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TOne Academy

15th april 2025 Current Affairs

UP’s Zero Poverty Scheme to be Named After Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Syllabus:   Scheme

 

 

  • On the occasion of Bharat Ratna Dr. B. R. Ambedkar’s 135th birth anniversary, Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath announced that the state’s ambitious ‘Zero Poverty’ Mission will be named in honor of Baba Saheb.
  • The declaration was made at a commemorative event held at the Ambedkar Mahasabha campus in Lucknow on April 14, 2025.

 

Honoring a Visionary

  • Paying tribute to Dr. Ambedkar, the architect of the Indian Constitution, CM Yogi emphasized the BJP government’s commitment to upholding his ideals.
  • He also criticized opposition parties for failing to respect and preserve Ambedkar’s legacy, asserting that the current government is actively working to realize his vision of social justice and equality.

 

Mission Objectives

  • The newly named Zero Poverty Scheme aims to eradicate poverty across Uttar Pradesh—the most populous state in India—by uplifting every underprivileged and deprived individual above the poverty line.
  • The initiative will follow a saturation-based approach, ensuring that every eligible family receives the full range of government welfare benefits.

 

Target Communities

  • The scheme will prioritize assistance to marginalized and tribal groups, including:
  • Musahar
  • Vantangia
  • Tharu
  • Sahariya
  • Gond
  • Kol

 

Comprehensive Benefits

  • Under the initiative, beneficiaries will receive a host of essential amenities, including:
  • Land allotment
  • Housing
  • Toilets under the Swachh Bharat Mission
  • Pensions
  • Ration cards
  • Ayushman Bharat health cards

 

Implementation Strategy

  • The state government plans to cover 14 to 15 lakh families in a single phase. Gram Panchayats will play a key role in implementation by identifying 20–25 families in each village who are still excluded from existing welfare schemes.

 

Support from Central Initiatives

  • CM Yogi highlighted the synergy between the new scheme and ongoing central government programs launched under Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s leadership:
  • Free ration for 80 crore citizens
  • Health insurance for 50 crore people under Ayushman Bharat
  • Construction of 12 crore toilets
  • Clean cooking fuel for 10 crore households under Ujjwala Yojana
  • 45 crore Jan Dhan bank accounts
  • 4 crore houses provided under various housing schemes

 

Political Reactions

  • On the same day, BSP chief Mayawati and SP president Akhilesh Yadav also paid homage to Dr. Ambedkar, presenting alternative perspectives on Dalit welfare and his vision for an egalitarian society. Their statements underscored the ongoing political significance of Ambedkar’s legacy in contemporary Indian politics.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the ‘Zero Poverty’ Mission announced in Uttar Pradesh?

  1. The scheme is named after Bharat Ratna Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
  2. It aims to ensure benefits reach only Scheduled Castes.
  3. The implementation is based on a saturation approach.
  4. The scheme will cover 80 crore beneficiaries across India.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

 

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme targets multiple marginalized and tribal communities, not just Scheduled Castes. Statement 4 refers to a central scheme, not the UP-specific mission.

Six New Scarab Beetles Discovered in India

Syllabus:Environment

  • India’s remarkable biodiversity continues to unfold as scientists report the discovery of six new species of scarab beetles from two of the country’s premier ecological regions—Northeast India and the Western Ghats.
  • The findings, recently published in the peer-reviewed journal Zootaxa, emphasize the critical need for sustained conservation, research, and biodiversity mapping.

 

 

New Species Identified (Subfamily: Sericinae)

The newly documented beetles belong to the subfamily Sericinae, known for their roles in ecosystem functioning. The six species are:

  • Maladera champhaiensis – Discovered in Champhai, Mizoram
  • Maladera barasingha – Named after the swamp deer (barasingha) due to its antler-like structure
  • Maladera lumlaensis – Found in Lumla, Arunachal Pradesh
  • Maladera onam – Located in Kerala; named after the Onam festival
  • Neoserica churachandpurensis – Identified in Churachandpur, Manipur
  • Serica subansiriensis – From Subansiri, Arunachal Pradesh

 

Research Team & Collaborative Effort

The species were described by:

  • Devanshu Gupta
  • Debika Bhunia
  • Dirk Ahrens
  • Kailash Chandra

This research represents a collaborative endeavor between the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) and Germany’s Museum Alexander Koenig, highlighting the importance of international cooperation in taxonomy and conservation science.

 

Regions of Discovery

  • Five species were discovered in Northeast India, a region falling within the Eastern Himalayas—an area celebrated for its endemic diversity and evolutionary significance.
  • One species was found in Kerala, part of the Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its exceptional biodiversity.

 

Methodology & Additional Findings

The discoveries were based on the examination of specimens housed in the National Zoological Collection maintained by the ZSI. As a result of this detailed survey, 28 new state-level distribution records were also established. Notable examples include:

  • Maladera bengalensis recorded for the first time in Goa
  • Maladera seriatoguttata in Maharashtra

 

Ecological Significance of Sericinae Beetles

Beetles of the Sericinae subfamily are ecologically important, playing key roles in:

  • Soil aeration
  • Nutrient cycling
  • Natural pest regulation

While some species are agricultural pests, many contribute significantly to maintaining soil health and ecosystem stability.

 

Why It Matters

  • This discovery not only enriches the understanding of India’s insect biodiversity but also:
  • Reinforces the ecological significance of India’s biodiversity hotspots
  • Urges the need for deeper scientific exploration and documentation
  • Emphasizes the importance of preserving fragile ecosystems amid growing environmental threats.

Which of the following biodiversity hotspots are associated with the recent discovery of six new Sericinae scarab beetle species in India?

  1. Eastern Himalayas
  2. Sundarbans
  3. Western Ghats
  4. Indo-Gangetic Plains

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: India is home to four biodiversity hotspots as recognized globally:

Eastern Himalayas

  • Indo-Burma (includes parts of Northeast India)
  • Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
  • Sundaland (includes Nicobar Islands)

In the recent discovery published in Zootaxa, six new Sericinae scarab beetle species were identified. Their locations are:

Five species were discovered in Northeast India, which falls within the Eastern Himalayas hotspot. These include:

  • Maladera champhaiensis (Mizoram)
  • Maladera barasingha
  • Maladera lumlaensis (Arunachal Pradesh)
  • Neoserica churachandpurensis (Manipur)
  • Serica subansiriensis (Arunachal Pradesh)

One species, Maladera onam, was found in Kerala, part of the Western Ghats, another biodiversity hotspot.

Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy Honoured with ‘Legends of Endoscopy’ Award in Tokyo

Syllabus: Awards

  • In a moment of international recognition for Indian medical excellence, D. Nageshwar Reddy, Chairman of AIG Hospitals, Hyderabad, has been conferred with the prestigious ‘Legends of Endoscopy’ award.
  • The honor was bestowed upon him by a distinguished community of Japanese gastroenterologists at the Tokyo Live Global Endoscopy 2025 event, held at SHOWA Medical University Koto Toyosu Hospital in Tokyo, Japan.

 

 

Key Highlights

 Award Recognition

  • Title: Legends of Endoscopy
  • Recipient: D. Nageshwar Reddy
  • Institution: AIG Hospitals, Hyderabad
  • Awarding Body: Japanese gastroenterology community
  • Event: Tokyo Live Global Endoscopy 2025
  • Venue: SHOWA Medical University, Tokyo

 

Contributions Recognized

  • Renowned for his pioneering advancements in Gastrointestinal (GI) Endoscopy
  • Demonstrated live complex endoscopic procedures, showcasing cutting-edge minimally invasive techniques
  • Advocated for innovation and precision in endoscopic diagnostics and therapies

 

 Global Significance

  • Reinforces India’s leadership in advanced GI treatments and minimally invasive medical technologies
  • Highlights Dr. Reddy’s influence as a global thought leader in therapeutic and diagnostic endoscopy

About AIG Hospitals

  • AIG (Asian Institute of Gastroenterology) Hospitals, based in Hyderabad, is a leading super-specialty institution specializing in gastroenterology
  • Known for its high-end clinical research, innovation, and world-class treatment protocols.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent international recognition received by Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy:

  1. The award was conferred by a Japanese governmental medical body.
  2. It highlights India’s advancements in minimally invasive gastroenterological techniques.
  3. The venue of the award event is located in Tokyo’s leading endoscopy-specific institution.
  4. AIG Hospitals, under Dr. Reddy’s leadership, is primarily focused on general medicine and surgical oncology.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The award was given by a professional gastroenterology community, not a government body.
  • Statement 2 is correct: His work is in minimally invasive GI endoscopy.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The SHOWA Medical University Koto Toyosu Hospital is a prominent center for live endoscopy events.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: AIG Hospitals focuses on gastroenterology, not general medicine or oncology.

Delhi Airport Ranked 9th Busiest in the World As ACI World Report 2024

Syllabus: Indices and Reports

  • In a significant milestone for India’s civil aviation sector, Indira Gandhi International (IGI) Airport, Delhi, has been ranked the 9th busiest airport in the world for the year 2024, according to preliminary rankings released by the Airports Council International (ACI) World.

 

Key Details:

  • Rank Achieved: 9th globally in terms of total passenger traffic.
  • Passenger Volume (2024): 77 million passengers handled.
  • Ranking Authority: Airports Council International (ACI) World.
  • Operated by: Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL), led by the GMR Group.

 

 

Ranking Progression (Year-wise):

  • 2019: 17th
  • 2021: 13th
  • 2023: 10th
  • 2024: 9th

This consistent climb in global rankings underscores IGI Airport’s expanding international connectivity, robust infrastructure upgrades, and sustained growth in passenger traffic.

 

Global Aviation Context (2024):

  • Total Global Traffic:5 billion passengers
  • Growth: 9% increase over 2023 and 3.8% above pre-COVID levels (2019)
  • Top 10 Airports: Handled 855 million passengers (~9% of global traffic)

 

Top Airports:

  • 1st: Atlanta Hartsfield–Jackson (USA) – 108 million+ passengers
  • 2nd: Dubai International (UAE)

 

Delhi IGI Airport Highlights:

  • Only Indian airport in the global top 10 list.
  • Connects to: Over 150 domestic and international destinations.
  • Awards: Winner of the ACI Airport Service Quality (ASQ) Award for “Best Airport in Asia-Pacific” for the 7th consecutive year (2024).

 

CEO’s Statement: Videh Kumar Jaipuriar, CEO of DIAL, emphasized that the improved ranking reflects ongoing efforts to enhance passenger experience, infrastructure, and global connectivity.

With reference to the Airports Council International (ACI) World Rankings 2024, which of the following are correct?

  1. IGI Airport saw a rise in global ranking consistently since 2019.
  2. The total global air traffic in 2024 was higher than pre-pandemic levels.
  3. The top 10 airports accounted for over one-fourth of the global passenger volume.
  4. IGI is the only Indian airport to be featured in the global top 10 list.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1: Correct – IGI rose from 17th in 2019 to 9th in 2024.
  • Statement 2: Correct – 2024 traffic exceeded pre-COVID levels by 3.8%.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect – Top 10 airports handled 855 million passengers, ~9% of global traffic, not over 25%.
  • Statement 4: Correct – IGI is the only Indian airport in the top 10.

SC Laid Down 3 Month Deadline For President To Assent Bill Reserved By Governor

  • In a constitutional milestone, the Supreme Court of India, through its 2023 judgment in State of Tamil Nadu vs. Governor of Tamil Nadu, addressed long-standing ambiguities surrounding Article 201 of the Constitution—pertaining to Presidential assent on State Bills.
  • For the first time, the Court introduced a time-bound framework and clarified the scope of constitutional propriety in such matters, thereby reinforcing the values of cooperative federalism and curbing executive arbitrariness.

 

 

 

Key Constitutional Provisions Involved

Article 201: Empowers the President to grant or withhold assent to State Bills reserved by the Governor.

Article 143: Allows the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on legal or constitutional questions.

 

Major Judicial Pronouncements

  1. Mandating a Time Frame for Presidential Action
  • The Court ruled that the President must decide within three months of receiving a State Bill under Article 201.
  • Previously, no deadline existed, often resulting in legislative deadlock.
  • The Court emphasized that indefinite inaction is arbitrary and violates the Constitution’s spirit.
  1. Prohibition of an “Absolute Veto”
  • The President cannot withhold assent indefinitely, as this would effectively amount to an unconstitutional absolute veto.
  • Presidential decisions must be communicated to the State and be legally justified, not based on political grounds.

 

Judicial Remedies for States

  • States are entitled to file writ petitions (e.g., mandamus) in case of prolonged executive inaction on reserved Bills.
  • This offers a constitutional check on executive delays, ensuring legislative sovereignty of State Assemblies.

 

Use of Article 143: Seeking SC’s Advisory Opinion

  • In instances where a Governor reserves a Bill citing constitutional invalidity, the Court advised that the President should invoke Article 143 to consult the Supreme Court.
  • Though advisory, such opinions are of high persuasive value.
  • This mechanism would prevent the enactment of unconstitutional laws, thereby conserving judicial and legislative resources.

 

Governor vs. President: A Critical Distinction

  • If a Governor returns a Bill and it is re-passed by the State Legislature, he is constitutionally bound to assent.
  • The President, however, is not similarly bound under Article 201, reinforcing the need for judicial oversight in cases of delay.
  • Policy vs. Constitutionality
  • The Supreme Court will intervene only when legal or constitutional issues are involved—not when the matter pertains to policy or socio-economic discretion.
  • This delineation prevents judicial overreach into legislative or executive domains.

 

Supporting Recommendations

Sarkaria Commission (1988) and Punchhi Commission (2010):

  • Recommended fixed timelines for Presidential decisions under Article 201.
  • Advocated invoking Article 143 in cases of constitutional doubts.

MHA Office Memorandums (2016) also prescribed a 3-month timeline, which the Court reinforced through this judgment.

 

Conclusion

  • This judgment marks a transformative moment in Indian federalism by injecting clarity, accountability, and constitutional discipline into the often opaque process of Presidential assent.
  • It restores balance between the Union and the States and strengthens the federal fabric envisioned by the Constitution.

Which of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s interpretation of Article 201 in State of Tamil Nadu vs. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2023) is/are correct?

  1. The President must act on a reserved State Bill within a constitutionally mandated time frame of three months.
  2. The Supreme Court held that the President has absolute discretion to withhold assent without providing reasons.
  3. The judgment enables States to seek judicial remedy if there is prolonged inaction by the President.
  4. The Governor is not constitutionally bound to assent even if a Bill is re-passed by the State Legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

 

Answer: A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Court mandated a 3-month deadline for Presidential action.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court explicitly rejected the idea of an “absolute veto”.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The judgment allows States to approach courts via writs in case of prolonged inaction.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: It is the Governor who must assent if the Bill is re-passed.

West Bengal CM Mamata Banerjee Will Inaugurate Jagannath Temple in Digha

Syllabus: Art and Culture

 

  • West Bengal is gearing up for a significant religious and cultural event—the inauguration of the Jagannath Dham Temple in Digha, one of the state’s most popular coastal towns.
  • Scheduled for April 30, 2025, the event will be inaugurated by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee and is expected to attract a massive turnout, including political dignitaries, industrialists, film personalities, and thousands of devotees.

 

Key Highlights

Event Details

  • Occasion: Inauguration of Jagannath Dham Temple
  • Date: April 30, 2025
  • Location: Digha, Purba Medinipur district, West Bengal
  • Chief Guest: Mamata Banerjee, Chief Minister of West Bengal
  • Expected Attendance: 12,000–14,000 people

 

 

 VIP and Dignitary Participation

  • Participation of Chief Ministers from other states
  • Top political and administrative leaders
  • Leading industrialists and film celebrities

 

 Accommodation and Hospitality

  • Government guesthouses in Digha reserved exclusively for VIPs from April 27 to May 1
  • General public barred from staying in government accommodations during this period
  • Private hotels and lodges experiencing high demand

 

Logistics & Infrastructure Preparedness

  • Two temporary helipads under construction in addition to the existing one
  • Emphasis on stage design, lighting, sound, and transport
  • Enhanced security, emergency medical teams, and traffic management plans in place

 

Administrative Coordination

  • Continuous oversight by senior IAS officers and state officials
  • Coordination by the Digha-Shankarpur Development Corporation for accommodation logistics

 

Cultural and Strategic Significance

  • This event underscores West Bengal’s emphasis on cultural heritage and religious tourism, with the Jagannath Dham in Digha poised to become a major spiritual destination.
  • It also reflects the state’s intent to position Digha as a hub for pilgrimage and leisure tourism, contributing to local economy and infrastructure development.

Which of the following statements about the newly inaugurated Jagannath Dham Temple in West Bengal are correct?

  1. It is located in the coastal town of Digha.
  2. The inauguration is scheduled for April 30, 2025.
  3. Prime Minister of India is the chief guest at the inauguration ceremony.
  4. Government guesthouses in Digha have been reserved exclusively for general public during the event.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • The temple is located in Digha and the inauguration is on April 30, 2025.
  • The Chief Minister of West Bengal, not the Prime Minister, is the chief guest. Government guesthouses are reserved for dignitaries, not the general public.

Telangana Becomes First State to Implement SC Sub-Categorisation

Syllabus:Polity

  • On April 14, 2025—coinciding with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s birth anniversary—the Government of Telangana issued a historic Government Order (GO) to implement the Telangana Scheduled Castes (Rationalization of Reservations) Act, 2025, making it the first state in India to operationalize sub-categorisation among Scheduled Castes (SCs).
  • This move aims to equitably redistribute the existing 15% SC reservation by dividing 59 SC sub-castes into three groups based on relative backwardness, ensuring targeted affirmative action.

 

Key Legislative and Legal Timeline

  • Act Passed by Assembly: March 18, 2025
  • Governor’s Assent: April 8, 2025
  • GO Issued: April 14, 2025 (Ambedkar Jayanti)
  • SC Judgment Enabling Sub-Categorisation: August 1, 2024
  • Commission Appointed: October 2024
  • Commission Head: Justice Shamim Akhtar (Retd.)

 

Basis for Grouping

  • Population size
  • Literacy and education access
  • Employment rates
  • Financial assistance received
  • Political participation
  • Representations: Over 8,600 received by the commission

 

Government Justifications

Health Minister Damodar Raja Narasimha:

  • “Not a final solution, but a corrective tool for equitable upliftment. Education, skill training, and financial aid are key.”

Civil Supplies Minister N. Uttam Kumar Reddy:

  • “No dilution of existing benefits. No creamy layer within SCs. Reservation may rise post-2026 Census (SC population: 17.5%).”

Judicial and Commission Backing

  • SC Judgment (Aug 2024): Legally permitted sub-categorisation within SCs
  • Justice Shamim Akhtar Commission: Conducted wide consultations and data-driven analysis

 

Historical Committees Referenced:

  • Lokur Committee (1965)
  • Justice Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996)
  • Usha Mehra Commission (2007)

 

Political and Social Reactions

  • CPI MLA K. Sambasiva Reddy: Criticized the Rella community’s classification into Group 3
  • AIMIM MLA Majid Hussain: Suggested increasing SC reservation to 18% and creating 4 sub-categories
  • Govt Stand: 3-group system strikes balance—2 groups would underrepresent the most backward; 4 would complicate policy

Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court judgment dated August 1, 2024, regarding SC sub-categorisation:

  1. It declared sub-categorisation within SCs unconstitutional.
  2. It laid the legal foundation for Telangana’s move to classify SCs into three groups.
  3. It emphasized that sub-categorisation cannot be implemented without Parliament’s approval.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: B
Explanation:

  • The SC upheld the validity of sub-categorisation within SCs by states under Article 15(4) and 16(4), enabling Telangana’s Act.
  • The Supreme Court, in its August 1, 2024 judgment, did not declare sub-categorisation unconstitutional.
  • In fact, it upheld the validity of sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes by individual states under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), provided it is done rationally and based on empirical data.

Siachen Day: Honouring the Bravehearts of the World’s Highest Battlefield

Syllabus:Geography

  • Every year, on April 13, Siachen Day is observed to honor the courage, determination, and sacrifices of the Indian soldiers stationed at the Siachen Glacier, the highest and most challenging battlefield on earth.
  • The day commemorates the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984, when the Indian Army successfully secured the glacier to thwart Pakistan’s efforts to capture strategic positions.
  • This operation not only solidified India’s control over the Siachen region but also demonstrated remarkable cooperation between the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force (IAF).
  • As the 41st anniversary of this monumental mission is observed in 2025, the valor and sacrifices of the Siachen Warriors continue to inspire and motivate generations of Indians.

 

Key Highlights

  • Observed annually on April 13
  • Commemorates the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984
  • Pays tribute to the soldiers deployed at the Siachen Glacier

 

 


Significance of the Day

  • Marks India’s occupation of key passes—Bilafond La and Sia La
  • Demonstrates India’s strategic control over the Siachen Glacier
  • Highlights the unyielding resolve of soldiers in extreme conditions
  • Background of Operation Meghdoot
  • Initiated to counter Pakistan’s cartographic aggression and its plans to capture strategic passes in the region
  • Based on intelligence inputs that suggested Pakistan’s plan to seize the passes
  • The Indian Army launched a pre-emptive strike on April 13, 1984

 

Key Leaders of the Operation

  • Lieutenant General Manohar Lal Chibber
  • Lieutenant General P.N. Hoon
  • Major General Shiv Sharma

 

Role of the Indian Air Force (IAF)

  • The IAF began operations in the Siachen region as early as 1978
  • The Chetak helicopter was the first to land on the glacier in October 1978
  • The IAF played a pivotal role in airlifting troops, supplies, and logistics
  • Aircrafts used: An-12, An-32, IL-76, Mi-8, Mi-17, Chetak, Cheetah

 

Geopolitical Importance of Siachen

  • Located at an altitude of 20,000 feet in the Karakoram Range
  • Controls the Shaksgam Valley to the north, and key routes from Gilgit Baltistan to Leh (west)
  • Also guards the Ancient Karakoram Pass (east)
  • Borders Gilgit Baltistan, Shaksgam, and Ladakh
  • Strategic Outcome of Operation Meghdoot
  • India gained full control over the entire Siachen Glacier
  • Prevented Pakistani intrusion in the uncharted territory beyond NJ9842
  • Established a permanent Indian presence on the Frozen Frontier

 

Cultural & Emotional Resonance:

  • The Indian Army continues to guard the glacier under extreme conditions, including sub-zero temperatures, avalanche risks, and isolated living conditions.
  • Siachen Day stands as a reminder of the unparalleled bravery and commitment of Indian soldiers who defend the nation’s strategic interests in one of the harshest terrains on the planet.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Siachen Day and Operation Meghdoot?

  1. Siachen Day is observed annually on April 13 to commemorate the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984.
  2. The operation was initiated by India in response to Pakistan’s plans to capture the Shaksgam Valley and key passes.
  3. The Indian Air Force played a critical role in airlifting troops and supplies during Operation Meghdoot, with the Chetak helicopter being the first to land on the Siachen Glacier in 1978.
  4. Operation Meghdoot resulted in India gaining control over the Siachen Glacier and preventing Pakistani intrusion in the uncharted region beyond NJ9842.]

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct as Siachen Day is indeed observed on April 13 annually to honor the launch of Operation Meghdoot in 1984.
  • Statement 2 is also correct. The operation was initiated to counter Pakistan’s strategic plans to capture key passes in the region, including the Shaksgam Valley.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The Indian Air Force had already started operations in the Siachen region in 1978, with the Chetak helicopter being the first to land on the glacier in that year.
  • Statement 4 is correct as the operation resulted in India establishing control over the entire Siachen Glacier and effectively blocking Pakistan’s access to the uncharted territory beyond NJ9842.

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