TOne Academy

26 march 2025 Current Affairs

Sea Dragon 2025

Syllabus:Defence

               

  • The Sea Dragon 2025 is a multilateral naval exercise focused on anti-submarine warfare (ASW).
  • Hosted by the United States Navy’s 7th Fleet, it commenced on March 4, 2025, off the coast of Guam.
  • This annual drill brings together key naval forces from the United States, Japan, Australia, South Korea, and India to enhance maritime security coordination in the Indo-Pacific region.

                   

 

Historical Evolution of Sea Dragon

  • The Sea Dragon exercise originated in 2019 as a bilateral initiative between the United States Navy and the Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF).
  • In 2020, it expanded to include Japan, South Korea, and New Zealand, broadening its scope.
  • India joined in 2021, marking a strategic shift in its participation. By 2024, the exercise evolved into a Quad + South Korea collaboration, with Canada being excluded.

 

Participants in Sea Dragon 2025

  • The 2025 edition of the exercise features key naval forces, including the United States Navy (USN), Indian Navy (IN), Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF), Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF), and Republic of Korea Navy (ROKN).
  • Each nation deploys advanced Maritime Patrol and Reconnaissance Aircraft (MPRA) for joint ASW training, enhancing operational coordination.

 

Objectives of Sea Dragon 2025

  • The primary objectives of the exercise are to enhance tactical coordination among participating navies and strengthen anti-submarine warfare capabilities.
  • It aims to improve maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region by conducting simulated submarine-hunting exercises.
  • The drill also focuses on promoting military cooperation among allied forces, ensuring seamless interoperability in maritime operations.

 

Nature of the Exercise

  • Designed specifically for anti-submarine warfare, Sea Dragon involves MPRA deployments equipped with advanced sensors for real-world submarine detection training.
  • The exercise consists of mock drills that simulate underwater threats, allowing pilots to exchange strategies and refine their submarine-tracking techniques.

 

Grading System and Awards

  • The performance of participating nations is assessed based on submarine detection efficiency.
  • The nation that achieves the highest score is awarded the Dragon Belt Award. Since 2022, the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF) has consistently won this prestigious recognition.

 

Significance for India and the Indo-Pacific

  • For India, Sea Dragon 2025 enhances anti-submarine warfare skills, strengthens defence cooperation with Quad nations, and prepares the country for future joint naval operations.
  • In the Indo-Pacific region, the exercise plays a crucial role in ensuring stability, promoting freedom of navigation, and reinforcing regional defence collaboration.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sea Dragon 2025 exercise:

  1. It is hosted by the United States Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM) to enhance surface warfare capabilities.
  2. The exercise is primarily focused on anti-submarine warfare (ASW).
  3. India has been a participant in the exercise since its inception in 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: (b) 2 only

 Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The exercise is hosted by the U.S. 7th Fleet, not INDOPACOM. Additionally, it focuses on anti-submarine warfare, not surface warfare.

Statement 2 is correct: Sea Dragon 2025 is explicitly designed for ASW, enhancing submarine detection and tracking.

Statement 3 is incorrect: India joined the exercise in 2021, not 2019. The exercise initially started as a bilateral drill between the U.S. and Australia.

Kerala Became First State To Establish Senior Citizens Commission

Syllabus: Polity

 

  • Kerala has made history by becoming the first state in India to establish a Senior Citizens Commission with the passage of the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Bill, 2025.
  • This groundbreaking initiative reflects the state’s commitment to safeguarding the rights, welfare, and dignity of elderly citizens.
  • The commission will serve as a statutory body dedicated to addressing the needs of senior citizens while also acting as an advisory panel for policy formulation and implementation.

 

About the Senior Citizens Commission

What is the Senior Citizens Commission?

  • A statutory body established under the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Act, 2025.
  • The first commission of its kind in India, focusing exclusively on elderly welfare.
  • Functions as an advisory authority for state policies concerning senior citizens.

 

Objectives of the Commission

  • Ensure the protection, welfare, and rehabilitation of elderly individuals.
  • Safeguard the rights and dignity of senior citizens.
  • Encourage the active participation of elderly individuals in societal development.
  • Promote inclusive policies to integrate senior citizens into various sectors.

 

Key Features and Functions

  • Policy Advisory: Develops and recommends policies for the welfare and empowerment of senior citizens.
  • Grievance Redressal: Addresses complaints related to neglect, abuse, financial exploitation, and social exclusion.
  • Skill Utilization: Encourages senior citizens to contribute their knowledge, skills, and experience to society.
  • Legal Support: Provides legal assistance, particularly in cases of elder abuse, property disputes, and financial exploitation.
  • Awareness Campaigns: Conducts public awareness programs to educate people about the rights of senior citizens and the responsibilities of families and institutions.
  • Regular Reports: Submits periodic recommendations to the state government for necessary policy updates and improvements.

With the establishment of this commission, Kerala has set a precedent for other states to prioritize elderly welfare and create a more inclusive, supportive, and dignified environment for senior citizens.

With reference to the Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the first statutory body in India dedicated to senior citizens’ welfare.
  2. The commission has the power to issue legally binding directives on cases of elder abuse.
  3. It functions as both an advisory and grievance redressal body for elderly-related policies.
  4. The establishment of this commission was mandated under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Kerala is the first Indian state to establish a statutory Senior Citizens Commission.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The commission does not have judicial powers to issue legally binding directives but can recommend legal action.

Statement 3 is correct: The commission serves as an advisory and grievance redressal body.

Statement 4 is incorrect: It was established under state legislation (Kerala State Senior Citizens Commission Act, 2025), not under the 2007 national act.

What is Noma?

Syllabus: Science

 

  • Noma, also known as cancrum oris, is a severe gangrenous disease that primarily affects children between the ages of 2 to 6 years.
  • In December 2023, the World Health Organization (WHO) officially classified it as a neglected tropical disease (NTD) due to its high fatality rate and lack of global attention.
  • While noma is most prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa, cases have also been reported in parts of Asia and the Americas.
  • The disease progresses rapidly, leading to severe facial disfigurement, lifelong disabilities, and profound social stigma.

 

Pathogenesis and Risk Factors

  • Noma is caused by a non-specific polymicrobial infection, involving a combination of bacteria and fungi. It typically develops in malnourished children living in extreme poverty, particularly in areas with poor sanitation and inadequate healthcare access. The major risk factors include:
  • Severe malnutrition, especially during vulnerable periods such as weaning.
  • Poor oral hygiene, which allows bacteria to thrive.
  • Underlying infections, including measles, malaria, and HIV, that weaken the immune system.
  • Environmental factors, such as overcrowding, poor living conditions, and lack of clean water.
  • Due to these conditions, children with compromised immunity are particularly susceptible to noma.

 

Clinical Stages of Noma

The WHO categorizes noma into five progressive clinical stages:

  • Stage 0 – Simple gingivitis: Early gum inflammation without visible ulcers.
  • Stage 1 – Acute necrotising gingivitis: Rapid bacterial infection causing gum tissue destruction.
  • Stage 2 – Oedema: Swelling of the face and mouth, leading to increased tissue damage.
  • Stage 3 – Gangrene: Severe tissue necrosis with facial disintegration.
  • Stage 4 – Scarring: Healing process begins but results in severe disfigurement.
  • Stage 5 – Sequelae: Long-term complications, including difficulty in eating, speaking, and social exclusion.

The disease typically begins with a minor oral ulcer but can escalate rapidly, causing irreversible damage within days if untreated.

 

Treatment and Management

  • Early diagnosis and intervention are crucial for saving lives. Treatment strategies include:
  • Antibiotic therapy (e.g., penicillin and metronidazole) to combat bacterial infection.
  • Nutritional support to address severe malnutrition.
  • Oral hygiene improvement through antiseptic mouth rinses.
  • Reconstructive surgery for survivors with facial disfigurements.
  • Despite treatment, mortality rates remain alarmingly high, with only 15% of affected children surviving the acute phase. Survivors require extensive surgical reconstruction and long-term rehabilitation to regain basic functions like eating and speaking.

 

Global Response and Challenges

Estimating the true burden of noma is difficult due to:

  • High case fatality rates before medical intervention.
  • Weak healthcare infrastructure in affected regions.
  • Social stigma, which discourages families from seeking medical help.
  • WHO’s last recorded estimate (1998) suggested 140,000 cases per year, but the actual prevalence remains unknown. In 2012, the United Nations Human Rights Council recognized the neglect of noma as a potential violation of children’s rights, highlighting the need for global action.

 

Efforts to combat noma focus on:

  • Food security and malnutrition prevention.
  • Vaccination programs against measles and other infections.
  • Early detection and community education on oral hygiene and sanitation.
  • Future Strategies for Eradication
  • The WHO aims to integrate noma into existing healthcare frameworks, ensuring:
  • Stronger health systems for early detection and treatment.
  • Training programs for healthcare workers in affected regions.
  • Community awareness campaigns to reduce stigma and promote hygiene.

 

Noma remains a critical public health challenge, particularly in poverty-stricken regions. Addressing it requires global advocacy, increased funding, and policy-level interventions. Only through sustained efforts can this preventable yet deadly disease be effectively managed and ultimately eliminated.

Consider the following statements regarding Noma (Cancrum Oris):

  1. It is a viral disease that primarily affects children between the ages of 5 to 10 years.
  2. The World Health Organization (WHO) classified it as a neglected tropical disease in December 2023.
  3. It predominantly affects individuals in high-income countries with access to advanced healthcare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Noma is not a viral disease; it is a polymicrobial bacterial infection that rapidly destroys facial tissues. It primarily affects children between 2 to 6 years of age, not 5 to 10 years.

Statement 2 is correct: The WHO classified Noma as a neglected tropical disease (NTD) in December 2023, highlighting its severity and lack of global attention.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Noma is not prevalent in high-income countries. It primarily affects sub-Saharan Africa, parts of Asia, and the Americas, where malnutrition, poor hygiene, and weak healthcare infrastructure contribute to its spread.

What is Hawala?

Syllabus: Economy

  • The use of hawala networks has witnessed a significant rise in recent years, particularly in facilitating illicit activities such as poaching, money laundering, and terrorism financing.
  • Investigations have uncovered that illegal wildlife trafficking rings, especially those involved in tiger poaching in central India, are increasingly exploiting these informal financial systems to conduct their operations.

 

Understanding Hawala

  • Hawala is an unregulated, informal system of money transfer that enables transactions without the movement of physical cash.
  • It relies on a trust-based network of brokers known as hawaladars, who facilitate financial transfers through verbal or token-based agreements.
  • Despite lacking regulatory oversight, hawala remains widely used due to its speed, simplicity, and anonymity.

Mechanism of Hawala Transactions

  • A typical hawala transaction follows a structured but informal process:
  • Deposit & Token Generation: The sender deposits money with a hawaladar in one location.
  • Code Sharing: The sender receives a token, code, or reference, which is communicated to the recipient.
  • Collection of Funds: The recipient presents the token to a hawaladar in their location and collects the funds.
  • This system avoids conventional banking channels, making it attractive for users who seek discreet financial transactions.

 

Who Uses Hawala?

Hawala is utilized by both legitimate and illicit actors:

  • Migrant Workers: Often use hawala to send remittances due to its lower costs and efficiency compared to formal banking systems.
  • Undocumented Individuals: Those without access to official banking prefer hawala for financial transactions.
  • Organized Crime & Terrorist Networks: Drug traffickers, smugglers, and terrorist groups leverage hawala’s anonymity to move illicit funds.
  • Integration of Cryptocurrency into Hawala: With the evolution of financial technology, cryptocurrencies like USDT (Tether) have become an integral part of modern hawala networks.

 

Why USDT?

  • Stablecoin Advantage: Unlike volatile cryptocurrencies, USDT is pegged to the US dollar, making it a stable medium for illicit financial transfers.
  • Bypassing Banking Systems: Transactions occur without relying on traditional financial institutions, enabling cross-border money laundering.
  • Anonymity & Evasion of Scrutiny: Cryptocurrency transactions in crypto-friendly regions allow seamless transfers without regulatory oversight.
  • Legal and Regulatory Implications
  • Although hawala is not inherently illegal, it is increasingly associated with criminal activities, leading to global scrutiny and crackdowns:
  • Anti-Money Laundering (AML) Laws: Many countries have banned hawala transactions due to their role in money laundering and terrorism financing.
  • Regulatory Adaptation: Authorities are enhancing surveillance of cryptocurrency-based hawala transactions to curb illicit financial flows.
  • Continued Evolution: Despite legal restrictions, hawala networks persist, adapting to new technologies such as blockchain and decentralized finance (DeFi).

 

Conclusion

  • Hawala remains a double-edged financial system—serving both legitimate users and criminal enterprises.
  • The rise of cryptocurrency-based hawala transactions presents new challenges for law enforcement agencies.
  • Strengthening regulatory frameworks, increasing financial transparency, and leveraging technological solutions are crucial to mitigating the risks associated with hawala networks.

With reference to the “Hawala” system, consider the following statements:

  1. Hawala transactions require the physical movement of cash between different locations.
  2. It operates outside the formal banking system and is largely unregulated.
  3. The term “hawala” is derived from an Arabic word meaning “trust” or “transfer.”
  4. It is only used for illicit financial transactions and has no legitimate applications.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: In a hawala transaction, physical cash is not transferred—instead, funds are settled through informal networks of brokers.

Statement 2 is correct: Hawala operates outside the formal banking system, making it difficult for authorities to track.

Statement 3 is correct: The term “hawala” originates from Arabic, meaning “trust” or “transfer.”

Statement 4 is incorrect: While hawala is often misused for illegal activities, it is also widely used for legitimate purposes, such as migrant remittances.

Pay Hike for MPs

Syllabus :GS 2/Governance 

Context:

  • The Central Government has notified a 24% increase in the salaries of Members of Parliament (MPs), effective from April 1, 2023. This marks the first revision since April 2018.

 

Details of the Pay Hike:

  • The revision has been implemented under the Salary, Allowances, and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, in accordance with the Cost Inflation Index specified in the Income Tax Act of 1961.
  • The monthly salary of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members has been raised from ₹1,00,000 to ₹1,24,000.
  • The daily allowance has been increased from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500.
  • Pension for former MPs has been raised from ₹25,000 to ₹31,000 per month.
  • MPs also receive rent-free housing in New Delhi during their tenure.

 

Structure of the Parliament:

  • Rajya Sabha (Council of States):
  • Comprises a maximum of 250 members:
  • 238 members represent States and Union Territories.
  • 12 members are nominated by the President for their expertise in fields such as literature, science, art, and social service.
  • Permanent House: It is not subject to dissolution; however, one-third of its members retire every two years, with newly elected members replacing them.
  • Each Rajya Sabha member serves a six-year term.
  • Lok Sabha (House of the People):
  • Members are directly elected through Universal Adult Suffrage.
  • The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 550 members:
  • 530 members represent States.
  • 20 members represent Union Territories.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent salary hike for Members of Parliament (MPs) in India:

  1. The increase in salaries has been implemented under the Parliamentary Pay Commission, which revises MPs’ salaries every five years.
  2. The hike is determined based on the Cost Inflation Index under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
  3. The pension for former MPs has been increased to ₹31,000 per month.
  4. The revised salary structure applies only to Lok Sabha members and not Rajya Sabha members.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3, and 4 only
(D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no Parliamentary Pay Commission. Instead, salaries are revised under the Salary, Allowances, and Pension of Members of Parliament Act.

Statement 2 is correct: The increase is linked to the Cost Inflation Index under the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Statement 3 is correct: The pension for former MPs has been raised from ₹25,000 to ₹31,000 per month.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The hike applies to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members.

Blue Flag Tag

Syllabus: GS3/ Environment

 

In News:

  • Rushikonda Beach in Visakhapatnam has regained its prestigious Blue Flag certification, reaffirming its status as an environmentally sustainable and well-maintained coastal destination. With this, India now has 13 Blue Flag-certified beaches.

 

About the Blue Flag Certification:

  • The Blue Flag is a globally recognized eco-label awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators that meet stringent environmental, safety, and cleanliness standards.

 

Key Facts:

  • Administered by: Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE), headquartered in Copenhagen, Denmark.
  • Significance: Recognized as a symbol of environmental excellence, ensuring cleanliness, safety, and sustainability.
  • Criteria for Certification:
    A beach or marina must comply with 33 strict parameters across four major categories:
  • Environmental Education and Information – Spreading awareness about coastal conservation.
  • Water Quality – Ensuring clean and pollution-free seawater.
  • Environmental Management – Sustainable waste disposal and biodiversity conservation.
  • Safety and Services – Adequate infrastructure, lifeguards, and emergency response systems.

This achievement reinforces India’s commitment to promoting sustainable coastal tourism and preserving its natural marine ecosystems.

With reference to the Blue Flag Certification, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an international eco-label awarded exclusively to marine protected areas.
  2. The certification is administered by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).
  3. A beach must meet 33 criteria across multiple categories to receive this certification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Blue Flag is awarded to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators, not just marine protected areas.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The certification is administered by the Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE), headquartered in Denmark, not by the IMO.

Statement 3 is correct: To qualify for the Blue Flag, a beach/marina must satisfy 33 environmental, safety, and management criteria.

 

AIKEYME and IOS Sagar

Syllabus: GS3/Defence

  • The Indian Navy is set to launch two pioneering initiatives—AIKEYME and IOS Sagar—to enhance India’s role as the ‘Preferred Security Partner’ and ‘First Responder’ in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
  • These initiatives reflect India’s commitment to regional maritime security and cooperative engagement with African and IOR nations.

AIKEYME (Africa India Key Maritime Engagement)

  • Meaning: ‘AIKEYME’ derives from Sanskrit, meaning ‘Unity’.
  • Nature: A large-scale multilateral maritime exercise involving African nations.
  • Co-hosts: Indian Navy and the Tanzania Peoples’ Defence Force (TPDF).
  • Location: Off the coast of Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania.
  • Duration: Six days, scheduled for mid-April 2025.

 

Participating Nations:

  • Comoros, Djibouti, Eritrea, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, and South Africa, along with India and Tanzania.
  • Objective: Strengthening maritime cooperation, security, and interoperability among participating nations.

 

Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) Sagar

  • Concept: A naval deployment initiative under which INS Sunayna will operate in the Southwest IOR.
  • Crew Composition: A combined crew from India and nine Friendly Foreign Countries (FFCs).

 

Participating Nations:

  • Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, and South Africa.
  • Objective: Enhancing regional maritime security, fostering defense cooperation, and building naval interoperability.

These initiatives underscore India’s growing strategic engagement in the IOR, reinforcing its position as a maritime security leader and strengthening partnerships with African and island nations.

With reference to the Indian Navy’s AIKEYME initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. AIKEYME is a maritime exercise between India and ASEAN countries aimed at enhancing blue economy collaboration.
  2. The first edition of AIKEYME will be co-hosted by the Indian Navy and the Tanzania Peoples’ Defence Force (TPDF).
  3. AIKEYME focuses on maritime security and involves participation from African nations.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: AIKEYME is not associated with ASEAN but with African nations.

Statement 2 is correct: The first edition will be jointly hosted by India and Tanzania.

Statement 3 is correct: AIKEYME is designed to enhance maritime security and foster cooperation among African coastal nations.

Permafrost Thawing in Kashmir Himalaya

Syllabus :GS 3/Environment  

Context

  • A recent study has highlighted the escalating environmental risks associated with the melting permafrost in the Kashmir Himalaya, raising concerns over its impact on infrastructure, water resources, and natural hazards.

 

What is Permafrost?

  • Permafrost refers to ground that remains completely frozen (≤ 0°C) for at least two consecutive years.
  • It is predominantly found in high-altitude regions and Earth’s polar latitudes (near the North and South Poles).

 

Major Concerns

  • Infrastructure Damage: Thawing permafrost can weaken foundations of roads, hydropower projects, and other built structures.

 

Increased Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs):

  • In Jammu & Kashmir, 332 proglacial lakes have been identified.
  • Of these, 65 pose significant GLOF risks, which could worsen with permafrost degradation.
  • Potential Impacts

 

 

Human Activities as a Catalyst:

  • Deforestation, land-use changes, and infrastructure expansion (roads, dams, and tourism) can accelerate permafrost degradation.

 

Water Cycle Disruptions:

  • Permafrost plays a key role in maintaining groundwater and river base flow.
  • Its thawing could significantly alter water availability, though research on this remains limited.

 

Recommendations for Mitigation

  • Infrastructure Planning: Future development projects should incorporate permafrost vulnerability assessments.
  • Enhanced Environmental Impact Assessments (EIA): Greater focus on cryospheric hazards like GLOFs.
  • Advanced Monitoring Systems:
  • Increased use of satellite imagery and in-situ data loggers for real-time permafrost tracking.
  • Comprehensive Research:
  • More in-depth studies on permafrost degradation’s long-term impact on water resources and infrastructure stability.
  • As the Kashmir Himalaya faces intensifying climate challenges, proactive strategies are essential to mitigate risks and adapt to a rapidly changing environment.

Consider the following statements regarding permafrost:

  1. Permafrost refers to any ground that remains frozen at or below -5°C for a minimum of five consecutive years.
  2. It is found only in the Arctic and Antarctic regions and does not exist in high-altitude mountain ranges.
  3. The thawing of permafrost contributes to increased methane emissions, which can accelerate climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Permafrost is defined as ground that remains frozen at ≤0°C for at least two consecutive years (not -5°C for five years).

Statement 2 is incorrect: While permafrost is common in polar regions, it is also found in high-altitude mountain ranges such as the Himalayas, Alps, and Andes.

Statement 3 is correct: Thawing permafrost releases methane (CHâ‚„) and carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚), intensifying global warming.

India’s Heat Action Plans

Syllabus: GS 3/Environment  

  • A recent study has found that most Indian cities’ Heat Action Plans (HAPs) lack effective long-term strategies to combat extreme heat, and those with such measures have failed in their implementation.

 

What are Heat Action Plans (HAPs)?

  • HAPs are early warning systems and preparedness strategies designed to minimize the health impacts of extreme heat, particularly for vulnerable populations.

 

About the Study

  • Title: “Is India Ready for a Warming World?”
  • Conducted by: Sustainable Futures Collaborative (SFC) and international universities (King’s College London, Harvard, Princeton, and UC Berkeley).
  • Focus: Cities with over 1 million people expected to face increasing dangerous heat index values.

 

Key Findings

  • Short-term measures like access to water and adjusted work schedules are widely implemented.
  • Long-term strategies such as cooling infrastructure, insurance for heat-related job losses, fire management, and electricity grid upgrades are either absent or poorly enforced.
  • Urban cooling efforts (e.g., increasing green cover and shaded areas) do not effectively target the most heat-vulnerable populations.
  • Planning gaps pose a significant risk, potentially leading to a rise in heat-related deaths as heatwaves become more frequent, intense, and prolonged.
  • The study underscores the urgent need for comprehensive and well-executed heat mitigation strategies to safeguard urban populations in an era of rising temperatures.

Consider the following statements regarding Heat Action Plans (HAPs) in India:

  1. HAPs serve as early warning systems and preparedness strategies to mitigate the impact of extreme heat.
  2. They are implemented exclusively by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  3. Long-term measures such as insurance for heat-related job losses and urban cooling infrastructure are widely implemented in Indian cities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: HAPs are early warning and preparedness strategies to protect vulnerable populations from extreme heat.

Statement 2 is incorrect: HAPs are implemented at state and city levels, often under disaster management authorities in coordination with various ministries, not exclusively by MoEFCC.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The study highlighted that long-term measures are either absent or poorly implemented, making Indian cities highly vulnerable to heat-related disasters.

Vikramshila University Latest News

Syllabus:History

 

Why in News?

  • Following the revival of Nalanda University, another ancient center of learning, Vikramshila University, is set for restoration.
  • The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is currently developing the site to promote tourism.
  • The Bihar government has allocated 14 acres in Antichak village, Bhagalpur, to establish a Central University at the historic location.
  • Originally approved in 2015 with an initial budget of ₹500 crore, the project faced delays due to land acquisition issues.

 

About Vikramshila University

Location:

  • Situated in Bhagalpur, Bihar, along the Ganges River, it was a significant historical and educational center in eastern India.

 

Founder:

  • Established by King Dharmapala of the Pala Dynasty (late 8th–early 9th century AD).
  • Founded to counter the perceived decline in educational standards at Nalanda University.

 

Significance:

  • A major hub for Tantric Buddhism and Vajrayana Buddhism, playing a crucial role in spreading these traditions.
  • Specialized in tantric and occult studies, distinguishing it from Nalanda University, which had a broader curriculum.
  • Under King Dharmapala, Vikramshila University influenced Nalanda’s affairs, showcasing its academic and administrative prominence.
  • Hosted over 1000 students and 100 teachers from across India and beyond.
  • Produced renowned scholars like Atisa Dipankara, who was instrumental in establishing Buddhism in Tibet.

 

Features:

  • Central Stupa surrounded by 208 cells for student-monks engaged in study and meditation.
  • A library with an advanced cooling system, using water from a nearby reservoir to preserve delicate manuscripts.
  • Offered a diverse curriculum, including theology, philosophy, grammar, metaphysics, logic, and tantras.
  • Governed by a Kulpati (Mahasthavir), ensuring efficient administration.
  • Decline:
  • Destroyed in 1203 AD by Muhammad Bin Bakhtiyar Khalji, marking the downfall of Vikramshila and Nalanda Universities.

With reference to Vikramshila University, consider the following statements:

  1. It was established by King Mahipala of the Pala Dynasty as an alternative to Nalanda University.
  2. It specialized in Vajrayana Buddhism and Tantric studies.
  3. The university had a unique manuscript preservation system using a water-cooled library.
  4. It was destroyed during the invasions of Alauddin Khalji.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Vikramshila University was established by King Dharmapala, not Mahipala. It was founded due to perceived declining educational standards at Nalanda.

Statement 2 is correct: The university was a renowned center for Vajrayana Buddhism and specialized in Tantric studies, unlike Nalanda, which had a broader curriculum.

Statement 3 is correct: Vikramshila had an advanced manuscript preservation system using a water-cooling mechanism from a nearby reservoir.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The university was destroyed in 1203 AD by Muhammad Bin Bakhtiyar Khalji, not Alauddin Khalji.

Daily Current Affairs

21th may 2025 Current Affairs
20th may 2025 Current Affairs
17th may 2025 Current Affairs
16th may 2025 Current Affairs
15th may 2025 Current Affairs
14th may 2025 Current Affairs
13th may 2025 Current Affairs
12th may 2025 Current Affairs
10th may 2025 Current Affairs
9th may 2025 Current Affairs
8th may 2025 Current Affairs
7th may 2025 Current Affairs
6th may 2025 Current Affairs
5th may 2025 Current Affairs
3rd may 2025 Current Affairs
2nd may 2025 Current Affairs
1st may 2025 Current Affairs
30th april 2025 Current Affairs
29th april 2025 Current Affairs
28th april 2025 Current Affairs
26th april 2025 Current Affairs
25th april 2025 Current Affairs
23rd april 2025 Current Affairs
24 april 2025 Current Affairs
22nd april 2025 Current Affairs
21st april 2025 Current Affairs
19th april 2025 Current Affairs
18th april 2025 Current Affairs
17th april 2025 Current Affairs
16th april 2025 Current Affairs
15th april 2025 Current Affairs
14th april 2025 Current Affairs
12th april 2025 Current Affairs
11th april 2025 Current Affairs
10th april 2025 Current Affairs
9th april 2025 Current Affairs
8th april 2025 Current Affairs
7th april 2025 Current Affairs
5th april 2025 Current Affairs
4th april 2025 Current Affairs
3rd april 2025 Current Affairs
2nd april 2025 Current Affairs
1st april 2025 Current Affairs
31 march 2025 Current Affairs
29 march 2025 Current Affairs
28 march 2025 Current Affairs
27 march 2025 Current Affairs
26 march 2025 Current Affairs
25 march 2025 Current Affairs
24 march 2025 Current Affairs
22 march 2025 Current Affairs
21 march 2025 Current Affairs
20 march 2025 Current Affairs
19 march 2025 Current Affairs
18 march 2025 Current Affairs
17 march 2025 Current Affairs
14 & 15 march 2025 Current Affairs
13 march 2025 Current Affairs
12 march 2025 Current Affairs
11 march 2025 Current Affairs
10 march 2025 Current Affairs
8 march 2025 Current Affairs
7 march 2025 Current Affairs
6 march 2025 Current Affairs
5 march 2025 Current Affairs
4 march 2025 Current Affairs
3 march 2025 Current Affairs
1 march 2025 Current Affairs
28 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
27 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
26 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
25 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
22 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
21 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
20 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
19 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
18 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
17 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
15 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
14 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
13 Feb 2025 Current Affairs
12 Feb 2025 Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs MCQs

21 May Current Affairs
20 May Current Affairs
17 May Current Affairs
16 May Current Affairs
15 May Current Affairs
14 May Current Affairs
13 May Current Affairs
12 May Current Affairs
10 May Current Affairs
9 May Current Affairs
8 May Current Affairs
7 May Current Affairs
6 May Current Affairs
5 May Current Affairs
3 May Current Affairs
2 May Current Affairs
1 May Current Affairs
30 April Current Affairs
29 April Current Affairs
28 April Current Affairs
26 April Current Affairs
25 April Current Affairs
24 April Current Affairs
23 April Current Affairs
22 April Current Affairs
21 April Current Affairs
19 April Current Affairs
18 April Current Affairs
17 April Current Affairs
16 April Current Affairs
15 April Current Affairs
14 April Current Affairs
12 April Current Affairs
11 April Current Affairs
10 April Current Affairs
9 April Current Affairs
8 April Current Affairs
7 April Current Affairs
5 April Current Affairs
4 April Current Affairs
3 April Current Affairs
2 April Current Affairs
1 April Current Affairs
31 March Current Affairs
29 March Current Affairs
28 March Current Affairs
27 March Current Affairs
26 March Current Affairs
25 March Current Affairs
24 March Current Affairs
22 March Current Affairs
21th March Current Affairs
20th March Current Affairs
19th March Current Affairs
18th March Current Affairs
17th March Current Affairs
14 & 15th March Current Affairs
13th March Current Affairs
12th March Current Affairs
11th March Current Affairs
10th March Current Affairs
8th March Current Affairs
7th March Current Affairs
6th March Current Affairs
5th March Current Affairs
4th March Current Affairs
3rd March Current Affairs
1st March Current Affairs
28th Feb Current Affairs
27th Feb Current Affairs
26th Feb Current Affairs
25th Feb Current Affairs
24th Feb Current Affairs
22th Feb Current Affairs
21th Feb Current Affairs
20th Feb Current Affairs
19th Feb Current Affairs
18th Feb Current Affairs
17th Feb Current Affairs
15th Feb Current Affairs
12th Feb Current Affairs
14th Feb Current Affairs
13th Feb Current Affairs

Write a comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *