15th may 2025 Current Affairs

Cabinet approves semiconductor unit in Uttar Pradesh

Syllabus:Governanace

The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved the establishment of a new semiconductor manufacturing unit, further advancing India’s journey towards self-reliance in the strategically vital semiconductor sector.
This will be the sixth unit under the India Semiconductor Mission, with five units already in advanced stages of construction. The newly approved facility will be a joint venture between HCL and Foxconn, combining HCL’s legacy in hardware development with Foxconn’s global expertise in electronics manufacturing.

Location & Production:

The plant will be set up near Jewar Airport in the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA)
It will manufacture display driver chips for use in mobile phones, laptops, automobiles, PCs, and other display-enabled devices.
Designed for a capacity of 20,000 wafers/month and an output of 36 million units/month.

Investment & Ecosystem:

The project involves an investment of ₹3,700 crore.
India’s semiconductor ecosystem is rapidly expanding, with global equipment giants like Applied Materials and Lam Research, and gas and chemical suppliers such as Merck, Linde, Air Liquide, and Inox establishing a presence in India.

Academic & Startup Contributions:

Over 270 academic institutions and 70 startups are engaged in advanced chip design and innovation.
20 student-developed products have already been successfully taped out at SCL Mohali.
As India witnesses a surge in demand for semiconductors across sectors—ranging from consumer electronics to defence—the new unit is a significant step towards realizing Prime Minister Modi’s vision of an Atmanirbhar Bharat.

Consider the following statements with respect to India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem:

The India Semiconductor Mission is being implemented under the aegis of the National Policy on Electronics 2019.
Applied Materials and Lam Research are key players in semiconductor design software being developed in India.
Display driver chips are typically used in digital screens but not in automobiles due to electromagnetic interference issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Applied Materials and Lam Research are semiconductor equipment manufacturers, not design software companies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Display driver chips are used in automotive displays as well.

NRFMTTI achieves CMVR testing approval for Agricultural Tractors

Syllabus:Geography

The Northern Region Farm Machinery Training & Testing Institute (NRFMTTI), Hisar (Haryana) has achieved two major milestones:
Approval as a CMVR Testing Agency for Agricultural Tractors
NABL Accreditation for CMVR Testing of Agricultural Tractors and Combine Harvesters
NRFMTTI, a premier institution in the field of training and testing of agricultural machinery, is now an authorized agency to carry out CMVR (Central Motor Vehicle Rules) testing for agricultural tractors, in addition to combine harvesters.
The institute has also been granted NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories) accreditation, further validating the quality and reliability of its CMVR testing services.
This development will significantly benefit tractor manufacturers in Northern India, allowing them to conduct mandatory CMVR testing locally at NRFMTTI. Furthermore, NABL-accredited CMVR certification will improve the global credibility and acceptance of test results for agricultural tractors and combine harvesters, supporting domestic industry and exports.

Which of the following statements regarding the recent accreditation and approval granted to NRFMTTI, Hisar is/are correct?

It has been approved as a CMVR testing agency exclusively for Combine Harvesters.
It has received NABL accreditation for CMVR testing of both agricultural tractors and Combine Harvesters.
The institute is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
The CMVR certification by NABL-accredited institutions is mandatory for domestic tractor sales under the Farm Mechanization Policy.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer:A.2only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect — NRFMTTI is approved for both tractors and harvesters.
Statement 3 is incorrect — it is under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
Statement 4 is incorrect — while CMVR compliance is legally required, NABL certification enhances global acceptance but is not specifically mandated under a “Farm Mechanization Policy.”

Ministry of Culture & IBC to Celebrate Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas with Prayers, Dialogue, and Cultural Splendour at Dr. BR Ambedkar International Centre

Syllabus:History

The Ministry of Culture and International Buddhist Confederation (IBC) is set to commemorate the sacred occasion of Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas—the Triple Blessed Day marking the Birth, Enlightenment, and Mahāparinirvāna of Lord Shākyamuni Buddha.
The event will be held at Dr B R Ambedkar International Centre (Auditorium), Janpath, New Delhi on 15^thMay 2025 (Thursday).
The Guest of Honour for the event will be Shri Kiren Rijiju, Minister of Parliamentary Affairs and Minority Affairs and the Chief Guest will be Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat, Minister of Culture & Tourism.
The programme will feature prayers and a thought-provoking panel discussion on the theme: ‘Application of Buddha Dhamma in Conflict Resolution’.
Esteemed Buddhist scholar-monks and domain experts, including Geshe Dorji Damdul (Director, Tibet House, New Delhi), Prof. Hira Paul Gang Negi (Former HoD, Buddhist Studies, Delhi University), and Prof. Bimlendra Kumar (Professor, Pali & Buddhist Studies, BHU), will share insights on the timeless relevance of Buddha’s teachings.
A special address will be delivered by the distinguished Buddhist nun, Ven. Gyaltsen Samten, and the Ratana Sutta will be rendered by renowned singer Ms. Subhadra Desai.
Highlighting the cultural and spiritual significance of the day, two major exhibitions will be showcased:

Comparative Buddhist Art History of India

Life and Teachings of the Buddha

These exhibitions were part of the United Nations Vesak Day 2025 celebrations in Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam, held alongside the exposition of the Holy Relics of the Buddha from Sarnath across four Vietnamese cities.
The event will also feature screenings of a documentary on the Dissemination of Buddha Dhamma in Asia and a film on the Exposition of the Holy Relics of the Buddha.
Though the full moon of Vaiśākha falls on May 12 this year, the sanctity of the occasion leads to celebrations across the entire month.
This gathering on May 15 stands as part of this global and month-long observance of Vesak/Vaishakha Day.
The commemoration will conclude with a cultural performance by acclaimed artist Guru Alpana Nayak and her troupe, celebrating the spiritual and artistic heritage inspired by the Buddha’s life and teachings.

With reference to the 2025 commemoration of Vaiśākha Buddha Pūrṇimā Divas organized by the Ministry of Culture and the International Buddhist Confederation (IBC), consider the following statements:

The event commemorates the Birth, Enlightenment, and First Sermon of Lord Buddha as per the Theravāda Buddhist tradition.
The exhibitions displayed at the event were earlier part of the United Nations Vesak Day 2025 celebrations held in Hanoi, Vietnam.
Distinguished Buddhist scholars from Indian academic institutions participated in a panel discussion on the application of Buddha Dhamma in conflict resolution.
The event featured a rendering of the Ratana Sutta and concluded with a cultural performance showcasing the spiritual heritage associated with the Buddha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C. 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect – The event marks the Birth, Enlightenment, and Mahāparinirvāṇa of Lord Buddha, not the First Sermon. These three are collectively referred to as the “Triple Blessed Day.”
Statement 2 is incorrect – The UN Vesak Day 2025 celebrations were held in Ho Chi Minh City, not Hanoi, and included an exposition of the Holy Relics across four cities in Vietnam.
Statement 3 is correct – Scholars from Indian institutions (like DU and BHU) such as Prof. Hira Paul Gang Negi and Prof. Bimlendra Kumar participated in the panel on conflict resolution.
Statement 4 is correct – The event featured the Ratana Sutta rendered by Subhadra Desai and concluded with a cultural performance by Guru Alpana Nayak and her

DRDO develops high-pressure polymeric membrane for sea water desalination

Syllabus:Defence

The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully developed an indigenous nanoporous multilayered polymeric membrane designed for high-pressure seawater desalination.
This advanced technology has been developed by the Defence Materials Stores and Research & Development Establishment (DMSRDE), a DRDO laboratory based in Kanpur, specifically to meet the operational needs of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG).
Addressing the critical issue of membrane stability in chloride-rich saline environments, the innovation was completed in a record time of just eight months.
The technology has been integrated into the desalination systems aboard ICG’s Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs), where initial technical trials have been conducted successfully.
These safety and performance trials demonstrated that the membrane performed to expectations under operational conditions.
The final operational clearance will be granted by the ICG following 500 hours of rigorous field testing currently underway on the OPVs.
Once validated, this membrane will also have the potential to be adapted for civilian desalination applications in coastal regions, offering a significant technological edge.
This achievement marks another milestone in DRDO’s contribution to Aatmanirbhar Bharat, reinforcing India’s self-reliance in advanced defence and dual-use technologies.

Consider the following statements regarding the indigenous nanoporous multilayered polymeric membrane developed by DRDO for seawater desalination:

The membrane technology was developed to specifically counter the destabilizing effects of magnesium ions in seawater.
The development was led by Defence Materials Stores and Research & Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur.
Initial operational trials were conducted on Indian Coast Guard Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs).
Final operational clearance requires at least 500 hours of testing.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer: B) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The membrane was designed to address the challenge of stability against chloride ions, not specifically magnesium ions.
Statement 2 is correct: DMSRDE, Kanpur developed the technology.
Statement 3 is correct: Trials were conducted on Indian Coast Guard OPVs.
Statement 4 is correct: Final clearance will be given after 500 hours of operational testing.

SAMRIDH Scheme

Syllabus:Governance

Recent Incident:

Two individuals, including a chartered accountant, were recently arrested for allegedly defrauding the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) of over ₹3 crore under the guise of availing benefits from the government-backed SAMRIDH scheme meant for startup support.

About the SAMRIDH Scheme
Full Form:
SAMRIDH stands for Startup Accelerator of MeitY for Product Innovation, Development and Growth.

Launched Under:

National Policy on Software Products – 2019

Nodal Ministry:

Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)

Implementing Agencies: MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH) and Digital India Corporation (DIC)

Key Objectives:

To support existing and upcoming startup accelerators in selecting and scaling promising IT-based startups.
To provide startups with support in areas such as:
Customer acquisition
Investor access
Entry into international markets

Funding Structure:

The scheme offers an investment of up to ₹40 lakh per startup, depending on its valuation and growth stage.
A matching contribution from the selected accelerator is required.
Financial support is provided through selected accelerators after rigorous screening.

Implementation Details:

In the first cohort, 22 accelerators across 12 states are engaged.
A total of 175 startups have been selected via a multi-level screening process.
Accelerators span public institutions, academic bodies, private players, and early-stage funding platforms.

Focus Sectors:

Health-tech
Ed-tech
Agri-tech
Consumer-tech
Fin-tech
SaaS (Software as a Service)
Sustainability

Support Services Provided by Accelerators:

Market research and product positioning diagnostics
Mentorship by experts in relevant tech verticals
Legal assistance in IP, incorporation, and regulatory matters
Networking and shared learning opportunities
Weekly peer interaction among startup founders
Demo Days with venture capitalists and angel investors
Support in closing investment deals

With reference to the SAMRIDH Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), consider the following statements:

The scheme provides equity-based investment up to ₹40 lakh per startup and mandates a matching contribution from the accelerator.
It supports startups exclusively in the sectors notified under the Startup India Action Plan.
MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH) and Digital India Corporation are the nodal agencies responsible for implementing the scheme.
Only government-recognized academic institutions are allowed to act as accelerators under the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct – The scheme provides financial assistance up to ₹40 lakh per startup and requires equal matching investment from the accelerator.
Statement 2: Incorrect – SAMRIDH supports IT-based startups in domains like health-tech, ed-tech, SaaS, and sustainability, not limited to the Startup India Action Plan.
Statement 3: Correct – It is implemented by MeitY Start-up Hub and Digital India Corporation.
Statement 4: Incorrect – Accelerators include not only government-supported academic institutions but also private organizations and early-stage funding platforms

Active Galactic Nucleus (AGN)

Syllabus:Science and Technology

Astronomers from the Russian Academy of Sciences have identified 11 new Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs) during an all-sky X-ray survey conducted with the Spektr-RG (SRG) space observatory. The findings emerged from the optical and X-ray analysis of sources listed in the ARTSS1-5 catalog, utilizing the ART-XC telescope onboard SRG.

What are Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs)?

AGNs are extremely luminous, compact regions located at the centers of galaxies. Their high-energy emissions—often exceeding that of the rest of the galaxy—originate primarily from:
Accretion of matter by supermassive black holes, or
Intense star formation activity.
AGNs play a vital role in astrophysics by offering insights into the formation, evolution, and energetic processes of galaxies.

Key Findings:

Redshift Range: All 11 AGNs are located at redshifts between 028 and 0.258, indicating relatively nearby cosmic distances.
X-ray Luminosity: Their luminosities range from 2 × 10³⁹ to 3 × 10⁴¹ erg/s, consistent with known AGN energy profiles.

Classification: Seyfert Galaxies

All AGNs were identified as Seyfert galaxies, a subclass of AGNs known for their bright cores and strong emissions in X-ray and infrared spectra.

Breakdown:

7 AGNs: Seyfert Type 1 (Sy 1) – Broad optical emission lines.
3 AGNs: Seyfert Type 1.9 (Sy 1.9) – Partially broadened emission lines.
1 AGN: Seyfert Type 2 (Sy 2) – Narrow emission lines only.
Seyfert galaxies often resemble normal galaxies in visible light but display powerful radiation signatures due to active supermassive black holes at their centers.

With reference to Active Galactic Nuclei (AGNs) and their recent detection by the Spektr-RG (SRG) observatory, consider the following statements:

AGNs are among the most luminous sources in the universe, primarily due to nuclear fusion processes occurring at the galactic core.
The ART-XC telescope aboard Spektr-RG is capable of conducting high-energy X-ray observations used for AGN classification.
Seyfert Type 1 galaxies exhibit only narrow emission lines, while Seyfert Type 2 galaxies show broad emission lines.
All 11 newly detected AGNs lie within redshifts less than 0.3, indicating relatively close proximity in cosmological terms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The luminosity of AGNs arises primarily due to accretion of matter into a supermassive black hole, not from nuclear fusion like in stars.
Statement 2 is correct: The ART-XC telescope is indeed designed for X-ray astronomy and is used in AGN detection and classification.
Statement 3 is incorrect: This reverses the characteristics. Seyfert Type 1 galaxies have broad emission lines, while Type 2 show narrow lines.
Statement 4 is correct: All detected AGNs have redshifts between 0.028 and 0.258, placing them in the nearby universe on a cosmic scale.

Afrikaners – Africa’s White Tribe

Syllabus:Society

The U.S. recently welcomed its first group of Afrikaner refugees, drawing attention to the historical and sociocultural origins of this unique community.

Who are the Afrikaners?:

Afrikaners are a white ethnic group indigenous to South Africa, often described as “Africa’s White Tribe” due to their centuries-long rooted presence on the African continent. Their origin traces back to 1652, when Jan van Riebeeck, under the aegis of the Dutch East India Company (VOC), established a resupply post at the Cape of Good Hope.
The early settler population, primarily Dutch Protestants, was later joined by French Huguenots fleeing religious persecution following the Revocation of the Edict of Nantes (1685) and by German migrants. The enslaved populations brought from India, Indonesia, Madagascar, and East Africa further contributed to the socio-cultural fabric of the Cape Colony.

Development of Afrikaner Identity:

Afrikaner identity evolved through a complex process of ethnogenesis, shaped by interaction between European settlers, enslaved peoples, and indigenous groups such as the Khoikhoi.
The emergence of Afrikaans, a language derived from Dutch but influenced by various local and foreign tongues, symbolized this distinct cultural formation.
The socio-economic structure was characterized by paternalistic hierarchies and frontier-style subsistence living, particularly among the Trekboers—semi-nomadic pastoralists who moved inland during the 18th century.
Their migration frequently resulted in violent confrontations with indigenous communities.
Afrikaner society was also deeply influenced by Calvinist doctrines, fostering a culture of self-reliance, religious conservatism, and militarization.

With reference to the historical formation and identity of the Afrikaner community in South Africa, consider the following statements:

The Afrikaners are primarily descended from Dutch, French, and German settlers who arrived in South Africa before the 19th century.
The Afrikaner language, Afrikaans, evolved as a derivative of English with influences from indigenous African languages.
The socio-cultural identity of Afrikaners was shaped significantly by Calvinist religious beliefs and frontier-style living.
The Trekboers were a settled agrarian community that avoided conflicts with indigenous populations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: Afrikaners trace their lineage mainly to Dutch Protestants, French Huguenots, and Germans who settled in the Cape Colony starting in the 17th century.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: Afrikaans developed primarily from Dutch, not English, and was influenced by other European, Asian, and African
Statement 3 – Correct: Afrikaner culture was shaped by Calvinist religious beliefs and a militant, frontier lifestyle, especially among the Trekboers.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Trekboers were semi-nomadic pastoralists, not settled agrarians, and often engaged in violent conflicts with indigenous communities.

Centralised Information Management System (CIMS)

Syllabus:Polity

The Centralised Information Management System (CIMS), developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), is a next-generation data warehouse designed to manage vast volumes of structured and unstructured data. It facilitates data aggregation, analysis, public dissemination, and governance across multiple financial and economic domains.
Recently, RBI mandated that all Regulated Entities (REs) report details of their Digital Lending Apps (DLAs) through the CIMS portal, enhancing regulatory oversight in the digital lending ecosystem.

Key Features of CIMS:

Utilizes advanced technologies to handle Big Data and supports data mining, text analytics, visual analytics, and advanced statistical modeling.
Integrates data from diverse domains such as financial, fiscal, external, corporate, real sectors, and price indices.

Advantages:

Improves efficiency and accuracy of regulatory data reporting by REs.
Enables cloud-based electronic submissions, reducing operational burden on banks and financial institutions.
Enhances the timeliness and quality of data received by RBI.
Facilitates real-time monitoring and early identification of systemic risks in the financial ecosystem.
Strengthens communication channels between the RBI and regulated institutions.
CIMS is a strategic initiative toward modernizing India’s regulatory architecture, supporting informed decision-making and proactive risk management within the financial sector.

With reference to the Centralised Information Management System (CIMS) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consider the following statements:

CIMS enables the RBI to integrate and analyze data exclusively from the financial and monetary sectors.
It allows Regulated Entities (REs) to submit regulatory data using cloud-based infrastructure.
CIMS supports real-time Big Data analytics and advanced statistical modeling to facilitate proactive financial surveillance.
The primary purpose of CIMS is to monitor and regulate external sector transactions such as foreign trade and capital inflows.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: CIMS integrates data from multiple domains including financial, external, fiscal, corporate, real sectors, and price indices, not just financial and monetary sectors.
Statement 2 is correct: CIMS allows cloud-based electronic submission of reports by Regulated Entities.
Statement 3 is correct: It is built to handle Big Data and supports data mining, visual analytics, and advanced modeling to enhance surveillance capabilities.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Monitoring external transactions is only a part of its broad mandate; the system is not primarily designed for that purpose.

India rolls over $50 million worth Treasury Bill to help Maldives

Syllabus:Economy

Recent findings published in Earth and Planetary Science Letters have unveiled that the Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains (GSM) in East Antarctica began forming over 500 million years ago, during the assembly of the Gondwana supercontinent.

What Are the Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains?

The Gamburtsev Mountains are a completely buried mountain range, lying beneath the East Antarctic Ice Sheet, at the continent’s highest elevation.
Discovered in 1958 by a Soviet seismic survey, these mountains remain entirely concealed under several kilometers of ice, unlike the Transantarctic Mountains, which are partially exposed.
Their existence within the tectonically stable East Antarctic craton has long puzzled geologists, as typical mountain formation results from active plate tectonics (e.g., collision, subduction), not in geologically inert zones.

Unlocking the Past: Zircon Analysis

Researchers traced the origin and evolution of GSM through zircon grains found in sandstone deposits in the Prince Charles Mountains, carried by ancient river systems originating from the buried range.
Zircons, containing trace amounts of uranium, serve as natural radioactive clocks. Uranium decays at a known rate, allowing for precise radiometric dating.

Chronology of Formation

The study’s zircon dating revealed the following geological timeline:
~650 million years ago (Ma): Initial uplift began, possibly due to ancient tectonic reactivation.
~580 Ma: The mountain range reached Himalayan-scale elevations.
~500 Ma: Crustal melting and viscous flow activity ceased, stabilizing the range during Gondwana’s assembly.

Significance

The GSM’s formation represents a rare instance of mountain-building deep within a stable continental interior and provides critical insights into:
Ancient tectono-thermal events in East Antarctica,
The pre-glacial landscape evolution of the continent,
The geodynamic history surrounding the formation of supercontinents like Gondwana.

With reference to the formation and geological significance of the Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains (GSM) in East Antarctica, consider the following statements:

The GSM are entirely buried beneath the East Antarctic Ice Sheet and were first discovered during the International Geophysical Year in 1958 by a Soviet seismic expedition.
Geological evidence suggests that the GSM began forming approximately 650 million years ago, reaching their peak elevation around 580 million years ago, with crustal melting and flow ceasing around 500 million years ago.
The formation of the GSM is attributed to tectonic collisions during the assembly of the supercontinent Gondwana, despite East Antarctica’s long-standing tectonic stability.
The GSM are currently the only known mountain range completely buried beneath an ice sheet, making them unique in Earth’s geological record.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A. 1, 2, and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Gamburtsev Subglacial Mountains were indeed discovered in 1958 by a Soviet seismic expedition during the International Geophysical Year.
Statement 2: Zircon dating from sandstones in the Prince Charles Mountains indicates that the GSM began uplifting around 650 million years ago, achieved significant elevation by 580 million years ago, and experienced crustal melting and flow that ceased approximately 500 million years ago.
Statement 3: The formation of the GSM is linked to tectonic collisions during the assembly of Gondwana, which is notable given East Antarctica’s current tectonic stability.
Statement 4: While the GSM are a significant example of a mountain range entirely buried beneath an ice sheet, they are not the only such range. Other subglacial mountain ranges exist beneath the Antarctic Ice Sheet, such as the Transantarctic Mountains, parts of which are also buried under ice.