22 march 2025 Current Affairs

Project Pari

Syllabus: GS 1/Culture

Public Art of India (PARI) Project

The PARI project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Culture to promote and enrich India’s public art landscape. It is implemented by the Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA).
The project showcases the country’s diverse regional art forms, including Phad, Thangka, Gond, and Warli, featuring the work of over 200 artists.
Currently, the PARI project is operational only in Delhi, where it aims to foster public engagement through artistic expression. It encourages dialogue and reflection by integrating India’s rich cultural heritage with contemporary themes.
As part of the government’s broader efforts, the initiative provides incentives to talented artists, ensuring the preservation and promotion of India’s artistic traditions in modern public spaces.

With reference to the “Public Art of India (PARI) Project”, consider the following statements:

The project is implemented by the Ministry of Culture in collaboration with private institutions.
It primarily focuses on integrating India’s ancient art traditions with modern artistic expressions.
As of now, the project has been implemented in multiple cities across India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The project is implemented by the Ministry of Culture but executed through Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA), not private institutions.

Statement 2 is correct: PARI aims to blend India’s rich cultural heritage with contemporary themes, making it a fusion of traditional and modern art.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Currently, the project is limited to Delhi and has not yet been expanded to other cities.

Swadesh Darshan Scheme

Syllabus: GS2/Governance, Schemes

Context

The Public Accounts Committee (PAC), chaired by C. Venugopal, has raised concerns over the poor execution of the Swadesh Darshan scheme by the Ministry of Tourism.
The observations were based on a report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
Despite the Ministry’s claims that most sanctioned projects were completed, the PAC identified significant discrepancies in project implementation.

Swadesh Darshan Scheme

Launched: 2014-15, as a flagship scheme under the Ministry of Tourism.
Revamped: As Swadesh Darshan 2.0, with a focus on sustainable and responsible tourism, adopting a tourist-centric approach.
Theme-Based Tourist Circuits:
- Spiritual Circuits (e.g., Char Dham Yatra, Buddhist Circuit)
- Cultural Circuits (e.g., North East Circuit, Tribal Circuit)
- Heritage Circuits
- Wildlife Circuits
- Coastal Circuits
Funding: The Ministry of Tourism provides financial support to States and Union Territories for circuit development.

Key Issues Identified by PAC

Lapses in Planning: No feasibility studies were conducted before launching projects.
Financial Mismanagement:
- Budget overruns due to inadequate planning.
- Approvals granted without Detailed Project Reports (DPRs).
Weak Monitoring:
- No structured mechanism for project evaluation.
- Delays and incomplete projects despite claims of completion.
Discrepancy in Completion Claims:
- The Ministry claimed 75 out of 76 projects were completed.
- However, PAC found that key projects like the Kanwaria Route in Bihar, Tribal Circuit in Telangana, and Sree Narayana Guru Ashram in Kerala were either incomplete or non-functional.

Recommendations & Way Forward

The Ministry of Tourism has been directed to physically inspect all projects and submit a detailed report within three weeks.
The Ministry must provide data on:
- The scheme’s impact on employment generation.
- Changes in tourist footfall, as key indicators of the scheme’s success.

About the Public Accounts Committee (PAC)

Constitutional Status

Not a constitutional body.
Formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.

Composition

22 Members:
- 15 from Lok Sabha
- 7 from Rajya Sabha
Elected annually by Parliament.
Chairperson: Appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, typically from the opposition party.

Functions

Examines audit reports submitted by the CAG of India.
Scrutinizes public expenditure to prevent extravagance and irregularities.
Ensures accountability of the Executive to the Legislature.
Works alongside CAG to uphold fiscal discipline and transparency.

With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements:

It is a constitutional body established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
The Chairperson of the PAC is always from the ruling party.
PAC is responsible for examining the reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
The PAC can take suo-motu cognizance of financial irregularities and initiate investigations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 3 only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: PAC is not a constitutional body; it is formed under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chairperson is usually from the opposition party, not the ruling party.
Statement 3 is correct: The PAC examines audit reports of CAG and scrutinizes public expenditure.
Statement 4 is incorrect: PAC cannot take suo-motu cognizance; it works based on reports submitted by the CAG.

Corbett Tiger Reserve

Syllabus: Environment

Recent Developments

The Supreme Court recently criticized the Uttarakhand government for its slow action against senior officials accused of illegal constructions within the Corbett Tiger Reserve.

About Corbett Tiger Reserve

Location: Situated in the foothills of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand.
Establishment:
- Established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, making it India’s first national park.
- Renamed Corbett National Park in 1957 to honor Jim Corbett, a renowned conservationist and naturalist.
Area:
- Initially designated as a national park, later expanded to cover 1,288.31 sq. km as a Tiger Reserve.
Topography:
- Characterized by an undulating terrain with multiple valleys.
- Major rivers: Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi.
- Predominantly located in the Bhabar and lower Shivalik regions, featuring porous soil, boulder deposits, and a deep water table.

Flora

Dominated by Sal forests, along with Sheesham and Kanju trees, particularly along ridges.
Grasslands (locally called ‘Chaur’) are remnants of abandoned settlements and clearings.
Riparian vegetation thrives along riverbanks.
Invasive species: Lantana, an aggressive weed, poses a significant ecological challenge.

Fauna

Flagship species: Tigers and elephants.
Other carnivores: Leopards, small carnivores.
Herbivores: Sambar, hog deer, spotted deer.
Avifauna: A diverse range of bird species.
Reptiles: Gharials, crocodiles.
Aquatic life: Rich fish diversity in reserve rivers.

Consider the following statements regarding the Corbett Tiger Reserve:

It was originally established as Corbett National Park in 1936 and later renamed Hailey National Park in 1957.
The reserve is predominantly located in the Terai region of Uttarakhand.
The Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi rivers flow through the reserve.
Lantana, an invasive species, poses a serious ecological threat to the reserve’s biodiversity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The park was originally established as Hailey National Park in 1936, later renamed Corbett National Park in 1957.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The reserve is predominantly located in the Bhabar and lower Shivalik regions, not the Terai region.
Statement 3 is correct: Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi are the major rivers that flow through the reserve.
Statement 4 is correct: Lantana, an invasive weed, has spread extensively in the forest and poses a significant ecological challenge.

Samarth Incubation Programme

Syllabus: Government Policies

The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT), an autonomous Telecom R&D centre under the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Government of India, has launched the ‘Samarth’ incubation programme to support emerging startups in the telecom sector.

Objectives:

Foster innovation in telecom software, cybersecurity, 5G and 6G technologies, artificial intelligence (AI), Internet of Things (IoT), and quantum technologies.
Promote sustainable and scalable business models by providing access to advanced resources.
Bridge the gap between ideation and commercialization for startups.

Key Features:

Implementation Partner: Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) has been selected to execute the programme.
Mode of Delivery: Hybrid mode with both online and offline engagement.

Cohort Structure:

Each program will accommodate 18 startups, with a total of 36 startups across two cohorts (each lasting six months).

Eligibility: Open to DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) recognized startups.

Support for Startups:

A grant of up to ₹5 lakh per selected startup.
Six months of office space at the C-DoT campus.
Access to C-DoT lab facilities.
Mentorship from C-DoT technical leaders and industry experts.

Future Prospects: Startups demonstrating significant progress may receive further opportunities under the C-DoT Collaborative Research Program.

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Samarth’ Incubation Programme launched by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT):

It is an initiative to support startups specifically in 5G and 6G technologies, without extending to other domains like cybersecurity or AI.
The programme is being implemented in collaboration with Software Technology Parks of India (STPI).
Only startups that have been recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) are eligible for the programme.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Samarth Incubation Programme supports startups not only in 5G and 6G technologies but also in cybersecurity, AI, IoT, and quantum technologies.
Statement 2 is correct: The Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) is the implementation partner for the programme.
Statement 3 is correct: Only DPIIT-recognized startups are eligible for the incubation support.

Finance Commission

Syllabus: Polity

The Finance Commission (FC) is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
It is formed every five years by the President of India to recommend the financial distribution between the Centre and States.

Composition:

Chairman: An expert in public affairs.
Four Members: Experts in finance, economics, and administration.

Functions:

Vertical Devolution: Determines the state’s share in the central divisible pool of taxes (e.g., GST, income tax).
Horizontal Distribution: Allocates funds among states based on factors like fiscal needs, revenue-generating capacity, and developmental performance.
Grants-in-Aid: Recommends grants to revenue-deficient states and specific sectors in need of financial assistance.

16th Finance Commission

Constituted in 2023, it will recommend financial distribution for the period April 1, 2026 – March 31, 2031.
Expected to address states’ financial concerns, including demands for Special Category Status (SCS).

Special Category Status (SCS): Understanding the Demand

What is SCS?

Special Category Status (SCS) is a classification granted to states facing severe economic and geographical disadvantages to provide them with additional central assistance.
It was introduced in 1969 based on the Gadgil Formula, recommended by the 5th Finance Commission (Mahavir Tyagi).
Initially granted to Assam, Jammu & Kashmir, and Nagaland.

Criteria for Special Category Status (As per Gadgil Formula):

A state must meet the following conditions:

Hilly and difficult terrain.
Low population density and/or a significant tribal population.
Strategic location along international borders.
Economic and infrastructural backwardness.
Non-viable state finances.

Evolution and States with SCS

Initially granted to three states (1969), later expanded.
Currently, 11 states hold SCS:
- Northeast states: Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and Sikkim.
- Hilly states: Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
- Telangana: Granted due to bifurcation from Andhra Pradesh.

States Demanding SCS:

Andhra Pradesh (Due to bifurcation).
Bihar (Citing economic backwardness).
Odisha (Due to natural disaster vulnerability and underdevelopment).

Benefits of Special Category Status (SCS):

Higher Central Assistance:

90% of funds as grants and 10% as loans for Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS).
Non-SCS states receive only 30% grants and 70% loans.

Special Plan Assistance:

Dedicated funding for state-specific projects of strategic importance.

Non-Lapsable Funds:

Unused funds do not lapse at the end of the financial year, ensuring continuity in funding.

Tax Concessions:

Special tax incentives (many now subsumed under GST).

Conclusion

The demand for Special Category Status remains a contentious issue, especially for states like Bihar, which seek additional financial support due to economic underdevelopment. With the 16th Finance Commission’s recommendations expected in the coming years, the debate on SCS is likely to gain momentum.

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements:

The Finance Commission is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.
It is responsible for recommending the allocation of financial resources between the Centre and States.
The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body, not a statutory body, as it is established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Its primary function is to recommend how financial resources should be distributed between the Centre and States. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The recommendations of the Finance Commission are not binding on the government. They are only advisory in nature. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Global Forest Vision 2030

Syllabus: Environment

About the Forest Declaration Assessment (FDA)

Initially launched in 2015 as the New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) Progress Assessment.
The NYDF, adopted in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit, is a voluntary, non-binding declaration.
It establishes 10 goals, including:
- Halting deforestation by 2030.
- Restoring 350 million hectares of degraded landscapes.
India is not a signatory to the NYDF.

Key Findings of the 2023 FDA Report

1. Alarming Forest Loss

6.37 million hectares of forest lost in 2023 alone (equivalent to 9 million soccer fields).
Major drivers of deforestation:
- Palm oil
- Soy production
- Beef cattle ranching
- Timber harvesting
Affected regions: Amazon, Southeast Asia, Africa.

2. Impact on Biodiversity

Amazon: Cattle ranching causes 80% of deforestation across all Amazonian countries.
Southeast Asia: Palm oil plantations threaten species like orangutans and Sumatran tigers.
Palm oil alone contributes 5% to global tropical deforestation.

Key Recommendations of the Report

Align national policies with global forest conservation goals under UNFCCC COP30 (to be held in Brazil, 2025).
Strengthen deforestation-free trade agreements and ban imports of products linked to forest destruction.
Increase financial incentives, such as:
- Results-based payments for forest conservation.
- Forest carbon finance mechanisms.
Protect Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPs & LCs) by securing land and resource rights.
Ensure financial institutions integrate forest-related risks into investment decisions.
Redirect harmful subsidies toward sustainable land-use practices.
Improve forest governance by strengthening environmental commitments.
Integrate forest natural capital into national debt management frameworks.

India’s Role: Challenges and Opportunities

Challenges:

High dependency on imported palm oil and timber.
Lack of trade restrictions on products linked to deforestation.
Small farmers may struggle to prove deforestation-free production due to limited access to technology.

Opportunities:

Introduce deforestation-free import laws to regulate trade practices.
Support small farmers through capacity building, financial aid, and technological advancements.
Lead South-South cooperation on sustainable agriculture and responsible trade practices.
Integrate deforestation-free strategies with existing initiatives such as:
- Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA)
- National Agroforestry Policy
- National Bio-Energy Mission

With reference to the Forest Declaration Assessment (FDA) Report 2023, consider the following statements:

The FDA was originally launched as the New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) Progress Assessment in 2015.
India is a signatory to the NYDF, committing to halt deforestation by 2030.
The FDA report highlights that palm oil is responsible for nearly 50% of global tropical deforestation.
The Amazon rainforest is primarily affected by illegal mining and urban expansion, rather than cattle ranching.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4

Answer: (c) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The FDA was launched in 2015 as a continuation of the New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) Progress Assessment.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not a signatory to the NYDF.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Palm oil contributes 5%, not 50%, to global tropical deforestation.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Cattle ranching, not illegal mining or urban expansion, is the largest cause (80%) of deforestation in the Amazon.

Iguana

Syllabus: Environment

Iguanas are large, robust lizards predominantly found in the tropical regions of the Americas.
Characterized by scaly skin adorned with warts and spines along their backs, they also possess a distinctive dewlap (flap of flesh) under their necks.
These herbivorous reptiles exhibit a variety of color morphs, including green, blue, and grey, adapting to diverse environments ranging from arid deserts to dense rainforests.

Geographic Distribution

Native Habitat: Found across Central and South America, spanning from Mexico to Paraguay and Brazil.
Introduced Regions: Established populations in Florida, Hawaii, and Caribbean islands.
Largest Lizard in the USA: The green iguana holds the title of the largest lizard species within U.S. borders.
Arboreal Nature: Primarily tree-dwelling, descending only for nesting.

Preferred Habitats

Terrestrial Biomes: Forests & rainforests
Aquatic Biomes: Rivers, lakes, and coastal waters
Wetlands: Swamps
Urban & Agricultural Areas: Display adaptability to suburban environments

Conservation Status & Threats

IUCN Red List: Currently not threatened.
CITES Listing: Appendix II, meaning trade is regulated to prevent overexploitation.
Major Threats:
- Overexploitation due to demand in the pet trade and leather industry.
- Habitat destruction resulting from deforestation and urban expansion.

How Did Iguanas Reach Fiji?

A recent study published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences suggests that the ancestors of Fijian iguanas undertook an extraordinary 8,000 km journey across the Pacific Ocean from the Americas, using rafts of floating vegetation.

The Rafting Hypothesis

Rafting: A process where animals travel across oceans by drifting on natural floating debris.
Common among: Small invertebrates such as insects, but rare for large vertebrates due to survival challenges.

Previous Evidence of Iguana Rafting

1995 Caribbean Observation: Scientists observed 15 green iguanas rafting 300 km across the ocean on hurricane debris.
Galápagos Iguanas: Likely rafted 1,000 km from South America to the Galápagos Islands.
Fijian Iguana Migration: The 8,000 km voyage remains one of the longest known instances of vertebrate rafting, making it an exceptional biological phenomenon.

Consider the following statements regarding iguanas:

Iguanas are exclusively carnivorous and thrive in desert ecosystems.
They possess a dewlap, a flap of flesh under their neck, which helps in thermoregulation and communication.
The largest lizard found within U.S. borders is the Komodo dragon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Iguanas are primarily herbivorous, feeding on leaves, flowers, and fruits. While they are adaptable to different environments, they are not exclusive desert dwellers and are more commonly found in tropical forests and wetlands.
Statement 2 is correct: The dewlap helps in communication, thermoregulation, and dominance displays among iguanas.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The largest lizard within U.S. borders is the green iguana (Iguana iguana), not the Komodo dragon, which is native to Indonesia.

Vice-President Criticised Freebies

Syllabus :GS 2/Governance

What Are Freebies?

Freebies refer to goods, services, or financial incentives provided by political parties, often during elections, to attract voters. While there is no formal definition, they commonly include free electricity, LPG connections, bicycles, loan waivers, and direct cash transfers.

Challenges and Concerns

Fiscal Burden:
- Excessive spending on freebies strains state finances, leading to fiscal deficits and rising public debt, which can weaken long-term economic stability.
Resource Allocation Issues:
- Prioritizing freebies diverts funds from essential sectors like infrastructure, education, and healthcare, affecting sustainable development.
Economic Inefficiency and Dependency:
- Freebies may encourage inefficient resource utilization and foster dependency, rather than addressing structural issues like poverty and unemployment.
Competitive Populism:
- Political parties engage in a race to outdo each other in offering freebies, often at the cost of sound economic policy and governance reforms.
Impact on Policy Reforms:
- Over-reliance on freebies shifts focus from essential governance measures, such as skill development, employment generation, and education reforms.
Constitutional Perspective:
- While Article 38 of the Indian Constitution mandates the State to promote social welfare and reduce inequalities, unchecked freebies can threaten financial sustainability.

Supreme Court’s Observations

The Supreme Court has criticized the practice of pre-election freebies, noting that they:
- Distort electoral fairness by influencing voter preferences.
- Undermine work ethic, discouraging economic participation.

Views of Experts

Former RBI Governor Duvvuri Subbarao warned against freebies’ detrimental impact on state finances.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has termed the practice of offering freebies as distributing “revris” (sweets) for votes, calling it short-term populism over long-term progress.

Suggestions & Way Forward

National Policy on Freebies:
- Establish clear guidelines on government expenditures to ensure they contribute to sustainable development.
Code of Conduct & National Dialogue:
- A collective effort, led by the Centre, to regulate and rationalize the distribution of freebies.
Targeted Welfare Programs:
- Instead of blanket freebies, focus on data-driven welfare measures that cater to genuinely needy populations, improving long-term outcomes.

With reference to the economic impact of freebies, consider the following statements:

Freebies contribute to long-term economic growth by increasing aggregate demand in the economy.
Competitive populism associated with freebies can lead to fiscal imprudence and higher public debt.
The opportunity cost of freebies often results in underfunding of critical sectors like healthcare and education.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While freebies may temporarily boost aggregate demand, they do not necessarily contribute to long-term economic growth as they often fail to create productive assets.
Statement 2 is correct: Competitive populism escalates fiscal deficits as states compete to provide more benefits without considering fiscal sustainability.
Statement 3 is correct: The opportunity cost of excessive freebie spending leads to underinvestment in critical infrastructure and social sectors, affecting long-term development.

Oeko-Tex Certification for Eri Silk

Syllabus :GS 3/Economy

Context:

The North Eastern Handicrafts and Handlooms Development Corporation Ltd. (NEHHDC), under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region, has received Oeko-Tex certification from Germany for Eri Silk.

Oeko-Tex Certification

Oeko-Tex is a globally recognized certification system for textiles, ensuring that they are free from harmful substances.
It applies to raw materials, semi-finished, and finished textile products, covering items like yarns, fabrics, buttons, linens, terry cloth, and threads.
The certification ensures that the textile is safe for human use and meets environmental and health standards.

Eri Silk: An Overview

Composition: Silk is a natural protein fiber, primarily made of fibroin, produced by insect larvae to form cocoons.
Eri Silk is obtained from the Samia Cynthia Ricini silkworm.
The name “Eri” is derived from “Erranda”, the Assamese word for castor, as the silkworms feed on castor plant leaves.
Unlike other silk varieties, Eri Silk is harvested without killing the silkworm, making it known as “Ahimsa Silk” or “Non-Violent Silk.”
It is considered the “father of all cultured and textured silks.”
Geographical Spread: Found primarily in Northeast India (Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh), as well as China, Japan, and Thailand.

Silk Production in India

India is the 2nd largest producer of silk in the world.
It is the only country that produces all four major types of silk:
1. Mulberry Silk
2. Eri Silk
3. Tassar Silk
4. Muga Silk

South India is the leading silk-producing region, known for its silk weaving centers like Kancheepuram, Dharmavaram, and Arni.

With reference to the Oeko-Tex certification, consider the following statements:

It is an internationally recognized certification that ensures textiles are free from harmful substances.
The certification applies only to finished textile products and not to raw or semi-finished materials.
Oeko-Tex certification is granted exclusively by the International Silk Association to promote sustainable silk production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Oeko-Tex certification applies to all stages of textile production, including raw, semi-finished, and finished products (Statement 2 is incorrect).

The certification is not issued by the International Silk Association but is granted by the Oeko-Tex Association to ensure safety standards in textile production (Statement 3 is incorrect).

Indo-U.S. Cultural Property Agreement

Syllabus :GS 2/IR

Context:

India has signed the Cultural Property Agreement (CPA) with the United States of America (USA) to prevent the smuggling of Indian antiquities.

Key Highlights of the Indo-U.S. Cultural Property Agreement:

Objective: Aims to prevent the illicit trafficking of Indian cultural artifacts and antiquities.

Legal Framework:

Aligns with Article 9 of the 1970 UNESCO Convention, which allows countries facing threats to their cultural heritage to seek international assistance.
Focuses on preventive measures rather than specific timelines or numerical targets.

Impact:

A total of 588 antiquities have been repatriated from the USA, with 297 returned in 2024 alone.
Strengthens cooperation in areas of technical assistance, combating illicit trade, and addressing the looting of cultural property.

International Collaboration:

India engages with UNESCO, INTERPOL, and other global bodies to protect and repatriate cultural heritage.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-U.S. Cultural Property Agreement (CPA):

The agreement is time-bound and aims to repatriate a minimum number of artifacts per year.
It is focused only on the repatriation of stolen artifacts and does not involve broader cooperation in cultural heritage protection.
India collaborates with international agencies like UNESCO and INTERPOL to combat illicit trafficking of cultural property.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The CPA is preventive in nature and does not have specific timelines or a target number for repatriations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement includes technical cooperation and measures to prevent illicit trade, not just repatriation.
Statement 3 is correct: India collaborates with UNESCO, INTERPOL, and other global organizations to combat the trafficking of cultural artifacts.