1st april 2025 Current Affairs

Exercise Tiger Triumph 2025

Syllabus:Defence

Location: Eastern Seaboard, India
Type: Bilateral Tri-Service Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise between India and the United States

Objective:

Enhance interoperability between the Indian and US armed forces for HADR operations.
Develop Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for effective crisis response.
Establish a Combined Coordination Center (CCC) to manage joint task force operations seamlessly.

Participating Forces:

Indian Armed Forces

Indian Navy: INS Jalashwa, INS Gharial, INS Mumbai, INS Shakti, P-8I Aircraft, Helicopters, Landing Crafts

Indian Army: 91 Infantry Brigade, 12 Mechanized Infantry Battalion

Indian Air Force (IAF): C-130 Aircraft, MI-17 Helicopters, Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT)

US Armed Forces

US Navy: USS Comstock, USS Ralph Johnson, US Navy Medical Team

US Marine Division: Troops, Medical Team

Phases of the Exercise:

Harbour Phase (April 1–7, 2025) – Visakhapatnam
Opening Ceremony on INS Jalashwa (April 1) with joint flag parade and media interaction.
Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEE) and training visits.
Sports and social interaction events to strengthen bilateral ties.
Operational planning for Sea Phase.
Sea Phase (April 8–13, 2025) – Off Kakinada
Joint maritime, amphibious, and HADR operations.
Joint medical camps at Kakinada Naval Enclave.
Establishment of Joint Command and Control Center by Indian Army and US Marines.
Joint medical aid operations conducted by IAF RAMT and US Navy medical teams.
Closing Ceremony on USS Comstock (April 13, 2025) at Visakhapatnam.

Strategic Importance:

Strengthens India-US military cooperation in disaster response.
Enhances crisis response mechanisms for natural disasters.
Improves tactical coordination in maritime and amphibious operations.
Reinforces defense diplomacy and fosters closer ties between India and the US.

With reference to Exercise Tiger Triumph 2025, consider the following statements:

The exercise aims to enhance the interoperability between the Indian and US armed forces specifically for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.
The establishment of a Combined Coordination Center (CCC) is intended to streamline the management of joint task force operations during the crisis response phase of the exercise.
The Indian Air Force’s (IAF) Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) will collaborate with the US Navy Medical Team in conducting joint medical operations, but the IAF will not participate in the Sea Phase of the exercise.
The Sea Phase will be primarily focused on joint medical aid operations, with minimal engagement in maritime and amphibious operations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Exercise Tiger Triumph 2025 is designed to enhance interoperability between the Indian and US armed forces, specifically for Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations. This is the central focus of the exercise.

Statement 2 is correct: The exercise emphasizes the establishment of a Combined Coordination Center (CCC) to manage joint task force operations, ensuring efficient coordination during disaster response operations between the Indian and US forces.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The IAF Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) will participate in the Sea Phase of the exercise, particularly in joint medical operations with the US Navy Medical Team. The IAF is involved in both the Sea and Harbour Phases of the exercise, particularly with its C-130 aircraft, MI-17 helicopters, and RAMT.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Sea Phase is not solely focused on joint medical aid operations. In fact, the Sea Phase involves a comprehensive combination of joint maritime, amphibious, and HADR operations, with medical operations being just one aspect. The exercise emphasizes tactical coordination in maritime and amphibious operations as well.

Startup Mahakumbh 2025

Scheduled for April 3-5, 2025, at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi, Startup Mahakumbh 2025 is a groundbreaking initiative by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA), designed to empower Scheduled Tribe (ST)
The event provides a dynamic platform for tribal innovators to showcase their businesses and connect with industry leaders, investors, and mentors.
It coincides with Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, celebrating the 150th birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, a revered tribal leader.

Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025

As a flagship initiative under MoTA, Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 highlights the significance of tribal entrepreneurship.
It encourages inclusive economic growth and fosters self-reliance among tribal communities.
The event will feature over 45 startups founded by ST entrepreneurs, with support from esteemed institutions such as IIM Calcutta and IIT Bhilai.
These startups are expected to play a crucial role in enhancing the economic and social status of tribal communities.

Key Objectives of Startup Mahakumbh 2025

Promote Tribal Entrepreneurship and Innovation: Provide ST entrepreneurs with the opportunity to present their innovations to venture capitalists and investors.
Facilitate Networking and Mentorship: Create a collaborative environment to help tribal entrepreneurs connect with industry experts, investors, and mentors.
Support Atma Nirbhar Bharat: Align with the government’s vision of promoting self-reliance and sustainable economic growth within tribal communities.

Strategic Partnerships and Funding

MoTA has established strategic partnerships with leading institutions like IIM Calcutta and IIT Delhi, creating a strong ecosystem for tribal entrepreneurs.
The government has also set up a Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes, with an initial corpus of ₹50 crore. This fund will specifically support innovation and entrepreneurship among tribal communities.

Commitment to Inclusive Growth

The initiative underscores the government’s commitment to inclusive growth.
Tribal entrepreneurs are key to preserving cultural heritage and contributing to the broader economy.
Through this event, MoTA aims to elevate tribal startups to national and global platforms, fostering economic empowerment for tribal communities across India.

With reference to Startup Mahakumbh 2025 and Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025, consider the following statements:

Startup Mahakumbh 2025 is a Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) initiative designed to empower tribal entrepreneurs by providing a platform for networking with industry leaders, investors, and mentors.
Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 is specifically aimed at showcasing startups founded by Scheduled Tribe (ST) entrepreneurs, with the event receiving support from institutions like IIM Calcutta and IIT Bhilai.
The Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes, with an initial corpus of ₹50 crore, is intended to support all types of entrepreneurship, regardless of whether the entrepreneur is from a tribal community.
The event is coinciding with the Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, which marks the 150th birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, emphasizing the cultural and historical significance of the event.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Startup Mahakumbh 2025 is indeed a Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) initiative designed to empower Scheduled Tribe (ST) entrepreneurs by providing them with a platform to network with industry leaders, investors, and mentors. This aligns with the broader goal of promoting tribal entrepreneurship.

Statement 2 is correct: Dharti Aaba TribePreneurs 2025 is specifically focused on showcasing startups founded by Scheduled Tribe (ST) entrepreneurs, and it is supported by prestigious institutions such as IIM Calcutta and IIT Bhilai. This ensures strong backing for tribal innovators and their entrepreneurial endeavors.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Tribes is specifically meant to support innovation and entrepreneurship among tribal communities. It is not a general fund for all types of entrepreneurship, but rather one that aims to empower tribal entrepreneurs specifically, as part of the initiative to boost economic self-reliance.

Statement 4 is correct: The Startup Mahakumbh 2025 event coincides with Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, which marks the 150th birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, a prominent tribal leader. The celebration of his birth anniversary ties the event to both cultural and historical significance.

“Levels and Trends in Child Mortality” Report

Syllabus: Reports

The “Levels and Trends in Child Mortality” report, recently released by the United Nations Inter-agency Group for Child Mortality Estimation (UNIGME), highlights the progress in reducing child mortality globally.
UNIGME, led by UNICEF, WHO, the World Bank, and the UN Population Division, publishes this report annually using data from 195 countries.

India’s Key Achievements in Mortality Reduction

India has made remarkable strides in reducing child mortality.
The country has witnessed a 70% decline in under-five mortality and a 61% reduction in neonatal mortality, positioning India among the global leaders in this area.
The decline in stillbirths is equally significant, with a 60.4% decrease, compared to the global average reduction of 37%.
India ranks seventh worldwide in terms of the reduction in stillbirths.

Health Infrastructure Improvements

The decline in child mortality is largely attributed to improvements in healthcare infrastructure and services.
Initiatives like the establishment of maternity waiting homes and newborn care units have significantly improved healthcare access for mothers and infants.
Additionally, the government has focused on training skilled birth attendants, including midwives and community health workers, ensuring better care during childbirth.

Role of the Ayushman Bharat Scheme

The Ayushman Bharat scheme, the world’s largest health insurance program, has played a crucial role in these achievements.
Providing nearly US$5500 annual coverage per family, it ensures free deliveries, medications, and diagnostic services for pregnant women and infants, easing financial barriers to healthcare access.

Advances in Data Systems and Surveillance

India has also enhanced its data systems and digital surveillance to monitor maternal and child health indicators.
These improvements in data collection support evidence-based policymaking, helping to identify critical areas for intervention and resource allocation.

Global Context and Ongoing Challenges

Despite significant progress, challenges persist.
In 2023, an estimated 4.8 million children died before reaching the age of five, with 2.3 million of these deaths occurring among newborns.
Many of these deaths are preventable and are linked to unequal access to healthcare, with factors like socio-economic status and living conditions continuing to impact children’s survival rates globally.

With reference to the “Levels and Trends in Child Mortality” report released by the United Nations Inter-agency Group for Child Mortality Estimation (UNIGME), consider the following statements:

India ranks seventh worldwide in terms of the reduction of stillbirths, achieving a 60.4% decrease, which is higher than the global average reduction of 37%.
India has seen a 70% decline in under-five mortality and a 61% reduction in neonatal mortality, placing it among the global leaders in child mortality reduction.
The Ayushman Bharat scheme provides health insurance coverage of US$5500 annually per family, covering all types of healthcare services for pregnant women and infants, irrespective of their socio-economic background.
The reduction in child mortality globally is attributed primarily to improvements in child vaccination coverage and water sanitation initiatives, with healthcare access playing a relatively smaller role.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India ranks seventh in the world for reducing stillbirths, with a significant 60.4% decrease, compared to the global average reduction of 37%. This reflects India’s robust healthcare initiatives targeting maternal and infant health.

Statement 2 is correct: India has seen a 70% decline in under-five mortality and a 61% reduction in neonatal mortality, placing it among the global leaders in reducing child mortality. These figures highlight India’s notable progress in improving child survival rates.

Statement 3 is correct: The Ayushman Bharat scheme offers health insurance coverage of US$5500 annually per family. This scheme ensures free deliveries, medications, and diagnostic services for pregnant women and infants, significantly removing financial barriers to healthcare access for low-income families.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While child vaccination and water sanitation are essential, the primary contributor to the reduction in child mortality has been improvements in healthcare access, particularly skilled birth attendants, maternity waiting homes, and newborn care units. These improvements have ensured better care during childbirth and the immediate postnatal period, contributing significantly to the reduction in mortality.

SpaceX’s Fram2 Mission

Syllabus: Defence

SpaceX is preparing to launch the Fram2 mission, which will mark a groundbreaking journey over Earth’s polar regions.
This mission, scheduled to conduct several innovative scientific experiments, could pave the way for future space missions, including those to Mars.

Mission Overview:

The Fram2 mission is named after a historic Norwegian ship that embarked on Arctic and Antarctic expeditions during the 19th century.
The mission will carry four astronauts aboard the SpaceX Crew Dragon capsule, launching atop a Falcon 9 rocket from NASA’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida.

Mission Goals:

Fram2 will achieve a unique 90-degree circular orbit, which is much steeper than the typical 6-degree orbit used for previous human space missions.

Scientific Objectives:

X-ray Imaging in Space: The mission will capture the first-ever X-ray images of astronauts in space to study the effects of prolonged spaceflight on the human body.
Mushroom Cultivation in Microgravity: The mission will explore growing mushrooms in space as a potential sustainable food source for long-duration space missions, including those destined for Mars.
Space Phenomena Exploration: The team will investigate Strong Thermal Emission Velocity Enhancements (STEVE), a mysterious atmospheric light phenomenon seen above Earth’s polar regions.

Public Engagement:

SpaceX is encouraging public participation through the Fram2Ham Competition, where amateur radio operators can decode images transmitted from space.
This interactive approach offers a unique way for the public to engage with the mission and its scientific discoveries.

Historical Significance:

Unlike past missions, including the iconic Apollo missions, which did not fly over Earth’s polar regions, Fram2 will provide astronauts with an unprecedented view of Earth’s poles from space, contributing new insights to space exploration.

SpaceX’s Mission Legacy:

SpaceX has a history of successful private astronaut missions. To date, it has conducted five missions, including three collaborations with Axiom Space to the International Space Station.
Additionally, SpaceX conducted two free-flying missions in Earth orbit: Inspiration4 (2021) and Polaris Dawn.
The Fram2 mission will continue SpaceX’s legacy of advancing human spaceflight and space exploration.

With reference to SpaceX’s Fram2 mission, consider the following statements:

The Fram2 mission will conduct scientific experiments aimed at preparing for future human space missions, including those to Mars.
The mission will take astronauts on a 90-degree orbit over Earth’s polar regions, providing an unprecedented perspective of the poles.
One of the key experiments of the mission involves growing mushrooms in space as a potential sustainable food source for long-duration space missions.
The primary public engagement initiative associated with the mission is the Fram2Space Competition, where participants can decode signals transmitted from space.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Fram2 mission focuses on conducting experiments to further humanity’s understanding of space and to prepare for long-duration missions, such as those to Mars.

Statement 2 is correct: The Fram2 mission will take astronauts on a 90-degree orbit over Earth’s polar regions, which is a deviation from the traditional 51.6-degree orbit used in previous crewed missions.

Statement 3 is correct: A key experiment in the Fram2 mission is the cultivation of mushrooms in space, which could become a potential sustainable food source for long-duration space missions, including those heading to Mars.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The public engagement initiative is the Fram2Ham Competition, not the Fram2Space Competition. In this competition, amateur radio operators will decode images transmitted from space, not signals

NSO Releases Energy Statistics India 2025

Syllabus: Reports

The National Statistics Office (NSO) of India has released the annual report titled Energy Statistics India 2025, providing crucial data on energy reserves, production, consumption, trade, and capacity.
This comprehensive publication covers various energy sources such as coal, petroleum, natural gas, and renewable energy, and is accessible on the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s official website.

Key Highlights of Energy Statistics India 2025:

Energy Supply and Consumption

In the fiscal year 2023-24, India witnessed significant growth in energy supply and consumption:
Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) grew by 8%, reaching 9,03,158 KToE (Kilo Tonnes of Oil Equivalent), marking a notable increase compared to the previous year.

Renewable Energy Potential

India holds substantial potential for renewable energy generation, which was estimated at 21,09,655 Megawatts as of March 31, 2024:
Wind power leads this potential, contributing 11,63,856 Megawatts (approximately 55% of the total).
Solar energy contributes 7,48,990 Megawatts, and large hydro adds 1,33,410 Megawatts.
The majority of this renewable energy potential is concentrated in Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Karnataka.

Installed Capacity

The installed capacity for renewable energy generation has experienced impressive growth:
From 81,593 Megawatts in March 2015, the installed capacity has surged to 1,98,213 Megawatts by March 2024, reflecting a Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 36%.

Electricity Generation Trends

Electricity generation from renewable sources has also risen significantly:

In FY 2014-15, gross generation stood at 2,05,608 GWh, and by FY 2023-24, this increased to 3,70,320 GWh, reflecting a CAGR of 6.76%. This shift highlights India’s increasing reliance on cleaner energy sources.

Per-Capita Energy Consumption

India’s per-capita energy consumption has shown steady improvement:
From 14,682 Mega Joules per person in FY 2014-15, it increased to 18,410 Mega Joules per person in FY 2023-24, marking a CAGR of 2.55%. This growth indicates better access to energy across the population.

Reduction in Transmission and Distribution Losses

India has made progress in reducing electricity transmission and distribution losses:
Losses have decreased from around 23% in FY 2014-15 to about 17% in FY 2023-24, indicating improvements in infrastructure and efficiency.

Sectoral Energy Consumption

The industrial sector has seen the most significant increase in energy consumption:

It grew from 2,42,418 KToE in FY 2014-15 to 3,11,822 KToE in FY 2023-24. Other sectors, including commercial, residential, and agriculture, have also experienced steady growth in energy consumption.
This report showcases India’s strides in enhancing energy efficiency, expanding renewable energy capacity, and improving access to energy for its population.

With reference to the Energy Statistics India 2025 report, consider the following statements:

The total primary energy supply (TPES) in India for the fiscal year 2023-24 increased by 7.8%, reaching 9,03,158 KToE.
India’s total renewable energy potential is estimated at 21,09,655 Megawatts as of March 31, 2024, with wind power contributing 55% of this potential.
India’s installed renewable energy capacity grew from 81,593 Megawatts in March 2015 to 1,98,213 Megawatts by March 2024, representing a Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 15.36%.
The industrial sector has shown the highest increase in energy consumption, growing from 2,42,418 KToE in FY 2014-15 to 3,11,822 KToE in FY 2023-24.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: According to the report, India’s Total Primary Energy Supply (TPES) grew by 7.8% in the fiscal year 2023-24, reaching a total of 9,03,158 KToE, marking a notable increase compared to the previous year.

Statement 2 is correct: The total renewable energy potential of India as of March 31, 2024, is 21,09,655 Megawatts, with wind power contributing 55% of this total potential.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While India’s renewable energy installed capacity has grown significantly, from 81,593 Megawatts in March 2015 to 1,98,213 Megawatts in March 2024, the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) is 10.36%, not 15.36%.

Statement 4 is correct: The industrial sector has indeed seen the highest increase in energy consumption, growing from 2,42,418 KToE in FY 2014-15 to 3,11,822 KToE in FY 2023-24, showing steady and significant growth.

What is Semicryogenic Engine?

Syllabus: Defence

Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) achieved a significant milestone in space propulsion technology with the successful hot test of its Semicryogenic engine.
This engine is designed to power the Semicryogenic booster stage of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3) and delivers an impressive thrust of 2,000 kN.
The test, conducted at the ISRO Propulsion Complex in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu, successfully validated key subsystems and represents a major step in enhancing India’s space capabilities.

About the Semicryogenic Engine

The Semicryogenic engine uses Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Kerosene (RP-1) as propellants.
These materials are non-toxic and non-hazardous, offering improved performance compared to the existing L110 liquid stage.
The new SE2000 engine is expected to boost the payload capacity of the LVM3 from 4 tonnes to 5 tonnes in Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).

Achievements of the Hot Test

On March 28, 2025, the hot test of the SE2000 engine demonstrated a successful ignition and operational efficiency for 5 seconds.
The test aimed to validate the integrated performance of critical subsystems such as the pre-burner and turbo pumps.
All engine parameters met expectations, signaling that the engine is ready for further stages of testing.

Key Subsystems of the Engine

The SE2000 engine consists of several essential subsystems, including:
Thrust chamber
Pre-burner
Turbo pump system
Control components
Start-up system
Each subsystem underwent extensive qualification tests before being integrated into the Power Head Test Article (PHTA).

Test Facility and Future Plans

The Semicryogenic Integrated Engine Test Facility (SIET), inaugurated in February 2024 at the Propulsion Research Complex, is crucial for qualifying the engine and its booster stage.
Further tests will focus on evaluating the propellant feed system, including the turbo-pumps and the pre-burner.

Development Challenges

Developing high-thrust semicryogenic engines presents several challenges. The technology is highly advanced and is utilized by only a few countries globally.
The engine hardware must withstand extreme temperatures and oxidizer-rich combustion conditions.
Collaboration with Indian industries has played a pivotal role in overcoming these challenges and realizing this sophisticated technology.

Significance of the Development

The successful development of the Semicryogenic engine marks a significant leap forward in India’s space ambitions.
This engine will enable ISRO to launch heavier payloads and facilitate more ambitious space missions.
With this advancement, India strengthens its position as a formidable player in the global space industry, capable of competing with leading space nations.

With reference to the Semicryogenic engine developed by ISRO, consider the following statements:

The Semicryogenic engine uses Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Kerosene (RP-1) as propellants, which are non-toxic and non-hazardous.
The successful hot test of the SE2000 engine, conducted in March 2025, demonstrated an operational efficiency for 5 seconds.
The Semicryogenic engine is expected to boost the payload capacity of the LVM3 from 4 tonnes to 6 tonnes in Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
The Semicryogenic Integrated Engine Test Facility (SIET) was inaugurated in February 2024 and is a crucial facility for qualifying the engine and its booster stage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 4 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Semicryogenic engine uses Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Kerosene (RP-1) as propellants, which are non-toxic and non-hazardous, offering improved performance compared to the existing L110 liquid stage.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The successful hot test of the SE2000 engine, conducted on March 28, 2025, demonstrated an operational efficiency for 2.5 seconds, not 5 seconds.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The SE2000 engine is expected to boost the payload capacity of the LVM3 from 4 tonnes to 5 tonnes in Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO), not 6 tonnes.

Statement 4 is correct: The Semicryogenic Integrated Engine Test Facility (SIET) was inaugurated in February 2024 and is crucial for qualifying the engine and its booster stage, including further tests on the turbo-pumps and pre-burner.

Indian Ports Bill 2025

Syllabus:Polity

Recently, the Indian Ports Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha by Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal.
This legislation seeks to amend the Indian Ports Act of 1908, with the goal of modernising port operations in India and aligning them with international norms and environmental standards.
It aims to address emerging challenges in the port sector and promote planned development.

Historical Context

The Indian Ports Act of 1908 was enacted to consolidate laws related to ports, port charges, and the powers of both central and state governments.
It also outlined safety provisions, conservation efforts, and the appointment of port officials.
However, with the evolving dynamics of global trade and port operations, the original legislation is now considered outdated.

Objectives of the Bill

The Indian Ports Bill seeks to modernise the legal framework governing ports with several key objectives:

Pollution control and addressing environmental concerns.
Ensuring compliance with international maritime obligations.
Facilitating integrated port development.
Enhancing the ease of doing business within the port sector.

Key Provisions in the Bill

The bill introduces several critical provisions, including:
Empowerment of state maritime boards for improved governance.
Creation of the Maritime State Development Council to ensure coordinated development.
Mechanisms for efficient dispute resolution in port operations.
A stronger focus on disaster management and emergency response at ports.

Reactions from Coastal States

The introduction of the bill has generated controversy, particularly among coastal states. There are concerns over the centralisation of power, with many states fearing that their control over non-major ports could be undermined. Tamil Nadu’s Chief Minister and other leaders have voiced strong opposition, arguing that the bill diminishes state control and local governance.

Parliamentary Scrutiny and Amendments

The bill has been closely examined in Parliament, where members have raised concerns regarding its impact on state powers. The government has clarified that it considered state perspectives during the drafting process. The earlier version of the bill faced significant backlash, prompting a more conciliatory approach in the current draft.

Environmental and Safety Considerations

A major aspect of the bill is its emphasis on environmental sustainability. It includes provisions for pollution control and safety measures at ports, aiming to bring India’s port operations in line with global standards. Given the increasing volume of traffic and the expansion of port infrastructure, these measures are crucial for protecting marine ecosystems and ensuring safe, sustainable port operations.

7Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian Ports Bill, 2025:

The Indian Ports Bill aims to replace the Indian Ports Act of 1908, which is considered outdated due to the evolving dynamics of global trade.
The bill proposes the centralisation of power, particularly in relation to state maritime boards, which has raised concerns among coastal states.
The creation of the Maritime State Development Council under the bill is intended to facilitate coordinated development and better governance in the port sector.
The bill does not focus on environmental sustainability and pollution control, as the primary concern is to promote ease of doing business.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Ports Bill seeks to replace the outdated Indian Ports Act of 1908 and modernise port operations to align them with international norms and environmental standards, considering the evolving dynamics of global trade and port operations.

Statement 2 is correct: The bill has generated concerns regarding the centralisation of power, particularly the empowerment of state maritime boards, which some coastal states fear may undermine their control over non-major ports. This has led to opposition from several coastal state leaders.

Statement 3 is correct: The Maritime State Development Council has been created under the bill to ensure coordinated development and better governance across the port sector, promoting planned and integrated development.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The bill places significant emphasis on environmental sustainability, pollution control, and safety measures at ports, aiming to align India’s port operations with global environmental standards. Therefore, it is not solely focused on the ease of doing business.

UNESCO Releases “Education and Nutrition – Learn to Eat Well” Report

Syllabus: Reports

During the ‘Nutrition for Growth’ event held by France on March 27-28, 2025, UNESCO released a new report titled “Education and Nutrition: Learn to Eat Well”, urging governments worldwide to improve the nutritional quality of school meals.
The report highlights the growing concern that, while nearly half of primary school pupils receive meals, these meals often lack essential nutritional value.
The report emphasizes the need for balanced meals and comprehensive food education to support both the health and academic performance of children.

Current Global Context

As of 2024, approximately 47% of primary school students globally receive school meals.
However, UNESCO points out that the nutritional quality of these meals is often insufficient. Improving meal quality, the report argues, is crucial for reducing child undernourishment and improving academic outcomes. Studies show that providing nutritious meals can positively impact school enrolment and attendance rates.

Key Findings from the UNESCO Report

The report presents several key findings, including:

In 2022, 27% of school meals were not designed with input from nutrition experts.
Only 93 out of 187 evaluated countries had any form of legislation related to school food.
Just 65% of these countries had regulations in place regarding food sold in school cafeterias and vending machines.

Health Implications

The lack of proper regulation is concerning, especially given the rise in childhood obesity rates, which have more than doubled since 1990. At the same time, food insecurity continues to be a major issue. UNESCO stresses the importance of schools promoting healthy eating habits rather than contributing to unhealthy diets. This includes focusing on fresh, locally sourced food options rather than processed foods.

Successful Initiatives Worldwide

The report highlights several successful initiatives aimed at improving the quality of school meals globally:
Brazil’s national school feeding programme has successfully limited the use of ultra-processed foods.
In China, the introduction of dairy and vegetables has led to significant improvements in nutrient intake, particularly in rural schools.
Nigeria’s Home-Grown School Feeding Programme has boosted primary school enrolment by 20%.
India’s introduction of fortified organic pearl millet in Maharashtra has contributed to improved cognitive functions in adolescents.

Recommendations and Future Actions

UNESCO calls on governments and education stakeholders to prioritize fresh produce in school meals and reduce the consumption of sugary and ultra-processed foods.
The report also advocates for the inclusion of food education within school curricula to help children make better food choices.
Moving forward, UNESCO plans to develop practical tools and training programs to assist governments in effectively integrating nutrition into education systems.

Consider the following statements with respect to UNESCO’s report titled “Education and Nutrition: Learn to Eat Well” released during the ‘Nutrition for Growth’ event in March 2025:

The report emphasizes the importance of improving the nutritional quality of school meals to support both the health and academic performance of children.
Only 27% of school meals globally were designed with input from nutrition experts in 2022.
UNESCO advocates for the reduction of food education within school curricula, emphasizing healthier eating habits through school meals alone.
Countries like Brazil, China, Nigeria, and India have implemented successful initiatives that focus on improving school meal nutrition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The report urges governments to improve the nutritional quality of school meals, highlighting that providing nutritious meals can positively impact children’s health and academic performance.

Statement 2 is correct: According to the UNESCO report, in 2022, only 27% of school meals were designed with input from nutrition experts. This indicates a significant gap in ensuring the nutritional value of school meals globally.

Statement 3 is incorrect: UNESCO advocates for the inclusion of food education within school curricula, not the reduction of it. The report stresses the need for comprehensive food education to help children make better food choices, along with improved quality of school meals.

Statement 4 is correct: The report highlights successful initiatives from countries like Brazil, China, Nigeria, and India, which have effectively improved school meal nutrition and contributed to better health and academic outcomes for children. These include Brazil’s national school feeding program, China’s nutrient improvements in rural schools, Nigeria’s Home-Grown School Feeding Programme, and India’s initiative with fortified pearl millet.

Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024

Syllabus: Polity

The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024 has recently been passed by the Lok Sabha, marking a significant update to India’s maritime laws.
This new legislation replaces the Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925, which had become outdated.
The Bill is part of a broader initiative to phase out colonial-era laws and streamline maritime regulations in India.
It is also aimed at fostering a more business-friendly environment in the shipping sector.

Objectives

The Bill’s primary objective is to modernize maritime law in India. It provides clear definitions of the rights, duties, liabilities, and immunities of carriers transporting goods by sea. Simplifying and clarifying existing provisions is expected to enhance compliance, improve operational efficiency, and foster a smoother functioning of the maritime industry.

Compliance with International Standards

The legislation is aligned with the International Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules of Law Relating to Bills of Lading—commonly known as the Hague Rules. By adhering to these internationally recognized standards, India’s maritime law is brought into line with global practices, improving the credibility of India’s shipping sector in the international trade arena.

Empowerment of the Union Government

The Bill provides the Union government with the authority to issue directions related to maritime trade. It also allows for amendments to the rules governing bills of lading. This flexibility is crucial for adapting to the evolving dynamics of global trade and ensuring effective regulation of the shipping industry.

Impact on the Shipping Industry

With clear and updated regulations, the Bill is expected to foster a more favorable environment for maritime business. It aims to enhance operational efficiency, reduce legal uncertainties, and simplify processes, thus promoting a more robust and competitive shipping sector.

Consider the following statements regarding the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024:

The Bill replaces the Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925, and aims to modernize maritime law in India.
The legislation aligns India’s maritime law with the Hague Rules, enhancing its compatibility with international standards.
The Bill empowers the Union government to issue directions related to maritime trade and amend rules governing bills of lading.
The primary aim of the Bill is to enhance India’s export competitiveness by imposing stricter regulations on maritime businesses.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024, replaces the Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925, which had become outdated. The new Bill is part of a broader effort to modernize maritime law and phase out colonial-era regulations.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bill aligns India’s maritime law with the International Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules of Law Relating to Bills of Lading (Hague Rules). This brings India’s legal framework in line with global maritime standards, which is critical for enhancing India’s position in international trade.

Statement 3 is correct: The Bill empowers the Union government to issue directions concerning maritime trade and amend the rules related to bills of lading. This flexibility allows for adaptive regulation in response to global trade dynamics.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While the Bill aims to foster a business-friendly environment, its primary goal is not to impose stricter regulations but to modernize and simplify existing maritime laws. It is focused on enhancing efficiency, legal clarity, and operational competitiveness, not restricting businesses.