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21 Feb 2025 Current Affairs

Killer Whales (Orcas)

Recently, officials reported that more than 150 false killer whales were stranded on a remote beach in Tasmania, Australia. This incident has raised significant concerns about the health of marine ecosystems and the potential causes of such mass strandings.

About Killer Whales

  • Common Name: Killer Whale
  • Scientific Name: Orcinus orca

Distribution: Killer whales, also known as orcas, are found in oceans worldwide, making them the most widely distributed of all cetaceans. They inhabit a variety of marine environments ranging from coastal waters to open seas.

Classification

Killer whales are the largest members of the Delphinidae family, which includes all species of dolphins and other larger species such as long-finned and short-finned pilot whales.

Social Structure

Killer whales are extremely social animals, often living in groups called pods. These pods are typically made up of maternally related individuals and can consist of a few to dozens of whales. The social bonds among pod members are strong, and they often participate in cooperative hunting and nurturing behaviors.

Communication and Navigation

Killer whales use underwater sound for a range of activities, including feeding, communicating, and navigating their environments. Their sophisticated vocalizations are crucial for maintaining social connections and coordinating group activities.

Physical Appearance

Killer whales are one of the most recognizable marine mammals due to their distinctive black and white coloration. Adult males are typically larger than females and have characteristic tall dorsal fins.

Habitat

Killer whales can be found in diverse habitats globally, thriving in both coastal waters and the open sea. They adapt their hunting and social behaviors based on the specific ecological conditions of their environment.

Conservation Status

According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), killer whales are classified as “Data Deficient.” This classification reflects the need for more comprehensive research on their populations, distribution, and threats to better inform conservation efforts.

Conclusion

Killer whales are fascinating and complex creatures that play an essential role in marine ecosystems. Continued observation, research, and conservation efforts are vital to ensure their survival and the health of their habitats. The recent stranding of false killer whales in Tasmania serves as a reminder of the vulnerabilities facing marine mammal populations and the importance of addressing the challenges they encounter.

What is a significant behavioral characteristic of killer whales that facilitates their social interactions?

A) They can survive in complete solitude without forming social groups.

B) They use visual signals predominantly for communication.

C) They live in social groups called pods, which are typically comprised of maternally related individuals.

D) They migrate alone across vast oceanic distances.

Answer: C) They live in social groups called pods, which are typically comprised of maternally related individuals.

Explanation: Killer whales are highly social creatures that form pods, which are units of social structure based on maternal lineage. The other options are incorrect as killer whales do not thrive alone and rely heavily on social structures.

Key Facts about Nauru

To assist in relocating approximately 10,000 residents from low-lying areas threatened by rising sea levels and flooding, the remote Pacific nation of Nauru has proposed selling citizenships for this climate-affected island.

About Nauru

  • Nauru is an island nation and microstate located in Oceania, specifically in the southwestern Pacific Ocean.
  • It is recognized as the world’s smallest republic, covering an area of about 8 square miles and housing a population of around 12,500 inhabitants.
  • The island lies approximately 1,300 km northeast of the Solomon Islands, with its closest neighbor being Banaba Island in Kiribati, situated about 300 km to the east.
  • Nauru is a raised, fossilized coral atoll and one of the three significant phosphate rock islands in the Pacific.
  • The island features a central phosphate plateau encircled by coral cliffs.
  • However, extensive phosphate mining has significantly degraded the interior landscape, rendering about 80% of it uninhabitable and unsuitable for agriculture.
  • Nauru does not have an official capital city; however, the district of Yaren on the southern coast serves as its de facto capital.
  • The native language is Nauruan, although English is commonly spoken, especially in governmental and commercial contexts.
  • Following its independence in 1968, Nauru adopted a constitution that established it as a republic with a parliamentary system modeled after the Westminster style.

Which of the following statements correctly describes Nauru’s geographical and demographic characteristics?

A) Nauru is the largest island nation in the Pacific with a population of approximately 100,000.

B) Nauru is a small republic located in the south-western Pacific Ocean, with a land area of about 8 square miles and a population of around 12,500.

C) Nauru is located southwest of the Solomon Islands and is primarily composed of volcanic rock.

D) Nauru has a total land area of about 20 square miles and lies east of Kiribati.

Answer: B) Nauru is a small republic located in the south-western Pacific Ocean, with a land area of about 8 square miles and a population of around 12,500.

Explanation: This statement correctly captures Nauru’s status as a small republic in Oceania, its land area, and population. Options A, C, and D contain inaccuracies regarding size, population, and geological composition.

nPROUD Initiative

  • Kerala has launched the nPROUD (New Programme for Removal of Unused Drugs), a ground breaking initiative aimed at tackling the environmental and health challenges associated with the disposal of expired and unused medications.
  • This government-led program seeks to establish a systematic method for the safe collection and disposal of these drugs. Initially, the initiative will be piloted in Kozhikode, with plans for statewide expansion based on its effectiveness.

Purpose of the nPROUD Initiative

  • The nPROUD initiative was developed in response to growing concerns about the improper disposal of medications.
  • Unused and expired drugs often find their way into general waste, resulting in soil and water contamination, which can, in turn, contribute to the alarming rise of antimicrobial resistance.
  • To address these issues, the Kerala Drugs Control Department has introduced this innovative program.

Pilot Phase and Implementation

The pilot phase of nPROUD will launch in the Ulliyeri panchayat area of Kozhikode Corporation. As part of the program, there will be scheduled collections of unused medicines directly from residents’ homes. Additionally, the public will have the option to drop off expired medications in designated blue collection boxes. Local self-government bodies will play a crucial role in implementing the program, ensuring active community participation.

Collection and Disposal Mechanism

  • The nPROUD initiative features a systematic collection approach. Residents will receive notifications about scheduled pickups, while pharmacies and clinics will be responsible for returning their expired stock to designated collection centers.
  • All collected drugs will be taken to Kerala Enviro Infrastructure Ltd (KEIL) for responsible, scientific disposal.

Environmental and Health Impact

The primary goal of the nPROUD initiative is to reduce environmental pollution and health risks linked to the improper disposal of drugs.

By preventing the careless disposal of expired medications, the program aims to safeguard water resources and enhance soil quality.

  • Compliance with the Biomedical Waste Management Act reflects the initiative’s commitment to environmental regulations.

Future Plans for Expansion

  • Following a successful evaluation of the pilot project, the nPROUD initiative will be expanded statewide.
  • The Kerala Drugs Control Department plans to set up additional permanent collection centers and aims to raise public awareness about the significance of proper drug disposal practices.

Community Engagement

  • Community involvement is vital for the success of the nPROUD initiative. The program is supported by local governing bodies and members of the Green Brigade.
  • Awareness campaigns will be organized to educate citizens about the environmental hazards associated with improper drug disposal.
  • Through nPROUD, Kerala is taking a significant step toward sustainable health practices, fostering a cleaner environment, and enhancing community involvement in managing medical waste responsibly.

What is the primary goal of the nPROUD initiative launched by Kerala?

A) To promote the use of antibiotics in medical treatment.

B) To address the environmental and health hazards posed by expired and unused medicines.

C) To reduce the costs of healthcare in Kerala.

D) To eliminate the use of pharmaceuticals entirely within the state.

Answer: B) To address the environmental and health hazards posed by expired and unused medicines.

Explanation: The nPROUD initiative specifically targets the concerns associated with the disposal of expired and unused medicines and their impact on health and the environment. Options A, C, and D do not reflect the initiative’s actual goals.

Mising Tribe:

  • The Mising tribe, the largest tribal community in Assam, is an indigenous group from Northeast India.
  • They belong to the Tani people, who communicate through Tibeto-Burmese languages.
  • The Mising people inhabit regions in Assam and Arunachal Pradesh, extending their presence into Tibet, China.
  • In Tibetan culture, they are referred to as “Lhobhas,” meaning “southerners,” due to their historical settlement in southern Tibet and parts of present-day Arunachal Pradesh.
  • According to the 2011 Census of India, the Mising population in Assam stands at 680,424, making them one of the most significant tribal groups in the state.
  • Their lifestyles are intricately linked to rivers, earning them the designation of the only riparian tribe in Northeast India.
  • The cultural and daily life of the Mising people are centered around agriculture and fishing.
  • Traditionally, their agricultural practices were rooted in the ‘Jhum’ or slash-and-burn method.
  • However, following their migration to the plains of Assam, they have adapted and excelled in wet paddy cultivation, transforming into proficient settled cultivators.
  • The primary festival celebrated by the Mising community is ‘Ali-Aye-Ligang,’ which marks the beginning of the sowing season.
  • The term ‘Ali’ refers to edible roots, ‘Aye’ signifies seeds, and ‘Ligang’ translates to a sowing festival.
  • Additionally, the Mising people adhere to the cult of ‘Do-nyi – Po:lo,’ which is a form of worship dedicated to the Sun and the Moon.

Which of the following statements accurately depicts the relationship between the Mising tribe and their environment?

A) The Mising tribe primarily engages in nomadic pastoralism.

B) The Mising tribe is recognized as the only wholly terrestrial tribe of Northeast India.

C) The Mising tribe has a lifestyle that is closely linked to rivers, making them the only riparian tribe in Northeast India.

D) The Mising tribe’s activities are predominantly centered around urban commerce and trade.

Answer: C) The Mising tribe has a lifestyle that is closely linked to rivers, making them the only riparian tribe in Northeast India.

Explanation: The correct option emphasizes the Mising tribe’s unique relationship with their riverine environment. Options A, B, and D misrepresent the tribe’s lifestyle and cultural practices.

Death Penalty in India

  • The application of the death penalty by the Indian judiciary has recently faced scrutiny due to two contrasting murder cases.
  • On January 22, 2025, a civic volunteer was sentenced to life imprisonment for the rape and murder of a medical student, while a woman received the death penalty for poisoning her partner.
  • These verdicts have reignited discussions about the ‘rarest of rare’ doctrine, which currently lacks a precise statutory definition.

The Rarest of Rare Doctrine

The ‘rarest of rare’ doctrine originated from a Supreme Court ruling in 1980, asserting that the death penalty should only be administered in exceptional circumstances. Despite its importance, the term remains vaguely defined, leading to differing interpretations by judges across various cases.

Key Supreme Court Cases

  • In Jagmohan Singh vs. State of U.P. (1972), the Supreme Court affirmed the constitutionality of the death penalty but acknowledged the absence of explicit guidelines for judges, raising concerns about the fairness and equality of capital punishment.
  • Later, in Bachan Singh vs. State of Punjab (1980), the court established the ‘rarest of rare’ principle without defining its scope.
  • This framework was further elaborated in Machhi Singh vs. State of Punjab (1983), where the court identified five categories justifying the death penalty: the manner of the murder, the motive, the socially abhorrent nature of the crime, the magnitude of the offense, and the vulnerability of the victim.

Legislative Revisions and Challenges

  • Despite the established framework, challenges persist. In Mithu vs. State of Punjab (1983), the Supreme Court invalidated the mandatory death penalty for inmates serving life sentences, deeming it a violation of constitutional rights.
  • This ruling underscored the necessity for judicial discretion in capital cases. In 2022, the Supreme Court began discussions aimed at ensuring meaningful hearings for mitigating circumstances in death penalty cases, an effort to standardize the procedures for determining whether a crime qualifies as ‘rarest of rare.’

Contemporary Implications

  • The application of the death penalty in India remains a deeply contentious topic.
  • Recent verdicts expose disparities in judicial outcomes, and the absence of a universally accepted definition for ‘rarest of rare’ grants judges considerable latitude, resulting in inconsistent decisions.
  • Such inconsistencies raise significant concerns regarding the fairness and application of justice in capital punishment cases.

Public and Legal Discourse

  • The public discourse surrounding the death penalty is sharply divided.
  • Proponents argue for its essential role in deterring heinous crimes, while critics point to the risks of judicial errors and the ethical implications of capital punishment.
  • These ongoing debates mirror broader societal values and attitudes toward justice and retribution, underscoring the complexity of the issue within contemporary India.

What is the basis for the ‘rarest of rare’ doctrine as established by the Supreme Court of India?

  1. It allows for automatic imposition of the death penalty for all murder cases.
  2. It stipulates that the death penalty should be reserved only for exceptional circumstances.
  3. It mandates a minimum sentence of life imprisonment for all murders.
  4. It defines the specific method of execution in capital punishment cases.

Answer: B) It stipulates that the death penalty should be reserved only for exceptional circumstances.

Explanation: The doctrine was established to ensure that the death penalty is imposed only in extraordinary cases, though its ambiguity has led to varied interpretations.

National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA)

The Supreme Court has recently directed a supervisory committee, chaired by the head of the National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA), to investigate the issues raised by Tamil Nadu regarding the maintenance of the 125-year-old Mullaperiyar dam, which is situated in Kerala.

About the National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA)

The NDSA is a statutory body established by the Central Government under the provisions of Section 8(1) of the National Dam Safety Act, 2021. The authority is led by a chairman, supported by five members, each responsible for one of its five functional areas: policy and research, technical oversight, regulation, disaster resilience, and administration and finance. The NDSA’s headquarters is located in New Delhi.

Functions of the National Dam Safety Authority

The NDSA operates with a well-defined mandate to regulate, supervise, and inspect dams throughout the country. Its essential functions include:

Policy Formulation: Developing policies and guidelines related to the construction, maintenance, and operation of dams on a national level.

Dispute Resolution: Addressing and resolving conflicts arising between State Dam Safety Organisations or between these organisations and owners of specified dams within the respective states.

Public Awareness: Conducting nationwide awareness programs aimed at educating the public about dam safety and its importance.

Emergency Preparedness: Ensuring the establishment of comprehensive emergency response plans to address natural disasters or unexpected incidents related to dam safety.

Through these activities, the NDSA plays a vital role in ensuring the safety and integrity of dams across India.

Which of the following functions is NOT explicitly mentioned as a responsibility of the NDSA?

  1. Formulating policies for the construction of dams.
  2. Mediating disputes between State Dam Safety Organizations and dam owners.
  3. Implementing environmental assessments for all civil construction projects.
  4. Educating citizens about dam safety through awareness programs.

Answer: C implementing environmental assessments for all civil construction projects.

Explanation: While the NDSA focuses on dam safety, the implementation of environmental assessments for all construction projects is not within its stated functions.

Central Pollution Control Board

The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) recently submitted a report to the Principal Bench of the National Green Tribunal, outlining concerning findings regarding river water quality in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh, during the ongoing Maha Kumbh Mela.

      Overview of CPCB

  • The CPCB is a statutory organization established in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
  • Additionally, it was entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
  • The board serves as a field formation and provides technical support to the Ministry of Environment and Forests in accordance with the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Principal Functions of the CPCB

Water Quality Management: The CPCB promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells across various states through the prevention, control, and reduction of water pollution.

Air Quality Management: It aims to improve air quality and prevent, control, or abate air pollution throughout the country.

Advisory Role: The board advises the Central Government on issues related to the control and reduction of air and water pollution.

Coordination: CPCB coordinates the activities of State Pollution Control Boards, providing assistance, guidance, and conflict resolution in cases of disagreements among them.

Delegation of Powers: The CPCB has delegated its powers and responsibilities under the Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977, and the Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 to the relevant regional administrations concerning Union Territories.

Standard Development Activities

The CPCB undertakes the development and revision of environmental standards, along with upgrading the Comprehensive Industrial Document (COINDS) and formulating guidelines for environmental management across various industrial sectors.

In collaboration with the respective state governments, the CPCB establishes standards for stream and well water quality, air quality, and prepares manuals, codes, and guidance documents concerning the treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents, as well as technologies for stack gas cleaning devices, stacks, and ducts.

Standards Developed by CPCB

The CPCB develops standards for:

National Ambient Air Quality: Quality benchmarks for air across the country.

Water Quality Criteria: Standards from various sources of water.

Emission and Discharge Standards: For environmental pollutants from diverse industries (issued under the Environment Protection Rules, 1986).

Biomedical Waste Treatment and Disposal: Standards for incineration.

Noise Emission Limits: For diesel engines, LPG, and CNG generator sets.

Additionally, the CPCB formulates Minimal National Standards (MINAS) tailored for various industrial categories, encompassing effluent discharge (water pollutants), emissions (air pollutants), noise levels, and solid waste management. These standards are mandatory for State Governments to adopt as minimum requirements.

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):

  1. It is a statutory body functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
  2. It has the power to enforce pollution control measures across all states and Union Territories.
  3. It can directly take legal action against industries violating pollution norms.
  4. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 1 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: CPCB is a statutory body established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).

Statement 2 is incorrect: CPCB does not have direct enforcement powers over states; it provides guidelines and coordinates with State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs), which are responsible for enforcing pollution control at the state level.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While CPCB can issue directions and recommendations, direct legal action is typically taken by SPCBs or through the National Green Tribunal (NGT).

Double Pneumonia

Pope Francis, the 88-year-old leader of the Roman Catholic Church, is currently hospitalized due to double pneumonia, a serious condition that has developed from a complex respiratory infection complicated by his pre-existing lung issues. Given his age and medical history, this situation is particularly concerning.

What Is Double Pneumonia?

Pneumonia is an inflammation of the lungs typically caused by infections. Double pneumonia refers to a type of pneumonia that affects both lungs simultaneously.

It can arise from various pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi.

This condition exacerbates the severity of symptoms and the risk of complications.

Double pneumonia is commonly observed in individuals with weakened immune systems or chronic health issues.

Symptoms of Double Pneumonia

Key symptoms of double pneumonia include:

  • High fever
  • Persistent cough
  • Shortness of breath
  • Chest pain
  • Additionally, patients may exhibit confusion, particularly among the elderly.

In some cases, especially with severe immunodeficiency, individuals may not present a fever. Other possible symptoms include a rapid heart rate and muscle pain.

Causes and Risk Factors

Double pneumonia can result from multiple infectious agents, with common pathogens including Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza viruses. Risk factors for developing this condition include:

Impaired immune function

Chronic lung diseases

Exposure to environmental irritants

Older adults and young children are particularly at risk.

Prognosis and Complications

With appropriate treatment, many patients can recover within weeks.

However, if left untreated, double pneumonia can lead to severe complications such as respiratory failure and sepsis.

The risk of mortality is notably higher among older adults and individuals with compromised immunity.

Global Impact of Pneumonia

Pneumonia remains a leading cause of death globally, affecting millions each year, especially young children and the elderly.

The World Health Organization estimates that pneumonia claims the lives of around 700,000 children under the age of five annually.

With reference to double pneumonia, consider the following statements:

  1. Double pneumonia refers to an inflammatory condition affecting both lungs simultaneously.
  2. It can only be caused by bacterial infections, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae.
  3. Individuals with compromised immune systems or chronic illnesses are at a higher risk of developing double pneumonia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Double pneumonia affects both lungs, making it more severe than unilateral pneumonia.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common bacterial cause, viral and fungal pathogens (such as influenza viruses and fungi like Aspergillus) can also lead to double pneumonia.

Statement 3 is correct: Individuals with impaired immunity (elderly, those with chronic lung diseases, or immunosuppressive conditions) are at higher risk.

OPEC+ Latest News

Brazil’s Entry into OPEC+

Recently, the Brazilian government approved the country’s admission into OPEC+, the alliance of major oil-exporting nations.

About OPEC+ :

OPEC+ is a coalition of 22 oil-exporting countries that convenes regularly to determine the volume of crude oil to market globally. The primary objective of these nations is to collaboratively manage crude oil production to ensure stability in the oil market.

Origin of OPEC+

The formation of OPEC+ was formalized towards the end of 2016, establishing a framework for sustained cooperation between OPEC and non-OPEC oil-producing countries. This collaboration focuses on regular and systematic coordination in oil production.

Membership of OPEC+

At the core of OPEC+ are the 12 members of OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries), which primarily consist of Middle Eastern and African nations. In addition to the OPEC members, OPEC+ includes Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Russia, Mexico, Malaysia, South Sudan, Sudan, and Oman.

What is OPEC?

OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting nations, founded in 1960 by five founding members: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela.

Currently, OPEC comprises 12 member countries, including Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Libya, Nigeria, and the United Arab Emirates.

It is important to note that Angola will withdraw its membership effective January 1, 2024.

Headquarters: OPEC is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.

With reference to OPEC+, consider the following statements:

  1. OPEC+ was established in 2016 as a formal organization with a permanent secretariat.
  2. All OPEC+ members are also members of OPEC.
  3. The primary goal of OPEC+ is to regulate oil prices through coordinated production adjustments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While OPEC+ was formed in 2016, it is not a formal organization with a permanent secretariat. It is an informal alliance between OPEC and non-OPEC oil-producing nations.

Statement 2 is incorrect: OPEC+ includes both OPEC and non-OPEC members. Countries like Russia, Kazakhstan, and Mexico are part of OPEC+ but not OPEC.

Statement 3 is correct: The main objective of OPEC+ is oil price stability by adjusting production levels. This helps avoid sharp price fluctuations in the global oil market.

India and Argentina Strengthen Cooperation in Lithium Exploration

India and Argentina have engaged in discussions aimed at expanding mining cooperation, with a particular emphasis on lithium exploration.

Overview of Argentina’s Lithium Reserves: Argentina is a vital component of the “Lithium Triangle,” which positions it as a crucial partner for India in securing minerals essential for electric vehicle (EV) batteries and renewable energy storage solutions.

Current Initiatives: The discussions involved potential lithium exploration efforts led by Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) and Greenko, alongside increasing participation of Indian companies in Argentina’s mining sector.

About Lithium:

Lithium is a silvery-white, highly reactive metal.

Applications: It is primarily used in rechargeable lithium-ion batteries, which power a range of electronic devices including smartphones, laptops, and electric vehicles.

Global Production: The major sources of lithium production globally include Australia, Chile, and Argentina, all of which have significant reserves and are influential players in the international lithium market.

Lithium Triangle Explained:

The “Lithium Triangle” is a region in South America known for housing some of the largest lithium reserves in the world.

This triangular area spans parts of Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile, collectively holding 58% of the planet’s recognized lithium reserves.

India’s Engagement: India has been ramping up its diplomatic efforts to connect with Lithium Triangle Countries (LTCs) to secure access to this critical mineral.

Which of the following statements regarding lithium is incorrect?

A) Lithium is used predominantly in rechargeable lithium-ion batteries.

B) Lithium is a non-reactive silvery-white metal.

C) Australia, Chile, and Argentina are key producers of lithium.

D) Lithium reserves are concentrated within the “Lithium Triangle” in South America.

Answer: B) Lithium is a non-reactive silvery-white metal.

Explanation: This statement is incorrect because lithium is, in fact, a highly reactive silvery-white metal. Its reactivity is a significant factor in its industrial applications, particularly in battery technology, where it plays a crucial role.

 

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