3rd april 2025 Current Affairs

The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024

Syllabus: GS2/Governance

Overview of the Amendments

The government has reintroduced the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 in Parliament, aiming to reform the Waqf Act, 1995, which governs the management of Waqf properties in India.

Major Amendments in the Bill

Elimination of “Waqf by Use” Concept:

The Bill removes the long-standing concept of “Waqf by Use,” under which properties continuously used for religious purposes (such as mosques) were automatically considered Waqf.
Now, for a property to be recognized as Waqf, official documentation (Waqfnama) is mandatory.

Restructuring the Waqf Property Survey Mechanism:

The Survey Commissioner will be replaced by the District Collector or another senior government officer.
These officials will now oversee the identification and survey of Waqf properties.

Changes in the Composition of Waqf Boards:

The Bill allows for the appointment of non-Muslim Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) and members in state Waqf Boards, a major shift from the current framework.

Application of the Limitation Act, 1963:

The Bill deletes Section 107 of the Waqf Act, 1995, making the Limitation Act, 1963, applicable to Waqf properties.
This means that if a person unlawfully occupies a Waqf property for over 12 years, they may claim legal ownership through adverse possession.

Rationale Behind the Amendments

The government argues that the Waqf Act, 1995, has several loopholes, particularly concerning land title disputes and unauthorized occupations.
A unified digital registry of Waqf properties will be introduced to improve transparency and minimize legal conflicts.

Criticism and Controversies

The amendments give the government greater authority to determine whether a property qualifies as Waqf.
Instead of the Waqf Tribunal, the District Collector will now decide disputes over Waqf properties. Until the dispute is resolved, such properties will be treated as government-owned.
Opposition parties have strongly criticized the Bill, arguing that it dilutes the rights of the Muslim community in managing Waqf properties.

Did You Know?

Waqf refers to properties dedicated exclusively for religious or charitable purposes under Islamic law. Such properties cannot be sold or repurposed.

In India, the concept of Waqf dates back to the Delhi Sultanate. Sultan Muizuddin Sam Ghaor was among the first to dedicate land for Waqf when he assigned two villages to support the Jama Masjid of Multan, entrusting its management to the Shaikhul Islam.

Consider the following statements regarding the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024:

It removes the concept of Waqf by Use, requiring official documentation for a property to be recognized as Waqf.
The Survey Commissioner is now replaced by the District Collector for overseeing the identification of Waqf properties.
The Bill introduces new exemptions under the Limitation Act, 1963, preventing adverse possession claims over Waqf properties.
It mandates a state-wide digital registry of Waqf properties to enhance transparency and reduce legal disputes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2, and 4 only
(C) 1, 3, and 4 only
(D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (B) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Bill removes the concept of “Waqf by Use,” meaning even religious properties (e.g., mosques) must have official documentation (Waqfnama) to be recognized.
Statement 2 is correct. The District Collector now replaces the Survey Commissioner for Waqf property surveys.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Instead of exempting Waqf properties from adverse possession, the Bill applies the Limitation Act, 1963, meaning unlawful occupants can claim ownership after 12 years.
Statement 4 is correct. A digital registry of Waqf properties will be introduced to ensure transparency and reduce legal conflicts.

Government Securities

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy

Context:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced an infusion of ₹80,000 crore into the financial system through the purchase of government securities, citing the need to address “evolving liquidity conditions.”

Understanding Government Securities (G-Secs):

Government Securities (G-Secs) are tradeable financial instruments issued by the Central and State Governments to acknowledge their debt obligations.

These securities are classified into:

Short-term G-Secs (Treasury Bills): Have maturities of less than one year.
Long-term G-Secs (Government Bonds/Dated Securities): Have an original maturity of one year or more.

G-Sec Issuance in India:

The Central Government issues both Treasury Bills and Bonds/Dated Securities.
State Governments issue only Bonds/Dated Securities, referred to as State Development Loans (SDLs).

Significance of G-Secs:

Risk-Free Investment: G-Secs have virtually zero default risk, making them gilt-edged securities.
RBI’s Role: The Reserve Bank of India acts as the debt manager for both the Central and State Governments, managing their borrowing programs and bond issuances.
This move by the RBI aims to enhance liquidity in the financial markets and ensure monetary stability.

Consider the following statements regarding Government Securities (G-Secs) in India:

Both the Central and State Governments issue Treasury Bills.
G-Secs are considered risk-free because they are backed by the government’s guarantee.
The Reserve Bank of India acts as the debt manager for the Central Government but not for the State Governments.
State Development Loans (SDLs) are a form of short-term borrowing by State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – Only the Central Government issues Treasury Bills; State Governments cannot issue them.

Statement 2 is correct – G-Secs are considered risk-free because they are backed by the sovereign guarantee of the Government of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect – The RBI acts as the debt manager for both the Central and State Governments.

Statement 4 is incorrect – State Development Loans (SDLs) are long-term bonds issued by State Governments, not short-term instruments.

Lakhpati Baideo’ Programme

Syllabus:Government Schemes

The Assam government has launched the ‘Lakhpati Baideo’ programme, a transformative initiative aimed at empowering women entrepreneurs through financial support and skill training.
Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma introduced the scheme, targeting 40 lakh women from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to enhance financial independence and rural entrepreneurship.

Objectives of the Lakhpati Baideo Scheme

To financially empower women by providing structured monetary support.
To promote entrepreneurship among SHG members.
To enhance economic self-reliance in rural Assam.
Financial Assistance & Implementation Structure
The scheme follows a tiered financial assistance model to ensure gradual business growth:
Total estimated cost: ₹4,000 crore.
E-commerce support: The Assam government will facilitate online platforms for women-led businesses.
Business Plan Requirement: Beneficiaries must submit a structured business proposal to access funds, ensuring strategic planning and sustainability.

Eligibility Criteria & Population Control Measures

The scheme aligns with Assam’s population control policy by setting eligibility limits based on family size:

General & OBC categories: Maximum three
SC & ST categories: Maximum four

This initiative integrates economic empowerment with population management, promoting responsible family planning.

Additional Support: Health & Education Initiatives

Healthcare: Special health camps to offer affordable medical care.
Education: Financial aid for students from economically weaker families to support tuition and learning resources.

Impact & Future Prospects

The Lakhpati Baideo scheme is expected to revolutionize women’s economic participation in Assam. By fostering entrepreneurship and financial independence, the government aims to:

Transform rural economies.
Encourage self-reliance among women.
Promote sustainable development.

This initiative underscores Assam’s commitment to holistic socio-economic progress through women-led growth and self-sufficiency.

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Lakhpati Baideo’ scheme launched by Assam:

It aims to provide financial assistance and training to male and female entrepreneurs from SHGs.
The scheme is structured with a three-tier financial assistance model over three years.
To be eligible, all beneficiaries must submit a business plan.
The scheme is exclusively for women from SC and ST categories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

The scheme is exclusively for women; hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
The financial assistance follows a structured three-tier model (₹10,000, ₹25,000, ₹50,000), making Statement 2 correct.
Beneficiaries must submit a business plan to access funds, ensuring Statement 3 is correct.
The scheme is not limited to SC/ST categories but includes General and OBC women as well, making Statement 4 incorrect.

Kumbakonam Betel Leaf and Thovalai Flower Garland Receive GI Tag

Syllabus:Culture

The Kumbakonam betel leaf of Thanjavur and the Thovalai flower garland of Kanyakumari have been granted Geographical Indication (GI) Tags by the Government of India.
This milestone increases the total number of GI products from Tamil Nadu to 62. The official recognition was published in the Government Gazette on November 30, 2024, following a rigorous four-month review process.

Significance of the GI Tag

Legal Protection: Prevents unauthorized use and imitation.
Economic Boost: Enhances market value and export potential.
Preservation of Heritage: Safeguards traditional agricultural and artisanal practices.

Detailed Overview of GI-Tagged Products

Kumbakonam Betel Leaf

Cultivated in Thanjavur’s fertile Cauvery river basin, imparting a distinctive taste and aroma.
Key growing regions include Thiruvaiyaru, Papanasam, Thiruvidaimarudur, Kumbakonam, and Rajagiri.
Expected to increase trade and export opportunities for betel leaf farmers.

Thovalai Flower Garland

A renowned handwoven floral garland from southern Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Crafted using white, red, and green flowers, arranged in a mat-like pattern with exceptional artistry.
Valued for its cultural significance and intricate craftsmanship.
These newly awarded GI tags not only promote regional identity but also foster sustainable livelihoods for local communities engaged in traditional cultivation and craftsmanship.

Consider the following statements regarding the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in India:

The GI tag provides exclusive intellectual property rights to the producer communities of a specific region.
Once awarded, the GI status remains valid indefinitely without any requirement for renewal.
The GI Act in India is governed under the Trade Marks Act, 1999.
A product receiving a GI tag cannot be produced outside the geographical region mentioned in the registration.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

The GI tag provides legal protection to producers in a specific geographical region (Statement 1 is correct).
The GI status is valid for 10 years and requires renewal (Statement 2 is incorrect).
GI registration in India is governed under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, not the Trade Marks Act (Statement 3 is incorrect).
Products awarded a GI tag must be produced only within the designated region (Statement 4 is correct).

5. IIT Madras Pravartak Completes Training of First Batch of Cyber Commandos

Syllabus:Security

Amid the escalating threat of cybercrime, the IIT Madras Pravartak Technologies Foundation successfully trained and graduated the first batch of Cyber Commandos on April 1, 2025.
This initiative, under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, aims to equip law enforcement personnel with cutting-edge cybersecurity expertise to counteract evolving digital threats.

Introduction

With cyberattacks becoming increasingly sophisticated, the Cyber Commandos Programme seeks to enhance India’s cybersecurity framework by providing advanced training to law enforcement officers.
The program’s first cohort of 37 officers has successfully completed intensive training at IIT Madras, preparing them to tackle cyber threats at national and state levels.

Valedictory Ceremony & Key Officials

The graduation ceremony for the first batch of Cyber Commandos took place at IIT Madras on April 1, 2025, in the presence of several esteemed dignitaries:

Sandeep Mittal, IPS – ADGP, Cyber Crime Wing, Tamil Nadu
Shankar Ram – CEO, IIT Madras Pravartak Technologies Foundation
Balamurali Shankar – Chief Knowledge Officer, Pravartak
Mangala Sunder – Head, Digital Skills Academy, IIT Madras
IPS Roopa M – Director, Threat Analytics Unit (TAU), I4C

Cyber Commandos Programme: A Game Changer

Unlike conventional cybercrime cells that primarily focus on post-incident investigations and prosecution, Cyber Commandos will take a proactive approach to:
Prevent cyberattacks before they occur.
Protect critical national infrastructure and sensitive data.
Ensure India’s digital sovereignty through active cyber defense.

Cyber Commandos Training Program Overview

The six-month residential training program at IIT Madras covered three key areas:

Core Cybersecurity Foundations

Computer and network security fundamentals
Operating system and database management principles

Advanced Cybersecurity Techniques

Network security and digital forensics
Ethical hacking and penetration testing
Cyber threat intelligence and malware analysis
Offensive defense strategies to counteract cyber intrusions

Hands-on Practical Training

Live cyberattack simulations (Red Team vs. Blue Team exercises)
Case studies of real-world cybercrime incidents
Legal and policy frameworks governing cybercrime investigations
Inter-agency collaboration exercises for coordinated cyber defense

Future Roadmap: Expansion & Deployment

Inclusion of Intelligence Agencies

Future batches will integrate personnel from intelligence agencies to enhance cross-functional cybersecurity expertise.
Training modules will include real-world attack scenarios conducted by industry experts.

Digital Platform for Continuous Learning

I4C’s cybersecurity learning platform will enable Cyber Commandos to specialize in various domains.
Regular task-based assessments will help refine their technical skills.

Strategic Deployment of Cyber Commandos

State DGPs will be requested to deploy trained commandos to high-priority cyber defense units.
Special focus will be placed on cyberwarfare preparedness and technology-driven crime prevention.

Conclusion

The Cyber Commandos Programme marks a significant advancement in India’s cybersecurity strategy, fostering a technologically empowered law enforcement system. With expansion plans underway, this initiative is set to redefine digital security governance and establish India as a global leader in cyber defense.

Consider the following statements regarding the Cyber Commandos Programme:

It is an initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and IT.
It involves a six-month residential training program at IIT Madras.
The program focuses only on defensive cybersecurity strategies.
It aims to strengthen India’s cyber defenses through proactive intervention.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 1, 3, and 4 only

(D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – The initiative falls under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Electronics and IT.

Statement 2 is correct – The training is a six-month residential program at IIT Madras.

Statement 3 is incorrect – The program includes both offensive and defensive strategies, such as ethical hacking, penetration testing, and cyber threat intelligence.

Statement 4 is correct – The program adopts a proactive cybersecurity approach, preventing attacks rather than just responding to them.

9K33 Osa-AK Missile System

System Syllabus:Defence

The Indian Army’s Air Defence warriors from the White Tiger Division have successfully demonstrated their operational readiness and technical expertise during a recent live missile-firing exercise.
The exercise involved the firing of the 9K33 Osa-AK missile system, reaffirming the Army’s capability to counter aerial threats in dynamic combat environments.

9K33 Osa-AK Missile System: An Overview

The 9K33 Osa-AK is a Russian-built, highly mobile, low-altitude, short-range tactical surface-to-air missile system. Initially developed in the 1960s and officially inducted by the Soviet Union in 1972, the system continues to serve as a critical air defence asset for multiple nations, including India.
In NATO classification, the Osa-AK is designated as “SA-8 Gecko.”
It is designed for rapid deployment, capable of engaging low-flying enemy aircraft, helicopters, drones, and cruise missiles.

Key Features of the 9K33 Osa-AK System

All-in-One Combat System

The Osa-AK integrates its radar, launcher, and missile control system into a single highly mobile platform.
This transporter-erector-launcher and radar (TELAR) setup allows it to independently detect, track, and engage aerial threats without external radar support.

Missile Capabilities

The system carries six ready-to-fire missiles mounted on the vehicle’s roof.
It can engage targets at a maximum range of 12 km with high precision.

Mobility and Deployment

The Osa-AK is highly mobile and designed to respond swiftly to evolving battlefield conditions.
It has a road range of approximately 500 km, allowing rapid relocation across different theatres of operation.
It is fully amphibious and can operate in diverse terrains, including desert, mountainous, and urban landscapes.

Survivability and Protection

The vehicle has nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) protection to ensure operational capability in hostile environments.
It accommodates a crew of up to five personnel, ensuring efficient command and control.

Strategic Air Defence Role

The Osa-AK enhances India’s integrated air defence network by providing a responsive, mobile, and versatile counter-air capability.
It is designed to counter modern aerial threats, including low-flying aircraft and unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs).

Operational Significance for India

The live missile-firing drill underscores the Indian Army’s commitment to strengthening its air defence capabilities amid evolving security threats.
The Osa-AK system’s proven reliability in various conflict zones makes it a crucial asset in India’s military modernization efforts.
Its rapid deployment ability ensures effective protection of critical infrastructure and frontline military formations.
By successfully conducting this live-fire exercise, the Indian Army has reaffirmed its ability to neutralize airborne threats and maintain a robust defensive posture in modern warfare scenarios.

Consider the following statements regarding the 9K33 Osa-AK missile system:

It is an indigenously developed short-range surface-to-air missile system by DRDO.
It is capable of detecting, tracking, and engaging aerial threats independently due to its all-in-one TELAR system.
It has a maximum engagement range of approximately 50 km.
It is fully amphibious and can be deployed in multiple terrains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 9K33 Osa-AK is a Russian-built missile system, not developed by India’s DRDO.
Statement 2 is correct: It has an integrated TELAR system, enabling independent detection, tracking, and engagement of aerial threats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The system has a maximum range of around 12 km, not 50 km.
Statement 4 is correct: The Osa-AK is fully amphibious and designed for diverse terrains, including urban, mountainous, and desert conditions.

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)

Syllabus: Polity

Recent Developments:

The latest Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) report, titled ‘Prevention and Mitigation of Vehicular Air Pollution in Delhi,’ has raised critical concerns regarding:
Air Quality Monitoring Deficiencies – Inadequate real-time tracking of pollution levels.
Vehicular Emissions – Lack of stringent regulatory enforcement to curb pollution from automobiles.
Government Accountability – Gaps in policy implementation and administrative oversight in tackling air pollution.

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India

The CAG of India serves as the guardian of public finances, ensuring financial accountability in government expenditures. It oversees audits of financial transactions at both the central and state levels to uphold transparency and efficiency in governance.

Constitutional Status and Authority

The CAG is a constitutional authority, established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. It plays a pivotal role in maintaining fiscal discipline and ensuring that government spending is in accordance with legal provisions.

Key Constitutional Provisions:

Article 148 – Outlines the appointment, term, and conditions of service of the CAG.
Article 149 – Defines the duties and powers of the CAG in auditing government accounts.
Article 150 – Empowers the President to prescribe government accounting standards based on CAG’s advice.
Article 151 – Mandates that the CAG’s audit reports be tabled in Parliament and State Legislatures.
Article 279 – Assigns the CAG the responsibility of certifying the “net proceeds” of taxes and duties for revenue-sharing between the Centre and States.
Sixth Schedule – Requires the CAG to audit the accounts of District and Regional Councils in autonomous tribal areas.

Appointment, Tenure, and Removal

Appointing Authority: The President of India appoints the CAG through a formal warrant.
Term: The CAG serves for six years or until reaching 65 years of age, whichever comes earlier.
Resignation: The CAG may resign by submitting a letter to the President of India.
Removal Process: The CAG can only be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge—through impeachment by Parliament requiring a special majority in both Houses.

Ensuring Independence of the CAG

To maintain neutrality and prevent executive influence, the CAG enjoys several constitutional safeguards:

Security of Tenure: Cannot be removed at the discretion of the executive.
Post-Tenure Restrictions: The CAG cannot hold any other government office under the Centre or State governments after retirement.

Financial Autonomy:

Salary is fixed by Parliament and is equal to that of a Supreme Court judge.
Administrative expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring operational independence.

No Executive Control:

The CAG does not report to any minister.
No minister can represent the CAG in Parliament.

Duties and Powers of the CAG

The CAG Act, 1971 (with amendments in 1976, 1984, and 1987) outlines the statutory responsibilities of the CAG:

Audit of Government Expenditure

Scrutinizes spending from the Consolidated Fund of India and State Consolidated Funds.
Audits revenues, expenditures, loans, and debts of the government.

Oversight of Public Sector Enterprises

Audits financial statements of Government-Owned Companies and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
Ensures transparency in government transactions and proper utilization of funds.

Certification of Tax Revenues

Certifies net proceeds of taxes collected by the government under Article 279.
Plays a crucial role in determining tax revenue distribution between the Centre and States.

Parliamentary Accountability

Submits audit reports to the President, which are then tabled in Parliament and examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
Conducts propriety audits to ensure that government spending is not wasteful or extravagant.

CAG in India vs. CAG in the UK

Unlike the UK’s Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), who controls fund disbursements, the Indian CAG serves purely as an auditor. It does not exercise direct control over financial transactions, maintaining a clear separation between auditing and expenditure management.

CAG’s Role in International Audits

The CAG of India is entrusted with auditing the financial transactions of global organizations, reinforcing India’s credibility in financial governance.
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) (2022-2027) – Ensuring financial accountability in nuclear energy governance.
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) (2020-2025) – Overseeing financial audits related to global food security programs.

Conclusion

The CAG of India is a critical institution in ensuring financial transparency and accountability. With constitutional protections, an independent mandate, and a wide scope of responsibilities, it plays an essential role in upholding democratic governance and preventing fiscal mismanagement.

Would you like additional details on CAG reforms or contemporary challenges faced by the institution?

The independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is ensured by various constitutional and statutory provisions. Which of the following provisions contribute to the CAG’s autonomy?
The CAG cannot be removed from office except in a manner similar to a Supreme Court judge.
The salary and allowances of the CAG are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
The CAG is appointed by the President but must be ratified by the Parliament.
After retirement, the CAG is ineligible for further government office under the Central or State governments.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation: The CAG is appointed by the President without requiring parliamentary ratification. However, provisions like security of tenure, financial autonomy, and post-retirement restrictions ensure its independence.

Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025

Syllabus:Polity

The Rajya Sabha recently passed the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025, which aims to align India’s legal framework with international conventions on aviation equipment leasing.
This legislation seeks to enhance legal security for stakeholders involved in aircraft leasing and financing.

About the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025

The bill implements provisions of the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment (Cape Town Convention, 2001) and its Protocol on Aircraft Equipment.
India became a signatory to these international agreements in 2008.
These conventions establish globally recognized legal protections for high-value mobile assets such as aircraft, helicopters, and engines, ensuring uniformity and clarity in the aviation industry.
The bill seeks to protect creditors’ rights in aviation leasing by incorporating international best practices into India’s legal system.

Key Features of the Bill

Regulatory Framework:

The Central Government is empowered to frame rules for the implementation of the Cape Town Convention and its Protocol.
The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is designated as the registry authority for registering and de-registering aircraft.

Creditor Protections and Remedies:

Creditors must notify the DGCA before initiating any remedies in case of lease defaults.
In cases of default, creditors are entitled to recover aircraft, helicopters, or engines within two months, or within a mutually agreed period.
Impact on the Aviation Leasing Industry:
By ensuring clear legal protections for lessors and financial institutions, the bill is expected to enhance India’s attractiveness as a hub for aircraft leasing.
It will reduce financial risks for leasing companies, leading to greater investment and expansion in India’s aviation sector.

Significance of the Bill

Improved Investor Confidence: The bill enhances legal certainty for foreign and domestic lessors, encouraging investment in India’s aviation industry.
Alignment with Global Standards: By complying with the Cape Town Convention, India strengthens its aviation sector’s global credibility.
Enhanced Dispute Resolution: The bill provides a clear, time-bound mechanism for creditors to reclaim aircraft assets, ensuring quicker resolution of disputes.
With this legislation, India moves closer to establishing a more secure and transparent framework for aircraft leasing, facilitating growth in its expanding aviation sector.

Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Bill, 2025:

It seeks to strengthen India’s aviation sector by providing globally recognized legal protections for high-value mobile assets.
2. The bill designates the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as the primary regulatory body for aircraft leasing in India.
3. It ensures creditors can reclaim leased aircraft within a specific time frame if a default occurs.
4. India’s compliance with this bill will enhance its credibility as an aircraft leasing hub.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2, and 3 only
(B) 1, 3, and 4 only
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The bill enhances legal security for aircraft, helicopters, and aviation equipment leasing, boosting India’s aviation industry.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), not RBI, is the registry authority responsible for aircraft registration and de-registration.

Statement 3 is correct: The bill provides creditors a two-month window (or a mutually agreed timeframe) to recover assets in case of a lease default.

Statement 4 is correct: Aligning with the Cape Town Convention improves India’s global credibility in aircraft leasing and encourages investment.

INS Tarini

Syllabus:Defence

The Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini has successfully arrived in Cape Town, South Africa, marking the fourth and final international stop in its global circumnavigation expedition, Navika Sagar Parikrama II.

INSV Tarini: A Symbol of India’s Maritime Prowess

Type: Indigenously built, 56-foot sailing vessel
Commissioned: February 2017
Built by: Aquarius Shipyard Ltd., Goa, under the Make in India initiative

Advanced Features:

Equipped with a Raymarine navigation suite
Satellite communication systems for real-time tracking
Emergency steering mechanisms to ensure operational efficiency in extreme conditions

Symbolic Significance:

Named after the Tara-Tarini hill shrine in Odisha, a revered maritime pilgrimage site for sailors
In Sanskrit, ‘Tarini’ translates to both ‘boat’ and ‘saviour’

Navika Sagar Parikrama II: India’s Global Maritime Expedition

Flagged off: October 2, 2024, from Goa by Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi, Chief of the Naval Staff
Objective: To promote women’s empowerment in ocean sailing and enhance India’s naval presence globally
Distance Covered: 23,400 nautical miles (~43,300 km)
Oceans Crossed: Three major oceans (Indian, Pacific, Atlantic)

Strategic Route:

Fremantle, Australia
Lyttelton, New Zealand
Port Stanley, Falkland Islands (UK)
Cape Town, South Africa (final stop before returning to India)

Which of the following factors make INSV Tarini suitable for extreme maritime expeditions?

It has an advanced Raymarine navigation suite for real-time tracking.
2. It is equipped with a self-righting hull design to withstand rough seas.
3. The vessel is powered by a hybrid solar-wind propulsion system to ensure sustainability.
4. It has emergency steering mechanisms for enhanced operational efficiency.

Select the correct option:

(A) 1, 2, and 4 only
(B) 1, 3, and 4 only
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

Explanation:
INSV Tarini is equipped with advanced Raymarine navigation, emergency steering mechanisms, and self-righting hull design, making it highly suitable for global expeditions. However, option (3) is incorrect as the vessel does not use a hybrid solar-wind propulsion system—it relies on traditional sailing techniques.