India and the European Union (EU)
Syllabus:IR
Context
- India and the European Union (EU) have resumed negotiations for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), aiming to finalize a comprehensive deal in two phases.
- Talks, which had been stalled since 2013 due to market access issues, resumed in June 2022.
- Both sides have now agreed to conclude the agreement using India’s phased negotiation approach, similar to the one adopted in FTAs with Australia.
- The goal is to seal the deal by the end of 2025, as agreed upon by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the European Commission President.
Key Areas of Focus
- Market Access: EU seeks tariff reductions in sectors such as automobiles, medical devices, wines, spirits, meat, and poultry.
- Services & Investment: Discussions include liberalization of services, investment protection, and clearer dispute resolution frameworks.
- Regulatory Issues: Strengthening of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), and agreements on:
- Sanitary & phytosanitary measures
- Technical barriers to trade
- Customs procedures
- Government procurement
- Sustainability and green transition
Expected Benefits
- Boost to Indian exports, especially garments, pharmaceuticals, steel, petroleum, and electrical machinery.
- Stronger investor confidence and bilateral cooperation.
- Promotion of innovation and sustainable development.
India-EU Bilateral Relations
Political Ties
- Formal relations date back to the early 1960s.
- A Cooperation Agreement was signed in 1994, deepening ties beyond trade.
- The first India-EU Summit in 2000 was a milestone.
- In 2004, the partnership was upgraded to a Strategic Partnership at the 5th Summit in The Hague.
Economic Ties
- The EU is India’s largest trading partner for goods.
- In 2023–24, bilateral trade in goods stood at USD 137.41 billion.
- 17% of India’s exports go to the EU; 9% of EU exports come to India.
- Other Areas of Cooperation
- India-EU Water Partnership (IEWP): Launched in 2016 for cooperation on water management technologies and policies.
- Nuclear Energy R&D: Agreement signed in 2020 for peaceful research collaboration.
- Trade and Technology Council (TTC): Established in 2023 to foster cooperation on trade, technology, and security.
About the European Union (EU):A political and economic union of 27 countries.
Origins:
- Started as the European Coal and Steel Community (1950) with six members.
- Became the European Economic Community (1957) under the Treaty of Rome.
- Officially formed as the European Union in 1993 under the Maastricht Treaty.
Purpose: To promote economic and political integration, democratic values, and human rights.
Currency: 20 EU nations use the euro as their official currency.
Global Role: One of the world’s most influential trade and political blocs.
With reference to the India-EU Free Trade Agreement negotiations, consider the following statements:
- The negotiations were resumed in 2022 after being suspended due to disagreements over intellectual property rights.
- The phased approach adopted in the FTA negotiations with the EU has also been used by India in other FTAs.
- The EU has no existing FTAs with any Asian country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect – The negotiations were suspended in 2013 primarily due to disagreements over market access, not intellectual property rights.
- Statement 2 is correct – India has adopted a phased approach in FTA negotiations with countries like Australia.
- Statement 3 is incorrect – The EU has existing FTAs with several Asian countries including South Korea, Japan, and Vietnam.
India’s Relationship with Türkiye and Azerbaijan
Syllabus:IR
Context:
- India’s diplomatic and trade relations with Türkiye and Azerbaijan are under pressure following their vocal support for Pakistan and condemnation of India’s recent counter-terror operations.
Recent Developments:
- On May 7, India launched Operation Sindoor targeting nine terror camps in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir in response to the April 22 terror attack in Pahalgam, Kashmir.
- During this operation, Pakistan employed Turkish-origin drones in failed attacks on Indian military installations.
- Subsequently, India and Pakistan agreed to cease all military actions across land, air, and sea.
- Türkiye and Azerbaijan’s statements backing Islamabad triggered a backlash within India, leading to diplomatic and public responses.
India’s Trade Relations with Türkiye
- Formal ties: Bilateral trade pact signed in 1973; a Joint Commission for Economic and Technical Cooperation was formed in 1983.
- Exports (Apr–Feb 2024-25): USD 5.2 billion (1.5% of India’s total exports)
- Imports: USD 2.84 billion (0.5% of India’s total imports)
- Major exports to Türkiye: Mineral fuels, electrical machinery, auto components, organic chemicals, pharmaceuticals, textiles, iron and steel
- Major imports from Türkiye: Marbles, apples, gold, vegetables, lime, cement, mineral oil, pearls, iron and steel
- Trade balance: India enjoys a trade surplus
India’s Trade Relations with Azerbaijan
- Exports (Apr–Feb 2024-25): USD 86.07 million (0.02% of India’s total exports)
- Imports: USD 1.93 million (0.0002% of India’s total imports)
- Major exports: Tobacco, tea, cereals, chemicals, rubber, paper, ceramic products
- Major imports: Animal fodder, organic chemicals, essential oils, leather
- Oil Trade: India ranked third among importers of Azerbaijani crude oil in 2023
- Trade balance: India has a surplus
People-to-People Ties
- Indian diaspora: ~3,000 in Türkiye (including 200 students); ~1,500 in Azerbaijan
- Tourism: ~3 lakh Indian tourists visited Türkiye and ~2 lakh visited Azerbaijan in 2023
Emerging Challenges
- Türkiye and Azerbaijan’s support for Pakistan’s narrative has led to diplomatic strain.
- Calls for boycotts of Turkish and Azerbaijani products and tourism have intensified in India.
- Tourism cancellations, suspension of promotional campaigns, and withdrawal of academic MoUs (e.g., IIT Bombay, JNU) reflect growing public and institutional backlash.
- Indian traders are reportedly reducing imports of Turkish goods like apples and marble in protest.
- India’s trade with both countries remains relatively limited in volume but carries strategic and symbolic significance amid rising geopolitical tensions.
With reference to India’s bilateral relations with Türkiye and Azerbaijan in the context of recent geopolitical developments, consider the following statements:
- Türkiye and Azerbaijan jointly condemned India’s operation in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, and Türkiye-origin drones were used during the conflict.
- India maintains a trade surplus with both Türkiye and Azerbaijan, yet Türkiye accounts for a higher share of India’s imports than Azerbaijan.
- Despite strained ties, India remains among the top five destinations for crude oil exports from both Türkiye and Azerbaijan.
- Operation Sindoor was India’s first retaliatory military action after the Uri surgical strikes in 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. Türkiye and Azerbaijan condemned India’s strikes on terror camps in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. Turkish drones were reportedly used by Pakistan during the conflict.
- Statement 2 is correct. India has a trade surplus with both Türkiye and Azerbaijan. Türkiye accounts for a significantly higher share of India’s imports compared to Azerbaijan.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. India is a major crude oil importer from Azerbaijan but not from Türkiye.
- Statement 4 is incorrect. Operation Sindoor is not the first retaliatory military action since the Uri surgical strikes in 2016. The Balakot airstrikes in 2019 were a significant retaliatory action before Operation Sindoor.
SC Direction to Take Back Forest Land Illegally Allotted to Private Entities
Syllabus:Polity
Context:
- The Supreme Court of India has instructed all States and Union Territories to identify and reclaim forest lands that were unlawfully diverted for non-forest uses, highlighting serious legal violations and ecological damage.
Background:
- This directive follows a ruling that declared the allocation of 11.89 hectares of reserved forest land in Kondhwa Budruk, Pune (Maharashtra) as illegal. The land, originally allotted for agricultural use in 1998, was sold to a private builder in 1999. The Chief Justice described this as a textbook case of collusion between political actors, bureaucrats, and builders to exploit valuable forest resources.
Supreme Court Directions:
- Formation of Special Investigation Teams (SITs) by Chief Secretaries/Administrators to investigate forest lands under revenue department control.
- Reclaim illegally occupied forest land and transfer it to forest departments.
- In cases where recovery is not viable due to overriding public interest, recover compensation from beneficiaries and channel funds into forest development.
- The entire process is to be completed within one year.
Legal and Environmental Concerns:
- Breach of 1996 Supreme Court Order: In N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India, the Court ordered that no non-forest activity can be undertaken on forest land without central approval.
- Environmental Degradation: Retention of forest lands by revenue departments has encouraged their misuse for non-forestry purposes, causing deforestation and biodiversity loss.
Constitutional Provisions:
- Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 48A): Mandates the State to protect and improve the environment and conserve forests and wildlife.
- Fundamental Duties (Article 51A(g)): Calls upon citizens to safeguard the natural environment and show compassion towards living creatures.
Way Forward:
- Use of Technology: Implement GIS and remote sensing for precise forest boundary mapping and monitoring.
- Institutional Framework: Establish Forest Land Governance Cells at the state level with participation from forest, revenue, and legal authorities.
- Community Participation: Engage Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMCs) and local tribal groups in tracking and reporting encroachments.
- Regulatory Strengthening: Tighten Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) regulations and ensure meaningful public involvement in forest land diversion decisions.
With reference to the Supreme Court of India’s recent directives on illegal allotment of forest land, consider the following statements:
- The Supreme Court has mandated that forest lands under revenue departments must be investigated and reclaimed within a timeline of two years.
- The 1996 Supreme Court ruling in N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India prohibits any non-forest activity on forest land without the approval of the Central Government.
- Article 51A(g) of the Constitution imposes a fundamental duty on citizens to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests and wildlife.
- In cases where reclaiming illegally allotted forest land is not feasible due to public interest, the Court has directed that the land must be handed over permanently to the beneficiary without compensation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct; the Court has directed completion of investigations and reclamation within one year, which is roughly within the timeframe mentioned.
- Statement 2 is correct; N. Godavarman Thirumulpad prohibits non-forest use of forest land without Central approval.
- Statement 3 is correct; Article 51A(g) states citizens’ duty to protect the environment.
- Statement 4 is incorrect; the Court allows cost recovery from beneficiaries if reclamation is not feasible; it does not permit permanent transfer without compensation.
SC Direction to Take Back Forest Land Illegally Allotted to Private Entities
Syllabus:Polity
- The Supreme Court of India has directed all States and Union Territories to investigate and reclaim forest lands that have been illegally allotted for non-forest purposes, pointing out serious legal and environmental violations.
- This order came while annulling the allotment of 11.89 hectares of reserved forest land in Kondhwa Budruk, Pune, Maharashtra.
- The land was originally designated for agriculture in 1998 but was later sold to a private builder in 1999.
- The Chief Justice called this a clear example of a political-bureaucratic-builder nexus responsible for the misuse of valuable forest resources.
Supreme Court Directives:
- Chief Secretaries and Administrators are to form Special Investigation Teams (SITs) to examine forest lands under the control of revenue departments.
- These SITs must work to recover forest lands from private individuals or entities and transfer them back to the respective forest departments.
- If reclaiming the land is not possible due to overriding public interest, beneficiaries must pay compensation, which will be used for forest conservation and development.
- The entire recovery process is to be completed within one year.
Legal and Environmental Concerns:
- The Court highlighted violation of its 1996 verdict in N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India, which prohibits any non-forest activities on forest land without approval from the Central Government.
- Continued possession of forest lands by revenue departments has led to non-forestry usage, resulting in loss of green cover and biodiversity.
Constitutional Safeguards:
- Article 48A of the Directive Principles of State Policy mandates the State to protect and improve the environment, including forests and wildlife.
- Article 51A(g) of the Fundamental Duties requires citizens to protect and enhance the natural environment—forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife—and to show compassion towards living beings.
Way Forward:
- Utilize GIS and remote sensing technologies to precisely map forest boundaries and monitor illegal encroachments.
- Set up State-level Forest Land Governance Cells including representatives from forest, revenue, and legal departments to coordinate efforts.
- Involve Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMCs) and tribal communities in identifying and reporting illegal use or occupation of forest lands.
- Enhance Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) procedures by ensuring greater public participation in cases of forest land diversion.
With reference to the Supreme Court of India’s recent directive on illegal forest land allotments, consider the following statements:
- The Special Investigation Teams (SITs) tasked with reclaiming forest land must be constituted exclusively by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- The 1996 Supreme Court ruling in N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs. Union of India prohibits any non-forest activities on forest land without prior approval from the Central Government.
- Article 51A(g) of the Indian Constitution imposes a Fundamental Duty on citizens to protect the natural environment including forests and wildlife.
- In cases where forest land recovery is infeasible due to public interest, the Supreme Court has mandated cost recovery from beneficiaries to be used for forest conservation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. SITs are to be formed by Chief Secretaries/Administrators of States and UTs, not exclusively by the Ministry of Environment.
- Statement 2 is correct. The 1996 ruling prohibits non-forest activities on forest land without Central Government approval.
- Statement 3 is correct. Article 51A(g) enjoins citizens to protect and improve the natural environment.
- Statement 4 is correct. If reclaiming forest land is not feasible due to overriding public interest, beneficiaries must pay compensation, which must be used for forest conservation.
US Passes Take It Down Act
Syllabus: GS2/ International Relations
In the News:
- S. President Donald Trump signed the Take It Down Act, which criminalizes the non-consensual sharing of intimate images, including AI-generated deepfakes. The rapid rise of non-consensual deepfakes online is outpacing global regulatory efforts, driven by the widespread availability of AI tools.
What is the Take It Down Act?
- The Act makes it a crime to knowingly publish or threaten to publish intimate images without consent, explicitly covering AI-generated deepfakes. It mandates that websites and social media platforms remove such content within 48 hours of receiving a victim’s notice and take measures to delete duplicate copies.
About Deepfakes:
- Deepfakes are synthetic media created using artificial intelligence, particularly through machine learning techniques such as Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs). These technologies can produce hyper-realistic images, videos, or audio that falsely depict individuals saying or doing things they never actually did.
Impacts of Deepfakes:
- Deepfakes can be weaponized to spread fake news, propaganda, and manipulated statements by public figures, undermining public trust, influencing elections, and inciting social unrest.
- A significant unethical application involves creating pornographic content by superimposing individuals’ faces—primarily victimizing women. Additionally, the unauthorized use of someone’s likeness or voice in deepfakes raises critical privacy concerns.
Legal Provisions in India
- Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act): Sections 66E and 67 penalize privacy violations and electronic transmission of obscene material.
- Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 (now largely replaced by Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita – BNS, 2023): Sections covering defamation (Section 356), organized crime (Section 111), digital theft (Section 316), and cheating (Section 318).
- Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023: Addresses unauthorized processing of personal data.
- Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986: Prohibits indecent depiction of women.
Legal Gaps and the Need for Specific Deepfake Legislation in India:
- Currently, India lacks a dedicated law defining or directly regulating deepfakes. Existing laws address related offenses but do not explicitly cover deepfake technology.
- Penalties under current statutes may be insufficient to deter large-scale AI-enabled crimes, highlighting the need for more robust and specific legal frameworks.
With reference to recent developments regarding deepfake regulation, consider the following statements:
- The U.S. Take It Down Act mandates removal of non-consensual intimate images, including AI-generated deepfakes, within 48 hours of notice from victims.
- India’s current legal framework includes specific laws explicitly defining and regulating deepfake technology.
- The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 primarily addresses unauthorized processing of personal data and does not specifically criminalize deepfakes.
- Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs) are machine learning techniques used to create hyper-realistic synthetic media known as deepfakes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct as the Take It Down Act requires platforms to remove such content within 48 hours.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because India does not have specific laws explicitly defining or regulating deepfakes.
- Statement 3 is correct; the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, deals with unauthorized data processing but does not specifically criminalize deepfakes.
- Statement 4 is correct as GANs are the AI technique primarily used to generate deepfakes.
Mismatch Between MGNREGS Coverage and Delivery
Syllabus: GS2/Policy and Intervention; GS3/Economy
Context:
- A recent report by LibTech India has questioned the effectiveness of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) for the financial year 2024–25.
Key Findings of the Report
- Increase in Coverage: Registered households under MGNREGS rose by 8.6%, from 13.80 crore in FY 2023–24 to 14.98 crore in FY 2024–25.
- Decline in Employment Days: Despite increased registration, total persondays fell by 7.1%. Average employment per household decreased by 4.3%, from 52.42 days to 50.18 days.
- Low Full Employment: Only around 7% of households received the full 100 days of employment guaranteed under the Act.
- Regional Disparities: States such as Odisha (34.8%), Tamil Nadu (25.1%), and Rajasthan (15.9%) experienced sharp declines in employment days, while Maharashtra (39.7%), Himachal Pradesh (14.8%), and Bihar (13.3%) recorded increases.
Key Features of MGNREGA (2005)
- Employment Guarantee: Provides a legal guarantee of 100 days of wage employment per rural household annually.
- Funding Structure: Costs shared between Centre and States in a 90:10 ratio; budget allocations vary according to demand.
- Legal Entitlement: Workers have the right to demand employment, with compensation payable if work is not provided within 15 days.
- Wage Payment and Worksite Facilities: Wages must be disbursed within 15 days of work completion; worksites are required to provide drinking water, shade, and first aid facilities.
Objectives
- Asset Creation: Focus on creating durable rural infrastructure such as water conservation systems, roads, and irrigation.
- Social Inclusion: Emphasizes priority for women, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes.
- Decentralized Planning: Involves Panchayati Raj Institutions in planning and execution to strengthen local governance.
Implementation and Impact
- Initially launched in 200 districts in 2006, the scheme now covers all rural districts nationwide.
- Women’s participation has increased from 48% in FY 2013–14 to over 58% in FY 2024–25.
- More than 8.07 crore rural assets have been created under the scheme to date.
Challenges Affecting MGNREGS Delivery
- Budget Constraints: The Union government allocated ₹86,000 crore for FY 2024–25, significantly lower than the ₹2.64 lakh crore recommended by the People’s Action for Employment Guarantee (PAEG).
- Delayed Wage Payments: Persistent delays have reduced workers’ motivation to participate.
- High Deletion Rates: Between 2022 and 2024, 7.8 crore workers were removed from the scheme while only 1.92 crore were added, raising concerns over accessibility and inclusiveness.
Way Forward
- Ensure timely and adequate budget revisions to meet demand.
- Streamline wage payments to enhance participation and trust in the scheme.
- Improve monitoring mechanisms to track employment patterns and prevent wrongful exclusions.
Consider the following statements about the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS):
- MGNREGS legally guarantees 100 days of wage employment per rural household annually.
- The cost-sharing ratio between Centre and States is fixed at 75:25 irrespective of the demand.
- Compensation is payable if employment is not provided within 15 days of demand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct:
- MGNREGS legally guarantees up to 100 days of wage employment to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. This is a key feature that distinguishes it as an employment guarantee scheme rather than a mere employment creation scheme.
Statement 2: Incorrect:
- The cost-sharing ratio between the Centre and States under MGNREGS is not fixed at 75:25.
- For most states, the ratio is 90:10 (Centre:State).
- For some special category states (like the North-Eastern states, Sikkim, and Himachal Pradesh), the ratio is 100% funded by the Centre.
- Thus, the ratio varies based on the state and the demand, and it is definitely not a fixed 75:25.
Statement 3: Correct:
- The Act mandates that if a worker is not provided employment within 15 days of demanding work, they are entitled to unemployment allowance (compensation). This legal provision strengthens the enforceability of the scheme.
South Australia
Syllabus:Geography
Context:
- Southern Australia—encompassing South Australia, Victoria, and Tasmania—is currently experiencing one of its most severe droughts in decades, highlighting the region’s vulnerability to climate change and long-term water security challenges.
Geographical Characteristics:
- South Australia covers approximately 983,482 sq. km, making up about one-eighth of Australia’s land area. The landscape is dominated by arid and semi-arid flat plains and deserts, with over 80% of the land lying below 300 meters above sea level. The highest point is Mount Woodroffe (1,435 m) in the Musgrave Ranges.
- Water Resources: The Murray River is the only significant perennial river in the state, essential for both drinking water and irrigation. Major water supply sources include pipelines from the Murray River and coastal desalination plants. The Great Artesian Basin, one of the world’s largest underground freshwater reserves, supports remote mining operations and pastoral activities.
- Climate Profile: South Australia is recognized as the driest state in Australia. The southern parts experience a Mediterranean climate with wet winters and hot, dry summers. The region is highly susceptible to prolonged droughts and frequent bushfires, particularly during summer months. Temperature extremes are common due to the interaction between inland and oceanic air masses.
- Natural and Mineral Wealth: Prominent natural features include Lake Eyre (Australia’s largest salt lake, located below sea level), the Mount Lofty Ranges, Flinders Ranges, and Kangaroo Island. The state is rich in minerals such as uranium, copper, and gold. The Olympic Dam is one of the largest multi-mineral mines globally and serves as a major economic driver.
- This regional profile emphasizes the need for robust climate adaptation strategies, efficient water management reforms, and sustainable development to address increasing environmental pressures.
With reference to the environmental and geographical profile of South Australia, consider the following statements:
- The Great Artesian Basin, which supports much of South Australia’s remote economic activity, is entirely confined within the boundaries of South Australia.
- Mount Woodroffe, the highest peak in South Australia, lies within a geologically stable zone and is part of the Great Dividing Range.
- The Mediterranean climatic zone of South Australia contributes to the region’s high susceptibility to both bushfires and prolonged droughts.
- Despite being Australia’s driest state, South Australia depends predominantly on inland river systems for drinking water rather than coastal desalination technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: B) 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Great Artesian Basin extends across multiple Australian states including Queensland, New South Wales, and the Northern Territory. It is not limited to South Australia.
- Statement 2 – Incorrect: Mount Woodroffe lies in the Musgrave Ranges, not the Great Dividing Range, and is not part of an active orogenic belt.
- Statement 3 – Correct: The Mediterranean climate (wet winters, hot dry summers) in South Australia contributes significantly to drought and bushfire vulnerability.
- Statement 4 – Incorrect: South Australia uses both inland sources (Murray River) and coastal desalination. It does not depend predominantly on river systems.
Atomiser
Syllabus:Chemistry
Context:
- The atomiser—a critical but often underappreciated device—plays a transformative role across industrial, medical, environmental, and safety applications. From aerosol-based therapies to firefighting systems, its utility spans numerous fields.
What is an Atomiser?
- An atomiser is a mechanical device designed to break liquids into fine droplets, forming a mist or spray. This transformation enhances the liquid’s spreadability and utility by improving surface coverage and ease of application.
Working Principle:
- Atomisers operate on the principle of disintegrating a liquid into droplets using mechanisms such as pressure-drop (forcing liquid through a narrow orifice), turbulence (inducing chaotic flow to fragment the liquid), and external forces (including air pressure or vibration).
Types of Atomisers:
- Pressure-swirl Atomisers: Generate a vortex to spray liquid in conical patterns.
- Air-assisted Atomisers: Utilize compressed air to shear the liquid into fine mist.
- Ultrasonic Atomisers: Employ high-frequency vibrations to produce ultra-fine nano-droplets.
- Narrow-channel Atomisers: Use geometric constrictions to produce sprays through pressure and flow manipulation.
Key Features:
- Droplet Size: Tuned to application—finer for aerosols, coarser for coatings.
- Spray Pattern: Configurable as flat, circular, or conical, depending on use.
- Application Angle: Optimized for targeted efficiency.
- Relative Span Factor (RSF): A measure of uniformity in droplet size; values closer to 1 indicate higher precision.
- Customisability: Adjustable for pressure, flow rate, particle size, and spray geometry.
Applications of Atomisers:
- Industry: Fuel injection systems, machinery lubrication, spray drying in pharmaceuticals and food processing.
- Agriculture: Efficient pesticide and fertilizer application, precision irrigation in arid and nutrient-poor soils.
- Healthcare: Inhalation therapies (e.g., asthma medications), disinfectant and pain-relief sprays.
- Disaster Management & Public Safety: Foam-based firefighting systems, aerosol-based sanitation during pandemics.
- Domestic and Environmental Use: Household products like deodorants and cleaners, environmental research involving aerosol dispersion modeling.
Conclusion:
- The atomiser’s ability to transform liquids into controlled sprays has made it indispensable in a wide range of disciplines. Its adaptability in scale, droplet precision, and pattern makes it a foundational tool in both high-tech industries and everyday applications.
With reference to atomisers and their multidisciplinary applications, consider the following statements:
- Ultrasonic atomisers rely on piezoelectric materials to generate high-frequency vibrations capable of producing nano-sized droplets without involving thermal energy.
- Relative Span Factor (RSF) is directly proportional to the uniformity of droplet size in spray applications.
- In agrochemical delivery, atomisers operating under high pressure with narrow-angle conical sprays are preferred to minimize off-target drift and maximize canopy penetration.
- The use of atomisers in climate science is limited to modeling tropospheric water vapor dispersion and has no relevance in aerosol-cloud interaction studies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 – Correct: Ultrasonic atomisers employ piezoelectric materials to create high-frequency vibrations, generating nano-sized droplets without applying heat. This makes them ideal for delicate applications such as pharmaceutical aerosols and inhalable medications.
- Statement 2 – Incorrect: Relative Span Factor (RSF) is a measure of droplet size uniformity. A lower RSF (closer to 1) indicates higher uniformity, meaning the droplets are of similar size. Therefore, RSF is inversely proportional to uniformity, not directly.
- Statement 3 – Correct: In agrochemical spraying, narrow-angle conical sprays generated under high pressure enhance canopy penetration while minimizing off-target drift, a critical factor in precision agriculture and environmental protection.
- Statement 4 – Incorrect: The use of atomisers in climate science extends well beyond modeling water vapor dispersion. They are vital in aerosol-cloud interaction research, including studies on cloud condensation nuclei, radiative forcing, and precipitation processes, all of which are key to understanding climate dynamics.
Kandha Tribe
Syllabus:Society
- In Odisha’s Kandhamal district, Kandha women are increasingly abandoning the centuries-old custom of facial tattooing — a practice once rooted in resistance and now fading amidst changing social dynamics and growing awareness.
- The Kandha (also spelled Khond) is Odisha’s largest tribal community, predominantly inhabiting the districts of Kandhamal, Rayagada, Kalahandi, and Koraput.
- They primarily speak Kui or Kuvi, languages belonging to the Dravidian family. The name “Kandha” originates from the Telugu word “Konda” meaning “hill,” reflecting their traditional settlement in forested and hilly terrain.
- Their sub-groups include Desia Kandha, Dongria Kandha (PVTG), and Kutia Kandha (PVTG).
- Facial tattooing among Kandha women began as a self-protective mechanism.
- By tattooing their faces with stark, geometric patterns, women sought to appear unattractive, deterring sexual exploitation by landlords, colonial authorities, and outsiders.
- Over time, the practice became embedded in cultural identity, symbolizing marital eligibility and community belonging. Girls were typically tattooed at around age 10.
- The process involved piercing the skin using crude tools, leading to painful swelling and infection that lasted for weeks.
- Tattoos were often accompanied by silver earrings, marking a woman’s marital status.
- Since the 1990s, awareness drives, education, and public health interventions have led to a dramatic decline in this practice. Among women under 40, the tradition is now almost nonexistent, as newer generations no longer view it as culturally relevant or socially necessary.
- The abandonment of facial tattooing among Kandha women reflects broader trends of social transformation, gender empowerment, and cultural adaptation in tribal India, signaling a shift from ritualistic endurance to self-agency and health consciousness.
With reference to the Kandha tribal community of Odisha and their traditional practice of facial tattooing, consider the following statements:
- The facial tattooing practice among Kandha women originated primarily as a rite of passage to signify transition into adulthood and marital eligibility.
- The Dongria Kandha and Kutia Kandha sub-groups are classified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
- The decline of facial tattooing among Kandha women is attributed mainly to state-led efforts in public health awareness and education since the 1990s.
- The term “Kandha” is derived from a tribal language belonging to the Austroasiatic family, reflecting their origins in hilly forest regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1 and 4 only
Answer: A) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect because facial tattooing originally served as a protective measure against exploitation rather than primarily a rite of passage.
- Though it later became linked to marital identity, its origin was rooted in deterrence from abuse.
- Statement 2 is correct: Dongria Kandha and Kutia Kandha are officially classified as PVTGs.
- Statement 3 is correct: The decline in tattooing is largely due to public health campaigns and education efforts since the 1990s.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The term “Kandha” is derived from the Telugu word “Konda,” meaning “hill,” and the Kandha languages Kui and Kuvi belong to the Dravidian family, not Austroasiatic.