TOne Academy

26th april 2025 Current Affairs

Pakistan Shuts Airspace, Snaps Trade Relations with India

Syllabus: GS2/International Relations; GS3/Security

  • The recent terror attack in Pahalgam has sharply intensified tensions between India and Pakistan, prompting both nations to take a series of strong retaliatory measures.

 

 

Key Measures Taken

By India:

  • Suspension of the Indus Waters Treaty
  • Closure of the Attari-Wagah Border
  • Cancellation of the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES Visas)
  • Expulsion of Pakistani Military Advisors
  • Reduction in Diplomatic Personnel

 

By Pakistan:

  • Closure of Airspace for Indian aircraft
  • Suspension of Bilateral Trade
  • Reduction in India’s High Commission staff
  • Suspension of the Simla Agreement and all bilateral treaties
  • Visa restrictions, with exceptions for Sikh pilgrims traveling to the Kartarpur Corridor
  • Characterization of India’s Indus Treaty suspension as an ‘act of war’

 

Pakistan’s Airspace Closure: Implications

  • Understanding Airspace Rights
  • Countries hold sovereignty over their airspace, as per domestic aviation laws and international agreements.
  • In India, the DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation) governs airspace restrictions.
  • Airspace closures are officially communicated through NOTAMs (Notice to Airmen).

 

International Framework

  • Governed by the Chicago Convention, 1944 under the ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization).
  • Article 1 affirms a nation’s full control over its airspace.
  • Impact of Airspace Ban
  • Flight rerouting to Europe, North America, and the Middle East via longer paths is increasing fuel usage and costs.
  • International airfares may rise by 8–12%, burdening passengers.
  • Reflects the 2019 closure post-Balakot airstrikes, which cost Indian airlines over ₹700 crore.

 

Simla Agreement (1972)

Overview

  • A bilateral treaty signed on July 2, 1972, by Indian PM Indira Gandhi and Pakistani President Zulfikar Ali Bhutto after the 1971 India-Pakistan war, which followed India’s intervention in East Pakistan’s liberation movement.

 

Key Provisions

  • All disputes, including Kashmir, to be resolved bilaterally, without third-party mediation.
  • Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and political independence.
  • The 1971 ceasefire line in Jammu and Kashmir was converted into the Line of Control (LoC), with both sides agreeing not to alter it unilaterally.
  • Restoration of diplomatic, trade, and cultural ties, including communication and travel.
  • India released 93,000 Pakistani POWs, one of the largest wartime releases ever.
  • India also returned over 13,000 km² of captured territory, except for strategic areas like the Chorbat Valley.

With reference to the Simla Agreement of 1972, consider the following statements:

  1. It was signed between India and Pakistan after the Kargil War.
  2. The agreement mandated third-party mediation in resolving the Kashmir dispute.
  3. It led to the conversion of the ceasefire line into the Line of Control (LoC).
  4. India retained all territories it had captured during the 1971 war.

 

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

 

Answer: B. 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Simla Agreement was signed after the 1971 war, not the Kargil War (1999).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement explicitly rejected third-party involvement, stressing bilateral resolution of disputes.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The 1971 ceasefire line was renamed as the Line of Control (LoC).
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: India returned over 13,000 km² of captured territory but retained only strategic parts like the Chorbat Valley.

Combating Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) in India

Syllabus :GS 2/Health 

 

In News:

  • Health experts have raised serious concerns over the overuse of the powerful antibiotic ceftazidime-avibactam, warning that its misuse is leading to reduced therapeutic efficacy and accelerating antimicrobial resistance (AMR). The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) has been urged to implement stringent regulations to curb its inappropriate usage.

 

Understanding Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)

  • Antimicrobials — including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, and antiparasitics — are critical for treating infections in humans, animals, and plants.
    AMR occurs when microorganisms evolve to withstand these drugs, making infections harder to treat, increasing the risk of disease transmission, severe illness, disability, and mortality.
  • Though AMR is a natural evolutionary process, it is greatly accelerated by:
  • Overuse and misuse of antimicrobials in human and veterinary medicine
  • Indiscriminate application in agriculture and aquaculture
  • Poor sanitation and infection control
  • Socio-economic challenges such as poverty and lack of access to clean water.

 

India’s AMR Burden and Challenges:

  • India bears one of the highest burdens of bacterial infections globally.
  • AMR contributes to prolonged hospitalizations, higher treatment costs, intensive care admissions, and increased mortality rates.

 

Drivers of AMR in India include:

  • Inadequate regulatory oversight of antibiotic prescriptions
  • High prevalence of over-the-counter sales without prescription
  • Unregulated antibiotic use in livestock and poultry
  • Limited awareness among healthcare professionals and the public

 

Steps Taken by India

  • India is responding to the AMR crisis through multi-sectoral coordination and scientific advancements:

 

Genomic Surveillance & Institutional Collaboration:

  • The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) are leading efforts in monitoring resistance patterns and promoting rational antibiotic use.

 

New Antibiotic Discoveries:

  • Recent breakthroughs such as cefepime-enmetazobactam, cefepime-zidebactam, nafithromycin, and levodifloxacin provide new weapons against multi-drug resistant pathogens, helping reduce dependence on last-resort antibiotics like carbapenems and colistin.

 

Public Awareness Campaigns:

  • The Red Line Campaign marks all prescription-only antibiotics with a red line to caution against self-medication and overuse.

 

Antibiotic Stewardship Programs (ASPs): ICMR promotes ASPs in hospitals to guide evidence-based prescription practices and restrict unnecessary antibiotic use.

 

Way Forward:

  • India possesses a robust biotechnology ecosystem, a high burden of infectious diseases, and affordable pharmaceutical manufacturing capacity. These strengths position it to lead the global fight against AMR, particularly for low- and middle-income countries.

To effectively combat AMR, India must:

  • Strengthen policy frameworks and enforcement against antibiotic misuse.
  • Promote innovation in diagnostics, drug discovery, and surveillance.
  • Expand awareness campaigns targeting healthcare professionals and the public.
  • Regulate and optimize antibiotic use in animal husbandry and agriculture.
  • Improve infrastructure, especially sanitation and infection control systems.

 

Conclusion:

  • Tackling AMR requires a holistic, One Health approach, integrating human, animal, and environmental health. With the right governance, innovation, and societal participation, India can emerge as a global exemplar in combating antimicrobial resistance.

With reference to Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Red Line Campaign was launched to restrict over-the-counter sale of broad-spectrum antivirals.
  2. Ceftazidime-avibactam is a last-resort antibiotic increasingly misused in treating drug-resistant bacterial infections.
  3. India’s One Health approach integrates antimicrobial resistance surveillance in humans, animals, and the environment.
  4. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) leads the Antibiotic Stewardship Programs (ASPs) in tertiary hospitals.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

Answer: B. Only two

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 — Incorrect: The Red Line Campaign is targeted at antibiotics, not antivirals. It aims to curb self-medication and over-the-counter sale of prescription-only antibiotics, not broad-spectrum antivirals.
  • Statement 2 — Correct: Ceftazidime-avibactam is a potent combination antibiotic used for treating multi-drug resistant infections, especially caused by Gram-negative bacteria. It is not officially classified as last-resort (unlike colistin), but is increasingly misused, accelerating resistance.
  • Statement 3 — Correct: The One Health approach integrates surveillance and action across human, animal, and environmental health sectors, aligning with India’s response to AMR.

 

  • Statement 4 — Incorrect: Antibiotic Stewardship Programs (ASPs) are promoted primarily by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), not ICAR. ICAR is involved in regulating antimicrobial use in agriculture and livestock, not hospital-based ASPs. without gaps.

India’s Record Cargo Movement on Inland Waterways

Syllabus: GS3/Infrastructure

  • In 2024–25, India achieved a record by transporting over 145 million tonnes (MMT) of cargo through inland waterways, highlighting a significant shift toward this eco-friendly transport mode.

  • The number of National Waterways has increased from 5 to 111, with operational length expanding from 2,716 km in 2014–15 to 4,894 km by 2023–24.
  • Major infrastructure developments have included Multi-Modal Terminals (MMTs), Inter-Modal Terminals (IMTs), community and floating jetties, and the introduction of green vessels, including hybrid electric and hydrogen-powered vessels.
  • Looking ahead, under the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision, India aims to raise the Inland Water Transport (IWT) modal share from 2% to 5% and increase cargo traffic to over 200 MMT by 2030 and 500 MMT by 2047.
  • Inland waterways refer to navigable rivers, canals, creeks, and backwaters used for the domestic transportation of goods and passengers.
  • India has approximately 14,500 km of navigable waterways, with 111 declared as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016.
  • Inland waterways offer multiple advantages: economically, they significantly lower transport costs compared to road or rail; in terms of fuel efficiency, they consume 30% less fuel than road transport and 50% less than rail; environmentally, they help reduce carbon emissions and road congestion; in connectivity, they boost trade in hinterland and rural regions; and in tourism, they support ferry services and river cruises.
  • As per the National Transport Policy Committee (1980), criteria for declaring a National Waterway include navigability by mechanically propelled vessels, a channel width of around 45 meters and a depth of approximately 1.5 meters, a continuous stretch of at least 50 km, and strategic importance such as inter-state connectivity or linking major ports or underserved regions.
  • The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), established in 1986 under the IWAI Act of 1985 and operating under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, is responsible for developing and maintaining infrastructure on National Waterways, conducting feasibility studies, recommending new NW declarations, and advising the central and state governments.
  • However, the sector faces challenges such as seasonal water level variations affecting navigation, inadequate infrastructure (like dredging, terminals, and navigation aids), low industrial presence along waterways, and strong competition from road and rail transport.
  • To address these, several recent policy measures have been introduced. The Jalvahak Cargo Promotion Scheme (2024) offers financial incentives, including 35% reimbursement of actual operating costs to cargo owners for shifting cargo from road/rail to IWT, along with scheduled cargo services for reliability. In 2025, the tonnage tax regime was extended to inland vessels under the Indian Vessels Act, 2021, offering a stable tax structure based on vessel tonnage rather than profits, thereby lowering the tax burden and encouraging adoption of IWT.
  • Private investment has been enabled through the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025, which allow private players to develop inland waterway infrastructure. To streamline logistics, major terminals at Varanasi, Sahibganj, and Haldia, and the intermodal terminal at Kalughat, have been transferred to Shyama Prasad Mookerjee Port, Kolkata. A centralised digital portal, modeled on the Vahan and Sarathi systems, is being developed to register inland vessels and crew, enhancing transparency and operational planning.
  • To improve cargo density, cargo aggregation hubs are being developed, including the Freight Village at Varanasi and an Integrated Cluster-cum-Logistics Park at Sahibganj. Furthermore, over 140 Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) are actively exploring the modal shift of part of their cargo to inland waterways.
  • Going forward, the government continues to invest in inland waterways through initiatives like the Jal Marg Vikas Project, promotes public-private partnerships (PPPs), and is focused on integrating IWT into broader multimodal logistics networks for seamless and efficient transportation.

With reference to the development of Inland Waterways in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) can declare a new National Waterway without parliamentary approval if the waterway meets the criteria laid out by the National Transport Policy Committee (1980).
  2. The extension of the tonnage tax regime to inland vessels ensures taxation is based on profit margins rather than vessel capacity, thus promoting competitive freight rates.
  3. Under the Jalvahak Cargo Promotion Scheme, financial incentives are available only for public sector cargo operators who shift from road to inland waterways.
  4. The transfer of Multi-Modal Terminals (MMTs) to Shyama Prasad Mookerjee Port aims to integrate inland waterways with the broader port logistics ecosystem.

How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. Only one

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect: The IWAI does not have the authority to unilaterally declare a National Waterway. While it conducts feasibility studies and makes recommendations, only Parliament can declare a National Waterway, as seen in the National Waterways Act, 2016. The 1980 policy committee’s criteria are recommendatory, not a substitute for legislative approval.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: The tonnage tax regime replaces profit-based taxation with a system based on the carrying capacity (tonnage) of the vessel. It offers predictability and reduced tax burden, but it is not based on profit margins, nor does it directly aim to promote competitive pricing.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Jalvahak scheme is open to all cargo owners, whether public or private. The financial incentives are designed to encourage any entity shifting cargo from road/rail to inland waterways, not just public sector operators.
  • Statement 4 – Correct: The transfer of MMTs and IMTs (e.g., at Varanasi, Sahibganj, Haldia, and Kalughat) to Shyama Prasad Mookerjee Port, Kolkata is intended to ensure better integration of inland waterways with port logistics systems, supporting multimodal transport connectivity.

India Achieves Breakthrough in Gene Therapy for Haemophilia

 Syllabus: GS2/ Health, GS3/ Science and Technology

  • India’s first human gene therapy trial for hemophilia was conducted through a collaboration between the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council’s Institute for Stem Cell Science and Regenerative Medicine (BRIC-inStem) and CMC Vellore.

 

What is Hemophilia?

  • Hemophilia is a rare genetic disorder that affects the body’s ability to control blood clotting, which can lead to spontaneous bleeding as well as excessive bleeding following injuries or surgery. It is caused by a mutation in the genes responsible for making clotting factor proteins needed for blood clot formation.
  • The genes for blood clotting factors are located on the X chromosome. Males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY), while females have two X chromosomes (XX). Hemophilia is more common in males because they only have one X chromosome.

 

Types of Hemophilia

  • Hemophilia A (Classic Hemophilia):
    This type is caused by a deficiency or lack of clotting factor VIII.
  • Hemophilia B (Christmas Disease):
    This type is caused by a deficiency or lack of clotting factor IX.

 

Symptoms and Risks of Hemophilia

  • Hemophilia can lead to various complications, including:
  • Joint Bleeding: Bleeding within joints can result in chronic joint disease and pain.
  • Bleeding in the Brain: Bleeding in the brain can cause long-term neurological problems, such as seizures and paralysis.
  • Fatalities: If bleeding cannot be stopped or occurs in a vital organ like the brain, it can be fatal.

 

Treatment Options for Hemophilia

  • There are two primary approaches to treating hemophilia:
  • Preventive Treatment:
    Medicines are used to prevent bleeding episodes and subsequent damage to joints and muscles.

 

On-Demand Treatment:

  • Medicines are used to treat bleeding when it occurs, particularly during prolonged bleeding episodes.

 

Gene Therapy for Hemophilia

  • In an effort to cure severe hemophilia A, Indian scientists conducted a groundbreaking gene therapy trial. The participants in this trial received autologous hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) that were genetically modified using lentiviral vectors. These modified stem cells can produce functional Factor VIII proteins over time, significantly reducing or even eliminating the need for regular Factor VIII infusions.
  • This innovative gene therapy approach aims to offer a long-term solution for individuals with severe hemophilia by providing them with the ability to produce the clotting factor naturally from within their own cells.

 

What is Gene Therapy?

  • Gene therapy involves using genes to treat, prevent, or cure diseases. The core approaches in gene therapy include:
  • Replacing Faulty Genes: Introducing a healthy copy of a gene to replace the defective one.
  • Deactivating Harmful Genes: Turning off or silencing genes that cause disease.
  • Introducing New Genes: Adding new genes that help restore normal function or treat diseases.

 

Methods of Gene Therapy

  • Somatic Cell Gene Therapy:
    This method involves inserting therapeutic genes into somatic (non-reproductive) cells. These changes are not passed on to offspring, making them non-heritable and limited to the individual receiving treatment.
  • Germline Gene Therapy:
    Germline gene therapy targets reproductive cells (sperm or eggs), leading to genetic changes that can be inherited by future generations. However, due to significant ethical and safety concerns, germline gene therapy is banned in many countries, including India.

With reference to India’s first human gene therapy trial for hemophilia, consider the following statements:

  1. Gene therapy for hemophilia A involves the use of lentiviral vectors to genetically modify autologous hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) to produce functional Factor VIII proteins, thus reducing the need for repeated Factor VIII infusions.
  2. Hemophilia is more commonly observed in females due to the inheritance pattern associated with the X chromosome, as females possess two X chromosomes (XX).
  3. Somatic Cell Gene Therapy involves the insertion of therapeutic genes into germline cells (sperm or eggs), making the changes heritable in future generations.
  4. The primary objective of the gene therapy trial conducted by Indian scientists was to explore gene editing techniques, such as CRISPR-Cas9, to correct the mutated genes responsible for hemophilia.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. Only one

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:

The gene therapy trial for hemophilia A conducted in India involved the use of lentiviral vectors to genetically modify autologous hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs). These modified HSCs are engineered to produce functional Factor VIII proteins, significantly reducing or eliminating the need for repeated Factor VIII infusions. This approach offers long-term treatment for hemophilia A by restoring the body’s ability to produce clotting factor naturally, eliminating the frequent need for blood factor replacement.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:

Hemophilia is more commonly observed in males, not females. Males inherit only one X chromosome (XY), and if that X chromosome carries the mutation responsible for hemophilia, they will develop the condition. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes (XX), so they would need both X chromosomes to carry the mutated gene to develop hemophilia, which is extremely rare. Therefore, males are more susceptible due to the X-linked inheritance pattern.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:

Somatic Cell Gene Therapy involves inserting therapeutic genes into somatic (non-reproductive) cells. These changes are not passed on to the individual’s offspring and are non-heritable. The therapy is focused on treating the individual and not their future generations. In contrast, germline gene therapy, which targets germline cells (sperm or eggs), can lead to heritable genetic changes, but it is ethically and legally prohibited in many countries, including India, due to safety concerns.

Statement 4 – Incorrect:

The gene therapy trial conducted by Indian scientists for hemophilia A involved genetically modifying stem cells using lentiviral vectors, but there is no mention of gene editing techniques like CRISPR-Cas9 being used. The focus was on gene therapy, which replaces or modifies the defective genes responsible for hemophilia, rather than directly editing the genes. While CRISPR-Cas9 is a promising tool for gene editing, it was not a part of this particular trial.

Hydrogen Bomb a Game-Changer for Modern Warfare

Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology, Defence

Context:

  • Chinese researchers have recently tested a new type of hydrogen bomb that uses magnesium hydride to generate a sustained fireball, eliminating the need for traditional nuclear materials.

 

What is a Hydrogen Bomb?

  • A hydrogen bomb, also known as a thermonuclear bomb, typically operates in two stages:
  • Primary (Fission) Trigger:
    This stage uses fissile materials such as uranium-235 or plutonium-239 to create intense heat and pressure, which initiates the reaction.
  • Secondary (Fusion) Stage:
    The extreme conditions from the fission trigger cause isotopes of hydrogen, like deuterium and tritium, to undergo fusion. This releases a tremendous amount of energy—far greater than that of a fission-only bomb.

 

 

What is a Fissile-Free Hydrogen Bomb?

  • China’s innovation in hydrogen bomb technology has replaced the traditional fission-based trigger with advanced ignition systems, such as:
  • Inertial Confinement Fusion (ICF):
    This method uses high-powered lasers to compress and heat a hydrogen pellet to initiate fusion.
  • Magnetic Compression (Z-pinch Plasma Systems):
    This system utilizes magnetic fields to compress hydrogen isotopes and trigger fusion without needing fissile material.
  • These new technologies allow fusion reactions to occur without uranium or plutonium, making the bomb “fissile-free.”

 

Concerns and Implications

  • Legal Loopholes:
    Under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT), nuclear weapons are primarily defined by the use of fissile materials (uranium or plutonium). Fissile-free fusion bombs could circumvent these treaties, challenging the existing global nuclear arms control structure.
  • Ease of Development:
    Fusion fuels like deuterium and tritium are less regulated than fissile materials and are often embedded in civilian programs, such as energy research. This dual-use nature of fusion technology makes it more difficult to monitor and control.
  • Proliferation Risk:
    This new pathway to thermonuclear weapons could be exploited by rogue states or terrorist organizations, increasing the risk of nuclear proliferation.
  • Asymmetric Warfare Concerns:
    Compact, high-yield fusion bombs, which are non-radioactive, could be used in covert operations or gray-zone warfare. These weapons might be easily smuggled across borders and disguised as industrial accidents, making detection and response difficult.

 

Way Forward

  • Redefining International Law:
    There is a need to update the CTBT to account for non-fissile thermonuclear tests. The definition of nuclear weapons may need to be revised to focus on energy yield rather than solely on the presence of fissile material.
  • Verification Mechanisms:
    A new Fusion Weapons Verification Body (FWVB) should be created under the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). This body could function similarly to the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), ensuring that fusion-based nuclear tests are also monitored and controlled.
  • Strategic Uncertainty for India:
    With credible minimum deterrence as a cornerstone of India’s nuclear doctrine, the development of fissile-free hydrogen bombs introduces strategic uncertainty. India should invest in technologies to detect non-radiological fusion detonations, ensuring its security in an evolving nuclear landscape.

With reference to China’s recent development of a fissile-free hydrogen bomb that uses magnesium hydride, consider the following statements:

  1. The development of fissile-free hydrogen bombs bypasses the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) by not utilizing fissile materials, thus potentially leading to a loophole in nuclear arms control agreements.
  2. The Inertial Confinement Fusion (ICF) method for hydrogen bomb ignition relies on magnetic compression techniques to initiate fusion reactions without the need for uranium or plutonium.
  3. The new technology enables the use of hydrogen isotopes, such as deuterium and tritium, in a manner that circumvents traditional fission triggers, providing a significant advantage for covert nuclear operations due to the non-radioactive nature of the weapon.
  4. Asymmetric warfare concerns arise from the potential for fissile-free fusion bombs to be easily detected by existing global monitoring systems, making them more secure for use by non-state actors.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A.  Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct
The development of fissile-free hydrogen bombs indeed poses a challenge to existing nuclear arms control frameworks, particularly the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT). Since these treaties primarily target fissile materials like uranium and plutonium, the use of alternative methods that bypass these materials creates a potential loophole in the current system, enabling the development of nuclear weapons without violating the treaty’s terms.

Statement 2 – Incorrect
The Inertial Confinement Fusion (ICF) method for hydrogen bomb ignition does not rely on magnetic compression. Instead, it uses high-powered lasers to compress and heat a pellet of hydrogen isotopes, such as deuterium and tritium, to initiate fusion. Magnetic compression, on the other hand, is associated with technologies like Z-pinch plasma systems, which are a separate approach to fusion. This makes the statement incorrect in its association of ICF with magnetic compression.

Statement 3 – Correct
The new fissile-free hydrogen bomb technology allows for the use of hydrogen isotopes (deuterium and tritium) without relying on a fission trigger (uranium or plutonium). This makes the bombs non-radioactive and compact, which provides a significant advantage for covert nuclear operations. The non-radioactive nature of these bombs makes detection more difficult, enhancing their strategic flexibility and offering potential uses in gray-zone warfare.

Statement 4 – Incorrect
The concern regarding asymmetric warfare with fissile-free fusion bombs is that they are actually more difficult to detect by existing global monitoring systems due to their non-radioactive nature. Traditional nuclear test verification systems rely on detecting radiation from fissile materials, and since these bombs do not contain fissile materials, they evade detection by such methods. Therefore, the statement incorrectly claims that fissile-free bombs are easier to detect.

A New Method to Estimate Helium Abundance in the Sun

Syllabus: GS3/ Science and Technology

  • A recent study by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) has provided an accurate estimate of the helium abundance in the Sun’s photosphere.

 

Background

  • Helium, the second most abundant element in the Sun after hydrogen, plays a crucial role in the Sun’s structure and energy dynamics. However, accurately measuring its abundance in the Sun’s photosphere has been challenging due to the absence of distinct helium spectral lines in the visible range of light.
  • Historically, scientists relied on indirect data from:

 

Hotter stars

  • The solar corona and solar wind
  • Helioseismology (the study of the Sun’s internal oscillations)

 

The New Methodology

  • Researchers used high-resolution solar spectra to analyze both atomic and molecular spectral lines. They focused on the following elements and molecules:
  • Neutral magnesium (Mg) and magnesium hydride (MgH)
  • Neutral carbon (C) and its molecular forms CH and Câ‚‚.

 

How the Method Works:

  • The spectral lines of both atomic and molecular forms of magnesium and carbon are influenced by the abundance of hydrogen in the Sun’s photosphere. Any variation in the amount of helium present affects the hydrogen content.
  • When helium abundance increases, the relative abundance of hydrogen This reduction in hydrogen availability impacts the formation of molecules like MgH and CH. It also lowers the opacity of the Sun’s photosphere, which influences its overall structure and energy dynamics.

With reference to the recent study by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) on helium abundance in the Sun’s photosphere, consider the following statements:

  1. The study used high-resolution solar spectra to analyze atomic and molecular spectral lines, primarily focusing on magnesium hydride (MgH) and carbon molecules like CH and Câ‚‚.
  2. The helium content in the Sun’s photosphere is inversely related to the abundance of hydrogen, meaning an increase in helium leads to an increase in hydrogen.
  3. Traditional methods of estimating helium abundance in the Sun relied primarily on data from the solar corona, helioseismology, and spectral lines from hotter stars.
  4. The reduction in hydrogen availability due to increased helium content significantly impacts the opacity of the Sun’s photosphere, affecting its structure and energy balance.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A) 1, 3, and 4

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The study utilized high-resolution solar spectra to study atomic and molecular spectral lines of magnesium (Mg), magnesium hydride (MgH), and carbon (C), particularly focusing on CH and Câ‚‚ molecules.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The relationship between helium and hydrogen abundance is inverse; an increase in helium leads to a decrease in hydrogen, not an increase. This is because the hydrogen content influences the formation of molecules like MgH and CH.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Traditional methods indeed relied on indirect data sources, including the solar corona, helioseismology, and the study of hotter stars, due to the lack of helium spectral lines in the visible range.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The reduction in hydrogen availability due to increased helium content lowers the opacity of the Sun’s photosphere, thereby impacting the Sun’s structure and energy dynamics.

Fourth Global Bleaching Event

Syllabus: GS3/ Biodiversity and Conservation

  • The US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), in collaboration with the International Coral Reef Initiative, has confirmed that the world is currently experiencing its fourth global coral bleaching event.

 

About the Event:

  • The global bleaching-level heat stress has affected 83.7% of the planet’s coral reefs, with mass coral bleaching recorded in at least 83 countries and territories. This ongoing event is the largest of its kind to date.

 

Previous Bleaching Events

  • The first global coral bleaching event occurred in 1998.
  • The second event took place in 2010.
  • The third global bleaching event, from 2014 to 2017, affected 68.2% of the world’s reef area.

 

Future Projections:

  • Climate models predict that by 2040-2050, almost every coral reef worldwide will experience annual bleaching events.

 

Great Barrier Reef Status:

  • The Great Barrier Reef is currently undergoing its sixth mass bleaching event. This is the second consecutive bleaching episode, following those of 2016-17, largely due to prolonged marine heatwaves, particularly in the far northern and northern regions.
  • History of Bleaching in Australia
    Mass coral bleaching events in Australia have been recorded in the years: 1998, 2002, 2016, 2017, 2020, 2022, and 2024.

 

What are Corals?

  • Corals are marine invertebrates that belong to the Cnidaria group. They are formed by polyps, which are small, soft organisms that secrete a chalk-like calcium carbonate exoskeleton for protection. Over time, these polyps create vast coral reefs made of large carbonate structures. Corals come in various colors, including red, purple, and blue, but are most commonly found in shades of brown and green due to microscopic algae called zooxanthellae.
  • Coral reefs fall into three categories:
  • Fringing reefs: Formed along shorelines.
  • Barrier reefs: Located in open water.
  • Atolls: Circular reefs formed around sunken volcanoes.

 

What is Coral Bleaching?

  • Coral bleaching occurs when corals expel the zooxanthellae algae living within their tissues. These algae are vital to coral health as they provide energy to corals through photosynthesis. Without these algae, corals turn pale, become more vulnerable to starvation and disease, and may eventually die. While a bleached coral is not immediately dead, it can only recover if ocean temperatures return to normal. Previous global bleaching events have led to the death of 14% of the world’s remaining coral reefs.

 

What Triggers Coral Bleaching?

  • The primary cause of coral bleaching is climate change. A rise in ocean temperatures—often as little as 2°F—can cause corals to expel their algae. However, bleaching can also occur due to extreme low tides, pollution, or excessive sunlight.

 

Concerns

  • Coral bleaching is critical because once corals die, reefs rarely recover. With fewer corals surviving, reproduction becomes increasingly difficult, and entire reef ecosystems deteriorate. This collapse can have severe consequences for ocean health, marine life, subsistence fisheries, and tourism.

 

Impact of Coral Bleaching

  • Wildlife: Many marine species depend on coral reefs for shelter, spawning grounds, and protection. Coral reefs also support organisms at the base of the ocean’s food chain. As these ecosystems collapse, endangered species are at an even greater risk of extinction.
  • Humans: Coral reefs serve as natural barriers against waves and storm surges, protecting coastal communities. According to a 2020 estimate by the Global Coral Reef Monitoring Network, reefs contribute around $2.7 trillion annually in goods and services. Bleached corals exacerbate overfishing by disrupting food webs and reducing spawning areas for fish. Additionally, reef tourism generates billions of dollars and supports thousands of jobs.

 

 

Can Corals Recover from Bleaching?

  • Corals have the potential to recover from bleaching if environmental conditions improve. However, recovery can take years or even decades, depending on the severity of the damage. If ocean temperatures cool and conditions stabilize, the algae can return, allowing the corals to gradually regain health.

 

The Way Ahead

  • Strengthening Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) to safeguard coral ecosystems.
  • Implementing coral restoration techniques, such as coral gardening and breeding resilient species to aid recovery.
  • Advocating for global reductions in greenhouse gas emissions to mitigate rising temperatures and ocean acidification.
  • Increasing investment in research to better understand coral resilience, bleaching triggers, and recovery, along with the development of advanced monitoring technologies.

With reference to the ongoing global coral bleaching event, consider the following statements:

  1. The current global coral bleaching event is the fourth such event, with 83.7% of the world’s coral reef area affected.
  2. The Great Barrier Reef is currently undergoing its seventh mass coral bleaching event, the highest number recorded for any reef system.
  3. The first and second global coral bleaching events were triggered by marine heatwaves caused by the El Niño phenomenon in 1998 and 2010, respectively.
  4. Climate models predict that by 2040-2050, nearly every coral reef in the world will experience annual bleaching events.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A.  Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. Only two
Explanation:

  • Statement 1 (Correct): The current global coral bleaching event is indeed the fourth such event, and 83.7% of the world’s coral reef area is affected.
  • Statement 2 (Incorrect): The Great Barrier Reef is currently undergoing its sixth mass coral bleaching event, not the seventh.
  • Statement 3 (Correct): The first and second global coral bleaching events were indeed triggered by marine heatwaves associated with the El Niño phenomenon in 1998 and 2010.
  • Statement 4 (Correct): Climate models predict that by 2040-2050, almost every coral reef will experience annual bleaching events due to ongoing global warming.

Payal Kapadia Receives Prestigious French Honour

Syllabus:Awards

  • Payal Kapadia, a Mumbai-based filmmaker, has been honored with the prestigious Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres (Officer of the Order of Arts and Letters) by the French Government.
  • Kapadia’s recognition is a testament to her exceptional contribution to cinema, marking a significant milestone in her career.
  • The award was presented to her at a special ceremony held at the French Consulate in Mumbai, where she was celebrated for her innovative storytelling.
  • With this honor, Kapadia joins the ranks of renowned Indian artists such as Amitabh Bachchan, Shah Rukh Khan, and Lata Mangeshkar.
  • Her journey from indie cinema to international acclaim has been underscored by a series of prestigious awards, including her recent triumphs at Cannes and her Golden Globe nomination.

 

The French Honour

  • Payal Kapadia received the Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres, an esteemed French award that recognizes significant contributions to the world of cinema.
  • The award ceremony at the French residence in Mumbai was attended by distinguished guests, highlighting Kapadia’s growing international stature.

 

Gratitude and Acknowledgements

  • In her acceptance speech, Kapadia expressed heartfelt gratitude for the award and acknowledged the French government’s continuous support for independent cinema globally.
  • She emphasized that the honor was not only a personal achievement but also a recognition of the collective efforts of independent filmmakers worldwide.

 

Cannes Film Festival Success

  • Kapadia’s breakthrough came in 2017 when her short film Afternoon Clouds was showcased at the Cannes Film Festival. Her debut feature documentary, A Night of Knowing Nothing, won the Golden Eye award at Cannes, cementing her position in the international film industry.
  • However, it was her 2024 film All We Imagine As Light that brought her to global attention.
  • This film won the Grand Prix at the 77th Cannes Film Festival, making Kapadia the first Indian director in 30 years to receive this prestigious award in Cannes’ main competition.

 

Global Recognition

  • In addition to her success at Cannes, All We Imagine As Light was nominated for a Golden Globe and was shortlisted as France’s official entry for the Oscars’ international category.
  • Co-produced in France, the film’s unique cultural blend and distinctive storytelling have garnered widespread acclaim, solidifying Kapadia’s place in international cinema.

 

Kapadia’s Influence and Legacy

  • Kapadia’s name now joins an exclusive list of Indian artists who have received the Officer of the Order of Arts and Letters award, including Amitabh Bachchan, Shah Rukh Khan, Deepika Padukone, and Lata Mangeshkar.
  • Her rise to prominence exemplifies the increasing global recognition of Indian filmmakers, underscoring the growing influence of Indian cinema on the international stage.

With reference to Payal Kapadia’s recent recognition with the Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres (Officer of the Order of Arts and Letters) by the French Government, consider the following statements:

  1. Payal Kapadia’s recognition reflects France’s commitment to supporting independent cinema globally, as seen through its support of films such as All We Imagine As Light.
  2. Kapadia is the first Indian filmmaker in 30 years to receive the Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres award from the French government.
  3. Her success at the Cannes Film Festival includes the Grand Prix at the 77th Cannes Film Festival for her 2024 film All We Imagine As Light, which was co-produced in France.
  4. Kapadia’s film A Night of Knowing Nothing was not recognized at the Cannes Film Festival but earned significant acclaim in domestic Indian cinema.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Correct Answer: C. Only three

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: Payal Kapadia’s recognition highlights the French government’s ongoing support for independent cinema, as seen with her success at international festivals, including her 2024 film All We Imagine As Light, which was co-produced in France. This international collaboration emphasizes France’s contribution to fostering global cinematic talent.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect: While Kapadia’s achievement is significant, the claim that she is the first Indian filmmaker in 30 years to receive the Officier dans l’Ordre des Arts et des Lettres award is not entirely accurate. Other prominent Indian artists, such as Amitabh Bachchan, Shah Rukh Khan, and Lata Mangeshkar, have also received this honor in the past.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: Kapadia won the Grand Prix at the 77th Cannes Film Festival for her 2024 film All We Imagine As Light, making history as the first Indian director in 30 years to win this prestigious award. The film, which was co-produced in France, has garnered international acclaim for its cultural richness and unique storytelling.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect: A Night of Knowing Nothing, Kapadia’s debut feature documentary, was indeed recognized at the Cannes Film Festival, where it won the Golden Eye award. Therefore, the statement incorrectly asserts that the film was not acknowledged at Cannes.

India to Allow 49% Foreign Stake Investment in Nuclear Power

Syllabus: Economy

  • India is preparing to allow foreign companies to acquire up to a 49% stake in its nuclear power sector—a significant shift in one of the country’s most tightly controlled industries.
  • This move is part of a broader plan to scale up clean energy capacity, reduce coal dependence, and meet ambitious climate targets.
  • The government is expected to introduce key legislative amendments by the Monsoon Session of Parliament in July 2025 to open the nuclear sector to foreign and private domestic participation.

 

Background

  • Since 2023, the Indian government has been reassessing the foreign investment framework in the nuclear energy sector.
  • Currently, India generates about 8 GW of nuclear power—just 2% of its total installed capacity.
  • Although the 2008 Indo-US civil nuclear agreement was expected to unlock large-scale foreign involvement, concerns over India’s strict liability regime discouraged investment.
  • As India transitions away from coal, nuclear power is seen as essential, especially to meet baseload demand during non-solar hours.

 

Proposed Reforms

  1. Foreign Investment Cap
  • India is considering allowing up to 49% foreign ownership in nuclear power projects.
  • This will be under the government approval route, not automatic clearance.
  1. Legal Changes:
  • To enable foreign and private sector participation, amendments are being planned to:
  • Atomic Energy Act, 1960 – to allow private entities to participate in nuclear generation and fuel production.
  • Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 – to address concerns over unlimited liability in case of accidents.
  1. Timeline
  • These amendments are expected to be placed before the Union Cabinet
  • The target is to pass the changes during the Monsoon Session of Parliament in July 2025.

 

Strategic Goals and Industry Response

  1. Nuclear Expansion Targets

The proposed reforms are key to India’s vision of expanding nuclear capacity from 8 GW to 100 GW by 2047.

  1. Foreign Interest

Companies like Westinghouse Electric, GE-Hitachi, Electricité de France (EDF), and Rosatom have expressed interest as technology and equipment suppliers.

  1. Domestic Investment

Indian conglomerates such as Reliance Industries, Adani Power, Tata Power, and Vedanta are exploring investments worth $26 billion in nuclear energy.

  1. Tariff Negotiations

Opening the sector may also open doors for nuclear tariff negotiations with the United States, although this may not be linked to formal trade deals.

 

Challenges to Address

  • The liability clause in Indian law has long deterred international players due to fears of unlimited compensation in case of accidents.
  • The upcoming amendments aim to mitigate liability risks while balancing safety and investor confidence.

 

Conclusion:

  • India’s potential policy overhaul marks a historic turning point for its nuclear energy sector. By easing restrictions on foreign investment and reforming key laws, the country seeks to unlock massive growth in clean energy infrastructure while attracting global technology and capital.

Consider the following statements regarding India’s proposed reforms in the nuclear energy sector:

  1. The Indian government plans to allow foreign companies to hold up to a 49% stake in domestic nuclear power plants, subject to prior government approval.​
  2. The proposed amendments to the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act aim to facilitate private and foreign investment in nuclear power projects.​
  3. India’s current nuclear power generation capacity is approximately 8 GW, accounting for about 2% of the total installed electricity capacity.​
  4. The government’s target is to increase nuclear power capacity to 100 GW by 2047, with a focus on small modular reactors (SMRs).​

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. All of the above

Answer:D. All of the above

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct: India is considering allowing foreign companies to acquire up to a 49% stake in domestic nuclear power plants, subject to prior government approval. This marks a significant shift in the country’s nuclear policy.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: The government plans to amend the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act to facilitate private and foreign investment in nuclear power projects. These amendments aim to relax liability laws and enable private and foreign companies to build, own, and operate nuclear plants. ​
  • Statement 3 – Correct: India’s current nuclear power generation capacity is approximately 8 GW, accounting for about 2% of the total installed electricity capacity. This highlights the limited role of nuclear energy in the country’s energy mix. ​
  • Statement 4 – Correct: The government’s target is to increase nuclear power capacity to 100 GW by 2047, with a focus on small modular reactors (SMRs). An outlay of ₹20,000 crore has been allocated for research and development in SMRs, with at least five indigenously developed SMRs expected to be operational by 2033.

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