Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
Syllabus: GS2/Polity and Governance
The criminal proceedings against India’s Got Latent over alleged obscene remarks have ignited a debate on the scope of freedom of speech under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution.
Constitutional Framework
Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression. However, Article 19(2) allows the state to impose reasonable restrictions under specific conditions, including:
- Security of the State
- Public Order
- Decency or Morality
- Contempt of Court
- Defamation
- Incitement to Offense
The Right to Take Offense
The Constitution does not explicitly recognize “offensive speech” as a separate category warranting restrictions. Consequently, the idea of a right to take offense falls outside the purview of constitutionally permissible limitations on free speech.
Constitutional Morality
Constitutional morality is a complex and evolving principle rather than an inherent sentiment. It requires continuous cultivation and development. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar emphasized that determining forms of administration should be the responsibility of the legislature rather than being dictated solely by the Constitution.Recently, officials reported that more than 150 false killer whales were stranded on a remote beach in Tasmania, Australia. This incident has raised significant concerns about the health of marine ecosystems and the potential causes of such mass strandings.
About Killer Whales
- Common Name: Killer Whale
- Scientific Name: Orcinus orca
Distribution: Killer whales, also known as orcas, are found in oceans worldwide, making them the most widely distributed of all cetaceans. They inhabit a variety of marine environments ranging from coastal waters to open seas.
Classification
Killer whales are the largest members of the Delphinidae family, which includes all species of dolphins and other larger species such as long-finned and short-finned pilot whales.
Social Structure
Killer whales are extremely social animals, often living in groups called pods. These pods are typically made up of maternally related individuals and can consist of a few to dozens of whales. The social bonds among pod members are strong, and they often participate in cooperative hunting and nurturing behaviors.
Communication and Navigation
Killer whales use underwater sound for a range of activities, including feeding, communicating, and navigating their environments. Their sophisticated vocalizations are crucial for maintaining social connections and coordinating group activities.
Physical Appearance
Killer whales are one of the most recognizable marine mammals due to their distinctive black and white coloration. Adult males are typically larger than females and have characteristic tall dorsal fins.
Habitat
Killer whales can be found in diverse habitats globally, thriving in both coastal waters and the open sea. They adapt their hunting and social behaviors based on the specific ecological conditions of their environment.
Conservation Status
According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), killer whales are classified as “Data Deficient.” This classification reflects the need for more comprehensive research on their populations, distribution, and threats to better inform conservation efforts.
Conclusion
Killer whales are fascinating and complex creatures that play an essential role in marine ecosystems. Continued observation, research, and conservation efforts are vital to ensure their survival and the health of their habitats. The recent stranding of false killer whales in Tasmania serves as a reminder of the vulnerabilities facing marine mammal populations and the importance of addressing the challenges they encounter.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech, while Article 19(2) imposes absolute restrictions on it.
(B) Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech, while Article 19(2) allows only the judiciary to impose reasonable restrictions.
(C) Article 19(1)(a) provides freedom of speech, but Article 19(2) permits the state to impose reasonable restrictions under specified grounds.
(D) Article 19(1)(a) grants fundamental rights, while Article 19(2) allows for restrictions even based on the subjective opinion of individuals who feel offended.
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Article 19(1)(a) provides the right to freedom of speech and expression, while Article 19(2) enables the state to impose reasonable restrictions on specific grounds like security of the state, public order, decency, and defamation. The restrictions are not absolute and must be justified as “reasonable” by the judiciary.
Ayushman Bharat Scheme in Delhi
Syllabus: GS2/ Health
The Delhi Cabinet has given its approval for the implementation of the Ayushman Bharat Scheme in the National Capital. This initiative aims to enhance access to quality healthcare services for eligible beneficiaries.
Ayushman Bharat Scheme: An Overview
Launched in 2018, the Ayushman Bharat Scheme seeks to achieve universal health coverage through two key components:
- Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY)
- Ayushman Arogya Mandir
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY)
AB PM-JAY is the world’s largest publicly funded health assurance scheme, offering financial protection against healthcare expenses.
Key Features:
- Provides health cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization.
- Applicable to all individuals aged 70 and above, regardless of their socio-economic status.
- Covers 3 days of pre-hospitalization and 15 days of post-hospitalization expenses, including diagnostics and medicines.
- Enables cashless treatment at empanelled public and private hospitals across India.
- No restrictions on family size, age, or gender for eligibility.
Eligibility Criteria:
- Households are identified based on deprivation and occupational criteria from the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 for both rural and urban areas.
- Also includes families previously covered under the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) but not listed in the SECC 2011 database.
Funding Pattern:
- The Centre and States share funding in a 60:40 ratio.
- For Northeastern states, Himalayan states (e.g., Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh), and Union Territories, the ratio is 90:10.
Ayushman Arogya Mandir
This component focuses on expanding primary healthcare infrastructure by upgrading existing health facilities.
Key Features:
- Establishment of 1,50,000 Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs), now renamed Ayushman Arogya Mandir.
- Upgradation of Sub-Health Centres (SHCs) and Primary Health Centres (PHCs) to strengthen healthcare delivery at the grassroots level.
- Provides Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC) with follow-up services for patients within the community.
- Ensures access to essential medicines, diagnostics, and preventive healthcare services closer to the population.
By implementing the Ayushman Bharat Scheme, Delhi aims to enhance affordable and accessible healthcare, aligning with the broader goal of universal health coverage in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY):
- It provides a health cover of ₹5 lakh per individual per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
- It covers all individuals aged 70 and above, irrespective of their socio-economic status.
- Beneficiaries can avail cashless treatment only at public hospitals empanelled under the scheme.
- The inclusion of beneficiaries is determined using the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 criteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme provides ₹5 lakh per family, not per individual.
Statement 2 is correct: The scheme applies to all individuals aged 70 and above, regardless of socio-economic background.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme allows beneficiaries to avail cashless treatment at both public and private empanelled hospitals.
Statement 4 is correct: Beneficiaries are identified using SECC 2011 data, which considers deprivation and occupational criteria.
Software-Defined Radios (SDRs)
Syllabus :GS 3/Defence
The Defence Ministry has signed two contracts worth ₹1,917.47 crore for the procurement of Software-Defined Radios (SDRs) and Rough Terrain Forklift Trucks (RTFLTs) to enhance operational capabilities.
About Software-Defined Radio (SDR)
- SDR is an advanced radio system where traditional hardware components, such as circuit boards and filtering algorithms, are replaced with software.
- It wirelessly transmits and receives signals within the radio frequency (RF) spectrum, with software handling functions like frequency selection and physical layer processing.
- A ₹1,220.12 crore contract has been signed for the procurement of 149 SDRs for the Indian Coast Guard.
These radios will enable a transition to multi-band, multi-mode, and multi-role capabilities, strengthening future operational efficiency.
Consider the following statements regarding Software-Defined Radio (SDR):
- SDRs replace traditional hardware components with software to perform radio frequency operations.
- Unlike conventional radios, SDRs cannot switch between multiple frequency bands dynamically.
- The Indian Coast Guard recently procured 149 SDRs under a contract worth more than ₹1,200 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: SDRs replace traditional hardware-dependent functions (such as filtering algorithms and circuit boards) with software-based operations.
Statement 2 is incorrect: SDRs can switch dynamically between multiple frequency bands, making them adaptable for different roles and environments.
Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Coast Guard has signed a ₹1,220.12 crore contract for 149 SDRs.
Technology Adoption Fund (TAF)
GS3/Science and Technology
The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe), an autonomous body under the Department of Space (DoS), has introduced the ₹500-crore Technology Adoption Fund (TAF) to boost indigenous space technology development and reduce dependence on imports.
About the Technology Adoption Fund (TAF)
Aim:
To accelerate domestic space technology innovation and reduce reliance on foreign solutions.
Key Features:
- Provides financial support of up to 60% for startups/MSMEs and 40% for larger industries, with a funding cap of ₹25 crore per project.
- Encourages the creation of intellectual property and the development of new space products.
- Open to all eligible Non-Government Entities (NGEs) with commercial potential.
- Offers partial funding, technical guidance, and mentoring for product development.
Significance:
- Invests in domestic R&D and fosters collaboration between the government and private sector.
- Strengthens India’s position as a global leader in the space industry.
- Enhances technology development, production efficiency, and market competitiveness.
- Contributes to job creation and economic growth.
With reference to the Technology Adoption Fund (TAF) launched by IN-SPACe, consider the following statements:
- The primary aim of TAF is to facilitate international collaboration in space research and development.
- The funding cap per project under TAF is ₹50 crore.
- The fund is exclusively available to public sector enterprises involved in space research.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) None of the above
(D) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (C) None of the above
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The primary aim of TAF is to boost indigenous space technology and reduce dependence on foreign imports, not facilitate international collaboration.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The funding cap per project under TAF is ₹25 crore, not ₹50 crore.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The fund is open to all eligible Non-Government Entities (NGEs), including startups, MSMEs, and private sector companies, not just public sector enterprises.
Article 101(4)
Article 101(4) of the Indian Constitution.
Understanding Article 101(4): Disqualification for Absence
Key Provisions:
1. Grounds for Disqualification:
An MP can be disqualified if they remain absent from all sittings of either the Lok Sabha (House of the People) or Rajya Sabha (Council of States) for 60 consecutive days, excluding any period when Parliament is not in session.
2. Calculation of Absence:
- The 60-day period is counted only on actual sitting days of Parliament.
- Non-session days are not considered in this calculation.
3.Seeking Permission:
- Disqualification does not apply if the MP has obtained prior permission from the respective House.
- If permission is granted, the MP can continue to hold office despite prolonged absence.
Significance of the Provision
- Ensures Accountability: Prevents MPs from neglecting their legislative duties and maintains their responsibility to the electorate.
- Protects Parliamentary Functioning: Prevents disruptions due to prolonged absenteeism of lawmakers.
- Encourages Active Participation: Strengthens the democratic process by ensuring MPs contribute to debates, policymaking, and governance.
Under Article 101(4), MPs must actively engage in legislative proceedings, or they risk losing their seat if absent without permission.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 101(4) of the Indian Constitution:
- An MP can be disqualified if absent from all sittings of either House of Parliament for 90 consecutive days.
- The calculation of absence includes both session and non-session days.
- An MP can avoid disqualification by obtaining prior permission from the respective House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The disqualification period is 60 consecutive days, not 90.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Only actual sitting days of Parliament are counted; non-session days are excluded.
- Statement 3 is correct: If an MP obtains prior permission, disqualification does not apply.
Intensified Non Communicable Disease (NCD) Screening Campaign Launched
Syllabus: GS2/ Health
The Government of India has intensified its measures to tackle Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) through the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NP-NCD).
About NP-NCD
- The program aims to establish NCD divisions at National, State, and District levels.
- A key objective is to achieve 100% screening of individuals aged 30 years and above to detect and manage Diabetes, Hypertension, and common cancers (Oral, Breast, and Cervical).
Understanding Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs)
Definition:
NCDs are chronic diseases that do not spread from person to person but pose serious health and economic burdens.
Key Statistics (WHO, 2018):
NCDs account for 63% of all deaths in India, with the major contributors being:
- Cardiovascular Diseases – 27%
- Chronic Respiratory Diseases – 11%
- Cancers – 9%
- Diabetes – 3%
Factors Driving the Rise of NCDs:
- Lifestyle Factors:
- Tobacco and alcohol use
- Unhealthy diet
- Lack of physical activity
- Air pollution
- Health Risks:
- Obesity
- High blood pressure
- High cholesterol
- High blood sugar
- Other Factors:
- Genetic predisposition
- Chronic stress
Implications of NCDs
- Health Burden: Increased demand for long-term treatment and healthcare infrastructure.
- Economic Impact: Reduced workforce productivity and rising medical expenses.
- Healthcare Disparities: Rural areas have limited access to early diagnosis and treatment.
Government Initiatives to Tackle NCDs
- National Programme for Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NP-NCD):
- Focuses on screening, early diagnosis, and awareness.
- Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP):
- Provides affordable generic medicines to reduce healthcare costs.
- Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment (AMRIT) Program:
- Offers low-cost treatment for cancer and cardiovascular diseases.
- Eat Right India Movement:
- Promotes nutritional awareness and healthy eating habits.
- Ayushman Bharat:
- Provides free healthcare services for economically weaker sections.
Way Forward
Strengthen Primary Healthcare for early detection and preventive care.
Promote Healthy Lifestyles through large-scale awareness campaigns.
Improve Air Quality to reduce pollution-related health risks.
Enhance Insurance Coverage to make treatment more accessible.
By adopting a multi-pronged strategy, India can mitigate the growing NCD crisis and ensure a healthier future for its citizens.
Which of the following diseases is/are classified as Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) according to the WHO?
- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
- Malaria
- Hypertension
- Tuberculosis
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- NCDs are non-infectious diseases that do not spread from person to person.
- COPD and Hypertension are chronic conditions falling under NCDs.
- Malaria and Tuberculosis (TB) are caused by pathogens (Plasmodium and Mycobacterium tuberculosis, respectively) and are communicable diseases.
Teesta River Management
Context
The Teesta River, a crucial waterway shared by India and Bangladesh, has once again become a source of diplomatic tension. Bangladesh has sought China’s assistance for the Teesta River Comprehensive Management and Restoration Project (TRCMRP), raising concerns in India over Beijing’s growing influence in South Asia.
About the Teesta River
- Geography: The Teesta River spans 414 km, flowing through India and Bangladesh.
- 151 km in Sikkim
- 142 km in West Bengal
- 121 km in Bangladesh
- Significance:
- Vital for agriculture, drinking water, and biodiversity conservation.
- Essential for irrigation and hydropower projects.
- Challenge: Water-sharing disputes, particularly during lean flow seasons, have remained unresolved for decades.
Teesta Water-Sharing Dispute
- The Teesta water-sharing agreement has been stalled due to political opposition, primarily from West Bengal’s Chief Minister, Mamata Banerjee.
- Disagreements persist over the equitable division of river flow, leading to diplomatic friction between India and Bangladesh.
- A near-settlement during PM Manmohan Singh’s 2011 visit failed to materialize due to internal political opposition in India.
Teesta River Comprehensive Management and Restoration Project (TRCMRP)
- Objective:
- Address water resource management, flood control, and ecosystemrestoration.
- Ensure sustainable water distribution and reduce seasonal flooding.
- Implementation:
- Bangladesh-led project
- PowerChina has been contracted for feasibility studies and project execution.
- The project includes public consultations and aims for a master plan by December 2026.
India’s Response and Strategic Concerns
- India has dispatched a technical team to engage in discussions regarding the Teesta management project.
- Key concerns for India:
- China’s growing strategic influence in South Asia through large-scale infrastructure projects.
- Risk of espionage and security threats along India’s northeastern corridor.
- Potential shift in regional alliances, with Bangladesh’s increased engagement with China.
China’s Role in the Teesta Project
- China has framed its involvement in TRCMRP within a larger strategy of expanding influence in South Asia.
- China-Bangladesh cooperation (2016 agreements) laid the foundation for Beijing’s role in Bangladesh’s river management sector.
- The signing of an MoU between the Bangladesh Water Development Board and PowerChina has deepened India’s strategic concerns.
Future Implications and Geopolitical Context
- Potential Geopolitical Realignments:
- China’s increased role in Bangladesh could alter regional power dynamics.
- The possibility of a Bangladesh-China-Pakistan axis raises security concerns for India.
- Security Implications:
- The Teesta River basin’s proximity to India’s Northeast makes Chinese involvement a strategic threat.
- Increased Chinese infrastructure projects could lead to greater surveillance risks for India.
- Multilateral Cooperation:
- Experts suggest a multilateral approach, involving India, China, and international institutions, to ensure equitable water management while maintaining regional stability.
The Teesta water-sharing dispute primarily remains unresolved due to opposition from which of the following stakeholders?
A. Government of Bangladesh
B. Government of Sikkim
C. West Bengal State Government
D. Supreme Court of India
Answer: C. West Bengal State Government
Explanation:
Despite efforts to finalize a Teesta water-sharing agreement, it has faced strong opposition from West Bengal’s Chief Minister, Mamata Banerjee, who argues that the state’s water needs must be prioritized. This has hindered a formal agreement with Bangladesh.
Nayanamritham 2.0
Kerala Launches Nayanamritham 2.0: World’s First AI-Assisted Eye Screening Programme
Introduction
The Government of Kerala has introduced Nayanamritham 2.0, the world’s first government-led initiative for AI-assisted screening of chronic eye diseases. This programme builds on the success of Nayanamritham 1.0 and aims to improve early detection and enhance access to quality eye care across the state.
Nayanamritham 1.0: Laying the Foundation
- Focused on diabetic retinopathy (DR) screening at Family Health Centers.
- Diagnosis was interpreted by ophthalmologists at secondary and tertiary care centres.
- Established a structured model for expanding eye care services in Kerala.
Nayanamritham 2.0: Advancing AI-Driven Eye Care
- Integrates AI-enabled fundus cameras developed by Remidio to empower optometrists.
- AI instantly classifies cases as referable or non-referable, ensuring faster diagnoses and timely treatment.
- Expands screening to include glaucoma and age-related macular degeneration (AMD)—both leading causes of vision loss.
Wider Accessibility and Implementation
- The programme is now extended to Community Health Centers, Taluk Hospitals, and District Hospitals.
- Ensures comprehensive eye care services at all levels of the healthcare system.
Global Significance and Innovation
- Nayanamritham 2.0 sets a global benchmark for integrating AI into public healthcare.
- Demonstrates how technology-driven initiatives can reduce preventable blindness and improve patient outcomes.
- A collaborative effort between the government and health-tech innovators to revolutionize public eye care services.
This initiative places Kerala at the forefront of AI-powered healthcare innovations, showcasing how technology can be leveraged for efficient and accessible medical solutions.
With reference to the Nayanamritham 2.0 initiative, consider the following statements:
- It is the first AI-assisted eye disease screening programme initiated by the Indian government at the national level.
- The programme builds on its predecessor by expanding screenings to include Glaucoma and Age-related Macular Degeneration (AMD).
- AI-enabled fundus cameras classify cases as referable or non-referable in real time, allowing quicker diagnosis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Nayanamritham 2.0 is state-led, initiated by the Kerala government, not a national programme.
- Statement 2 is correct: The programme extends screening beyond diabetic retinopathy to include Glaucoma and AMD, both of which are major causes of blindness.
- Statement 3 is correct: The AI-based fundus cameras by Remidio help in real-time classification, improving diagnosis speed.
