Pamban Bridge
Syllabus :GS3/Economy
New Pamban Bridge: A Modern Marvel Rooted in History
In the News:
- Prime Minister Narendra Modi is set to inaugurate the new Pamban Bridge, replacing the iconic century-old structure that connected Rameswaram to mainland India.
Historical Significance
- Built in 1914, the original Pamban Bridge was India’s first sea bridge, vital for trade and religious pilgrimage.
- It stood strong through the 1964 tsunami, which claimed a train but not the bridge.
- The bridge was later restored by E. Sreedharan with the help of local fishermen — a remarkable feat completed in just 46 days.
About the New Bridge
- Constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), under the Ministry of Railways.
- India’s first Vertical Lift Railway Sea Bridge, spanning 2.08 km.
- Features a 72.5-meter lift span, capable of rising 17 meters to allow ship passage.
- Stands 3 meters taller than the old bridge, designed for semi-high-speed trains (e.g., Vande Bharat) and heavy freight.
- Built using corrosion-resistant materials for a lifespan of 58 years.
Strategic & Cultural Importance
- Continues the legacy of facilitating trade and pilgrimage, particularly towards Sri Lanka.
- Offers a future-ready solution to the operational challenges of the old bridge — including corrosion and maintenance.
- Enhances regional connectivity and supports economic development through modern infrastructure.
With reference to the newly constructed Pamban Railway Bridge in India, consider the following statements:
- It is India’s first vertical lift sea bridge designed exclusively for road and rail vehicular traffic.
- It is constructed by a Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
- The new bridge replaces the original structure built in the colonial era that connected Rameswaram to the mainland.
- The lift span of the bridge allows passage of ships up to a height of 17 meters during high tide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, and 4 only
Correct Answer: B. 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Incorrect.
The new Pamban Bridge is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge, not designed for road traffic. It is meant exclusively for rail traffic, including semi-high-speed trains like Vande Bharat.
- Statement 2: Incorrect.
The bridge was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), which is a Navratna PSU under the Ministry of Railways, not under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
- Statement 3: Correct.
The original Pamban Bridge was built in 1914 during British rule and was a critical link between Rameswaram and the Indian mainland. The new bridge replaces this historic structure.
- Statement 4: Incorrect.
The lift span of the new bridge can rise to a height of 17 meters, but the reference to “during high tide” is misleading and unnecessary. The bridge’s vertical clearance is based on engineering design, not tidal conditions.
Ottawa Convention
Syllabus :GS 2/IR
In News
- Poland, Finland, and the three Baltic states—Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania—have announced their intention to withdraw from the 1997 Ottawa Convention banning anti-personnel landmines, citing escalating security threats from Russia.
- Withdrawal would allow these states to resume the production, stockpiling, and use of anti-personnel mines.
About the Ottawa Convention
- Formal Name: Convention on the Prohibition of the Use, Stockpiling, Production and Transfer of Anti-Personnel Mines and on their Destruction.
- Adopted: 1997 at a diplomatic conference in Oslo.
- Opened for Signature: Later in 1997 in Ottawa, Canada.
- Came into Force: March 1, 1999.
- Objective: Complete elimination of anti-personnel landmines by prohibiting their use, development, transfer, and stockpiling.
Key Achievements
- Over 40 million stockpiled landmines have been destroyed since the Convention’s enforcement.
- Substantial reduction in global production and use of anti-personnel mines.
- Enhanced support for mine victims, including medical care, rehabilitation, and social reintegration.
- Accelerated mine clearance efforts, improving safety and enabling productive land use in previously contaminated regions.
- Integrated victim assistance within the broader framework of disability rights and humanitarian aid.
Significance
The Ottawa Convention has played a pivotal role in:
- Advancing humanitarian disarmament efforts.
- Reducing civilian casualties caused by landmines.
- Promoting international cooperation on mine clearance, victim assistance, and post-conflict reconstruction.
- Enhancing global norms against indiscriminate weapons.
Which of the following statements regarding the Ottawa Convention are correct?
- It permits the use of anti-tank mines under specific conditions.
- It came into force prior to the Convention on Cluster Munitions.
- India is a signatory but has not ratified the Convention.
- The Convention allows state parties to withdraw after a formal notice of six months.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ottawa Convention bans anti-personnel mines, but it does not cover anti-tank mines—however, it does not permit anti-personnel landmines under any condition.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Ottawa Convention entered into force in 1999, while the Convention on Cluster Munitions was adopted in 2008.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not a signatory to the Ottawa Convention.
- Statement 4 is correct: A State Party may withdraw from the treaty six months after giving written notice.
150th Assembly of Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU)
Syllabus :GS 2/Governance/IR
In News
Lok Sabha Speaker Shri Om Birla is heading the Indian Parliamentary Delegation to the 150th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), being held in Tashkent, Uzbekistan from April 5–9, 2025.
About the 150th IPU Assembly
Theme: “Parliamentary Action for Social Development and Justice”
Focus areas include:
- Poverty eradication
- Promotion of decent work
- Social inclusion
- Participation of marginalized and vulnerable groups in decision-making processes
Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU): Overview
- Founded: 1889
- Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland (with offices in New York & Vienna)
- Membership: 181 national parliaments + 15 associate members
Objectives & Mandate
- Promote peace, democracy, and sustainable development
- Strengthen parliamentary diplomacy and cooperation
- Empower parliaments to address global challenges through dialogue
Advocate for:
- Democratic governance
- Human rights
- Gender equality & youth empowerment
- Climate action
- Funding
- Primarily funded by contributions from its member parliaments.
Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU):
- It was established as a United Nations organ in the aftermath of World War II.
- It has observer status at the United Nations General Assembly.
- The IPU’s funding comes predominantly from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The IPU was founded in 1889, long before the UN was established.
- Statement 2 is correct: The IPU holds observer status in the UN General Assembly.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: It is funded mainly by contributions from its member parliaments, not UNDP.
Vibrant Villages Programme-II (VVP-II)
Syllabus: GS3-Infrastructure/Internal Security
Context:
- The Union Cabinet has approved Phase-II of the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) to accelerate development in strategic border areas, reinforcing both internal security and inclusive growth.
About VVP-II
- Type: Central Sector Scheme (100% funded by Centre)
- Total Outlay: ₹6,839 crore
- Implementation Period: Up to FY 2028–29
Target Areas
Strategic villages in the following States/UTs:
- Northeast & Himalayas: Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura
- Northern Borders: Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Punjab, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh
- Eastern Borders: Bihar, West Bengal
- Western Borders: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh
Core Objectives
- Improve living standards and livelihood opportunities in border villages
- Strengthen national integration and reduce trans-border crime
- Engage local population as intelligence assets (“eyes and ears”) for border security forces
- Ensure safe, self-reliant, and vibrant border communities
Key Components
- Village-level infrastructure development
- Promotion of cooperatives/SHGs for local value chains
- Border-specific outreach and strategic engagement
- SMART classrooms and education infrastructure
- Development of rural tourism circuits
- Creation of diverse, sustainable livelihoods
Significance
- Together with VVP-I, this phase marks a transformational shift in India’s border policy—promoting security through development, resilience, and socio-economic inclusion of remote frontier communities.
With reference to the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP)-II, consider the following statements:
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at improving border infrastructure and is jointly funded by the Centre and States.
- It includes initiatives such as SMART classes, tourism circuit development, and livelihood generation.
- Its implementation is restricted only to the Indo-China border regions due to heightened strategic sensitivities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A. 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: VVP-II is a Central Sector Scheme, meaning it is 100% Centre-funded, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (which involves cost-sharing with states).
- Statement 2 is correct: The programme includes diverse development initiatives such as SMART education, tourism circuits, and sustainable livelihoods.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: VVP-II is not limited to Indo-China borders. It covers strategic villages along India’s northern, eastern, and western borders, including states like Punjab, Gujarat, and West Bengal.
African Giant Pouched Rat
Syllabus: GS3/Species in News
Context:
- A giant African pouched rat has set a Guinness World Record by detecting 109 landmines and 15 unexploded ordnance (UXOs) in Cambodia, showcasing its remarkable ability in humanitarian demining operations.
About the Achievement:
- The rat earned the world record for most landmines detected by a rodent.
- Trained to identify chemical compounds in explosives, these rats play a crucial role in post-conflict landmine clearance.
- Unique Advantage: Due to their light weight, they can safely traverse minefields without triggering the explosives.
- Efficiency: They can search an area equivalent to a tennis court in 30 minutes, a task that would take a metal detector nearly four days.
- They are also known for their ability to detect tuberculosis faster than traditional laboratory methods.
Landmine Situation in Cambodia:
- Cambodia remains one of the most landmine-contaminated countries due to prolonged conflicts.
- Although the initial target was to become mine-free by 2025, this has been extended to 2030 due to financial constraints and the discovery of new minefields.
- The African Giant Pouched Rat (Cricetomys gambianus) is a large rodent species native to sub-Saharan Africa, typically found in savannas, forests, and agricultural regions. It is omnivorous, feeding on a varied diet that includes fruits, seeds, insects, and occasionally small animals. The species is distinguished by its greyish-brown fur, large ears, and distinctive cheek pouches, which it uses to store food.
- Noted for its high intelligence, the African Giant Pouched Rat is highly trainable and has been effectively utilized in specialized tasks such as landmine detection and disease diagnosis, including the identification of tuberculosis through scent. Due to its light weight, it can safely detect landmines without triggering them, making it especially valuable in humanitarian demining efforts.
- The species is classified as “Least Concern” on the IUCN Red List, indicating that it currently faces no significant threat of extinction.
With reference to the African Giant Pouched Rat (Cricetomys gambianus), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is listed as “Vulnerable” on the IUCN Red List due to increasing demand in biomedical research.
- It has been successfully trained to detect both landmines and communicable diseases like tuberculosis.
- Its use in demining operations is restricted due to its inability to operate in humid tropical climates.
- It can survey minefields significantly faster than conventional metal detectors due to its olfactory capabilities and lightweight body.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B) 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 – Incorrect:
Cricetomys gambianus is currently classified as “Least Concern” by the IUCN, not “Vulnerable”. While it is used in specialized roles, there is no major threat or excessive demand that would warrant a “Vulnerable” status.
Statement 2 – Correct:
- The rats have been successfully trained to detect landmines by sniffing out chemical compounds used in explosives. They are also known to detect tuberculosis using olfactory sensing, making them useful in medical diagnostics.
Statement 3 – Incorrect:
- These rats are native to sub-Saharan Africa, which includes humid tropical regions, and have demonstrated the ability to work effectively in tropical countries like Cambodia. Hence, their utility is not restricted by climate.
Statement 4 – Correct:
- Their lightweight body allows them to walk over landmines without setting them off, and they can cover a tennis-court-sized area in about 30 minutes, far faster than a metal detector, which could take days for the same task.
Agasthyamalai landscape
Syllabus: GS3/Environment and Conservation
Context:
- The Supreme Court of India has directed the Central Empowered Committee (CEC) to conduct a comprehensive survey of the Agasthyamalai landscape to identify non-forestry activities and encroachments.
Purpose of the Directive:
- To initiate restoration of degraded forest areas.
- To protect critical tiger habitats and wildlife sanctuaries in the region.
- The survey will cover the Periyar Tiger Reserve, Srivilliputhur, Meghamalai, and Thirunelveli sanctuaries.
- It will include a comparative analysis between current forest cover and historical records to assess forest depletion and degradation.
About the Central Empowered Committee (CEC):
- Established in 2002, reconstituted in 2008, following the landmark T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India case.
- Functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
- Composition: Member Secretary and three expert members (civil servants) appointed by MoEFCC.
- Role: Advises the Supreme Court on forest and environmental conservation matters.
Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve:
- Located in the southern Western Ghats, straddling Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- Recognized by UNESCO in 2016 as part of its World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
- Encompasses Shendurney, Peppara, Neyyar sanctuaries, and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR).
- Named after sage Agasthya Muni, with a statue at the 1,868m peak — a revered pilgrimage site.
- Inhabited by the Kani tribes (approx. 30,000 people) across both states.
- Ecological richness includes over 2,000 species of medicinal plants, many used in Ayurvedic medicine, along with rare fauna and endemic biodiversity.
With reference to the Central Empowered Committee (CEC), consider the following statements:
- It was constituted under Article 338A of the Constitution of India.
- It functions independently of any central ministry.
- It was originally established by a directive of the Supreme Court of India.
- Its members are appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C. 3 only
Explanation:
- The CEC was established by the Supreme Court in the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India case (2002) — Statement 3 is correct.
- It functions under the administrative control of MoEFCC, hence not fully independent — Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Article 338A refers to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes — Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Members are appointed by MoEFCC, not the CJI — Statement 4 is incorrect.
Technology and Innovation Report 2025
Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology
Context
- The 2025 Technology and Innovation Report, titled “Inclusive Artificial Intelligence for Development”, has been released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
Key Highlights of the Report
- Objective:
The report aims to provide policy guidance to nations navigating the complexities of Artificial Intelligence (AI), helping them formulate science, technology, and innovation (STI) policies that ensure inclusive and equitable technological advancement.
India’s Performance
- India ranked 10th globally in private sector investments in AI, securing $1.4 billion in 2023.
- The United States topped the list with $67 billion, followed by China at $7.8 billion.
- India improved its position on the Readiness for Frontier Technologies Index, rising to 36th in 2024 from 48th in 2022.
Concerns Highlighted
- Concentration of Power: Just 100 companies, predominantly based in the US and China, account for 40% of global private R&D investment, raising concerns over monopolization of AI development.
- Global Disparity: 118 countries, mostly from the Global South, are absent from international AI governance dialogues.
- Job Disruption: Up to 40% of global employment could be impacted by AI-driven automation and displacement.
Recommendations and Policy Imperatives
Workforce Adaptation:
- Emphasize reskilling, upskilling, and supporting workers through technological transitions to ensure AI enhances employment rather than replaces it.
- Three Strategic Leverage Points for Developing Countries:
- Infrastructure: Invest in affordable internet access and computing power.
- Data Ecosystems: Develop robust legal frameworks for data collection, sharing, and privacy.
- Skills Development: Promote digital literacy, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills.
Institutional and Global Mechanisms:
- Establish a shared global AI facility to ensure equitable access to computing resources and tools.
- Create a public disclosure framework for AI, modeled on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) standards, to promote transparency and accountability in AI deployment.
With reference to India’s performance in the 2025 Technology and Innovation Report, consider the following statements:
- India ranked among the top five countries globally in terms of private AI investment in 2023.
- India improved its ranking in the Readiness for Frontier Technologies Index between 2022 and 2024.
- India’s AI investments were higher than China’s but lower than the US.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: India ranked 10th, not in the top five.
- Statement 2 is correct: India’s ranking improved from 48th (2022) to 36th (2024) on the Readiness for Frontier Technologies Index.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: India’s AI investments ($1.4 billion) were lower than both the US ($67 billion) and China ($7.8 billion).
Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat initiative
Syllabus: GS2-Polity and Governance
- Context:
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with the Government of Jharkhand, recently organized a national-level event in New Delhi under the initiative ‘Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat’, commemorating the 150th Birth Anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda (celebrated as Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh).
About: Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat Initiative
- Launched on: 26th January 2025
- By: Department of Panchayati Raj, Government of Jharkhand, supported by the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj
- Coverage: Over 3,000 villages have participated, pledging to preserve and promote indigenous self-governance systems and cultural practices.
Objective:
- To preserve, revitalize, and transmit the traditional knowledge systems of Scheduled Tribe communities, including:
- Folk songs and oral traditions
- Indigenous festivals and rituals
- Sacred worship practices
- Customary laws and governance models
Alignment with the PESA Act, 1996:
- The initiative aligns with the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), which recognizes and protects the self-governing rights of tribal Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas.
- It emphasizes the role of customary institutions and community-based governance, ensuring cultural continuity and empowerment of tribal populations.
Consider the following features with respect to the Hamari Parampara Hamari Virasat initiative:
- It was launched jointly by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Ministry of Culture.
- It involves documenting and preserving traditional governance and ritualistic practices in tribal villages.
- It aims to empower Gram Sabhas in non-scheduled areas to enforce customary laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: It was launched by the Department of Panchayati Raj, Government of Jharkhand, with support from the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, not the Ministries of Tribal Affairs or Culture.
- Statement 2 is correct: A key aim is to document and preserve traditional governance, rituals, festivals, and cultural heritage of Scheduled Tribes.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The initiative is focused on Scheduled Areas, not non-scheduled areas.
9 Years of Stand-Up India
Syllabus: GS2/ Governance
Background: Launched on 5th April 2016, the Stand-Up India Scheme marks nine years of operation as a flagship initiative under the Ministry of Finance, targeting inclusive entrepreneurial growth.
Objective:
To promote entrepreneurship among Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women, by facilitating access to institutional credit for greenfield ventures.
Key Features:
Provides bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore for starting new enterprises in:
- Manufacturing
- Services
- Trading
- Agriculture-allied activities
Eligibility Criteria:
- Applicants must be SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs, aged 18 years or above.
- For non-individual enterprises, at least 51% shareholding and controlling stake must be held by SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs.
Focus: The scheme empowers first-time entrepreneurs and encourages economic participation of underrepresented groups, thereby contributing to a more equitable and inclusive economy.
With reference to the Stand-Up India Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It provides bank loans exclusively to women entrepreneurs engaged in the manufacturing sector.
- The scheme mandates that in case of a non-individual enterprise, the majority stake must be held by an SC/ST or a woman entrepreneur.
- The scheme is applicable only for enterprises located in backward districts as identified by NITI Aayog.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only
Answer: B) 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme covers manufacturing, services, trading, and agriculture-allied activities, not just manufacturing.
- Statement 2 is correct: In non-individual enterprises, at least 51% of the shareholding and control must be with an SC/ST or woman entrepreneur.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no restriction that the enterprise must be in a backward district. The scheme is nationwide.
