiny and crackdowns:
    • Anti-Money Laundering (AML) Laws: Many countries have banned hawala transactions due to their role in money laundering and terrorism financing.
    • Regulatory Adaptation: Authorities are enhancing surveillance of cryptocurrency-based hawala transactions to curb illicit financial flows.
    • Continued Evolution: Despite legal restrictions, hawala networks persist, adapting to new technologies such as blockchain and decentralized finance (DeFi).

     

    Conclusion

    • Hawala remains a double-edged financial system—serving both legitimate users and criminal enterprises.
    • The rise of cryptocurrency-based hawala transactions presents new challenges for law enforcement agencies.
    • Strengthening regulatory frameworks, increasing financial transparency, and leveraging technological solutions are crucial to mitigating the risks associated with hawala networks.

With reference to the “Hawala” system, consider the following statements:

  1. Hawala transactions require the physical movement of cash between different locations.
  2. It operates outside the formal banking system and is largely unregulated.
  3. The term “hawala” is derived from an Arabic word meaning “trust” or “transfer.”
  4. It is only used for illicit financial transactions and has no legitimate applications.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: In a hawala transaction, physical cash is not transferred—instead, funds are settled through informal networks of brokers.

Statement 2 is correct: Hawala operates outside the formal banking system, making it difficult for authorities to track.

Statement 3 is correct: The term “hawala” originates from Arabic, meaning “trust” or “transfer.”

Statement 4 is incorrect: While hawala is often misused for illegal activities, it is also widely used for legitimate purposes, such as migrant remittances.

What is Dx-EDGE Initiative?

Overview

  • India has launched the ‘Digital Excellence for Growth and Enterprise’ (Dx-EDGE) initiative to empower micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) with digital tools and skills. This initiative is a collaborative effort between the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), NITI Aayog, and the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE). It aims to enhance the competitiveness and resilience of MSMEs through digitalisation. 

 

 

Objectives of Dx-EDGE

  • The initiative is designed to future-proof MSMEs by providing access to advanced technologies, digital skills, and innovation. It aligns with India’s vision of Viksit Bharat (Developed India) by ensuring widespread digital adoption across the sector.

 

Key Challenges Faced by MSMEs

  • Despite their critical role in India’s economy, MSMEs face several challenges, including:
  • Limited technology adoption affecting efficiency and productivity.
  • Lack of a skilled workforce to leverage digital tools.
  • Difficulties in obtaining quality certifications, impacting market access.
  • Addressing these challenges is essential for improving operational efficiency and global competitiveness.

 

Public-Private-Academia Partnership (PPAP)

  • Dx-EDGE adopts a Public-Private-Academia Partnership (PPAP) model, integrating expertise from private enterprises, government agencies, and academic institutions. This multi-stakeholder approach is crucial for driving MSMEs’ digital transformation.

 

Establishment of Digital Excellence Centres

  • A key component of Dx-EDGE is the creation of Digital Excellence Centres, which will:
  • Assist MSMEs in formulating digital transformation strategies.
  • Provide training and resources to ensure effective technology adoption.
  • Serve as innovation hubs to bridge knowledge gaps in digitalisation.

 

Role of Education and Skill Development

  • The initiative emphasises workforce upskilling to align with global manufacturing standards. This focus on education and skill development ensures that MSMEs can effectively integrate Industry 4.0 technologies.

 

Future Impact

  • Dx-EDGE is expected to:
  • Enhance MSME competitiveness in domestic and global markets.
  • Drive economic growth by boosting productivity and efficiency.
  • Strengthen India’s digital ecosystem, accelerating the transition to a digitally advanced economy.
  • By fostering digital excellence, this initiative positions India’s MSMEs as key drivers of economic resilience and technological innovation.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Digital Excellence for Growth and Enterprise’ (Dx-EDGE) initiative:

  1. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of MSME, NITI Aayog, and the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
  2. The initiative focuses solely on providing financial assistance to MSMEs for digital adoption.
  3. Digital Excellence Centres established under Dx-EDGE will play a role in formulating digital transformation strategies for MSMEs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

 Answer: (c) 3 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Dx-EDGE initiative is a collaboration between NITI Aayog, CII, and AICTE, not the Ministry of MSME.

Statement 2 is incorrect as Dx-EDGE focuses on digital capacity building, innovation, and skill development, rather than just financial assistance.

Statement 3 is correct as Digital Excellence Centres will guide MSMEs in identifying tailored digital transformation paths.

 

India becomes World’s 2nd-largest Exporter of Tea in 2024

Syllabus: GS3/Economy

 

 

Overview

  • According to the Indian Tea Board, India has emerged as the second-largest tea exporter globally, surpassing Sri Lanka and trailing only Kenya.

India’s Tea Exports (2024)

  • Total Exports: 255 million kg
  • Growth: Export value surged by 15%, from ₹6,161 crore in 2023 to ₹7,111 crore in 2024
  • Tea Varieties Exported:
  • Black Tea – Dominates exports (96%)
  • Other varieties include regular, green, herbal, masala, and lemon tea

 

Key Factors Driving Growth

  • Increased demand from West Asia, with Iraq now constituting 20% of India’s tea exports
  • Projected Imports by Iraq: Expected to reach 40-50 million kg in FY 2024-25
  • Expansion into over 25 markets, including UAE, Iraq, Iran, Russia, US, and UK
  • Branding efforts and improved tea workers’ welfare have strengthened India’s global position
  • Major Tea-Producing Regions
  • Assam: Assam Valley, Cachar
  • West Bengal: Dooars, Terai, Darjeeling
  • Other notable varieties: Assam, Darjeeling, and Nilgiri teas, recognized for their superior quality

Tea Board of India

  • Established: 1954 under the Tea Act, 1953
  • Purpose: Regulates the Indian tea industry and safeguards the interests of producers

 

Governing Body:

  • Comprises 32 members, including the Chairman and Deputy Chairman, appointed by the Government of India
  • Headquarters: Kolkata
  • Authority: Administers all tea-producing regions across India
  • India’s tea industry continues to flourish, bolstered by strategic market expansion, quality branding, and increased global demand

With reference to India’s tea exports, consider the following statements:

  1. India has overtaken both Sri Lanka and Kenya to become the largest tea exporter in the world.
  2. Iraq has emerged as a key importer of Indian tea, accounting for nearly 20% of India’s total tea exports.
  3. The majority of India’s tea exports comprise green tea due to rising global health consciousness.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: India is the second-largest tea exporter, having surpassed Sri Lanka but not Kenya, which remains the largest.

Statement 2 is correct: Iraq has become a major importer, accounting for 20% of India’s tea exports in 2024.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Black tea constitutes 96% of India’s exports, not green tea.

Progress on GM Food Crops: DBT Official

India’s bio-economy has seen remarkable growth, playing a crucial role in biotech research, including GM crops.

Key Statistics (as per India Bioeconomy Report 2025):

 

  • Grew 16-fold from $10 billion in 2014 to $165.7 billion in 2024.
  • Contributes 4.25% to India’s GDP.
  • Achieved a CAGR of 17.9% over the last four years.

 

Major Sectors in the Bio-Economy:

 

  • Bio-Industry (Enzymes, Biofuels, Bioplastics): 47%
  • Biopharma (Medicines, Diagnostics): 35%
  • Bio IT & Research Services (Clinical Trials, Contract Research): 9%
  • Bio-Agriculture (Including GM crops): 8.1%

 

State-wise Contribution:

 

  • Maharashtra – $35 billion (21%)
  • Karnataka – $32 billion (19%)
  • Telangana – $19 billion (12%)

Biotech Startups & Future Growth:

 

  • 10,075 biotech startups in 2024, expected to grow to 22,500 by 2030.
  • Estimated to create 35 million jobs by 2030.

 

Advantages of GM Crops

 

  • Higher Yields – Helps improve agricultural productivity and food security.
  • Reduced Pesticide Use – Pest-resistant crops like Bt Cotton lower pesticide dependency.
  • Climate Resilience – GM crops with drought and salinity tolerance can withstand extreme conditions.

 

  • Nutritional Enhancement – Biofortified crops like Golden Rice help combat malnutrition.

 

Challenges & Concerns

 

  • Environmental Impact – GM crops may affect biodiversity, soil health, and pollinators.
  • Health Risks – Long-term health effects remain a topic of debate.
  • Farmer Dependency – GM seeds are patented, increasing reliance on multinational corporations.
  • Ethical & Religious Issues – Some communities oppose genetic modification for cultural reasons.

 

Regulatory Framework & Policies in India

 

  • Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) – The primary regulatory body for GM crops.
  • Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) – Regulates GM food imports.
  • Environment Protection Act, 1986 – Covers rules on GM organisms and hazardous microorganisms.
  • BioE3 Policy – Aims to enhance biotech applications in agriculture, including GM mustard.
  • BioSaarthi Program – Connects biotech startups with international mentors to drive innovation.

 

Global Perspective on GM Crops

 

  • Countries like the USA, Brazil, and China – Have widely adopted GM crops.
  • EU and India – Maintain a cautious approach due to public concerns and regulatory hurdles.
  • Scientific Community vs. Activists – While scientists highlight potential benefits, activists warn of risks.

 

Conclusion

 

GM crops represent a significant step in agricultural biotechnology, with potential benefits in food security and climate resilience. However, environmental, health, and socio-economic concerns necessitate a balanced regulatory approach. As India advances in its bio-economy, a well-defined policy framework is crucial for sustainable GM crop adoption.

 

With reference to Genetically Modified (GM) crops, consider the following statements:

  1. GM crops can be designed to exhibit drought and salinity tolerance through genetic modification.
  2. Golden Rice is a genetically modified crop that contains enhanced levels of Vitamin D.
  3. India has commercially approved both Bt Cotton and Bt Brinjal for large-scale cultivation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

 

 Explanation:

  • GM crops can indeed be engineered for drought and salinity resistance (Statement 1 is correct).
  • Golden Rice is fortified with Vitamin A, not Vitamin D (Statement 2 is incorrect).
  • Bt Brinjal was approved in 2010 but later banned, while Bt Cotton remains the only commercially cultivated GM crop in India (Statement 3 is incorrect).

Rise in Tobacco Exports

Context:

  • India’s tobacco exports have doubled in the past four years due to increasing global demand and rising prices, driven by declining production in key tobacco-producing nations such as Brazil and Zimbabwe.

 

Overview of Tobacco Cultivation in India:

  • Tobacco is a significant commercial crop cultivated under diverse agro-ecological conditions across India.
  • It is a drought-tolerant, hardy, and short-duration crop, making it suitable for cultivation even on marginal lands where other crops may not be profitable.
  • Despite occupying only 24% to 0.3% of India’s total arable land, tobacco farming remains a highly labour-intensive and economically rewarding activity compared to food crops.

 

Major Tobacco-Producing States:

  • Andhra Pradesh
  • Karnataka
  • Gujarat
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Bihar
  • West Bengal

 

Types of Tobacco Grown in India:

  • Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) – Used primarily in cigarettes.
  • Bidi Tobacco – Used in the production of bidis.
  • Cigar Filler Tobacco – Used for making cigars.
  • Hookah and Chewing Tobacco – Consumed in various forms, including gutkha and khaini.

 

Production and Global Standing:

  • India is the second-largest producer of tobacco globally, following China.
  • It is also the third-largest exporter, after Brazil and China, playing a crucial role in the global tobacco trade.

With reference to tobacco cultivation in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Tobacco is a highly water-intensive crop and requires heavy irrigation for optimal growth.
  2. India is the largest producer and exporter of tobacco in the world.
  3. The cultivation of Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is primarily concentrated in Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tobacco is a drought-tolerant crop, meaning it does not require heavy irrigation. It can grow even in marginal lands where other crops may not thrive.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While India is the second-largest producer of tobacco after China, it is the third-largest exporter, following Brazil and China.

Statement 3 is correct: Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco, which is used in cigarettes, is predominantly cultivated in Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

Gujarat Achieves 95% of NITI Aayog’s TB-Free Target

                                    

Key Achievements

  • Gujarat was assigned a target of 145,000 TB patient registrations and successfully registered 137,929 cases.
  • A total of 124,581 patients completed treatment, achieving a 90.52% treatment completion rate.
  • Treatment facilities were provided to 131,501 registered TB patients.
  • Financial Assistance – Nikshay Poshan Yojana (NPY)
  • Each notified TB patient receives ₹1,000 per month during treatment.
  • Assistance is provided in cash or in-kind to ease the financial burden.

 

Nutritional Support Initiatives

  • A total of 10,682 Nikshay Mitras have been registered on the Nikshay portal.
  • A total of 349,534 nutrition kits have been distributed to TB patients to ensure proper dietary support.

 

100-Day Intensive TB Eradication Campaign

  • Launched in December 2024 to enhance early detection and treatment.
  • Covers 16 districts and four municipal corporations.
  • As of March 20, 2025, 35.75 lakh individuals have been screened, leading to the detection of 16,758 new TB patients.

 

Conclusion

Gujarat’s initiatives in early detection, financial support, and nutritional assistance are significantly contributing to TB elimination.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Nikshay Poshan Yojana (NPY):

  1. It provides direct financial assistance to tuberculosis (TB) patients for their nutritional support.
  2. The financial assistance under the scheme is ₹500 per month for every TB patient.
  3. It is part of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (B) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Nikshay Poshan Yojana (NPY) provides financial assistance to TB patients to help meet their nutritional requirements.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The financial assistance provided is ₹1,000 per month, not ₹500.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The scheme is part of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP).

What is Noma?

 Syllabus: Science

 

  • Noma, also known as cancrum oris, is a severe gangrenous disease that primarily affects children between the ages of 2 to 6 years.
  • In December 2023, the World Health Organization (WHO) officially classified it as a neglected tropical disease (NTD) due to its high fatality rate and lack of global attention.
  • While noma is most prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa, cases have also been reported in parts of Asia and the Americas.
  • The disease progresses rapidly, leading to severe facial disfigurement, lifelong disabilities, and profound social stigma.

 

Pathogenesis and Risk Factors

  • Noma is caused by a non-specific polymicrobial infection, involving a combination of bacteria and fungi. It typically develops in malnourished children living in extreme poverty, particularly in areas with poor sanitation and inadequate healthcare access. The major risk factors include:
  • Severe malnutrition, especially during vulnerable periods such as weaning.
  • Poor oral hygiene, which allows bacteria to thrive.
  • Underlying infections, including measles, malaria, and HIV, that weaken the immune system.
  • Environmental factors, such as overcrowding, poor living conditions, and lack of clean water.
  • Due to these conditions, children with compromised immunity are particularly susceptible to noma.

 

Clinical Stages of Noma

The WHO categorizes noma into five progressive clinical stages:

  • Stage 0 – Simple gingivitis: Early gum inflammation without visible ulcers.
  • Stage 1 – Acute necrotising gingivitis: Rapid bacterial infection causing gum tissue destruction.
  • Stage 2 – Oedema: Swelling of the face and mouth, leading to increased tissue damage.
  • Stage 3 – Gangrene: Severe tissue necrosis with facial disintegration.
  • Stage 4 – Scarring: Healing process begins but results in severe disfigurement.
  • Stage 5 – Sequelae: Long-term complications, including difficulty in eating, speaking, and social exclusion.

The disease typically begins with a minor oral ulcer but can escalate rapidly, causing irreversible damage within days if untreated.

 

Treatment and Management

  • Early diagnosis and intervention are crucial for saving lives. Treatment strategies include:
  • Antibiotic therapy (e.g., penicillin and metronidazole) to combat bacterial infection.
  • Nutritional support to address severe malnutrition.
  • Oral hygiene improvement through antiseptic mouth rinses.
  • Reconstructive surgery for survivors with facial disfigurements.
  • Despite treatment, mortality rates remain alarmingly high, with only 15% of affected children surviving the acute phase. Survivors require extensive surgical reconstruction and long-term rehabilitation to regain basic functions like eating and speaking.

 

Global Response and Challenges

Estimating the true burden of noma is difficult due to:

  • High case fatality rates before medical intervention.
  • Weak healthcare infrastructure in affected regions.
  • Social stigma, which discourages families from seeking medical help.
  • WHO’s last recorded estimate (1998) suggested 140,000 cases per year, but the actual prevalence remains unknown. In 2012, the United Nations Human Rights Council recognized the neglect of noma as a potential violation of children’s rights, highlighting the need for global action.

 

Efforts to combat noma focus on:

  • Food security and malnutrition prevention.
  • Vaccination programs against measles and other infections.
  • Early detection and community education on oral hygiene and sanitation.
  • Future Strategies for Eradication
  • The WHO aims to integrate noma into existing healthcare frameworks, ensuring:
  • Stronger health systems for early detection and treatment.
  • Training programs for healthcare workers in affected regions.
  • Community awareness campaigns to reduce stigma and promote hygiene.

Noma remains a critical public health challenge, particularly in poverty-stricken regions. Addressing it requires global advocacy, increased funding, and policy-level interventions. Only through sustained efforts can this preventable yet deadly disease be effectively managed and ultimately eliminated.

Consider the following statements regarding Noma (Cancrum Oris):

  1. It is a viral disease that primarily affects children between the ages of 5 to 10 years.
  2. The World Health Organization (WHO) classified it as a neglected tropical disease in December 2023.
  3. It predominantly affects individuals in high-income countries with access to advanced healthcare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Noma is not a viral disease; it is a polymicrobial bacterial infection that rapidly destroys facial tissues. It primarily affects children between 2 to 6 years of age, not 5 to 10 years.

Statement 2 is correct: The WHO classified Noma as a neglected tropical disease (NTD) in December 2023, highlighting its severity and lack of global attention.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Noma is not prevalent in high-income countries. It primarily affects sub-Saharan Africa, parts of Asia, and the Americas, where malnutrition, poor hygiene, and weak healthcare infrastructure contribute to its spread.

AIIMS New Delhi and SAMEER sign landmark MOU to enhance innovation in medical electronics and healthcare technology

MoU to Strengthen Indigenous Medical Imaging Technology

 

  • The Society for Applied Microwave Electronics Engineering & Research (SAMEER) and All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to advance research and development in medical imaging and radio frequency (RF) technologies.
  • The agreement was formalized on the 32nd Foundation Day of the Department of NMR at AIIMS, New Delhi and marks a significant step toward strengthening India’s self-reliance in medical imaging technology.

 

Key Focus Areas of the MoU:

The MoU outlines collaboration between SAMEER and AIIMS across five major areas:

  • Collaborative Research in Medical Devices Development
  • Clinical Validation of the Indigenous 1.5 Tesla MRI System developed by SAMEER, Mumbai
  • Research in Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) for Image Enhancement and Accelerated Imaging
  • Design and Development of Subsystems for High/Low Field MRI Scanners
  • Development of RF Subsystems for High Field Animal MRI Scanners
  • Strengthening India’s Self-Reliance in MRI Technology

 

The Indigenous Magnetic Resonance Imaging (IMRI) – A National Mission, sponsored by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), is being executed by SAMEER, Mumbai, in collaboration with:

  • C-DAC Trivandrum & Kolkata
  • Inter-University Accelerator Centre (IUAC), New Delhi
  • DSI-MIRC, Bangalore

The goal of this initiative is to design, develop, and test an indigenous 1.5 Tesla MRI system for medical imaging applications. Significant progress has been achieved, including the development and integration of critical MRI subsystems such as:

 

Conclusion

The MoU between SAMEER and AIIMS represents a major milestone in India’s journey toward self-reliant healthcare technology. By combining expertise in electronics, AI, and medical research, this partnership is set to revolutionize medical imaging, improve healthcare accessibility, and boost indigenous innovation in medical technology.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the MoU between SAMEER and AIIMS, New Delhi:

  1. SAMEER is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
  2. The MoU focuses on developing high-field and low-field MRI/NMR systems for medical applications.
  3. The Indigenous Magnetic Resonance Imaging (IMRI) mission is being implemented under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  4. One of the key objectives of the MoU is to facilitate clinical validation of an indigenous 1.5 Tesla MRI system.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • SAMEER is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
  • The MoU focuses on developing high-field/low-field MRI/NMR systems for medical applications. (Statement 2 is correct)
  • The IMRI mission is sponsored by MeitY, not the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
  • A key objective of the MoU is clinical validation of the indigenous 1.5 Tesla MRI system. (Statement 4 is correct)

MRI Technology

In News

  • India has successfully developed its first indigenously manufactured MRI machine, which will undergo trial runs at AIIMS Delhi.

 

 

About MRI Technology

  • Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a non-invasive medical imaging technique that provides highly detailed images of internal organs, tissues, and structures, particularly the brain, spinal cord, muscles, and joints.

 

Key Features of MRI Technology

  • Radiation-Free Imaging: Unlike X-rays or CT scans, MRI does not use ionizing radiation, making it safer for repeated diagnostic use.
  • High-Resolution Scanning: Utilizes powerful magnetic fields and radio waves to generate precise anatomical images.
  • Wide Medical Applications: Essential for detecting neurological disorders, musculoskeletal conditions, and cardiovascular diseases.

With reference to ISRO’s newly developed Vikram 3201 microprocessor, consider the following statements:

  1. It is India’s first fully indigenous 64-bit microprocessor designed for space applications.
  2. It is specifically designed to function in the harsh conditions of launch vehicles.
  3. It supports floating-point computations, which enhances its numerical processing capabilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because Vikram 3201 is a 32-bit microprocessor, not 64-bit.

Statement 2 is correct as Vikram 3201 is optimized for harsh launch vehicle conditions.

Statement 3 is correct since the microprocessor supports floating-point computations, which improve its efficiency in numerical processing.

Lyme Disease Treatment Breakthrough

  • Scientists have identified a critical enzyme, BbLDH (Borrelia burgdorferi lactate dehydrogenase), as a key factor in the survival and infectivity of Borrelia burgdorferi, the bacterium responsible for Lyme disease.
  • This discovery presents a promising avenue for developing targeted treatments against Lyme disease and other tick-borne infections.

 

                                                     

 

About Lyme Disease

  • Lyme disease, or Lyme borreliosis, is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.
  • It is transmitted to humans via bites from infected blacklegged ticks (Ixodes scapularis in North America and Ixodes ricinus in Europe).
  • The disease is prevalent in the northeastern and midwestern United States, as well as parts of Europe and Asia.
  • Symptoms include a bull’s-eye rash (erythema migrans), fever, fatigue, and headaches. If untreated, it can lead to severe complications, affecting the joints, heart, and nervous system.

Role of BbLDH in Borrelia burgdorferi

  • BbLDH (lactate dehydrogenase) is an essential enzyme that facilitates the bacterium’s metabolic processes.
  • Unlike most organisms, B. burgdorferi does not require thiamin (vitamin B1) for metabolism. Instead, BbLDH is critical for converting pyruvate to lactate, which helps maintain the NADH/NAD+ balance—a process vital for bacterial growth and infectivity.

 

Research Findings & Implications

  • Scientists employed genetic, biochemical, and structural analyses, including X-ray crystallography, to determine BbLDH’s function.
  • Loss-of-function studies demonstrated that disrupting BbLDH impairs the bacterium’s ability to survive and infect hosts, confirming its indispensable role in B. burgdorferi’s life cycle.

 

Therapeutic Potential of BbLDH Inhibitors

  • High-throughput screening has identified several promising BbLDH inhibitors that could form the basis of genus-specific treatments.
  • Unlike broad-spectrum antibiotics, these inhibitors specifically target Borrelia burgdorferi, reducing the risk of disrupting beneficial microbiota.
  • The lead researcher, Chunhao Li, emphasized that BbLDH’s unique biochemical properties make it an optimal drug target for Lyme disease therapeutics.

 

Broader Applications & Future Research

  • The study not only enhances our understanding of Lyme disease but also provides insights into LDH-dependent metabolic pathways in other tick-borne pathogens.
  • This could pave the way for innovative treatments for a range of vector-borne diseases, strengthening global public health efforts against tick-borne infections.

With reference to Lyme disease, consider the following statements:

  1. It is caused by a virus and transmitted through mosquito bites.
  2. The disease is endemic only to North America and has no reported cases in Europe or Asia.
  3. If left untreated, Lyme disease can affect multiple organ systems, including the nervous system and heart.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (b) 3 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, not a virus. It is transmitted through infected blacklegged tick bites, not mosquitoes.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While Lyme disease is prevalent in North America, it is also reported in Europe and parts of Asia.

Statement 3 is correct: If left untreated, the disease can lead to complications affecting the nervous system, joints, and cardiovascular system.

The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) in India

 

Concerns Among Medical Professionals

  • Some doctors experience ethical discomfort in performing abortions, particularly in later stages of pregnancy.
  • The debate over fetal viability becomes more intense as gestation advances, raising legal and moral dilemmas.

 

Understanding Fetal Viability

  • Fetal viability refers to the stage at which a fetus can survive outside the womb.
  • There is no universally agreed-upon moment of viability, making it a contentious issue in ethical and legal discussions.
  • As pregnancy progresses, the fetus’s right to life is perceived to strengthen, intensifying debates on abortion laws.

 

India’s Legal Framework on Abortion

Evolution of Abortion Laws

  • Before 1971, abortion was regulated under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), primarily criminalizing the procedure, except when performed in good faith to save the woman’s life.
  • The IPC did not distinguish between wanted and unwanted pregnancies, creating significant barriers to safe abortion access.

 

The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971

  • Enacted as a health measure to decriminalize abortion in specific cases under the supervision of registered medical practitioners.

 

Key provisions:

  • Abortions permitted up to 20 weeks under defined conditions.
  • Up to 12 weeks: Requires approval from one doctor.
  • 12 to 20 weeks: Requires approval from two doctors.
  • The MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021
  • Extended abortion limit to 24 weeks for specific categories, including:
  • Survivors of rape and incest.
  • Women experiencing a change in marital status during pregnancy.
  • Other vulnerable women (e.g., minors, differently-abled women).
  • The term “any married woman or her husband” was replaced with “any woman or her partner”, recognizing pregnancies outside marriage.

 

Beyond 24 weeks:

  • Requires approval from a medical board in each district.
  • Permitted only in cases of substantial fetal abnormalities.

 

Arguments Supporting the MTP Act

  • Bodily Autonomy & Reproductive Rights
  • Women should have the right to make decisions regarding their own bodies.
  • The Supreme Court has upheld reproductive rights as part of personal liberty under Article 21.

 

Protection of Physical Health

  • Abortion may be essential if continuing the pregnancy threatens the woman’s life or health (e.g., gestational diabetes, eclampsia).

Mental Health Considerations

  • Pregnancy may worsen pre-existing mental health conditions like depression, anxiety, or postpartum psychosis.
  • Access to abortion can prevent psychological distress.

 

Non-Viable Fetuses

  • Abortion may be justified when fetal congenital abnormalities are incompatible with life, preventing prolonged suffering.

 

Unplanned Pregnancies

  • Women facing economic hardships or social challenges should have the choice to terminate an unintended pregnancy.

 

Reduction in Unsafe Abortions

  • Legal abortion access minimizes unsafe procedures that pose serious health risks, reducing maternal mortality.

 

Arguments Against the MTP Act

Right to Life of the Fetus

  • The fetus’s right to life is considered to strengthen with gestational age, making abortion ethically contentious.

 

Psychological Consequences for Women

  • Some women experience long-term emotional distress, including guilt, regret, and trauma post-abortion.

 

Concerns Over Non-Medical Abortions

  • Fear that abortion may be used as a form of contraception, rather than a medically necessary intervention.

 

Risk of Misuse

  • Potential for sex-selective abortions, despite laws prohibiting the practice.
  • Loopholes may allow abortion for reasons unrelated to medical necessity.

 

Impact on Societal and Cultural Norms

  • Widespread abortion may alter societal values regarding family and life.
  • Many cultures consider abortion morally unacceptable and contrary to religious beliefs.

 

Way Forward

    • Enhancing Access to Safe Abortion Services
    • Increase availability of MTP pills and reduce administrative hurdles.
    • Ensure that abortion is treated as a healthcare service rather than an exceptional legal provision.
    • Strengthening Sex Education & Awareness
    • Comprehensive sexual education can help reduce unwanted pregnancies.
    • Address stigma surrounding abortion and reproductive rights.
    • Empathy in Medical Decision-Making
    • Healthcare professionals should be encouraged to approach abortion cases with compassion and understanding.
    • Particularly important in late-term abortions, where ethical conflicts intensify.
    • By balancing women’s reproductive rights, fetal viability concerns, and ethical considerations, India can move towards a more inclusive and comprehensive approach to abortion laws.

Consider the following statements regarding the concept of fetal viability:

  1. It refers to the stage at which a fetus can survive outside the mother’s womb.
  2. It has a universally accepted gestational threshold.
  3. It plays a significant role in determining the legality of abortion in many countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Fetal viability refers to the ability of a fetus to survive outside the womb, usually considered to be around 24-28 weeks of gestation, but this varies with medical advancements.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no universally accepted gestational threshold for viability, as it depends on medical technology and healthcare access.

Statement 3 is correct: The concept of fetal viability significantly influences legal abortion frameworks, as seen in India’s MTP Act and global

Farm Distress Index

    • A pilot study titled “Agrarian Distress and PM Fasal Bima Yojana: An Analysis of Rainfed Agriculture” was conducted in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh during 2020-21 and 2021-22 to assess farmer distress. However, a systematic national-level assessment of the Farmers’ Distress Index (FDI) is currently unavailable.

     

    Farmers’ Distress Index (FDI):

    • FDI is a comprehensive assessment tool designed to identify and address the root causes of agrarian distress, including climate variability, price volatility, and farmers’ risk-bearing capacity.

     

    Objective:

    • To develop a user-friendly predictive tool that helps policymakers, researchers, and farmers anticipate and mitigate agrarian distress.

     

    Key Parameters of FDI:

    • Exposure to Risk: Climate shocks, pest attacks, droughts, floods, and market fluctuations.
    • Adaptive Capacity: Farmers’ ability to cope with adverse conditions through technology, financial resources, and knowledge.
    • Sensitivity: The vulnerability of different farming communities based on socio-economic and geographical factors.
    • Mitigation and Adaptation Strategies: Government policies, crop insurance schemes, irrigation systems, and community-based support.
    • Triggers: Sudden economic or environmental changes that lead to distress.
    • Psychological Factors: Mental health and financial stress experienced by farmers.
    • Impacts: The long-term consequences on livelihoods, food security, and migration patterns.
    • Purpose and Significance:
    • Targeted Government Intervention: Helps ensure that relief measures reach the most affected regions.
    • Early Warning System: Provides alerts three months in advance, allowing proactive measures to be taken.
    • Planning Tool: Assists policymakers in developing localized solutions to mitigate distress.
    • The Farmers’ Distress Index is a crucial step towards improving agricultural resilience and rural well-being, ensuring timely intervention and sustainable farming practices.

     

Consider the following statements regarding the Farmers’ Distress Index (FDI):

  1. It is a tool developed to assess farmer distress based on parameters such as climate variability, price fluctuations, and psychological factors.
  2. The index is designed to provide real-time intervention measures at the national level.
  3. It includes parameters like adaptive capacity, mitigation strategies, and sensitivity to external shocks.
  4. The Farmers’ Distress Index is officially integrated into India’s agricultural policy and implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Farmers’ Distress Index (FDI) is designed to assess distress based on multiple parameters such as climate risks, market fluctuations, and psychological factors.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The index is not a real-time intervention tool, but rather a predictive model aimed at early warning and proactive policy planning.

Statement 3 is correct. It incorporates adaptive capacity, mitigation strategies, and sensitivity as key indicators.

Statement 4 is incorrect. While FDI is being studied and piloted, it has not yet been officially integrated into national agricultural policy.

 

Lapis Lazuli

Overview

  • Lapis Lazuli is a highly valued semi-precious rock known for its deep blue color, often streaked with golden flecks.

 

Composition

  • The intense blue hueof lapis lazuli is due to lazurite (25-40%), with its shade influenced by sulfur content.
  • The golden shimmercomes from the presence of pyrite, while diopside and sodalite occur in minor quantities.

 

Global Distribution

  • Found in several countries, including Chile, Russia, and the United States.
  • The finest qualitylapis lazuli originates from Badakhshan province in Afghanistan, where it has been mined for over 6,000 years.

 

Historical Significance

  • Ancient India:Lapis lazuli was imported from Badakhshan as early as 1000 BCE.
  • Indus Valley Civilization:Archaeologists have discovered lapis lazuli ornaments in sites like Mohenjo-daro and Harappa.
  • Ancient Egypt:Used extensively in jewelry and ground into powder for eye makeup.
  • Renaissance Europe:Artists ground lapis lazuli into ultramarine pigment, which was one of the most expensive colors used in paintings.
  • Lapis lazuli remains a gemstone of historical, artistic, and cultural significance, valued for both its beauty and its enduring legacy.

With reference to Lapis Lazuli, consider the following statements:

  1. It derives its blue color primarily from the presence of the mineral azurite.
  2. Pyrite inclusions in lapis lazuli are responsible for its characteristic golden specks.
  3. The Indus Valley Civilization had no known trade connections for acquiring lapis lazuli.
  4. The Badakhshan region in Afghanistan is historically known for high-quality lapis lazuli deposits.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – The blue color of lapis lazuli comes from lazurite, not azurite.

Statement 2 is correct – The golden specks in lapis lazuli are due to pyrite inclusions.

Statement 3 is incorrect – The Indus Valley Civilization did trade for lapis lazuli, as evidenced by findings in Mohenjo-daro and Harappa.

Statement 4 is correct – Badakhshan (Afghanistan) has been a primary source of high-quality lapis lazuli for over 6,000 years.

Strait of Hormuz

Latest News

  • Amid escalating tensions with the United States, Iran has deployed missile systems on the three disputed islands—Greater Tunb, Lesser Tunb, and Abu Musa—located near the Strait of Hormuz.
  • This move highlights Iran’s strategic control over this critical maritime passage and raises concerns over regional security and global energy supply disruptions.

                            

 Key Facts About the Strait of Hormuz

Geographical Significance:

  • The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow yet strategically vital waterway that lies between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula, specifically the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Oman’s Musandam Peninsula.
  • It serves as a critical maritime route connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and further to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean.

 

Geopolitical Boundaries:

  • Northern Coast: Iran
  • Southern Coast: United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Oman
  • Western End: Persian Gulf
  • Eastern End: Gulf of Oman
  • Dimensions & Navigability:
  • The Strait of Hormuz stretches for 167 kilometers in length.
  • The width varies from 95 kilometers at its broadest point to just 39 kilometers at its narrowest.
  • Despite its narrowing towards the north, it remains deep enough for the passage of large oil tankers and cargo vessels.

 

Islands in the Strait of Hormuz:

  • Hengam Island
  • Hormuz Island
  • Qishm Island
  • Greater Tunb, Lesser Tunb, and Abu Musa (disputed between Iran and UAE)

 

Economic & Strategic Importance:

  • It is one of the world’s most critical choke points for global energy trade.
  • Approximately 25% of the world’s crude oil and 30% of the world’s liquefied natural gas (LNG) pass through this waterway.
  • Disruptions in the Strait of Hormuz can significantly impact global oil prices and energy security.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz:

  1. It connects the Persian Gulf to the Arabian Sea.
  2. It is the narrowest maritime chokepoint for global oil transportation.
  3. The United States maintains a permanent naval base on Abu Musa Island to secure energy trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, which in turn leads to the Arabian Sea.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It is one of the narrowest and most critical maritime chokepoints for global oil transportation, with a width narrowing to 39 km at its tightest point.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The United States does not maintain a permanent naval base on Abu Musa Island. The island is disputed between Iran and the UAE, and Iran has control over it. The S. does, however, maintain a strong naval presence in the region through its 5th Fleet, headquartered in Bahrain.

 

World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector

Why in News?

  • On May 31, 2023, the Government approved the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector, set to be implemented as a Pilot Project.
  • This initiative aims to develop agricultural infrastructure at the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) level, including:

 

Construction of godowns

  • Establishment of custom hiring centers
  • Setting up of processing units

 

The project integrates various existing Government of India (GoI) schemes, such as:

  • Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)
  • Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI)
  • Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM)
  • Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME)

 

Progress of the Pilot Project

  • Under the Pilot Project, godowns have been constructed in 11 PACS across 11 States, with a total storage capacity of 9,750 Metric Tons (MT).

State-wise Details of Completed Godowns

S.No

State

District

Name of PACS

Capacity (MT)

1.

Maharashtra

Amravati

Neripanglai Vividh Karyakari Sahakari Sanstha

3,000

2.

Uttar Pradesh

Mirzapur

Bahudeshiya Prathamik Grameen Sahakari Samiti Limited, Kotwa Panday

1,500

3.

Madhya Pradesh

Balaghat

Bahudeshiya Prathamik Krishi Saakh Sahakari Society Maryadit, Parswada

500

4.

Gujarat

Ahmedabad

The Chandranagar Group Seva Sahakari Mandli Limited

750

5.

Tamil Nadu

Theni

Silamarathupatti Primary Agriculture Credit Society

1,000

6.

Rajasthan

Sri Ganganagar

Ghumudwali Gram Seva Sahakari Samiti Limited

250

7.

Telangana

Karimnagar

Primary Agriculture Credit Society Limited, Gambhiropet

500

8.

Karnataka

Bidar

Primary Agriculture Cooperative Federation Limited, Ekamba

1,000

9.

Tripura

Gomati

Khilpara Primary Agriculture Credit Society Limited

250

10.

Assam

Kamrup

2 No. Pub Bongshar G.P.S.S Limited

500

11.

Uttarakhand

Dehradun

Bahudeshiya Kisan Seva Sahakari Samiti Limited, Sahaspur

500

Total

   

9,750

 

  • Additionally, foundation stones have been laid for 500 additional PACS godowns under the Pilot Project, with a total of 575 PACS identified for implementation across various States/UTs.

 

Expansion and Future Goals

  • The Ministry of Cooperation aims to establish and strengthen 2 lakh multipurpose PACS, Dairy, and Fishery Cooperative Societies across all panchayats and villages in the country.
  • To guide this process, a Margdarshika (Standard Operating Procedure) has been introduced.
  • In Karnataka, 128 PACS have been established against a target of 218 PACS to be formed by FY 2028-29.

 

Impact of the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan

Decentralized Storage Capacity:

  • 9,750 MT of storage capacity has been created at the PACS level.

Reduction in Food Grain Wastage:

  • Prevents post-harvest losses by ensuring adequate storage facilities.

Strengthening of Food Security:

  • Ensures better storage and distribution of food grains to enhance national food security.

Preventing Distress Sales:

  • Farmers can store their produce and sell it at better prices rather than being forced into distress sales.

Cost Reduction in Transportation:

    • Since PACS can function as both procurement centers and Fair Price Shops (FPS), transportation costs are reduced.
    • Avoids the need to transport grains from procurement centers to warehouses and back to FPS.
    • This initiative marks a major milestone in strengthening the cooperative sector and enhancing agricultural infrastructure across India.

Consider the following statements regarding the “World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector”:

  1. It is being implemented exclusively under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF).
  2. The plan aims to develop agri-infrastructure at the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) level.
  3. One of the objectives of the plan is to enable PACS to operate as procurement centers as well as Fair Price Shops (FPS).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The plan is not implemented exclusively under AIF; rather, it converges multiple schemes like Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI), Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM), and Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME).
  • Statement 2 is correct: The plan focuses on strengthening PACS by developing godowns, custom hiring centers, and processing units.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The initiative allows PACS to function as procurement centers and Fair Price Shops (FPS), reducing transportation costs and logistical challenges.

Raksha Rajya Mantri flags-off Mt Everest & Mt Kangchenjunga expeditions from New Delhi

                    

  • Raksha Rajya Mantri Shri Sanjay Seth flagged off two major mountaineering expeditions to Mount Everest and Mount Kangchenjunga from South Block, New Delhi, on March 26, 2025.
  • These expeditions, organized under the Ministry of Defence, mark a significant milestone in India’s adventure sports domain and align with Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi’s vision of fostering self-reliance, resilience, and a fearless spirit among the youth.
  • The Mount Everest expedition, a collaborative effort between the Himalayan Mountaineering Institute (HMI), Darjeeling, West Bengal, and Jawahar Institute of Mountaineering & Winter Sports (JIM&WS), Jammu & Kashmir, commemorates 60 years of the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (NIM), Uttarkashi, Uttarakhand.
  • Meanwhile, the Mount Kangchenjunga expedition, organized by the National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports (NIMAS), Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh, is part of the ‘Har Shikhar Tiranga’ initiative.

 

India’s Growing Leadership in Mountaineering and Adventure Sports

  • Speaking at the flag-off event, Shri Sanjay Seth highlighted India’s emergence as a global powerhouse in adventure sports, crediting the mountaineering institutes for playing a crucial role in training and inspiring the next generation of adventurers.
  • He emphasized that these expeditions not only test the climbers’ endurance, skill, and teamwork but also serve as a symbol of India’s mountaineering prowess.

 

Expedition to Mt. Everest

  • Team Composition: Seven elite climbers from NIM, HMI, and JIM&WS, all with extensive experience in extreme high-altitude conditions.
  • Leader: Col Anshuman Bhadauria, Principal, NIM.
  • Route: Traditional South Col Route in Nepal, navigating the treacherous Khumbu Valley, with high-altitude acclimatization camps.
  • Objective: To provide invaluable first-hand Everest experience to instructors, enabling them to train and inspire future Indian mountaineers.
  • Schedule: Departure on April 2, 2025, with the summit push expected in May 2025.

 

Expedition to Mt. Kangchenjunga

  • Significance: Kangchenjunga is India’s highest and only 8,000-meter peak, posing one of the most formidable challenges in global mountaineering.
  • Team Composition: Five skilled climbers and three support staff.
  • Leader: Col Ranveer Singh Jamwal, Director, NIMAS, Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Achievements of NIMAS: Successfully climbed the highest peaks in all 27 Indian states.
  • Schedule: Expedition commences on April 7, 2025.

These ambitious expeditions set a new benchmark for India’s mountaineering aspirations, reinforcing the country’s commitment to adventure, resilience, and excellence in extreme sports.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Indian mountaineering expeditions to Mt. Everest and Mt. Kangchenjunga:

  1. The expedition to Mt. Everest is being conducted under the Har Shikhar Tiranga initiative by the National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports (NIMAS).
  2. The Mt. Kangchenjunga expedition marks the 60th anniversary of the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (NIM).
  3. The expeditions are being conducted under the aegis of the Ministry of Defence.
  4. The traditional North Col Route in Tibet has been chosen for the Everest expedition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Har Shikhar Tiranga initiative is associated with the Mt. Kangchenjunga expedition, not Mt. Everest.

Statement 2 is correct: The Mt. Everest expedition commemorates 60 years of the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (NIM), Uttarkashi.

Statement 3 is correct: The expeditions are organized under the Ministry of Defence.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The South Col Route in Nepal, not the North Col Route in Tibet, has been chosen for the Everest expedition.

 

New Pamban Bridge

KeyHighlights:


  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the New Pamban Bridge in Rameshwaram, Tamil Nadu, on April 6, 2025.
  • The event, coinciding with Ram Navami, marks a major milestone in India’s infrastructure development.
  • Spanning 2.5 kilometers, the bridge significantly improves connectivity between mainland India and Rameshwaram Island, reducing train travel time from 25-30 minutes to under five minutes.

 

 

                               

Engineering Marvel

  • The New Pamban Bridge is Asia’s first vertical lift bridge, replacing the century-old structure built in 1914, which was decommissioned in December 2022 due to severe corrosion.
  • Constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) at a cost of ₹535 crore, the bridge is designed to accommodate faster trains and increased traffic.

 

Advanced Features & Challenges

  • Electromechanical Lift System: Allows the bridge to be lifted in just five minutes to facilitate maritime movement, operated by a single person.
  • Speed Limit: Trains can run at a maximum speed of 75 km/h, except on the vertical lift section, where safety regulations limit speed to 50 km/h.
  • Weather Sensitivity: The lifting mechanism is affected by wind speeds exceeding 58 km/h, a frequent occurrence from October to February, potentially impacting operations.

 

Historical Significance & Connectivity

  • The old Pamban Bridge was the sole railway link to Rameswaram until the construction of a road bridge in 1988.
  • The new bridge restores a vital rail connection, crucial for local commuters and the influx of pilgrims visiting Rameswaram.

 

Inauguration & Future Developments

  • The inauguration ceremony will include the launch of a new train service between Tambaram and Rameswaram.
  • Additionally, the Rameswaram railway station is undergoing redevelopment, with completion expected by September 2025.

Consider the following statements regarding the New Pamban Bridge:

  1. It is the first vertical lift bridge in Asia.
  2. The bridge was constructed by the Indian Railways at a cost exceeding ₹700 crore.
  3. It is designed to accommodate both railway and vehicular traffic.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

 Explanation:

  • The New Pamban Bridge is Asia’s first vertical lift railway bridge (Statement 1 is correct).
  • It was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) at a cost of ₹535 crore, not ₹700 crore (Statement 2 is incorrect).
  • The bridge is exclusively for railway traffic and does not accommodate vehicular movement (Statement 3 is incorrect).

 

Tavasya

Overview

  • Tavasya, the second frigate under Project 1135.6 Additional Follow-on Ships, was launched by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL).
  • This follows the launch of Triput in 2024, with both frigates expected to be delivered to the Indian Navy by 2026 and 2027.

 

                                    

 

Background

  • In 2016, India and Russia signed an agreement for four additional Krivak-class stealth frigates.
  • Two were imported from Russia, while two were built in India under technology transfer.
  • Tavasya is the second of the two indigenously built follow-on Krivak-class frigates.

 

Key Features

  • Symbolism: Named after Bhima’s mace, representing naval strength.
  • Multi-Role Capability: Designed for surface, sub-surface, and air combat operations.
  • Specifications:
  • Length: 124.8 meters
  • Width: 15.2 meters
  • Draught: 4.5 meters
  • Displacement: ~3,600 tonnes
  • Speed: Maximum 28 knots

 

Indigenous Contributions

  • Triput and Tavasya incorporate indigenous equipment, weapons, and sensors, enhancing India’s naval self-reliance.
  • Tavasya marks a significant milestone, likely signaling the end of license-built warships as India advances toward self-designed and self-constructed naval vessels.

 

With reference to India’s Project 1135.6, consider the following statements:

  1. The project involves the construction of four additional Krivak-class frigates, two of which were built in India under a technology transfer agreement.
  2. The Krivak-class frigates are primarily designed for amphibious assault operations.
  3. Tavasya is the first of the two follow-on stealth frigates built by Goa Shipyard Limited under this project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct. India signed an agreement with Russia in 2016 for four additional Krivak-class stealth frigates, with two built in Russia and two in India under technology transfer.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Krivak-class frigates are designed for anti-surface, anti-submarine, and anti-air warfare, not amphibious assault operations.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. Tavasya is the second of the two follow-on stealth frigates built by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) under this project, not the first.

Sea Dragon 2025

  • The Sea Dragon 2025 is a multilateral naval exercise focused on anti-submarine warfare (ASW).
  • Hosted by the United States Navy’s 7th Fleet, it commenced on March 4, 2025, off the coast of Guam.
  • This annual drill brings together key naval forces from the United States, Japan, Australia, South Korea, and India to enhance maritime security coordination in the Indo-Pacific region.

                     

 

Historical Evolution of Sea Dragon

  • The Sea Dragon exercise originated in 2019 as a bilateral initiative between the United States Navy and the Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF).
  • In 2020, it expanded to include Japan, South Korea, and New Zealand, broadening its scope.
  • India joined in 2021, marking a strategic shift in its participation. By 2024, the exercise evolved into a Quad + South Korea collaboration, with Canada being excluded.

 

Participants in Sea Dragon 2025

  • The 2025 edition of the exercise features key naval forces, including the United States Navy (USN), Indian Navy (IN), Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF), Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF), and Republic of Korea Navy (ROKN).
  • Each nation deploys advanced Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) for joint ASW training, enhancing operational coordination.

 

Objectives of Sea Dragon 2025

  • The primary objectives of the exercise are to enhance tactical coordination among participating navies and strengthen anti-submarine warfare capabilities.
  • It aims to improve maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region by conducting simulated submarine-hunting exercises.
  • The drill also focuses on promoting military cooperation among allied forces, ensuring seamless interoperability in maritime operations.

 

Nature of the Exercise

  • Designed specifically for anti-submarine warfare, Sea Dragon involves MPRA deployments equipped with advanced sensors for real-world submarine detection training.
  • The exercise consists of mock drills that simulate underwater threats, allowing pilots to exchange strategies and refine their submarine-tracking techniques.

Grading System and Awards

  • The performance of participating nations is assessed based on submarine detection efficiency.
  • The nation that achieves the highest score is awarded the Dragon Belt Award. Since 2022, the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF) has consistently won this prestigious recognition.

 

Significance for India and the Indo-Pacific

  • For India, Sea Dragon 2025 enhances anti-submarine warfare skills, strengthens defence cooperation with Quad nations, and prepares the country for future joint naval operations.
  • In the Indo-Pacific region, the exercise plays a crucial role in ensuring stability, promoting freedom of navigation, and reinforcing regional defence collaboration.

 

 Consider the following statements regarding the Sea Dragon 2025 exercise:

  1. It is hosted by the United States Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM) to enhance surface warfare capabilities.
  2. The exercise is primarily focused on anti-submarine warfare (ASW).
  3. India has been a participant in the exercise since its inception in 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (b) 2 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The exercise is hosted by the U.S. 7th Fleet, not INDOPACOM. Additionally, it focuses on anti-submarine warfare, not surface warfare.

Statement 2 is correct: Sea Dragon 2025 is explicitly designed for ASW, enhancing submarine detection and tracking.

Statement 3 is incorrect: India joined the exercise in 2021, not 2019. The exercise initially started as a bilateral drill between the U.S. and Australia.

 

AIKEYME and IOS Sagar

 

    • The Indian Navy is set to launch two pioneering initiatives—AIKEYME and IOS Sagar—to enhance India’s role as the ‘Preferred Security Partner’ and ‘First Responder’ in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
    • These initiatives reflect India’s commitment to regional maritime security and cooperative engagement with African and IOR nations.

    • AIKEYME (Africa India Key Maritime Engagement)

      • Meaning: ‘AIKEYME’ derives from Sanskrit, meaning ‘Unity’.
      • Nature: A large-scale multilateral maritime exercise involving African nations.
      • Co-hosts: Indian Navy and the Tanzania Peoples’ Defence Force (TPDF).
      • Location: Off the coast of Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania.
      • Duration: Six days, scheduled for mid-April 2025.

       

      Participating Nations:

      • Comoros, Djibouti, Eritrea, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, and South Africa, along with India and Tanzania.
      • Objective: Strengthening maritime cooperation, security, and interoperability among participating nations.

       

      Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) Sagar

      • Concept: A naval deployment initiative under which INS Sunayna will operate in the Southwest IOR.
      • Crew Composition: A combined crew from India and nine Friendly Foreign Countries (FFCs).

       

      Participating Nations:

      • Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, and South Africa.
      • Objective: Enhancing regional maritime security, fostering defense cooperation, and building naval interoperability.

      These initiatives underscore India’s growing strategic engagement in the IOR, reinforcing its position as a maritime security leader and strengthening partnerships with African and island nations.

       

With reference to the Indian Navy’s AIKEYME initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. AIKEYME is a maritime exercise between India and ASEAN countries aimed at enhancing blue economy collaboration.
  2. The first edition of AIKEYME will be co-hosted by the Indian Navy and the Tanzania Peoples’ Defence Force (TPDF).
  3. AIKEYME focuses on maritime security and involves participation from African nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

=-Statement 1 is incorrect: AIKEYME is not associated with ASEAN but with African nations.

Statement 2 is correct: The first edition will be jointly hosted by India and Tanzania.

Statement 3 is correct: AIKEYME is designed to enhance maritime security and foster cooperation among African coastal nations.

Kaliyattam Festival

 

 The Kaliyattam festival, also known as Theyyam, is celebrated during the Malayalam month of Kumbham (February-March). It is a vibrant ritualistic festival dedicated to the worship of Goddess Kali and is deeply rooted in Kerala’s intangible cultural heritage.

 

Key Features:

  • Sacred Venues: The festival is primarily observed in Kavus (sacred groves) and tharavadus (ancestral households).
  • Ritual Dance Performances: Theyyam performers don elaborate costumes and face paint, embodying different deities.
  • Spiritual Significance: During the performances, the artists are believed to become living embodiments of the divine, earning Theyyam the title of the “dance of gods” or “dance of the divine”.

 

With reference to the Kaliyattam festival, consider the following statements:

  1. It is primarily associated with the worship of Lord Shiva in Kerala.
  2. The festival is mainly celebrated in sacred groves and ancestral households.
  3. Theyyam performances involve elaborate costumes and ritualistic dance.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Kaliyattam festival (Theyyam) is primarily dedicated to the worship of Goddess Kali, not Lord Shiva. It is performed in Kavus (sacred groves) and tharavadus (ancestral households), with dancers embodying divine figures through elaborate costumes and ritualistic performances.

Shaheed Diwas

Context: On March 23, the nation pays tribute to Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev on Shaheed Diwas, commemorating their execution in 1931. Their sacrifice remains a powerful symbol of India’s freedom struggle.

Background:

  • In 1928, the British government sent the Simon Commission, an all-British panel, to India to discuss constitutional reforms. This led to widespread protests as it excluded Indian representation.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai led a protest in Lahore, where police, under Superintendent James A. Scott, brutally lathi-charged the demonstrators. Lajpat Rai succumbed to his injuries on November 17, 1928.
  • To avenge his death, Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev targeted James Scott but mistakenly killed British officer John Saunders
  • Arrested, tried, and sentenced to death, they became martyrs for India’s independence movement. Their execution inspired countless revolutionaries to continue the struggle for freedom.

 

Revolutionary Legacy:

  • Bhagat Singh (1907–1931), Sukhdev (1907–1931), and Rajguru (1908–1931) were key members of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), a revolutionary group committed to armed resistance against British rule.
  • Bhagat Singh was deeply influenced by Marxist and anarchist ideologies, drawing inspiration from Karl Marx, Vladimir Lenin, and Leon Trotsky.
  • He is also remembered for the 1929 bombing of the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi, aimed at protesting against oppressive laws, without intending to cause harm.
  • Shaheed Diwas serves as a reminder of their unwavering courage, patriotism, and ultimate sacrifice in the fight for India’s independence.

 

Consider the following statements regarding the Simon Commission and its impact on the Indian freedom struggle:

  1. The Simon Commission was sent by the British government in 1927 to assess the need for constitutional reforms in India.
  2. The commission did not include any Indian members, leading to widespread protests across the country.
  3. Lala Lajpat Rai was fatally injured during a protest against the Simon Commission in Kolkata.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:

  • The Simon Commission was sent in 1928, not 1927.
  • The absence of Indian representation led to widespread protests.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai was injured in a protest in Lahore, not Kolkata.

 

Vikramshila University Latest News

Why in News?

  • Following the revival of Nalanda University, another ancient center of learning, Vikramshila University, is set for restoration.
  • The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is currently developing the site to promote tourism.
  • The Bihar government has allocated 14 acres in Antichak village, Bhagalpur, to establish a Central University at the historic location.
  • Originally approved in 2015 with an initial budget of ₹500 crore, the project faced delays due to land acquisition issues.

 

About Vikramshila University

Location:

  • Situated in Bhagalpur, Bihar, along the Ganges River, it was a significant historical and educational center in eastern India.

 

Founder:

  • Established by King Dharmapala of the Pala Dynasty (late 8th–early 9th century AD).
  • Founded to counter the perceived decline in educational standards at Nalanda University.

 

Significance:

  • A major hub for Tantric Buddhism and Vajrayana Buddhism, playing a crucial role in spreading these traditions.
  • Specialized in tantric and occult studies, distinguishing it from Nalanda University, which had a broader curriculum.
  • Under King Dharmapala, Vikramshila University influenced Nalanda’s affairs, showcasing its academic and administrative prominence.
  • Hosted over 1000 students and 100 teachers from across India and beyond.
  • Produced renowned scholars like Atisa Dipankara, who was instrumental in establishing Buddhism in Tibet.

 

Features:

  • Central Stupa surrounded by 208 cells for student-monks engaged in study and meditation.
  • A library with an advanced cooling system, using water from a nearby reservoir to preserve delicate manuscripts.
  • Offered a diverse curriculum, including theology, philosophy, grammar, metaphysics, logic, and tantras.
  • Governed by a Kulpati (Mahasthavir), ensuring efficient administration.
  • Decline:
  • Destroyed in 1203 AD by Muhammad Bin Bakhtiyar Khalji, marking the downfall of Vikramshila and Nalanda Universities.

With reference to Vikramshila University, consider the following statements:

  1. It was established by King Mahipala of the Pala Dynasty as an alternative to Nalanda University.
  2. It specialized in Vajrayana Buddhism and Tantric studies.
  3. The university had a unique manuscript preservation system using a water-cooled library.
  4. It was destroyed during the invasions of Alauddin Khalji.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Vikramshila University was established by King Dharmapala, not Mahipala. It was founded due to perceived declining educational standards at Nalanda.

Statement 2 is correct: The university was a renowned center for Vajrayana Buddhism and specialized in Tantric studies, unlike Nalanda, which had a broader curriculum.

Statement 3 is correct: Vikramshila had an advanced manuscript preservation system using a water-cooling mechanism from a nearby reservoir.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The university was destroyed in 1203 AD by Muhammad Bin Bakhtiyar Khalji, not Alauddin Khalji

3rd Session of India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee held in New Delhi

  • The Third Session of the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee (JTC) was held in New Delhi on 25th-26th March 2025, marking a significant step in reinforcing trade relations between the two nations after a gap of 23 years.
  • Both sides conducted a comprehensive review of bilateral trade and acknowledged that the current trade volume does not fully reflect the economic potential of their partnership.
  • To address this, both countries committed to enhancing, deepening, and diversifying trade relations.
  • A key outcome of the discussions was the proposal to establish an India-Uganda Joint Business Forum to promote direct engagement between business leaders from both nations.

                                   

 

Key Areas of Cooperation

India and Uganda identified priority sectors to expand trade and investment, including:

  • Agriculture & Allied Sectors: Coffee, cocoa products, pulses, spices, dairy products, fruits, and vegetables.
  • Minerals & Resources: Rare Earth Elements (REE), mining, petrochemicals, and residual chemical products.
  • Manufacturing & Industrial Growth: Plastic raw materials, essential oils, and allied products.
  • Technology & Infrastructure: Digital infrastructure, banking, MSME growth, solar energy, rural electrification, and electric vehicles.
  • Healthcare & Pharmaceuticals: Strengthening cooperation in health services, traditional medicine, and telemedicine.
  • Both sides also agreed to explore and formalize Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) in Public Works, Infrastructure Development, Agriculture, Traditional Medicine, and Standardization.
  • Additionally, discussions were held on recognizing the Indian Pharmacopoeia to facilitate pharmaceutical trade.

 

High-Level Participation

  • The Indian delegation was led by Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce, Shri Ajay Bhadoo, who highlighted the strong economic partnership between the two nations and emphasized opportunities in e-commerce, pharmaceuticals, MSME cluster development, and renewable energy.
  • The Ugandan delegation was headed by Elly Kamahungye Kafeero, Head of International Political Cooperation Department, Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Uganda, accompanied by Amb. Prof. Joyce Kikafunda Kakuramatsi, Uganda’s High Commissioner to India, and a 28-member delegation representing various ministries and Uganda’s Mission in India.
  • The discussions were conducted in a cordial and cooperative atmosphere, reflecting the strong and amicable relations between India and Uganda.

 

Industrial & Export Insights

  • As part of their visit, the Ugandan delegation toured the Noida SEZ (Special Economic Zone) to gain first-hand insights into India’s industrial and export ecosystem.
  • The deliberations at the 3rd Session of the India-Uganda JTC were forward-looking, setting the stage for increased trade, investment, and mutual growth between the two nations.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Uganda Joint Trade Committee (JTC) meeting held in March 2025:

  1. The session was held in Kampala, Uganda, to mark the first bilateral trade summit after a gap of 23 years.
  2. A major outcome of the meeting was the proposal to establish an India-Uganda Joint Business Forum.
  3. Discussions included cooperation in agriculture, mining, pharmaceuticals, and digital infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The session was held in New Delhi, India, not Kampala. However, the discussions did include the proposal for an India-Uganda Joint Business Forum and identified key areas of cooperation such as agriculture, mining, pharmaceuticals, and digital infrastructure.

Free Movement Regime between India and Myanmar

 

Background

  • In 2024, the Union Home Minister announced the decision to abolish the Free Movement Regime (FMR) along the Myanmar border. However, no substantial progress has been made in implementing this decision.

Understanding the Free Movement Regime (FMR)

  • The Free Movement Regime (FMR) is a bilateral arrangement between India and Myanmar that permits border communities to cross into each other’s territory without a visa.
  • Established in 1968, FMR was introduced due to deep familial and ethnic ties shared by tribes living along the border.
  • Initially, the regime allowed movement up to 40 km inside the other country’s territory.
  • However, in 2004, this limit was reduced to 16 km, followed by additional regulatory measures introduced in 2016.

 

Rationale Behind Scrapping FMR

Internal Security Concerns

  • Myanmar’s ongoing instability, along with the presence of armed groups, has led to an increase in unauthorized migration, creating security challenges for India.

 

Drug Trafficking

  • Myanmar is part of the infamous Golden Triangle, one of the world’s major hubs for illicit drug production and smuggling. The porous border facilitates the influx of narcotics into India, exacerbating drug-related problems in the Northeast.

 

Insurgent Activities

  • Several insurgent groups operate from across the border in Myanmar, using dense forests as a safe haven. The existing FMR enables their movement and logistical support, posing a threat to India’s internal security.

 

Influx of Refugees

  • Escalating violence in Myanmar has led to an increased flow of refugees into India, particularly affecting Manipur and Mizoram. This has resulted in social, economic, and administrative challenges for Indian states.

China’s Expanding Influence

  • Following the 2021 military coup in Myanmar, the country has become increasingly dependent on China, which provides diplomatic and economic support. While Myanmar previously sought to diversify its international partnerships, its growing reliance on China raises strategic concerns for India.

India-Myanmar Relations: A Strategic Overview

 

Geographical Proximity

  • India and Myanmar share both a land and maritime boundary in the Bay of Bengal.
  • Four northeastern Indian states—Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram—share borders with Myanmar.

Historical and Cultural Linkages

  • India and Myanmar share centuries-old historical, religious, and cultural connections, with influences from Buddhism, Hinduism, and ancient trade routes shaping bilateral interactions.
  • India and Myanmar signed the Treaty of Friendship in 1951, laying the foundation for their diplomatic relations.

 

Geopolitical Significance

  • Myanmar’s strategic location makes it a vital bridge between South Asia and Southeast Asia.
  • India’s Act East Policy and Neighborhood First Policy emphasize strengthening ties with Myanmar to enhance regional connectivity and economic cooperation.

 

Economic and Trade Relations

  • Bilateral trade between India and Myanmar reached USD 1.50 billion in 2023-24.

 

Trade is conducted under:

  • ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA)
  • India’s Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) scheme

 

Security Cooperation

  • India and Myanmar collaborate on border security, counterinsurgency operations, and intelligence sharing.
  • Joint patrolling and military operations have been conducted to counter insurgent groups operating across the border.

 

Connectivity and Infrastructure Initiatives

  • India is actively involved in major connectivity projects to enhance trade and infrastructure development:
  • Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project (KMMTTP) – A key initiative to improve connectivity between India’s northeastern states and Myanmar via maritime and land routes.
  • India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway – A crucial project aimed at bolstering economic integration between the three countries.
  • Sittwe Port in Myanmar’s Rakhine State – A strategically significant port under KMMTTP, providing India an alternative trade route bypassing the congested Siliguri Corridor.

Developmental Assistance

  • India has extended assistance in multiple sectors, including healthcare, education, skill development, and infrastructure.
  • India and Myanmar collaborate under multilateral frameworks such as BIMSTEC and Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC).

Way Forward

Regulated Border Management

  • India must develop a structured mechanism to monitor cross-border movement while balancing security and humanitarian considerations.
  • Deploying advanced surveillance technologies and strengthening border infrastructure will be crucial.

Public Awareness and Stakeholder Consultation

  • It is imperative for the Indian government to educate local communities and stakeholders about the implications of FMR and its potential removal.
  • Consultation with northeastern state governments and indigenous communities will help in formulating an inclusive border policy.

Sustainable Refugee Policy

  • India needs a well-defined refugee policy to manage the influx of displaced individuals from Myanmar while ensuring national security.
  • International collaboration with organizations like UNHCR can aid in managing refugee challenges.

Strategic Engagement with Myanmar

  • India must continue engaging diplomatically with Myanmar’s ruling establishment to safeguard strategic and economic interests.
  • Diversifying Myanmar’s external partnerships beyond China will be essential for regional stability.

Enhanced Economic and Security Cooperation

  • Expanding bilateral trade and connectivity projects will strengthen India’s position in Myanmar.
  • Joint counter-insurgency operations and intelligence sharing should be intensified to tackle security threats.

Conclusion

    • Given the uncertain political landscape in Myanmar, India must adopt a balanced approach—tightening border security while maintaining people-to-people ties.
    • The government should take local communities into confidence, formulate a phased strategy for managing border movement, and enhance cooperation with Myanmar to protect national and regional interests.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Myanmar border and security cooperation:

  1. India and Myanmar have conducted joint military operations to target insurgent groups operating along the border.
  2. The Indo-Myanmar Border Agreement allows the Indian military to cross into Myanmar’s territory in pursuit of insurgents without prior permission.
  3. Myanmar is part of both the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct : India and Myanmar have conducted joint military operations such as Operation Sunrise (2019) to neutralize insurgent camps along the border.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect : While India has conducted “hot pursuit” strikes against insurgents inside Myanmar (e.g., 2015 strike against NSCN-K militants), such actions require bilateral cooperation and prior coordination, as Myanmar does not permit unilateral military action.
  • Statement 3 is correct : Myanmar is a member of both BIMSTEC and ASEAN, playing a strategic role in regional cooperation.

 

 

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