24 march 2025 Current Affairs

Concerns Raised over the Amendment into the RTI Act, 2005

Syllabus: GS2/Governance

Context

Over 30 civil society organizations have urged the Union government to safeguard the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, amid concerns about potential restrictions imposed by the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023.

Concerns Raised

Activists caution against fully implementing amendments that may weaken the RTI Act under the DPDP Act.
Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act now broadly prohibits disclosing personal information, even when it serves the public interest.
The government justifies the change by citing the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) case, which recognized privacy as a fundamental right.

Challenges Posed by the Amendment

Restricting access to information may hinder social audits and make it difficult to uncover corruption or misuse of public funds.
RTI requests have been instrumental in verifying government programs, such as food ration distribution and welfare schemes.
Activists argue that the original RTI framework already balanced privacy with transparency, rejecting claims that the changes align with the Supreme Court’s privacy ruling.
Right to Information Act, 2005

Objectives and Scope

Aims to enhance transparency and accountability in governance by granting citizens the right to access information from public authorities.
Applicable to government departments, ministries, and organizations substantially funded by the government.

Key Provisions

Information Access: Citizens can request government records, documents, and other relevant data.
Exemptions: Information related to national security, confidentiality, and ongoing investigations is excluded.
Response Time: Public authorities must respond within 30 days, extendable to 45 days in specific cases.
Penalties: Officials withholding information without valid reasons or providing false details may face penalties.

Significance of the RTI Act

Empowering Citizens: Enables individuals to seek information, ensuring government transparency and accountability.

Preventing Corruption: RTI has exposed fund mismanagement in schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).

Promoting Good Governance: Enhances trust in government by fostering openness in decision-making.

Facilitating Social Audits: NGOs and activists use RTI to verify government service delivery, such as the Public Distribution System (PDS).

Ensuring Public Access to Records: RTI requests help uncover inefficiencies and corruption in government contracts.

Strengthening Democracy: Encourages citizen participation in governance and policymaking.

Criticism and Challenges

Administrative Burden: High volumes of RTI requests strain public authorities, diverting resources from primary duties.

Misuse of RTI: Some requests are used for harassment or personal/political agendas.

Delays in Processing: Authorities struggle to meet response deadlines, leading to frustration among applicants.

Lack of Training and Infrastructure: Many government offices lack the expertise and resources for effective RTI implementation.

Ambiguity in Exemptions: Vaguely defined exemptions create loopholes for withholding crucial public information.

Way Forward

Parliament should define “personal information” and “public interest” more precisely.
Personal data disclosure should be permitted when it serves a greater public good, such as exposing corruption or verifying the misuse of funds.
Any amendments to the RTI Act should involve consultations with multiple stakeholders, including RTI activists, legal experts, and data protection specialists.
The government must balance privacy rights with the need for transparency to ensure democratic accountability.
The RTI Act remains a cornerstone of democracy, empowering citizens and ensuring government accountability. Its preservation is crucial for upholding transparency, reducing corruption, and promoting good governance.

With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements:

The RTI Act applies only to government departments and ministries but not to organizations that receive substantial government funding.
The Act allows disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest.
The government can reject an RTI request if the information sought affects national security or ongoing criminal investigations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The RTI Act not only applies to government departments and ministries but also covers organizations that receive substantial funding from the government (such as NGOs and public-private partnerships).

Statement 2 is correct: The RTI Act permits disclosure of personal information if it serves a larger public interest, but the recent amendment under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023 has created hurdles in this regard.

Statement 3 is correct: The Act exempts disclosure of information that affects national security, foreign relations, or ongoing investigations under Section 8(1).

Fast Track Special Courts

Syllabus: GS2/ Polity, Judiciary

Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) have emerged as a critical judicial mechanism for expediting trials related to sexual crimes, ensuring justice for survivors in a time-bound manner.
With an impressive disposal rate of 28%, these courts have significantly reduced legal delays in cases under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, and rape cases.

What are Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs)?

Definition: FTSCs are dedicated courts established in India to accelerate the judicial process for heinous crimes, particularly rape and child sexual abuse cases.

Establishment:

Initiated in 2019 under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law & Justice.

Funding Pattern:

60:40 (Centre:States) for most states and Union Territories (UTs) with a legislature.
90:10 for Northeastern and Hilly States/UTs to ensure equitable judicial access.

Operational Target:

The scheme envisions the establishment of 790 FTSCs, including specialized e-POCSO courts.

Each FTSC is expected to handle 41-42 cases per quarter, ensuring the disposal of at least 165 cases annually to reduce case backlog effectively.

Rationale for FTSCs

The Supreme Court of India (2019) mandated speedy disposal of POCSO cases, emphasizing that both the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) and POCSO Act, 2012, prescribe strict timelines for investigation and trial.
Judicial Backlog: Overburdened courts and limited judicial resources often result in prolonged trials, delaying justice and weakening deterrence against sexual crimes.
FTSCs play a crucial role in reinforcing public confidence in the judicial system by ensuring swift and effective justice.

Key Recommendations by the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA)

Continuation of the FTSC Scheme
Given their impact, FTSCs should be sustained and expanded to ensure efficient handling of cases related to sexual violence.
Strengthening Judicial Infrastructure
Special judges with expertise in POCSO cases should be appointed.
Sensitization training for judicial officers and court staff to enhance sensitivity towards survivors.

Technological Advancements in Courtrooms

Implement audio-video recording systems for secure documentation of testimonies.
Facilitate e-filing of cases and digitization of court records to improve efficiency.

Enhancing Forensic Support

Increase the number of Forensic Science Laboratories (FSLs) and train forensic professionals.
Ensure timely submission of DNA reports to accelerate trials and uphold judicial integrity.
Vulnerable Witness Deposition Centres (VWDCs)
Establish VWDCs in every district to provide a child-friendly environment for testimonies.
Appoint child psychologists at FTSCs to assist survivors throughout the judicial process.

Conclusion

Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) are instrumental in delivering swift justice in cases of sexual crimes, reducing judicial delays, and strengthening the legal framework. With continued investment in infrastructure, technology, and forensic capabilities, FTSCs can further enhance judicial efficiency and ensure justice for survivors in a timely and sensitive manner.

With reference to Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs), consider the following statements:

FTSCs were established under a directive from the Supreme Court of India in 2019.
They are fully funded by the central government under the Nirbhaya Fund.
The primary objective of FTSCs is to expedite trials related to sexual crimes, including those under the POCSO Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the Supreme Court in 2019 emphasized the need for speedy disposal of sexual offense cases, FTSCs were initiated as a policy decision by the government, not solely under the Supreme Court’s directive.

Statement 2 is incorrect: FTSCs are not fully funded by the central government; they are partially funded under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a 60:40 (Centre:State) funding ratio for most states and 90:10 for hilly and northeastern states.

Statement 3 is correct: The main objective of FTSCs is to ensure speedy trials for rape and POCSO-related cases to enhance justice delivery.

Sub-categorisation of SCs in Andhra Pradesh

Syllabus: GS 2/Governance

The Andhra Pradesh Cabinet approved the one-member commission’s recommendations on the sub-categorisation of SCs to ensure equitable distribution of reservation benefits.
The demand for sub-categorisation has existed for over 30 years, with previous efforts including the Justice Ramachandra Rao Commission (1996).
Understanding Sub-Categorisation of SCs
Sub-categorisation divides the SC category into smaller sub-groups to ensure a fair distribution of reservation benefits in education, employment, and affirmative action.

Historical Context & Supreme Court Rulings

In 1975, Punjab issued a notification giving first preference in SC reservations to Balmiki and Mazhabi Sikh communities, which was challenged in 2004 after a similar Andhra Pradesh law was struck down in E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004).
The Supreme Court in E.V. Chinnaiah ruled that SCs and STs form a single, indivisible class under Article 341/342 and that states cannot sub-classify or create internal quotas within SC/ST reservations.
In 2020, the Supreme Court reconsidered E.V. Chinnaiah, acknowledging “unequals within the list of SCs” and citing Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta (2018), which extended the “creamy layer” concept to SCs.
In 2024, the Supreme Court ruled that sub-classification within SCs and STs is allowed, clarifying that Article 341 does not prevent sub-classification but only limits the President’s power to add or exclude SC groups.

Arguments in Favour of Sub-Categorisation

Some SC communities remain underrepresented despite reservation, justifying separate quotas within SC/ST categories.
The SC category includes groups with vastly different socio-economic conditions, requiring sub-classification to address disparities.
Article 14 (Right to Equality) allows sub-classification to ensure substantive equality among SC/ST groups.
A caste census could provide accurate data to assess representation and correct inequities in reservation distribution.

Arguments Against Sub-Categorisation

Sub-categorisation may be politically misused to alter quotas based on vote-bank politics rather than social justice.
It may violate constitutional intent, as the President’s list of SCs can only be changed by Parliament.

Conclusion & Way Forward

States now have legal backing to sub-categorise SCs but must ensure transparency, data-driven policy-making, and judicial oversight to prevent misuse.
Sub-categorisation must be based on quantifiable and demonstrable data rather than political motives to ensure equitable distribution of benefits.
Excluding the “creamy layer” within SC/STs from reservation benefits could help ensure that affirmative action reaches the most disadvantaged groups.

Consider the following statements regarding the sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes (SCs) in India:

The Supreme Court in E.V. Chinnaiah (2004) ruled that States have the power to sub-categorise SCs for ensuring equitable reservation benefits.
The 2024 Supreme Court ruling clarified that Article 341 does not prevent sub-classification within SCs and STs.
Sub-categorisation aims to provide a separate quota within SC reservations for communities that remain underrepresented.
The power to include or exclude a community from the SC list rests solely with the State Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because in E.V. Chinnaiah (2004), the Supreme Court held that SCs form a single, indivisible class and States cannot create sub-classifications.

Statement 2 is correct as the 2024 Supreme Court ruling stated that Article 341 does not prevent sub-classification but only limits the President’s power to add or remove SC groups.

Statement 3 is correct because the purpose of sub-categorisation is to ensure that the most disadvantaged communities within SCs receive a fair share of reservation benefits.

Statement 4 is incorrect as only the President, in consultation with Parliament, has the authority to include or exclude a group from the SC list under Article 341.

Production Linked Incentive Scheme

Syllabus: GS3/ Economy & Development

The government has decided not to extend the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme beyond the existing 14 sectors due to underperformance in some areas and delays in incentive payouts.

Key Developments

Out of the $23 billion allocated, only $1.73 billion (8%) has been disbursed as of October 2024.
The scheme has generated $151.93 billion worth of goods—just 37% of the original target.
Major firms, including Foxconn, Reliance, and Adani, faced delays, unmet targets, or non-compliance.
The government has rejected requests to extend deadlines or include new sectors.
About the PLI Scheme
Launch: Introduced in 2020 under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry with an outlay of ₹1.97 lakh crore.
Sectors Covered: 14 sectors, including Mobile Manufacturing, Pharmaceuticals, Automotive, ACC Battery, Telecom, White Goods, and Solar.

Objectives:

Provide incentives on incremental sales for five years under the Make in India
Reduce dependence on foreign imports, particularly from China.
Boost employment, particularly in labor-intensive sectors.
Increase manufacturing’s share of GDP to 25% by 2025.

Incentive Mechanism:

4–6% incentives on incremental sales over a base year.
Available to both domestic and foreign companies registered in India.

Benefits of the PLI Scheme

Electronics Manufacturing: India produced $49 billion worth of mobile phones in FY 2023–24; Apple now manufactures high-end models in India.
Pharmaceutical Industry: Exports nearly doubled to $27.85 billion compared to a decade ago.
FDI Inflows: Attracted foreign investments and supported India’s ‘China Plus One’ strategy.
Strategic Growth: Encouraged production in key sectors like semiconductors and solar modules.

Challenges and Concerns

Low Incentive Disbursement: Only 8% of allocated funds disbursed despite achieving production targets.
Delayed Subsidy Payments: Slow disbursement affects cash flow for participating firms.
Unmet Production Targets: Many companies failed to start or expand operations.
Bureaucratic Hurdles: Rigid compliance norms and administrative delays hinder implementation.
Manufacturing Growth Decline: Manufacturing’s share in GDP dropped from 15.4% (2020) to 14.3% (2024).

Consider the following statements regarding the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme:

The scheme provides incentives based on absolute production rather than incremental sales.
It was launched in 2020 to promote domestic manufacturing and reduce import dependency.
The PLI scheme covers more than 20 sectors, including semiconductors and medical devices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme provides incentives on incremental sales, not absolute production. Companies must show an increase over the base year’s output to qualify for benefits.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme was launched in 2020 under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry to boost domestic manufacturing and reduce reliance on imports, particularly from China.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme covers 14 sectors, not more than 20. These include electronics, pharmaceuticals, automobiles, telecom, and solar modules, but not semiconductors (which fall under a separate incentive program).

1st Glacier Declared Dead from Climate Change

Syllabus: GS3/Environment and Conservation

Satellite imagery spanning more than three decades has confirmed the disappearance of Iceland’s Okjökull Glacier. It was the first glacier to be officially declared dead due to human-induced climate change in 2014.

About Okjökull Glacier

Okjökull Glacier was located around the summit crater of Ok, a 1,200-meter-high shield volcano, approximately 71 kilometers northwest of Reykjavík, Iceland. Historically, it was a dome-shaped glacier, but climate change has led to its complete disappearance.

Global Efforts to Memorialize Vanishing Glaciers

In 2023, Iceland established the world’s first iceberg graveyard, commemorating 15 glaciers listed as either dead or critically endangered on the Global Glacier Casualty List. This list includes Anderson Glacier in Washington State, USA, which was declared dead in 2015, making it the first such glacier loss in the United States.

United Nations Initiatives

Recognizing the urgent need for action, the United Nations declared 2025 as the International Year of Glaciers’ Preservation. March 21st was designated as World Day for Glaciers, starting from 2025.
The Cryosphere: Earth’s Frozen Reservoir
The cryosphere refers to all frozen water on Earth. The term derives from the Greek word kryos, meaning frost or ice cold. It includes glaciers, ice sheets, ice shelves, icebergs, sea ice, lake ice, river ice, permafrost, snow cover, and solid precipitation.

Major Ice Sheets on Earth

The Greenland Ice Sheet and the Antarctic Ice Sheet contain more than 70 percent of the world’s freshwater ice. Ice on these sheets exceeds two kilometers in thickness.

Key Facts About the Cryosphere

Seventy percent of Earth’s freshwater exists as snow or ice. Ten percent of the Earth’s land area is covered by glaciers or ice sheets.
Hindu Kush Himalaya: The Water Tower of Asia
The Hindu Kush Himalayan region spans approximately 3,500 kilometers across Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Nepal, Myanmar, and Pakistan. It is known as the Water Tower of Asia because it is the source of ten major river systems, including the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus, Yangtze, and Mekong.
These rivers provide freshwater to 240 million people directly in the region and support one-fourth of the world’s population through their basins.
Melting Crisis in the Hindu Kush Himalaya
The Hindu Kush Himalayan cryosphere is warming at twice the global average rate. This increases the risk of glacial lake outburst floods, which pose severe hazards to downstream communities.

Role of the Cryosphere in Climate and Ecology

The cryosphere reflects sunlight through the albedo effect, helping regulate Earth’s temperature. It stores freshwater in glaciers and ice sheets, controlling sea levels. It plays a vital role in the global water cycle by feeding rivers and groundwater through seasonal melting. It provides a habitat for unique species such as polar bears, penguins, and snow leopards. It acts as an indicator of climate change, as it is highly sensitive to temperature variations.

Threats to the Cryosphere and Global Consequences

Global warming is causing widespread ice loss, accelerating the melting of glaciers, ice caps, and sea ice. Melting ice is contributing to rising sea levels, threatening coastal communities worldwide. Habitat loss is affecting marine ecosystems dependent on sea ice.

Permafrost thawing is releasing stored methane and carbon dioxide, worsening global warming. Changing snow and ice patterns are disrupting water availability for agriculture, hydropower, and human consumption.

Global Efforts to Protect the Cryosphere

The Paris Agreement of 2015 aims to limit global temperature rise to below two degrees Celsius, preferably 1.5 degrees Celsius, to prevent further cryosphere degradation. The International Cryosphere Climate Initiative was formed during COP-15 in 2009 to work with governments and scientists to preserve the cryosphere.
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change highlights the urgent need for mitigation and adaptation strategies. The National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem is part of India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change and aims to protect the Himalayan ecosystem.
The World Meteorological Organization’s CryoNet is a global monitoring system tracking ice mass loss and cryosphere changes. The Arctic Council is a collaborative forum for Arctic nations to address climate-related issues in the polar region. Global ice monitoring programs such as the Global Cryosphere Watch and the European Space Agency’s CryoSat Mission provide data on ice loss.

Conclusion

The cryosphere plays a critical role in regulating global climate, providing freshwater, and sustaining biodiversity. Its rapid degradation due to climate change poses severe threats to ecosystems, human populations, and global stability. Preserving the cryosphere is essential for ensuring a sustainable future for all life on Earth.

Consider the following statements regarding the Okjökull Glacier:

It was the first glacier in the world to be officially declared dead due to anthropogenic climate change.
It was a part of the Greenland Ice Sheet before completely melting in 2014.
The disappearance of Okjökull led to the formation of the world’s first iceberg graveyard in Iceland.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Okjökull was the first glacier to be officially declared dead due to climate change in 2014.

Statement 2 is incorrect. It was not part of the Greenland Ice Sheet but was a small glacier in Iceland, located on the Ok volcano.

Statement 3 is correct. Iceland created the world’s first iceberg graveyard in 2023 to memorialize glaciers that have vanished or are critically endangered.

Progress on GM Food Crops: DBT Official

Syllabus: GS3/S&T, Agriculture

India’s bio-economy has seen remarkable growth, playing a crucial role in biotech research, including GM crops.

Key Statistics (as per India Bioeconomy Report 2025):

Grew 16-fold from $10 billion in 2014 to $165.7 billion in 2024.
Contributes 4.25% to India’s GDP.
Achieved a CAGR of 17.9% over the last four years.

Major Sectors in the Bio-Economy:

Bio-Industry (Enzymes, Biofuels, Bioplastics): 47%
Biopharma (Medicines, Diagnostics): 35%
Bio IT & Research Services (Clinical Trials, Contract Research): 9%
Bio-Agriculture (Including GM crops): 8.1%

State-wise Contribution:

Maharashtra – $35 billion (21%)
Karnataka – $32 billion (19%)
Telangana – $19 billion (12%)

Biotech Startups & Future Growth:

10,075 biotech startups in 2024, expected to grow to 22,500 by 2030.
Estimated to create 35 million jobs by 2030.

Advantages of GM Crops

Higher Yields – Helps improve agricultural productivity and food security.
Reduced Pesticide Use – Pest-resistant crops like Bt Cotton lower pesticide dependency.
Climate Resilience – GM crops with drought and salinity tolerance can withstand extreme conditions.

Nutritional Enhancement – Biofortified crops like Golden Rice help combat malnutrition.

Challenges & Concerns

Environmental Impact – GM crops may affect biodiversity, soil health, and pollinators.
Health Risks – Long-term health effects remain a topic of debate.
Farmer Dependency – GM seeds are patented, increasing reliance on multinational corporations.
Ethical & Religious Issues – Some communities oppose genetic modification for cultural reasons.

Regulatory Framework & Policies in India

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) – The primary regulatory body for GM crops.
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) – Regulates GM food imports.
Environment Protection Act, 1986 – Covers rules on GM organisms and hazardous microorganisms.
BioE3 Policy – Aims to enhance biotech applications in agriculture, including GM mustard.
BioSaarthi Program – Connects biotech startups with international mentors to drive innovation.

Global Perspective on GM Crops

Countries like the USA, Brazil, and China – Have widely adopted GM crops.
EU and India – Maintain a cautious approach due to public concerns and regulatory hurdles.
Scientific Community vs. Activists – While scientists highlight potential benefits, activists warn of risks.

Conclusion

GM crops represent a significant step in agricultural biotechnology, with potential benefits in food security and climate resilience. However, environmental, health, and socio-economic concerns necessitate a balanced regulatory approach. As India advances in its bio-economy, a well-defined policy framework is crucial for sustainable GM crop adoption.

With reference to Genetically Modified (GM) crops, consider the following statements:

GM crops can be designed to exhibit drought and salinity tolerance through genetic modification.
Golden Rice is a genetically modified crop that contains enhanced levels of Vitamin D.
India has commercially approved both Bt Cotton and Bt Brinjal for large-scale cultivation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

GM crops can indeed be engineered for drought and salinity resistance (Statement 1 is correct).
Golden Rice is fortified with Vitamin A, not Vitamin D (Statement 2 is incorrect).
Bt Brinjal was approved in 2010 but later banned, while Bt Cotton remains the only commercially cultivated GM crop in India (Statement 3 is incorrect).

Kaliyattam Festival

Syllabus: GS1-Culture

The Kaliyattam festival, also known as Theyyam, is celebrated during the Malayalam month of Kumbham (February-March). It is a vibrant ritualistic festival dedicated to the worship of Goddess Kali and is deeply rooted in Kerala’s intangible cultural heritage.

Key Features:

Sacred Venues: The festival is primarily observed in Kavus (sacred groves) and tharavadus (ancestral households).
Ritual Dance Performances: Theyyam performers don elaborate costumes and face paint, embodying different deities.
Spiritual Significance: During the performances, the artists are believed to become living embodiments of the divine, earning Theyyam the title of the “dance of gods” or “dance of the divine”.

With reference to the Kaliyattam festival, consider the following statements:

It is primarily associated with the worship of Lord Shiva in Kerala.
The festival is mainly celebrated in sacred groves and ancestral households.
Theyyam performances involve elaborate costumes and ritualistic dance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Kaliyattam festival (Theyyam) is primarily dedicated to the worship of Goddess Kali, not Lord Shiva. It is performed in Kavus (sacred groves) and tharavadus (ancestral households), with dancers embodying divine figures through elaborate costumes and ritualistic performances.

Madras High Court on the NIRF Ranking

Syllabus :GS 2/Governance

Context

The Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court has temporarily restrained the Ministry of Education and the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) from publishing the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2025.

About NIRF

Launched in 2015 by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) under the Ministry of Education.
It annually ranks higher education institutions in India across various categories.
Institutions submit data on parameters such as student and staff strength, salaries, graduation index, placements, and research funding via the NIRF portal.
Significance of NIRF
Informed Decision-Making – Assists students in selecting institutions based on performance and ranking across disciplines.
Quality Assessment – Establishes a standardized benchmark for evaluating higher education institutions.
Multi-Dimensional Evaluation – Uses a broad set of criteria to assess institutional performance.
Encourages Competition – Motivates institutions to enhance academic and research standards.
Policy Planning – Provides data-driven insights for policymakers to improve the education sector.

Criticism and Challenges

Ranking Disparities – The methodology may not adequately capture qualitative aspects of education.
Over-Reliance on Quantitative Data – Heavy emphasis on numerical indicators like placements and salaries can overshadow holistic academic excellence.
Institutional Bias – Well-established institutions may have an advantage over emerging ones due to historical reputation and resources.
Self-Reported Data – Institutions upload their own data, raising concerns about accuracy and potential manipulation.
Limited International Benchmarking – The framework does not fully align with global ranking systems like QS World Rankings and Times Higher Education Rankings.
The ongoing legal developments highlight concerns regarding transparency, accuracy, and methodology in institutional rankings. The outcome of the court’s decision could influence future ranking policies in India.

With reference to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), consider the following statements:

It is administered by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) under the University Grants Commission (UGC).
The ranking methodology primarily relies on self-reported data submitted by institutions.
NIRF rankings are internationally recognized and directly influence global rankings such as QS and Times Higher Education Rankings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: NIRF is administered by the National Board of Accreditation (NBA) but it functions under the Ministry of Education, not the UGC.

Statement 2 is correct: Institutions self-report data on various parameters such as student strength, placements, and research output, raising concerns over transparency and data manipulation.

Statement 3 is incorrect: NIRF rankings are not internationally recognized and do not influence global rankings like QS and Times Higher Education Rankings, which use different methodologies.

Eklavya Schools

Syllabus: GS2/Education/Governance

Recent Developments

A parliamentary panel on social justice has urged the Union government to expedite the centralization process of Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS).

About EMRS

Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) are a network of government-run institutions established to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribe (ST) students residing in remote and rural areas.

Key Features

Targeted Coverage: Every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons will have an EMRS.

Expansion Plan: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs aims to set up 728 EMRSs across India by 2026.

Establishment: Introduced in 1997-98 by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Curriculum: Follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), covering education from the elementary level to Class 12.

Facilities Provided

Fully Residential Schooling: Boarding and lodging facilities.
Free Education: Includes uniforms, textbooks, and essential learning materials.
Holistic Development: Sports, cultural activities, and vocational skill training to enhance employability.

Funding Mechanism

The Ministry of Tribal Affairs funds EMRSs through grants allocated under Article 275(1) of the Indian Constitution, ensuring financial support for their establishment and operation.

Consider the following statements regarding Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS):

EMRSs were introduced under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to enhance tribal education.
These schools are fully funded by the Ministry of Education under the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.
Every block with more than 50% Scheduled Tribe (ST) population and at least 20,000 tribal persons is eligible for an EMRS.
The curriculum of EMRS follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: EMRS was introduced in 1997-98 under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not under NEP 2020.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The schools are funded by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the Ministry of Education, and the funds come under Article 275(1) of the Constitution.

Statement 3 is correct: The criteria for establishing an EMRS include 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons in a block.

Statement 4 is correct: EMRS follows the National Curriculum Framework (NCF) for education.

Rise in Tobacco Exports

Syllabus: GS2/ Health

Context:

India’s tobacco exports have doubled in the past four years due to increasing global demand and rising prices, driven by declining production in key tobacco-producing nations such as Brazil and Zimbabwe.

Overview of Tobacco Cultivation in India:

Tobacco is a significant commercial crop cultivated under diverse agro-ecological conditions across India.
It is a drought-tolerant, hardy, and short-duration crop, making it suitable for cultivation even on marginal lands where other crops may not be profitable.
Despite occupying only 24% to 0.3% of India’s total arable land, tobacco farming remains a highly labour-intensive and economically rewarding activity compared to food crops.

Major Tobacco-Producing States:

Andhra Pradesh
Karnataka
Gujarat
Uttar Pradesh
Tamil Nadu
Bihar
West Bengal

Types of Tobacco Grown in India:

Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) – Used primarily in cigarettes.
Bidi Tobacco – Used in the production of bidis.
Cigar Filler Tobacco – Used for making cigars.
Hookah and Chewing Tobacco – Consumed in various forms, including gutkha and khaini.

Production and Global Standing:

India is the second-largest producer of tobacco globally, following China.
It is also the third-largest exporter, after Brazil and China, playing a crucial role in the global tobacco trade.

With reference to tobacco cultivation in India, consider the following statements:

Tobacco is a highly water-intensive crop and requires heavy irrigation for optimal growth.
India is the largest producer and exporter of tobacco in the world.
The cultivation of Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is primarily concentrated in Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tobacco is a drought-tolerant crop, meaning it does not require heavy irrigation. It can grow even in marginal lands where other crops may not thrive.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While India is the second-largest producer of tobacco after China, it is the third-largest exporter, following Brazil and China.

Statement 3 is correct: Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco, which is used in cigarettes, is predominantly cultivated in Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

Farm Distress Index

Syllabus: GS3/Agriculture

A pilot study titled “Agrarian Distress and PM Fasal Bima Yojana: An Analysis of Rainfed Agriculture” was conducted in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh during 2020-21 and 2021-22 to assess farmer distress. However, a systematic national-level assessment of the Farmers’ Distress Index (FDI) is currently unavailable.

Farmers’ Distress Index (FDI):

FDI is a comprehensive assessment tool designed to identify and address the root causes of agrarian distress, including climate variability, price volatility, and farmers’ risk-bearing capacity.

Objective:

To develop a user-friendly predictive tool that helps policymakers, researchers, and farmers anticipate and mitigate agrarian distress.

Key Parameters of FDI:

Exposure to Risk: Climate shocks, pest attacks, droughts, floods, and market fluctuations.
Adaptive Capacity: Farmers’ ability to cope with adverse conditions through technology, financial resources, and knowledge.
Sensitivity: The vulnerability of different farming communities based on socio-economic and geographical factors.
Mitigation and Adaptation Strategies: Government policies, crop insurance schemes, irrigation systems, and community-based support.
Triggers: Sudden economic or environmental changes that lead to distress.
Psychological Factors: Mental health and financial stress experienced by farmers.
Impacts: The long-term consequences on livelihoods, food security, and migration patterns.
Purpose and Significance:
Targeted Government Intervention: Helps ensure that relief measures reach the most affected regions.
Early Warning System: Provides alerts three months in advance, allowing proactive measures to be taken.
Planning Tool: Assists policymakers in developing localized solutions to mitigate distress.

The Farmers’ Distress Index is a crucial step towards improving agricultural resilience and rural well-being, ensuring timely intervention and sustainable farming practices.

Consider the following statements regarding the Farmers’ Distress Index (FDI):

It is a tool developed to assess farmer distress based on parameters such as climate variability, price fluctuations, and psychological factors.
The index is designed to provide real-time intervention measures at the national level.
It includes parameters like adaptive capacity, mitigation strategies, and sensitivity to external shocks.
The Farmers’ Distress Index is officially integrated into India’s agricultural policy and implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Farmers’ Distress Index (FDI) is designed to assess distress based on multiple parameters such as climate risks, market fluctuations, and psychological factors.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The index is not a real-time intervention tool, but rather a predictive model aimed at early warning and proactive policy planning.

Statement 3 is correct. It incorporates adaptive capacity, mitigation strategies, and sensitivity as key indicators.

Statement 4 is incorrect. While FDI is being studied and piloted, it has not yet been officially integrated into national agricultural policy.